CRCT_Review_Questions--8th_SS by cuiliqing


									CRCT Review Questions
***Some of these refer to a chart/map/cartoon which may not have copied…..

1. Which statement BEST describes Georgia’s relative
A. Georgia is a northeastern state.
B. Georgia is located north of Florida.
C. Georgia is located in the southwestern United States.
D. Georgia is located between 30and 35N latitude and between 80and 85W longitude.
2. How many states border Georgia?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
3. What are the names of the states that border Georgia?
A. Mississippi, Florida, Alabama, Tennessee, and South Carolina
B. Alabama, Arkansas, Tennessee, South Carolina, and Florida
C. Alabama, South Carolina, Florida, Tennessee, and North Carolina
D. Alabama, Mississippi, South Carolina, Florida, and North Carolina
4. Which statement does NOT describe Georgia’s location?
A. Georgia is located in the South.
B. Georgia is located in the Southeast.
C. Georgia is located in the Peach Bowl.
D. Georgia is located in the Sun Belt.
5. Into which hemisphere does the prime meridian place Georgia?
A. eastern hemisphere
B. northern hemisphere
C. southern hemisphere
D. western hemisphere
6. On which continent is Georgia located?
A. Asia
B. Europe
C. North America
D. South America
7. From the information the globe, which statement BEST describes Georgia’s relative location?
A. Georgia is located in the southern hemisphere.
B. Georgia is located west of the prime meridian.
C. Georgia is located south of the equator.
D. Georgia is located near the equator.
To review Georgia’s location, read pages 5-8 in Georgia and the American Experience
(Clairmont Press, 2005).
Use the map below to answer Questions 5-7.
8. How many physiographic (geographic) regions does Georgia have?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
9. What is the smallest physiographic (geographic) area in Georgia?
A. Appalachian Plateau
B. Blue Ridge
C. Coastal Plain
D. Ridge and Valley
10. What area, located in the southwestern corner of the Coastal Plain, is known for the
production of peanuts, corn, and pecans?
A. Dougherty Plain
B. Inner Coastal Plain
C. Outer Coastal Plain
D. Vidalia Upland
11. In which region are Taylor Ridge and Pigeon Mountain found?
A. Appalachian Plateau
B. Blue Ridge
C. Piedmont Plateau
D. Ridge and Valley
12. In which region are Amicalola Falls and Tallulah Gorge located?
A. Appalachian Plateau
B. Blue Ridge
C. Piedmont Plateau
D. Ridge and Valley
13. In which region is Atlanta located?
A. Appalachian Plateau
B. Blue Ridge
C. Piedmont Plateau
D. Ridge and Valley
14. Through which physiographic (geographic) regions do the Appalachian Mountains run?
A. Coastal Plain, Blue Ridge, Ridge and Valley
B. Blue Ridge, Ridge and Valley, Appalachian Plateau
C. Ridge and Valley, Appalachian Plateau, Piedmont
D. Blue Ridge, Appalachian Plateau, Coastal Plain
15. Which statement BEST describes the physiographic (geographic) regions of Georgia?
A. Three of the regions have a combined land area smaller than that of the Piedmont Plateau.
B. The Coastal Plain is more than twice the size of the other four regions combined.
C. All the geographic regions contain good farmland.
D. The smallest area in land is the Blue Ridge region.
16. What is the largest physiographic (geographic) region in Georgia?
A. Appalachian Plateau
B. Coastal Plain
C. Piedmont Plateau
D. Ridge and Valley
17. In what area of Georgia is the Appalachian Plateau located?
A. southwest
B. southeast
C. northeast
D. northwest
18. Which of Georgia’s regions has been described as the smallest region, the only source of
coal, and the location of Lookout Mountain?
A. Appalachian Plateau
B. Blue Ridge
C. Piedmont
D. Ridge and Valley
19. Which characteristic does NOT define a region?
A. climate
B. education
C. landforms
D. population
20. In which region is the Okefenokee Swamp, the largest swamp in North America, located?
A. Blue Ridge
B. Coastal Plain
C. Piedmont Plateau
D. Ridge and Valley
21. What is the highest peak in Georgia?
A. Amicalola Falls
B. Brasstown Bald
C. Cloudland Canyon
D. Tallulah Gorge
22. Which statement does NOT describe a characteristic of the barrier islands?
A. They serve as a wilderness sanctuary.
B. They protect the beaches from erosion.
C. They are frequently a target of hurricanes.
D. They attract thousands of tourists each year.
23. Georgia ranks fourth in the nation in the number of wetlands found in the state. Which
statement does NOT describe a wetland?
