Networking Questions by smbutt

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									1) The maximum number of nodes per segment depends on the_______.?

b) Desired throughput

c) Regeneration ability

a) Bandwidth d) (your answer) Attenuation - correct answer a) One b)

2) Information can be transmitted via one of_______siganlling method(s).

(your answer) Two - correct answer

c) Four

d) Five a) (your answer) 10Base5 - correct answer

3) IEEE designates Thicknet as_______Ethernet.

b) 10BaseT

c) 10Base10

d) 10Base2 a) Spans b) (your

4) Vertical connectors between floors are known as_______.

answer) Riser - correct answer

c) Lift

5) ________ensure(s) that data are transferred whole, in sequence, and without error from one node on the network to another. a) Data Packets b) Addressing c) (your

answer) Protocol - correct answer

d) File services a) 10 b) 50

6) The maximum segment lenght on a 10BaseT network is_______meters.

c) (your answer) 100 - correct answer

d) 1000 a) (your

7) The first networks transmitted data over thick, heavy coaxial cables.

answer) True - correct answer

b) False a) (your answer) 100BaseT4 - correct answer b)

8) Which cannot support full-duplexing?

10BaseT

c) 100BaseTX a) Wire b) Coaxial cable e) (your answer) None of the above - correct answer c) Radio

9) Which is not an exmple of transmission media?

waves

d) Fiber Optic

10) Mail services requires a significant commitment of technical support and administration and resources due to their_______. a) Instability b) Access ability c) Routing capability

d) (your answer) Heavy use - correct answer
11) WAN requires the same technology as LAN.

a) True

b) (your answer) False - correct

answer
12) Mail services can only run one kind of system.

a) True

b) (your answer) False - correct

answer
13) On modern networks, the transceiver are separate from the NICs.

a) (your answer) True

b) False - correct answer
14) You can mix 100BaseTX and 1000BaseT4 on a single network segment.

a) True

b)

False - correct answer
15) How many layers in the OSI model?

a) 5

b) (your answer) 7 - correct answer

c) 6

d) 8

e) 4 a) (your answer) Router - correct answer b) Hub

16) Which device act as a traffic cop?

c) Switch

d) Modem

17) Collision occurs when two devices on the same network segment attempt to simultaneously transmit. a) (your answer) True - correct answer b) False

18) Fiber Optic cable conducts electricity. 19) What is SMTP?

a) (your answer) True

b) False - correct answer b) Simple mail transport

protocol - correct answer

a) (your answer) Simple Mailer transport protocol c) Single Mail transport protocol a) Money

20) An organization that share devices, saves______.

b) Time

c) Space

d) (your answer) All of the above - correct answer
21) Peer-to-Peer network are not flexible.

a) True

b) False - correct answer a) (your answer) True -

22) Windows 98 does not qualify as a netowrk-operating system.

correct answer

b) False a) (your answer) remote d) host computer a) True b)

23) The computer you are controlling or working via a network.

computer - correct answer

b) local computer

c) standalone computer

24) You should always try to pull all networks services on a single server.

(your answer) False - correct answer
25) HTTP is the protocol use to view web pages.

a) (your answer) True - correct answer

b)

False
26) A network of computers and other devices that is confined to a relatively small space.

a) Global network b) Local area network d) Metropolitan network

c) (your answer) Peer-to-Peer network - correct answer

27) What layer of OSI does the encryption/decryption?

answer) Presentaion layer - correct answer
28) E-mail use communication protocol.

c) Application layer

a) Network layer b) (your d) Data Link layer b) HTTP c) ICMP

a) SMTP - correct answer

d) TCP/IP
29) What is the default port number for SMTP?

a) 21

b) 22

c) 28

d) (your

answer) 25 - correct answer
30) What is the default port number for FTP?

a) (your answer) 21 - correct answer

b) 25

c) 18

d) 20 a) 60 b)

31) What is the default port number for Web server such as IIS and Apache?

