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					                                    SAMPLING

1.   Choose the correct statement :-
     (a)   If the stockpile is greater than 4000m3 then one sample must be taken for every
           1000m3.
     (b)   If the stockpile is greater than 4000m3 then two samples must be taken for
           every 1000m3.
     (c)   If the stockpile is greater than 4000m3 then one sample must be taken for every
           2000m3.
     (d)   It does not matter

2.   The sample size depends on :-
     (a)   The proposed use of the material and the tests which have to be carried out on
           it.
     (b)   The laboratory manager’s decision.
     (c)   The stabilisation to be done.
     (d)   None of the above statements are true.

3.   What is the minimum number of samples that must be taken from a stockpile?
     (a)    4
     (b)    5
     (c)    7

4.   How do you obtain a representative sample from a secondary sample, most of which
     is fine material?
     (a)     coning and quartering
     (b)     riffling
     (c)     scooping

5.   Appropriate sampling begins with a specification
     (a)   True
     (b)   False

                   LABORATORY SAFETY AND EQUIPMENT

6.   Choose the correct statement :-
     (a)   The most important steps to safety are cleanliness and tidiness.
     (b)   The most important steps to safety are few workers and few equipment
     (c)   The most important steps to safety are cleanliness and adequate ventilation.

7.   Which is the incorrect statement :-
     (a)   Round bottom glass vessels should always stand in ring supports.
     (b)   Damaged glassware should not be used.
     (c)   Damaged glassware should be issued to other people.

                                          -1-
8.    Dry chemicals is one of the safest ways of putting out an electrical fire (a) True
      (b)    False

9.    Liquid filled glass containers may be kept :-
      (a)    in the path of direct sunlight
      (b)    out of the path of direct sunlight
      (c)    it does not matter

10.   Choose the incorrect statement :-
      (a)   Gas bottles should be stored in an upright position
      (b)   Smoking may be permitted in a gas storage room
      (c)   If a gas cylinder catches fire you should extinguish the flames, close the valve and
            cool the cylinders with water.

11.   Choose the correct statement :-
      (a)   When handling hot samples or apparatus rubber gloves must be worn
      (b)   Oven shelves can be overloaded
      (c)   Petrol must be used to clean ovens
      (d)   Protective clothing and gear must be worn when handling hot samples or
            apparatus.

12.   An open flame would be dangerous if it is close to :-
      (a)   Glass
      (b)   Electricity
      (c)   Toluene

13.   If a part of the laboratory is allocated for cleaning apparatus :-
      (a)      It prevents disorder
      (b)      It prevents hindrance to staff
      (c)      It ensures that all dirty equipment is cleaned at that spot
      (d)      Answers a, b and c are correct
      (e)      Not all the answers are correct

                                     SIEVE ANALYSIS

14.   Aggregate retained on the 19.00mm sieve is subdivided by the method of coning and
      quartering.
      (a)     True
      (b)     False

15.   Prior to riffling, the sample is sieved through a 450mm diameter screen with a mesh size
      of :-
      (a)     26.5 mm
      (b)     19.0 mm
      (c)     13.2 mm
      (d)     4.75 mm
                                                -2-
16.   After being covered with distilled water, the sample is boiled vigorously for about :-
      (a)    1 minute
      (b)    3 minutes
      (c)    5 minutes
      (d)    10 minutes

17.   After sieving, the material retained on each sieve is weighed accurately to the nearest :-
      (a)     10 grams
      (b)     5 grams
      (c)     1 gram

18.   The fines that are washed through the 0.425 mm sieve is boiled down to a slurry.
      (a)    True
      (b)    False

                                     SOIL INDICIES

19.   What mass of soil fines is used to do the Liquid Limit Test?
      (a)   45 grams
      (b)   48 grams
      (c)   55 grams

20.   The sample is mixed with a spatula for :-
      (a)   10 minutes
      (b)   15 minutes
      (c)   20 minutes

21.   The Liquid Limit Device is operated at a speed of :-
      (a)    5 taps per second
      (b)    4 taps per second
      (c)    2 taps per second

22.   The moist material left over after the Liquid Limit Test is :-
      (a)   Thrown away
      (b)   Set aside for the plastic limit

23.   In the determination of the Plastic Limit, the crumbling should occur when the thread has
      a diameter slightly greater than :-
      (a)     2 mm
      (b)     3 mm
      (c)     5 mm




                                             -3-
24.   The Liquid Limit Device must be calibrated for the bowl to have a fall of :-
      (a)    5 mm
      (b)    10 mm
      (c)    15 mm

                           CALIFORNIA BEARING RATIO

25.   The CBR of soils is determined by the preparation of three moulded specimens. At
      which of the following compactive efforts are the specimens moulded :-
      (a)    100%, 90%, 80%
      (b)    95%, 90%, 85%
      (c)    90%, 95%, 100%
      (d)    93%, 95%, 90%

26.   How many blows are required to compact the 100% moulded specimen?
      (a)  35
      (b)  50
      (c)  55
      (d)  75