A. A wetland contains sloughs, swamps, bogs, ponds, and freshwater marshes.
B. A wetland is a low-lying area where water lies close to the surface.
C. A wetland contains salt marshes and is found along the coast.
D. A wetland is located in an area with heavy annual rainfall.
24. What two regions are separated by the Fall Line?
A. Appalachian Plateau and Blue Ridge
B. Blue Ridge and Piedmont Plateau
C. Coastal Plain and Blue Ridge
D. Coastal Plain and Piedmont Plateau
25. How many principal river systems does Georgia have?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
26. What is the only river that flows into Georgia from another state?
A. Chattahoochee
B. Coosa
C. Ogeechee
D. Savannah
27. Which Georgia lake does NOT produce hydroelectric power?
A. Allatoona
B. Carter
C. Lanier
D. Oconee
28. Georgia’s manmade lakes do NOT
A. store natural ground water.
B. produce hydroelectric power.
C. provide recreational opportunities.
D. supply water to the cities.
29. Which statement LEAST explains why Georgia’s water resources have attracted business
and industry to the state?
A. Georgia has water resources that provide hydroelectric power.
B. Georgia has a large number of natural lakes.
C. Georgia has two major seaports on the Atlantic Ocean.
D. Georgia has abundant water-related recreational facilities.
30. In which Georgia city is the only canal of its kind in the southern United States found?
A. Albany
B. Athens
C. Atlanta
D. Augusta
31. Why does northern Georgia have little ground water?
A. Precipitation does not sink into the bedrock.
B. Northern Georgia gets very little rainfall each year.
C. Precipitation evaporates because of its climate.
D. The ground water runs into reservoirs.
32. Which state park is located in the barrier islands?
A. Chickamauga
B. Cumberland Island
C. Jekyll Island
D. Okefenokee Swamp
33. What is the only virgin forest within a city limit in the United States?
A. Appalachian Forest
B. Chattahoochee National Forest
C. Jefferson National Forest
D.Marshall Forest
34. What purpose do Georgia’s barrier islands MOSTLY serve?
A. farming irrigation
B. industrial development
C. recreational activities
D. research opportunities
35. In what county is the geographic center of Georgia located?
A. Talbot County
B. Telfair County
C. Towns County
D. Twiggs County
36. Which statement is NOT true of the way the Savannah River affected the founding and
settlement of Georgia?
A. The early settlers stayed near the Savannah River and the Atlantic Ocean.
B. The Savannah River was the location of Georgia’s first settlement.
C. The Spanish occupied all the land north of the Savannah River.
D. The settlers could travel up the Savannah River.
37. Which statement describes the Okefenokee Swamp?
A. It has the highest recorded level of precipitation in Georgia.
B. It has the potential to produce hydroelectric power.
C. It is the largest freshwater marsh in Georgia.
D. It is located in the Piedmont region.
QCC 4 Exploration Ocean and Wind Current
Explains how ocean and wind currents affected the exploration and settlement of Georgia
and the Southeast.
38. Which statement does NOT describe a reason for locating many of Georgia’s early
settlements on the Fall Line?
A. Waterfalls at the Fall Line provided a power source for water mills and developing
B. The area around the Fall Line, with its clear water and lush vegetation, was a picturesque
setting for a settlement.
C. The rivers and creeks cut deep channels in the softer soils through which they ran, creating
fertile land for farming.
D. Settlers were forced to stop at the waterfalls along the Fall Line because of the difficulty
of traveling over the steep, rushing water.
39. Which statement does NOT describe a reason why wind currents were important to early
A. Wind currents shortened or lengthened the explorers’ trips.
B. Wind currents influenced the direction the explorers could sail.
C. Wind currents determined whether the trip was smooth or rough.
D. Wind currents determined the climate where the explorers’ sailed.
40. Which statement describes how ocean currents played an important role in exploration
and colonization?