55

c) (your answer) 80 - correct answer

d) 70

e) 26

1 The Message type ‘HELLO’ in OSPF message means NoNo 2 FTP stands for _________ NoNo 3 How is it possible to use the USB to connect to the network without ha... NoNo 4 ____________ lists the shared resources on your network. NoNo 5 In some networks, a server computer is a server computer and nothing e... NoNo 6 Older networks often use another type of cable, called ________ NoNo 7 Shared drives , in windows terminology are called as _______________ NoNo 8 Shared folders cannot be set up with restrictions on how you may use t... NoNo 9 A network operating system, also

known as a NOS, is specially designed... NoNo 10 Network address is an unique identifier for a computer on a network. NoNo 11 Expand the term ICMP NoNo 12 The most common type of network cable looks something like telephone c... NoNo 13 Expand IGMP NoNo 14 The two types of transmission media are _________ and _______ NoNo 15 A multiaccess network is one that can have multiple routers on it, eac... NoNo 16 Network numbers are managed by ________ NoNo 17 Expand DHCP NoNo 18 Shared drives , in windows terminology are called as _______________ NoNo 19 _____ resources are things such as hard drives, printers, modems, and ... NoNo 20 Magnetic Media is an Example of _______ layer NoNo 21 Unacknowledged connectionless service consists of having the source ma... NoNo 22 A router that can handle multiple protocols is called a ________- rout... NoNo 23 The names LPT1 and PRN both refer to the first parallel port and are u... NoNo 24 Networking is an example for ______________- NoNo 25 Networks enable you to share information with other computers on the n... NoNo 26 Shared folders cannot be set up with restrictions on how you may use t... NoNo 27 ADCCP means Advanced Data Communication Control Procedure NoNo 28 An IP address can only be Public NoNo 29 Why is a Dedicated server called so? NoYes 30 The use of error-correcting codes is often referred to as forward erro... GeekInterview.com > Interview Questions > J2EE > Java

Go To First | Previous Question | Next Question Print Java | Question 5 of 928 What is synchronization and why is it important With respect to multithreading, synchronization is the capability to control the access ofmultiple threads to shared resources. Without synchronization, it is possible for onethread to modify a shared object while another thread is in the process of using orupdating that object's value. This often leads to significant errors. Detailed Score Report 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong Correct Q.1) Which response best descibes a definition of a network? Two or more computers connected together to share information and resources such as peripherals (your answer) B. Two or more computers connected to share information only Two or more computers connected to share resources such as peripheral C. devices only D. Two or more computers connected together to access the WWW Explanation A network comprises 2 or more interconnected computers that manage and share A.

resources. 25% answered this correctly. 75% answered wrong Incorrect Q.2) What is the correct term for a device attached to a network? A. Client B. Node (correct answer) C. Host D. Server (your answer) Explanation Clients, Servers, and Hosts are all examples of nodes on a network 63% answered this correctly. 37% answered wrong Incorrect Q.3) Which of the following devices requests information from a server on a network? A. Node B. Server C. Client (correct answer) D. Host (your answer) Explanation A client requests information from a server. 25% answered this correctly. 75% answered wrong Incorrect Q.4) What is another name for any device connected to a network (not Node)? A. Server B. Client (your answer) C. Node D. Host (correct answer) Correct 75% answered this correctly. 25% answered wrong

Q.5) Which of the following specifically provides services and resources for other computers on a network? A. Client B. Server (your answer) C. Host D. Node Correct 38% answered this correctly. 62% answered wrong

Q.6) A combination of hardware and software capabilities that need to be shared

between devices on a network are called? A. Protocols B. Suites C. Network Services (your answer) D. Transmission Media Correct 63% answered this correctly. 37% answered wrong

Q.7) What is another term for the rules in which nodes on a network communicate? A. Transmission Rules B. Algorithms C. Protocols (your answer) D. Network Services Correct 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong

Q.8) There are different ways in which a network can be connected. What is the term which best describes the physical means of connection on a network? A. Network Services B. Protocols C. Rules D. Transmission Media (your answer) Correct 75% answered this correctly. 25% answered wrong

Q.9) Coaxial Cable is an example of? A. Transmission Media (your answer) B. Protocol Suite C. Network Services D. Rules Engine Correct Q.10) TCP/IP is an example of? A. Network Services B. Rule C. Protocol Suite (your answer) D. Transmission Media 63% answered this correctly. 37% answered wrong

Correct

13% answered this correctly. 87% answered wrong

Q.11) In the mainframe network when the mainframe goes down this is called? A. Network Traffic B. Termination C. Reset D. Point of Failure (your answer) 25% answered this correctly. 75% answered wrong Incorrect Q.12) Which of the following network architectures involves distributed processing? A. Client/Server architecture (correct answer) B. Mainframe architecture (your answer) C. Peer to Peer architecture Explanation Distributed processing is when processing is carried out using different client computers or applications. Incorrect 13% answered this correctly. 87% answered wrong

Q.13) A computer server on a Client/Server network is known as the? A. Front-end B. Rear-end (your answer) C. Up-end D. Back-end (correct answer) 25% answered this correctly. 75% answered wrong Incorrect Q.14) Due to the fact that Client/Server architectures can be added to we can call this network type? A. Unscalable B. Scalable (correct answer) C. Expandable (your answer) D. Unexapandable Incorrect 13% answered this correctly. 87% answered wrong

Q.15) Which of the following relationships best describe the Client/Server network model? A. 2-tier (correct answer)

B. n-tier C. 3-tier (your answer) Incorrect 38% answered this correctly. 62% answered wrong

Q.16) Which of the following makes up the 1st tier in the Client/Server architecture? A. Client (correct answer) B. Server (your answer) Correct 38% answered this correctly. 62% answered wrong

Q.17) Which kind of server, when added to a 2-tier Client/Server network allows this type of archtecture to become 3-tier? A. Web Server B. Print Server C. Proxy Server D. Database Server (your answer) Correct 38% answered this correctly. 62% answered wrong

Q.18) Which option from the list below best describes the position of a web server in the client/server network? A. tier 1 B. tier 2 (your answer) C. tier 3 Incorrect 25% answered this correctly. 75% answered wrong

Q.19) In which type of client/server environment does a peer-to-peer network structure tend to be implemented? A. Large networks B. Medium Networks C. Small Networks (correct answer) D. Home Networks (your answer) Correct 38% answered this correctly. 62% answered wrong

Q.20) Which of the following operating systems does not have peer-to-peer networkig in mind? A. MS Server 1998 (your answer)

B. ArtiSoft Lantastic C. MS Windows ME D. Novell Netware Lite Incorrect 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong

Q.21) Which of the following is NOTa benefit of Peer-to-Per networking? A. Choice of Resources (your answer) B. Cost C. User Friendly D. High level of technical skill required to implement (correct answer) Incorrect 13% answered this correctly. 87% answered wrong

Q.22) Which of the folowing is an advantage of Peer-to-Peer networking? A. Cost (correct answer) B. Difficult to be controlled centrally C. Can compromise security D. All devices have equal status (your answer) Correct 25% answered this correctly. 75% answered wrong

Q.23) Peer-to-Peer network models create difficulties with File Management. True/False. A. True (your answer) B. False Correct 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong

Q.24) The peer-to-peer model is really only suitable for networks with 10 users or less. True/False. A. False B. True (your answer) Incorrect 13% answered this correctly. 87% answered wrong

Q.25) Collaborative neworks are also known as ? A. Web-based Networks (correct answer) B. Server-based Networks C. Enterprise Networks (your answer)

D. Peer-to-Peer Networks Incorrect 0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong

Q.26) Enterprise contain the best features of which two network models? A. Server-based and Web-based B. Collaborative-based and Server-Based (your answer) C. Client/Server and Web-based D. Peer-to-Peer and Server-based (correct answer) Incorrect 38% answered this correctly. 62% answered wrong