27.   The natural CBR compacted moulds are left to soak for :-
      (a)    7 days
      (b)    6 days
      (c)    4 days

28.   During penetration, the load is applied at a uniform rate of :-
      (a)    1.57 mm per minute
      (b)    1.27 mm per minute
      (c)    1.17 mm per minute

29.   The material is allowed to drain for 25 minutes :-
      (a)   True
      (b)   False
                            MAXIMUM DRY DENSITIES

30.   Through which sieve is the material passed when the maximum dry density is determined
      :-
      (a)   25,5 mm
      (b)   19,0 mm
      (c)   13,2 mm




                                             -4-
31.   When compacting the moist material in a mould for the determination of the maximum
      dry density and optimum moisture content, how many layers are required :-
      (a)    3 Layers
      (b)    4 Layers
      (c)    5 Layers

32.   Choose the correct statement :-
      Optimum moisture content is :-
      (a)   Moisture at which the material arrives from the field
      (b)   Moisture at which the highest field density is obtained
      (c)   Moisture at which the highest density is achieved, using a standard compactive
            effort.

33.   The tamper must have a drop of :-
      (a)    467.2 ± 2mm
      (b)    457.2 ± 2mm
      (c)    458.2 ± 2mm

34.   The mass of the tamper must be :-
      (a)   4,573 kg ± 20g
      (b)   4.536 kg ± 20g
      (c)   4.753 kg ± 20g

                          AGGREGATE CRUSHING VALUE

35.   At what temperature must the sample be kept in the shallow tray for at least four hours?
      (a)   100 to 1050C                  (b)    105 to 1100C
                       0
      (c)   110 to 115 C                  (d)    115 to 1200C

36.   Before being released, what must the magnitude of the load be when testing?
      (a)    300 Kn                        (b)   325 Kn
      (c)    375 Kn                        (d)   400 Kn

37.   After the sample is crushed, through which sieve must it be passed?
      (a)     0,425 mm                             (b)   2,0 mm
      (c)     2,36 mm                              (d)   4.75 mm

                                 SAND EQUIVALENT

38.   When carrying out the sand equivalent test, the cylinder with the sample inside is
      subjected to a horizontal shaking action for 30 seconds. How many cycles must be
      completed in this 30 second cycle?
      (a)    75                                   (b)    80
      (c)    85                                   (d)    90
                                           -5-
39.   Which is the correct formula for calculating the sand equivalent of a sample:-
(a)   S.E. =         Sand Reading - 100
                     ________________ x 100
                     Fines Reading

(b)   S.E.   =       Fines Reading - 200
                     ________________ x 100
                     Sand Reading

(c)   S.E.   =       Sand Reading - 200
                     ________________ x 100
                     Fines Reading

40.   Over what distance is the 90 shaking cycles covered in the test?
      (a)   250 mm ± 25 mm
      (b)   630 mm ± 14 mm
      (c)   640 mm ± 15 mm

                                 IN PLACE DENSITIES

41.   What quantity of the density calibrated sand is usually prepared for conducting the sand
      replacement test method.
      (a)    200 g + 1 000 g                                (b)     2 500 g
      (c)    2 000 g + 6 000 g                      (d)     10 000 g
      (e)    20 000 g + 15 000 g

42.   To what accuracy must the dry density of calibrated sand be calculated in the sand
      replacement method?
      (a)    0,5 kg/m3                          (b)     1 kg/m3
                    3
      (c)    5 kg/m                             (d)     10 kg/m3
      (e)    None of the above

43.   In preparing the sand sample, the sand should preferably be quartzitic.
      (a)    True                                  (b)    False
      (c)    It does not matter

44.   At what intervals must the leak test be done on nuclear gauges?
      (a)   1 month                                 (b)    3 months
      (c)   6 months                                (d)    12 months
      (e)   24 months

45.   It is essential that field moisture checks are done to verify the accuracy of the nuclear
      system prior to any testing.
      (a)      True                                  (b)     False


                                             -6-
                        DYNAMIC CONE PENETROMETER

46.   What is the mass of the hammer?
      (a)    2,47 kg                               (b)     4,57 kg
      (c)    6,0 kg                         (d)    6,47 kg
      (e)    8,0 kg

47.   What is the angle of the tip of the cone on the DCP apparatus?
      (a)    150                                     (b)   22.50
      (c)    300                                     (d)   37.50
                0
      (e)    45                                      (f)   600

                                 FINENESS MODULUS

48.   The fineness modulus is :-
      (a)    The sum of the cumulative percentages retained divided by 100
      (b)    The sum of the cumulative percentages passing divided by 100
      (c)    The sum of the cumulative percentages passing multiplied by 100
      (d)    The sum of the cumulative percentages passing multiplied by 100
      (e)    None

49.   For a sample of coarse sand, the sieve analysis is determined using the following sieves
      0,150 mm, 0,075 mm:-
      (a)     True                          (b)     False
      (c)     All                           (d)     Neither
      (e)     It does not matter