A. Ocean currents equalize the surface temperature of Earth.
B. Ocean currents are caused by uneven heating of Earth’s surface.
C. Ocean currents influence living conditions for plants and animals.
D. Ocean currents contribute to the movement of heat from the equator to the poles.
Name: Date:
Use the following map to answer Question 41.
41. According to the map, ships to the New World were pushed back home to Europe by the
A. Labrador Current.
B. Gulf Stream Current.
C. East Greenland Current.
D.North Equatorial Current.
42. Which statement does NOT describe Georgia’s climate?
A. Snow only falls in the Georgia mountains.
B. The state experiences four distinct seasons.
C. The overall climate is mild throughout the year.
D. Generally Georgia summers are hot and humid.
43. Georgia’s climate attracts business and industry because the state
A. seldom receives much snow.
B. has a consistently mild climate.
C. rarely experiences tornadoes.
D. does not have hurricanes.
44. One disadvantage of Georgia’s mild climate is
A. a long growing season.
B. four separate, distinct seasons.
C. low costs for heat and air conditioning.
D. minimum weather-related absences from work or school.
Use the graph below to answers Questions 45-47.
Figure 3 Tornadoes in Georgia (1884-1998)
45. According to the graph, in what month are tornadoes MOST LIKELY to occur in Georgia?
A. March
B. April
C. June
D. July
46. How many years of data are recorded in the graph?
A. 100 years
B. 108 years
C. 114 years
D. 120 years
47. What was the least number of tornadoes in any one month?
A. 0
B. 15
C. 24
D. 50
48. Which industry is MOST affected by Georgia’s climate?
A. agriculture
B. chemical
C. mining
D. transportation
49. Which result of droughts does NOT affect tourism?
A. forest fires
B. hot, humid weather
C. lower water levels
D. reduced crop production
50. Which city is MOST LIKELY to experience a direct hit of a hurricane?
A. Athens
B. Helen
C. Plains
D. Savannah
51. Weather over a long period of time is called
A. climate.
B. geography.
C. seasons.
D. topography.
52. Why is Georgia LESS LIKELY to feel the devastating impact of hurricanes than Florida or
the Carolinas?
A. Georgia has no large cities or industries on the coast that would be destroyed.
B. Large manmade sand dunes along the coast keep hurricanes from moving inland.
C. The continental shelf off Georgia’s coast helps move hurricanes northward.
D. Georgia has more sophisticated hurricane-tracking equipment than the other states.
To review information on Georgia’s climate, read pages 22-30 in Georgia and the
53. What was the oldest prehistoric Indian civilization found in Georgia?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
54. Of what material were MOST of the tools of the Paleo people made?
A. copper
B. flint
C. stone
D. wood
55. Which people were the FIRST to use the atlatl?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
56. Why have few Paleo artifacts been found in any one place?
A. Few people lived during that time.
B. People did not leave any artifacts.
C. Artifacts disappeared over time.
D. People moved frequently.
57. During which prehistoric period did large game become extinct?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
58. Why did the Archaic people move frequently?
A. to find secure shelter
B. to locate farmland
C. to trade with others
D. to find enough food
59. During which prehistoric period did horticulture begin?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
60. Which people were the FIRST to make and use pottery?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
61. Which early people grew tobacco to use in ceremonies?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
62. Which people were the FIRST to live in tribes?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
63. During which prehistoric period did the bow and arrow come into use?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
64. Who were the FIRST people to use burial mounds?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
65. Which prehistoric people were the FIRST to paint and tattoo their bodies?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
66. Which statement does NOT give a probable reason for the disappearance of the
Mississippian tribes?
A. They were killed by English settlers.
B. They moved away in search of food.
C. They died out because of tribal warfare.
D. They died because of disease or starvation.
67. Which statement BEST explains why there are so few Paleo sites in Georgia?
A. Remains from the “Old Stone Age” have been destroyed by natural forces.
B. The nomadic Paleo Indians did not leave many artifacts in one place.
C. Paleo sites were often looted by cultural groups that came after them.
D. Paleo Indians lived primarily in western states, not in Georgia.
68. Which factor resulted in prehistoric Indians making permanent settlements?
A. The Indians had abundant large game.
B. The Indians began to cultivate plants.
C. The Indians followed herds of large animals.
D. The Indians wanted to band together for protection.
69. Which statement explains why archaeologists think that prehistoric Indians believed in
some form of life after death?