Q.27) In the server-based model the host on the networkis a client or a server - not both? True/False. A. True (correct answer) B. False (your answer) Correct 75% answered this correctly. 25% answered wrong

Q.28) Multiple Local Area Networks (LAN's) cannot be joined together to create Wide Area Networks (WAN's). True/False. A. True B. False (your answer) Detailed Score Report Incorrect

3% answered this correctly. 97% answered wrong

Q.1) Identify 3 ways of improving MAN/WAN performance. A. Improving speed of devices (missed) B. using better routing protocol and reducint network demand (your answer) including a network usage analysis for a new app software, using data C. compression (your answer) shifting usage to off-peak times, establishing priorities for some apps D. (missed) E. redesigning network to move data closer to users (your answer) Un0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Answered Q.2) What are the benefits to improve MAN/WAN ?

Possible correct answers:


Shows what circuits need to be increaed/ decreases in capacity, what new circuits need to be leased, and when additional switched circuits may be needed to meet protocol demands



Explanation Shows what circuits need to be increaed/ decreases in capacity, what new circuits need to be leased, and when additional switched circuits may be needed to meet protocol demands 0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Un-Answered Q.3) What do the best practice BN designs dependo on?

Possible correct answers:


cost, effective data rates, and need to convert protcols

Un0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Answered Q.4) What is the best BN architecture for most orginizations?

Possible correct answers:


Collapsed BN

0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Un-Answered Q.5) What is the recommended technology for BN architecture?

Possible correct answers:


gigabit ethernet

Un-

0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong

Answered Q.6) Name 3 ways of improving BN performance.

Possible correct answers:


1. convert all devices to use the same data-link layered network layer routing protocols, 2. upgrading to faster circuits and adding additional circuits on very busy BNs, 3. Move servers closer to the end users OR reduce broadcast traffic

Un-Answered Q.7) What is ATM

0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong

Possible correct answers:


A packet switched technology originally designed for use in WANS

Un0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Answered Q.8) What are the characteristics of ATM

Possible correct answers:


uses 53-byte fixed-length packets no error control of full-duplex 155 mbps or 622 Mbps point-to point circuits enables Oos Uses vertual circuits rather than permanently assigning addresses to devices

0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Un-Answered Q.9) Name some of the standards developed to ensure capability b/n different user agents & mail transfer agents. and the 3 used on the Int. vs other commonly used

Possible correct answers:


SMTP, POP, IMAP= INT X.400 & CMC = other commonly used standards

Un0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Answered Q.10) What layer allows the user to create and send email msgs? What are the client computers called in this process?

Possible correct answers:


application layer software package; user sgents

0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Un-Answered Q.11) Name the 3 fundamental application architectures. Define their purposes/ duties.

Possible correct answers:


1. hose based networks: server performs virtually all the work. 2. CLient-Based Networks: Client computer does most of the work. 3. Client-Server Networks: Work is share b/n servers and clients.

Un0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Answered Q.12) Who performs all presentation logic? Who handles all data storare and data access logic? Who performs application logic?

Possible correct answers:


Client, Server, Client and/or server

Correct

19% answered this correctly. 81% answered wrong

Q.13) Errors occur in bursts rather than 1 bit at a time. A. True (your answer) B. False Un0% answered this correctly. 100% answered wrong Answered Q.14) What are the primary sources of errors in networks?