                               AGGREGATE GRADING

50.   When washing the sample the portion passing the 0.075 mm seive is:-
      (a)   allowed to run to waste
      (b)   retained

51.   This test method describes the sieve analysis of a dried aggregate sample after it is
      washed through the :-
      (a)    0,300 mm sieve                      (b)     150 mm sieve
      (c)    0,075 mm sieve                      (d)     0,6 mm sieve

52.   To prevent overloading of a sieve when a large (big) sample is available , the material
      should be divided and sieved in more than one operation :-
      (a)    True                                 (b)     False




                                            -7-
                             AVERAGE LEAST DIMENSION

53.   The grading curve is plotted on :-
      (a)    ordinary graph sheet
      (b)    semi-log grading sheet

54.   The tentative method deals with a ..................... method of the ALD of aggregates from
      the grading and flakiness data.
      (a)     Statistical                                (b)      Computational

55.   It is possible to read off the ALD from the nomogram:-
      (a)      True                                 (b)  False

56.   The ALD results obtained with the computational method become more accurate as the
      aggregate becomes more single sized:-
      (a)    True                                (b)    False

57.   Besides using the grading, what else must be utilized when computing the ALD:-
      (a)    Grading Modulus                      (b)      Fineness Modulus
      (c)    Flakiness Index                      (d)      Aggregate Crushing Value

58.   The ALD is the overall average of the least dimension for a number of particles :-
      (a)   True                                   (b)    False

59.   The sample must be a size to yield at least [.....] particles :-
      (a)   100                                      (b)       150
      (c)   200
                                 FLAKINESS INDEX

60.   The Flakiness Index of a coarse aggregate is determined by gauging screened-out
      fractions :-
      (a)     True                             (b)     False

61.   Aggregate retained on the 75 mm and passing the 4,75 mm sieve is included in the test :-
      (a)   True                                 (b)     False

62.   The width of the slots is equal to the size of the sieve openings through which each of the
      fractions passes :-
      (a)     True                                     (b)      False

63.   When preparing a test sample, the approximate mass of the representative sample passing
      a 75 mm sieve is :-
      (a)   1 kg                                  (b)     2 kg
      (c)   3 kg                                  (d)     4 kg
      (e)   5 kg
                                            -8-
64.   The formula to calculate the Flakiness Index is
      the total mass of the aggregate passing the slots X 100
             mass of the test sample:-
      (a)     True                                  (b)     False


                             BULK RELATIVE DENSITIES

65.   The bulk density is calculated to the nearest 100 kg/m3 :-
      (a)    True                                    (b)   False

66.   The bulk density of an aggregate is the mass of material in either a compacted or
      uncompacted state in a given volume.
      (a)   True                                (b)   False

67.   The bulk relative density is defined as the ratio of the mass in air of given volume of
      material at a stated temperature to the mass in air of an equal volume of distilled water at
      the same temperature :-
      (a)    True                                     (b)     False

68.   The dry bulk relative density is calculated as :-
      mass of saturated surface dry sample
      mass of the saturated sample in water
      (a)    True                                    (b)     False


                                     CORE DRILLING

69.   A test to determine the compressive strength of concrete may be done from a concrete
      core :-
      (a)     True                                 (b)   False

70.   What test can be done from an asphalt core?
      (a)    Liquid Limit                 (b)     Bulk Density
      (c)    DBR

71.   When should an asphalt sample be cored :-
      (a)   When the asphalt is just laid
      (b)   Preferably 24 hours later
      (c)   After 7 days

72.   Which two diameters of the core barrel are used :-
      (a)    50 mm                        (b)     80 mm
      (c)    100 mm                               (d)    120 mm
      (e)    140 mm                               (f)    150 mm
      NB : (Select two answers)
73.   While cutting an asphalt core, water should be used as a precaution so as not to damage
      the diamond tipped blade :-
      (a)    True                                  (b)     False

74.   The diamond tipped blade is also used to cut a concrete core :-
      (a)    True                                  (b)    False
                                           -9-
                                TOTAL : 75 MARKS
                MEMORANDUM




1.    a   2.     a       3.    a   4.    b

5.    a   6.     a       7.    c   8.    a

9.    b   10.    b       11.   d   12.   c

13.   d   14.    a       15.   b   16.   a

17.   c   18.    a       19.   b   20.   a

21.   c   22.    b       23.   b   24.   b

25.   c   26.    c       27.   c   28.   b

29.   b   30.    b       31.   c   32.   c

33.   b   34.    b       35.   b   36.   d

37.   c   38.    d       39.   b   40.   a

41.   c   42.    b       43.   a   44.   c

45.   a   46.    e       47.   f   48.   a

49.   b   50.    a       51.   c   52.   a

53.   b   54.    b       55.   a   56.   b

57.   c   58.    a       59.   c   60.   a

61.   b   62.    b       63.   e   64.   a

65.   b   66.    a       67.   a   68.   b

69.   a   70.    b       71.   b   72.   C
                                         &f
73.   a   74.    a

				
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