A. Tribal centers had churches and other symbols of worship.
B. Pictographs and cave drawings depicted a spiritual afterlife.
C. Legends of an afterlife were passed down from generation to generation.
D. Burial mounds contained items such as tools, tobacco pipes, and weapons.
70. Which statement does NOT prove that the Mississippian people were an advanced
A. They used sophisticated farming methods.
B. They dressed fashionably.
C. They lived in villages.
D. They were nomadic.
Use the following map of mounds in Georgia to answer Questions 71-74.
71. According to the map, which section of the state has no mounds?
A. northwest
B. northeast
C. southwest
D. southeast
Name: Date:
72. What does the information on the map tell you about the moundbuilders?
A. The moundbuilders were mostly in western Georgia.
B. The moundbuilders mostly settled along the coast.
C. The moundbuilders built cone-shaped mounds.
D. The moundbuilders believed in an afterlife.
73. According to the map, how many counties have mounds?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
74. European nations did NOT explore the New World to search for
A. homes.
B. riches.
C. trade routes.
D. food.
75. Who was the FIRST explorer to enter present-day Georgia?
A. Ferdinand Magellan
B. Ponce de Leon
C. Hernando de Soto
D. Francisco Pizarro
76. The MAIN reason the Spanish explored North America was to
A. make permanent settlements.
B. find gold and riches.
C. spread Christianity.
D. fight the British.
77. The rivalry between the British and the French in the New World intensified over the
control of
A. Florida.
B. the Ohio Valley.
C. the Mississippi River.
D. the New England colonies.
78. Which explorer hoped to reach the Far East by sailing west from Europe?
A. Christopher Columbus
B. Vasco de Gama
C. Hernando de Soto
D. Amerigo Vespucci
79. The FIRST explorer to actually reach the Far East by sailing west was
A. Vasco de Gama.
B. Bartholomew Diaz.
C. Ferdinand Magellan.
D. Francisco Pizarro.
80. Who was the FIRST explorer to find the great wealth that many sought?
A. Christopher Columbus
B. Hernando Cortes
C. Vasco Nunez de Balboa
D.Hernando de Soto
81. When Columbus came to San Salvador, he believed he had landed on the coast of
A. America.
B. Egypt.
C. India.
D. Japan.
82. What was the “Northwest Passage” that the early European explorers sought?
A. an all-water route around the globe
B. a water route to the Far East
C. a land route to the Near East
D. a fast route to China
83. What event made European explorers think they could find an all-water route to the Far
A. rounding the southern tip of Africa at the Cape of Good Hope by Diaz
B. stories told by navigators from Mediterranean ports
C. landing of Columbus at San Salvador
D. the publication of Marco Polo’s Travels
84. What was the name of the FIRST British fort constructed in Georgia?
A. Fort Frederica
B. Fort King George
C. Fort St. Andrew
D. Fort St. Simons
Use the following map to answer Questions 85-88.
85. Which European explorer made the shortest voyage?
A. Cabot
B. Columbus
C. da Gama
86. Which European explorer made the longest voyage?
A. Cabot
B. Columbus
C. da Gama
87. Which continent did da Gama circle?
A. Africa
B. Asia
C. North America
D. South America
88. According to the map, what did Cabot, Columbus, da Gama, and Magellan have in
A. They all began their travels in Europe.
B. None of them became rich and famous.
C. They all experienced hardships on their travels.
D.None of them found an all-water route to the Far East.
89. Which area of Georgia was NOT part of the Guale Province when Spanish missions were
first established in Georgia?
A. Ossabaw
B. Savannah
C. St. Catherines
D. St. Marys
90. The Spanish established the Santa Catalina mission on
A. Cumberland Island.
B. Jekyll Island.
C. St. Catherines Island.
D. St. Simons Island.
91. The MAIN purpose of the Spanish missions in the barrier islands was to
A. provide protection for the area’s European settlers.
B. convert the Indians to Catholicism.
C. establish trade with Spain.
D. claim land for Spain.
92. Which statement does NOT describe a reason for the decline of the Spanish missions?
A. Once the Indians adopted Catholicism, the missions were no longer needed.
B. Some missions were raided by Indians who were allied with the British.
C. Some Indians resettled in areas that were not served by the missions.
D. Pirate raids along the coast destroyed many missions.
Use the following map to answers Questions 93-96.