Possible correct answers:


impulse noises (lightning), cross talk, echo, attenua

Your results on the Building Scalable Cisco Networks (BSCN) quiz
1. What will most likely occur when all frame relay interfaces belong to area 0 in a multi-area OSPF network? Incorrect. - External summary routes cannot be used.. The correct answer is Summary LSA's will be flooded throughout the area and all area 0 routers will recalculate their routing tables in response to a topology change in area 0. 2. The _____________ command is used to verify the status of an OSPF virtual link. Incorrect. - show ip ospf. The correct answer is show ip ospf virtual-links 3. An OSPF ABR connects _____________ . Incorrect. - OSPF and RIP networks.. The correct answer is Multiple OSPF areas. 4. What OSPF feature allows a single large area to be separated into smaller areas? Correct. - Hierarchical.. 5. You make an OSPF area into a subarea. All routers in the area exchange routing information. However, when you configure the ABR for stub, it no longer exchanges information with other routers in its area. What is most likely the problem? Correct. - Area 2 is a transit area for virtual links.. 6. What capability of OSPF allows it to support variable length subnet masking (VLSM) ? Correct. - OSPF carries subnet mask confirmation in link advertisements..

7. Router R1 uses a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and sits on the boundary of area 0 and area 1. Examine the following route configuration: OSPF 76 network 172.12.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 1 Network 172.12.96.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 Area 0 range 172.12.96.0 255.255.224.0 Area 1 range 172.12.32.0 255.255.224.0 8. Which of the following statements are true? Incorrect. - All networks within the range 172.16.64.0 to 172.12.95.0 will be summarized from area 0 into area 1.. The correct answer is An interface on this router with IP address 172.12.32.124 is in area 1.,All networks within the range of 172.12.32.0 to 172.12.63.0 will be summarized from area 1 into area 0.,Area 0 can act as a stub or transit area for routes including networks in the range of 172.12.96.0 with a mask of 255.255.224.0. 9. In addition to viewing a routing table, the ____________ command can be used to determine if a router is using the best path to forward packets on a specific network. Correct. - traceroute. 10. You are configuring redistribution to advertise EIGRP routes into OSPF on a boundary router. Examine the configuration below:
11. router ospf 7 12. redistribute EIGRP 300 metric 20 subnets

What is the function of the "20" paramters in the redistribute command? Incorrect. - It replaces an administrative distance of 20 on the newly learned routes.. The correct answer is It sets the network wieght to 20 for routes redistributed into OSPF. 13. You are configuring a static route on a router. You want to configure it so that if the interface associated with the route goes down, it will still remain in the routing table. Which IP route command paramter is needed? Correct. - Permanent. 14. You configure policy-based routing on interface Serial 0:
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. interface serial 0 ip policy route-map demo route-map demo permit 10 match ip address 1 set interface serial 2 serial 3 access-list 1 permit 10.3.3.2 0.0.0.0

Correct. - If the packet was sourced from 10.3.3.2 it will be routed out interface serial 2 and interface serial 3 in a load sharing fashion.. 21. You must interconnect networks that use different routing protocols-the first uses IGRP and the second uses OSPF. You connect the networks using redistribution at the boundary routers. If the routers were to receive route information for the same networks from IGRP and OSPF, from which protocols will they select the route envoy? Incorrect. - IGRP, because it a hybrid routing protocol.. The correct answer is IGRP, because it has a better administrative distance. 22. Which command must be entered if you want the route 10.1.1.0 to be advertised or redistributed? Incorrect. - ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.255 E 1. The correct answer is ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 interface E 1 23. The purpose of route summarization is to ______________. Correct. - Use hierarchical routing to allow one route update to represent many down stream networks.. 24. Which three of these statements are true concerning BGP? Incorrect. - A rich set of matrices called path factors enable BGP to support various routing policies.. The correct answer is Periodic keep-alives are sent to verify TCP connectivity,Reliability comes from using TCP port 179 for transport.,Topology awareness is kept current routing periodic updates. 25. Which of the following is a characteristic of variable length subnet masking (VLSM) ? Incorrect. - It is supported by all routing protocols because they carry the subnet mask within their routing table updates.. The correct answer is It allows a way of controlling the number of reliable hosts on the network by manipulating the mask in an attempt to efficiently allocate IP addresses. 26. By default, what happens to the next hop atttibute advertised by EBGP? Correct. - It is carried into IBGP.. 27. What is the purpose of the "default-information originate always" command? Incorrect. - It is required whenever you want to propagate a default route into a RIP autonomous system.. The correct answer is It is required whenever you want to propagate a default route into an OSPF autonomous system. 28. Which two statements about BGP communities are true? Incorrect. - The are restricted to one class A or B or C network.. The correct answer is They allow routers to filter incoming or outgoing updates.,The are