93. Where did Hernando de Soto begin his travels?
A. near Atlanta, Georgia
B. near Memphis, Tennessee
C. near Tampa, Florida
D. near Vicksburg, Mississippi
94. Where did Hernando de Soto cross the Mississippi River for the first time?
A. near Little Rock, Arkansas
B. near Memphis, Tennessee
C. near Natchez, Mississippi
D. near Vicksburg, Mississippi
95. After Hernando de Soto’s death, where did his men go?
A. Alabama
B. Arkansas
C. Mississippi
D. Texas
96. What is the correct chronological order of the places de Soto visited on his travels?
1. De Soto entered the Mississippi near Memphis.
2. De Soto’s men went to Texas.
3. De Soto entered Florida.
4. De Soto died.
A. 3-1-4-2
B. 2-3-1-4
C. 4-3-1-2
D. 2-1-3-4
97. Why was de Soto’s expedition considered a failure?
A. De Soto died before the expedition was finished.
B. De Soto traveled in the wrong direction.
C. De Soto did not find any gold or riches.
D. De Soto’s men died of disease.
98. How did de Soto’s march through Georgia change the lives and culture of Native Americans?
A. The expedition encouraged others to settle on land that belonged to Native Americans.
B. The expedition was responsible for converting Native Americans to Catholicism.
C. The expedition set up new trading opportunities for Native Americans.
D. The expedition introduced Native Americans to new types of food.
99. The two largest Indian nations living in Georgia during the colonial period were the
A. Cherokee and Chickasaw.
B. Cherokee and Creek.
C. Mississippian and Creek.
D. Seminole and Cherokee.
100. Native Americans used plants as
A. clothing decorations.
B. cooking containers.
C. goods to trade.
D. medicine.
101. Which did the Cherokee believe watched over the world to keep it safe?
A. eagle
B. fire
C. moon
D. sun
102. Which tribe of Native Americans was NOT a member of the Creek Confederation?
A. Cherokee
B. Oconee
C. Yamacraw
D. Yamasee
103. The local Cherokee village was under the control of the
A. advisory council.
B. elder woman.
C. headman.
D. tribe’s chief.
104. Why were council houses built close to rivers or streams?
A. to make the council houses easy to defend from enemies
B. to make travel easy for all clans attending council meetings
C. to allow council members to purify themselves before meetings
D. to allow hosting clans to provide fish for food for council meetings
105. How did the Cherokee link bears to the law of retaliation?
A. Bear wrongs were not to be avenged.
B. Bear-men were spirits of Indian lawmen.
C. Bear claws represented the law of retaliation.
D. Bear-men had not avenged wrongs done to their people.
106. The Cherokee did NOT kill snakes because they
A. feared snakes would seek revenge.
B. knew other tribes protected snakes.
C. served as protection.
D. worshipped snakes

145. Which group of people was NOT among the earliest Georgia settlers?
A. English
B. Scots
C. Jews
D. French
146. The first Georgia settlements were located
A. on river bluffs.
B. at the Fall Line.
C. on sandy beaches.
D. at the forks of rivers.
147. What was the name of the nobleman from Scotland who, along with two partners,
wanted to create a colony to be called the “Margravate of Azilia”?