indicators used by routers to allow other routers to make decisions based upon these indicators. 29. What are two characteristics of an autonomous system? Incorrect. - It uses EGPs to route packets to other automous systems and IGPs to route packets within the autonomous system.. The correct answer is It is a set of routers under a single technical administration.,It uses EGPs to route packets to other automous systems and IGPs to route packets within the autonomous system. 30. Which two statements about routers running EBGP are true? Incorrect. - They are usually directly connected.. The correct answer is They are usually directly connected.,They need to be able to reach each other. 31. Which two statements about BGP are true? Incorrect. - BGP can advertise routers that it's cat use to reach other autonomous systems.. The correct answer is BGP-based routing allows policy decisions at the AS level to be enforced.,BGP allows an AS to send traffice to a neighboring AS, intending that the traffic take a different route than from the traffic originating in the neighboring AS. 32. Which two statements are true about a router running BGP with all default settings? Incorrect. - It will always advertise a route learned by IBGP to an external neighbor once connectivity to the external neighbor has been established.. The correct answer is It will not use a route learned by IBGP unless that route is learned from IGP.,It will not advertise a route learned by IBGP to an external neighbor unless that route is learned from IGP. 33. Which two events take place when a full mesh BGP session is configured within an autonomous system? Incorrect. - This may result in using a significant amount of bandwidth on slow WAN links.. The correct answer is This may result in many BGP sessions being created.,This may result in using a significant amount of bandwidth on slow WAN links. 34. What term is given to an autonomous system connected via BGP to more than one ISP? Incorrect. - Multi-hop. The correct answer is Multi-homed 35. Which three IP protocols support variable length subnet masks(VLSM)? Incorrect. - IGRP. The correct answer is RIP v.2,OSPF,EIGRP 36. Which three elements are required for a router to forward a packet? Incorrect. - The best route.. The correct answer is The best route.,Destination address.,Summarized route entry.

37. In a routing table entry, which value indicates the best route to reach a destination network? Correct. - Metric. 38. What are two characteristics of link state routing? Incorrect. - It sends updates rather than complete routing tables when a network change occurs.. The correct answer is It determines paths by bandwidth-based value.,It sends updates rather than complete routing tables when a network change occurs. 39. Which two statements about variable length subnet masks are true? Incorrect. - VLSMs allow for more hierarchical levels within a testing plan.. The correct answer is They have a greater capability to use route summarization.,VLSMs allow for more hierarchical levels within a testing plan. 40. Given the following configurtation of Ethernet 0:
41. ip address 172.16.80.77 255.255.255.0 42. ip helper-address 172.16.90.255

Which two statements are true? Incorrect. - Host 172.16.90.255 is the backup router for 172.16.80.70.. The correct answer is BOOTP requests on the interface Ethernet 0 will be forwarded to network 172.16.90.0.,NetBIOS broadcasts from 172.16.80.0 will be sent as directed broadcasts to network 172.16.90.0. 43. Which two statements about VLSM are true? Incorrect. - It is specifically used in both the IP and IPX environments.. The correct answer is It supports hierarchical addressing.,It is specifically used in the IP environment. 44. In a multipoint WAN topology using EIGRP, which guideline is used for configuring bandwidth on a serial interface? Correct. - Configure bandwidth to be the product of a number of circuits multiplied by the CIR provisioned for each circuit in the topology.. 45. You are using routes with EIGRP route selection. What is a feasible distance? Incorrect. - The cost between the next hop router and the destination.. The correct answer is The cost between the local router and the destination. 46. When does EIGRP discover its neighbors? Incorrect. - When it receives a hello packet from its neighbor.. The correct answer is When it receives an acknowledgement of one of its transmitted hello packets. 47. Which EIGRP feature enables it to reduce the size of a routing table? Incorrect. - VLSM. The correct answer is Route summarization

48. When a route is stuck in inactive state, which EIGRP condition has occurred? Incorrect. - The route compilation process is taking longer than usual to complete.. The correct answer is A neighboring router has failed to respond to a qeury about the router within 3 minutes. 49. You are configuring EIGRP for NBMA operation. What is the purpose of the "ip bandwidth-percentage eigrp" command? Correct. - It adjusts the percentage of bandwidth EIGRP packets can use on an individual router interface.. 50. For the purposes of participating in an OSPF DR/BDR election, what is the default router priority? Correct. - 1. 51. When configuring serial 1 for OSPF in NBMA mode, what is the correct combination of commands? Correct. - interface serial 0 ip ospf network non-broadcast router ospf process-id network number wildcard-mask area number neighbor address. 52. Why is OSPF better than RIP v1 in a large network? (choose two) Incorrect. - OSPF has virtually no reachability limits.. The correct answer is OSPF has virtually no reachability limits.,OSPF selects the best path using a metric that is based on bandwidth. 53. What is mandatory to configure OSPF? Correct. - router ospf process-id network address wildcard-mask area id. 54. Which subnet mask should be used to support two host addresses on the WAN segments. Incorrect. - 255.255.255.0. The correct answer is 255.255.255.252 55. When a helper address has been configured on a router, which command is used to prevent TACACS UDP port 49 requests from being forwarded by the router? Correct. - no ip forward-protocol udp 49. 56. Which two addresses can be summarized by the address, 172.30.16.0/20? Incorrect. - 172.30.17.0/24. The correct answer is 172.30.17.0/24,172.30.31.0/24 57. In which 3 of the following instances should BGP be used? Incorrect. - When the flow of traffic entering and leaving an autonomous system must be manipulated.. The correct answer is When there are multiple connections to the Internet.,When the flow of traffic entering and leaving an autonomous

system must be manipulated.,When an autonomous system allows packets to transit through it to reach other autonomous systems. 58. In which 3 of the following situations should BGP not be used? Incorrect. - When there is a signle connection to the Internet.. The correct answer is When there is a signle connection to the Internet.,When there is alow bandwidth connection between autonomous systems.,When route selection to routers outside of the autonmous system is not a concern. 59. Given the following router A configuration:
60. router bgp 65050 61. network 10.1.0.0 62. neighbor 172.17.1.1 remote-as 65000

What are two effects of the above configuration on router A? Incorrect. - Line 3 identifies a peer router to router A.. The correct answer is Line 3 identifies a peer router to router A.,The 65050 in line 1 identifies the AS that router A is in. 63. BGP peers are also known as ____________ . Incorrect. - EBGP. The correct answer is Neighbors 64. An autonomous system is connected via BGP to more than one ISP. The ISP sends only default routes into the autonomous system. What path will nonBGP routers in the autonomous system use as the best path to any external address? Incorrect. - The path with the lowest weight.. The correct answer is The path leading to the router with the lowest BGP router ID. 65. An autonomous system is connected via BGP to more than one ISP. What results when the ISP's send only default routes to the autonomous system? Incorrect. - High memory but low CPU usage.. The correct answer is Low memory and low CPU usage. 66. What method of sending route information into the BGP routing protocol is not recommended? Incorrect. - Using the 'redistribute BGP' command.. The correct answer is Redistributing dynamic routes into BGP. 67. What should be used to prevent all RIP routing updates from being sent through selected interfaces without using access-lists? Incorrect. - Static routes.. The correct answer is Passive interface. 68. You have configured policy-based routing on a router running Cisco IOS release 11.2. By default, which switching mode will the router use to forward packets that match the established policy? Incorrect. - Packets will be routed, not switched.. The correct answer is Fast.