A. James Oglethorpe
B. George Whitefield
C. Robert Castell
D. Robert Montgomery
148. Georgia’s Charter of 1732 did NOT include a provision that
A. guaranteed every settler his day in court to settle differences.
B. gave the king of England control of the colony.
C. prohibited Catholics from becoming colonists.
D. banned liquor in the colony.
149. Georgia’s first settlement was made near the present city of
A. Athens.
B. Atlanta.
C. Macon.
D. Savannah.
150. The medical crisis in Georgia in the 1730s was NOT caused by
A. the presence of mosquitoes.
B. the lack of fresh vegetables.
C. hard physical labor.
D. poor sanitation.
151. Why did James Oglethorpe suggest forming a colony for the poor?
A. England wanted to get rid of debtors permanently.
B. Oglethorpe had a friend who died in a debtors’ prison.
C. The homeless would readily come to the New World.
D. The poor were mostly well-educated people who had fallen on hard times.
152. Georgia was NOT settled in order to provide
A. a defensive border against the French and Spanish.
B. more land and power for Great Britain.
C. a place to offer religious freedom.
D. a short route to the West Indies.
153. According to Georgia’s Charter of 1732, which group of people could become colonists?
A. blacks
B. lawyers
C. liquor dealers
154. During its first twenty years, the colony of Georgia
A. established a court system.
B. was an economic success.
C. provided a home for many debtors.
D. established the first public school in the nation.
155. Those who were selected to settle the colony of Georgia were required to
A. have served time in a debtors’ prison.
B. bring their own farm tools with them.
C. only sell their land to another Englishman.
D. use a portion of their land to grow mulberry trees.
156. Who surveyed and helped design the city of Savannah?
A. Noble Jones
B. Robert Montgomery
C. Samuel Nunes
D. James Oglethorpe
157. What Indians were led by Tomochichi?
A. Cherokee
B. Creek
C. Oconee
D. Yamacraw
158. Which statement does NOT describe a reason for locating many of Georgia’s early
settlements on the Fall Line?
A. The area around the Fall Line was a picturesque setting for a settlement.
B. Waterfalls at the Fall Line provided a power source for water mills and developing
C. The rivers and creeks cut deep channels in the softer soils through which they ran,
creating fertile land for farming.
D. Settlers were forced to stop at the waterfalls along the Fall Line because of the difficulty
of traveling over the steep, rushing water.
159. What items, which Great Britain had to import from France, Russia, and Spain, did
Oglethorpe promise to produce in Georgia?
A. white potatoes, yams, and corn
B. wheat, rice, and wine
C. tropical fruit and spices
D. cotton dyes and silk
160. What ship transported Oglethorpe and Georgia’s first colonists from England to North
A. the Ann
B. the Nina
C. the Mayflower
D. the Pinta
161. When did King George II grant Oglethorpe and his group a charter for the colony of
A. 1492
B. 1607
C. 1732
D. 1776
162. Where did James Oglethorpe and the first Georgia colonists land when they arrived in
A. Ossabaw Island on Ossabaw Sound
B. Fort Frederica near St. Simons Island
C. Yamacraw Bluff on the Savannah River
D. Fort Pulaski on the Savannah River
163. Oglethorpe’s plan for the establishment of Savannah could BEST be described as
A. haphazard.
B. circular.
C. neat and regular.
D. rectangular.
164. Which term BEST describes the kind of people Oglethorpe and his associates wanted to
bring to Georgia?
A. convicts
B. educated
C. former prisoners
D. poor, but worthy
165. Which statement does NOT provide a reason for British leaders wanting to establish a
new colony in Georgia?
A. Great Britain was overpopulated.
B. The British wanted to convert the Indians to Christianity.
C. Overseas colonies would enhance the British economy.
D. South Carolina colonists needed protection from the Spanish.
166. The basic pattern of Savannah was fashioned after a design by
A. William Bull.
B. Robert Castell.
C. Noble Jones.
D. James Oglethorpe.
167. The original plan for Savannah called for building how many squares?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