69. You are configuring redistribution to advertise RIP routes into EIGRP on a boundary router. You specify a speed metric with the default-metric command. What is the format of the metric being specified. Incorrect. - hop-count. The correct answer is bandwidth delay reliability load 70. Which statement about route filtering is true? Incorrect. - Only outbound routes can be filtered.. The correct answer is Routes to be filtered are selected using standard access lists. 71. You have configured redistribution between RIP and OSPF on your network and want to verify that redistribution is operating correctly. Which command can provide the information necessary to verify proper operation? Correct. - show ip route. 72. Route distribution is requred for two routing domains with dissimilar metric structure in order to have complete toplogy awareness. Which two statements about route distribution are true? Incorrect. - Routes from one domain are assigned a speed metric to indicate their reachability prior to being injected into the other domain.. The correct answer is In good network design, the routing domains only interconnect at the routers where distribution is configured.,Routes from one domain are assigned a speed metric to indicate their reachability prior to being injected into the other domain. 73. Which statement most accurately describes the difference between classful and classless routing protocols? Correct. - Classful routing protocols do not carry the subnet mask within routing updates. Classless routing protocols use the subnet mask for each network in their routing updates.. 74. A route map can be used to control and modify routing information. Which two of the following statements about route maps are true? Incorrect. - Route maps can use standard or extended access lists to define match conditions.. The correct answer is Route maps can be defined either by name or by number.,Once a match condition occurs and the corresponding set condition has been applied, execution of the route map is terminated. 75. On a router that can learn network topology using both RIP and IGRP, which routes will be placed in the routing table and why? Incorrect. - The IGRP route because they have a larger metric value.. The correct answer is The IGRP routes because they have a smaller administrative distance. 76. Which three of the following are characteristices of distance vector routing? Incorrect. - It sends updates to all routers in an area.. The correct answer is it is utilized by RIP and IGRP.,It is the simplest routing protocol to configure.,It sends period updates even when no network change has occurred.

77. Which field is missing from RIP v! routing updates for supporting variable lenght subnet masks? Correct. - Subnet mask. 78. What does the time value represent in a routing table entry? Incorrect. - The amount of time since a hello packet was received from a neighbor that advertised the route.. The correct answer is It is an incrementing counter that indicates how long the route has been in the table since the last update. 79. Given the following configuration for R3:
80. 81. 82. 83. 84. router ospf 110 network 192.168.32.0 0.0.0.255 area 2 network 192.168.33.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 area 2 stub no-summary area 2 default-cost 10

Which three of the following statements area true? Incorrect. - Area 2 is a totally stubby area.. The correct answer is Area 2 is a totally stubby area.,R3 adds 10 to the internal cost when it inputs the default route into the stub area. 85. Which command is used to verify the status of an OSPF virtual link? Incorrect. - show ip ospf database. The correct answer is show ip ospf virtual-link 86. OSPF routers can route when they are in which state? Incorrect. - Forwarding state. The correct answer is Full state 87. A multi-area OSPF network places which restriction on the use of an NBMA topology? Incorrect. - There are no restrictions of NBMA topologies.. The correct answer is All areas that incorporate NBMA topology must be full mesh but cannot be configured as stub areas. 88. Which entries are kept in EIGRP routing tables? Correct. - All learned routes.. 89. How does an EIGRP route determine when a neighbor is unavailable? Incorrect. - When the round trip time exceeds 500 milliseconds.. The correct answer is When the hold time is exceeded. 90. Which routing protocols support multiple link network routed protocols? Incorrect. - RIP v2. The correct answer is OSPF,EIGRP,RIP v2 91. How can route summarization be performed on an EIGRP network? Incorrect. - Only at autonomous system boundary routers.. The correct answer is Manually at any interface within the network.

92. You want to configure EIGRP for IP. Which command enables EIGRP and defines the autonomous system? Incorrect. - router ip eigrp autonomous-system-number. The correct answer is router eigrp autonomous-system-number You answered 19 out of 73 questions correctly, which gives a score of 26.03%


								
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