168. Savannah’s squares were divided into blocks called
A. lots.
B. squares.
C. tythings.
D. wards.
169. A settler in Savannah did NOT have to care for
A. a house in town.
B. a five-acre garden on the edge of town.
C. a forty-five-acre farm in the country.
D. the common areas in the town plaza.
170. Besides James Oglethorpe, what three men influenced the design of Savannah?
A. Thomas Bray, Robert Castell, and Noble Jones
B. Noble Jones, Samuel Nunes, and Robert Brozius
C. Noble Jones, Robert Castell, and William Bull
D. William Bull, Robert Brozius, and Thomas Bray
171. Who served as an interpreter for James Oglethorpe?
A. William Bull
B. Mary Musgrove
C. Samuel Nunes
D. Tomochichi
172. Tomochichi allowed James Oglethorpe to settle on a bluff overlooking which river?
A. Altamaha River
B. Flint River
C. Savannah River
D. St. Marys River
173. Which statement BEST describes the subject of the illustration?
A. The British took control over the Indians’ land.
B. The British and the Indians had a profitable first meeting.
C. The Indians showed distrust for the invading Englishmen.
D. The Indians welcomed the English with gifts.
174. The trustees gave the first settlers in Georgia the right to
A. vote.
B. collect taxes.
C. hold elections.
D. own land.
175. Which statement does NOT describe a restriction placed on Georgia’s trustees?
A. They could not expand west of the Savannah River.
B. They could not own land in Georgia.
C. They could not profit from their work.
D. They could not hold political office.
176. Germans from Salzburg came to Georgia to
A. obtain free land.
B. obtain religious freedom.
C. be freed from debtors’ prisons.
D. relieve the overcrowding in Germany.
177. Who was the leader of the Germans from Salzburg?
A. John Martin Bolzius
B. Lachlan McIntosh
C. James Oglethorpe
D. John Reynolds
178. Where did the Salzburgers first settle?
A. Albany
B. Darien
C. Ebenezer
D. Savannah
179. The Salzburgers moved from their original settlement because
A. they were attacked frequently by the Indians.
B. they had problems with the Spanish who lived nearby.
C. the land on which they settled was marshy and not very productive.
D. the area was plagued by harsh storms that caused extensive damage.
180. On which barrier island did the Salzburgers settle?
A. Cumberland Island
B. Jekyll Island
C. St. Catherines Island
D. St. Simons Island
181. What restriction was NOT placed on the Salzburger settlement at Frederica?
A. The settlers could not buy rum.
B. The settlers could not own slaves.
C. The settlers could not trade alcohol to the Indians.
D. The settlers could not travel outside their settlement.
182. The greatest threat to the Georgia colony came from
A. the Indians who lived in the area.
B. the area’s harsh climate.
C. the Spanish in Florida.
D. new diseases.
183. Where did the Highland Scots settle in Georgia?
A. Augusta
B. Darien
C. New Ebenezer
D. Savannah
184. What was the importance of the Battle of Bloody Marsh?
A. It ended the threat of war from Native Americans.
B. It demonstrated the strength of the British militia.
C. It resulted in Georgia’s gaining new lands on which to settle.
D. It was the beginning of a safe southern frontier for the British.
185. What group came to the aid of James Oglethorpe in the Battle of Bloody Marsh?
A. Catholics
B. Highland Scots
C. Salzburgers
D. Spaniards
186. Which was NOT an area of discontent in Georgia?
A. slavery
B. voting rights
C. the sale of rum
D. ownership of land
187. Why did James Oglethorpe welcome the War of Jenkins’s Ear?
A. It was a way to revive the slumping economy.
B. It gave him an excuse to invade Spanish Florida.
C. It would remove the Indian menace from Georgia.
D. It provided a means to showcase the strength of the British.
188. Which is a reason why the vision of the trustees for Georgia was never fulfilled?
A. Georgia was a political failure.
B. Too many debtors settled in Georgia.
C. The Indians and Spanish caused the settlers to live in fear.
D. Dissension caused many settlers to move from the colony.
189. With which trustee policy did the colonists disagree?
A. hard work
B. prohibition of slavery
C. military training
D. land allotments
190. What policy did the king make to ensure that the trustees did not take advantage of the
A. The trustees could not hold office.
B. The trustees could not serve more than one year.
C. The trustees broke off all ties with Great Britain.
D. The trustees donated their own money to provide food for the colonists.
191. What term was used to describe those who complained about the policies of the trustees?
A. dissidents
B. malcontents
C. objectors
D. rebels
192. The Highland Scots opposed
A. keeping close ties with Great Britain.
B. giving women the right to vote.
C. trading with the Spanish.
D. permitting slavery.
193. In 1752, Georgia became a
A. debtor colony.
B. proprietary colony.
C. royal colony.
D. self-governing colony.
194. Who was the first royal governor of Georgia?
A. Robert Castell
B. Robert Montgomery
C. James Oglethorpe
D. John Reynolds
195. Who controlled Georgia when it became a royal colony?
A. James Oglethorpe
B. a bicameral legislature
C. the king of Great Britain
D. the people
196. While John Reynolds was its royal governor, Georgia established
A. a unicameral legislature.
B. local governing bodies.
C. a court system.
D. land ownership rights.
197. What event did NOT occur during the period in which Georgia was a royal colony?
A. the French and Indian War
B. the Declaration of Independence
C. the Battle of Bloody Marsh
D. the Proclamation of 1763
198. What city served as Georgia’s capital during its period as a royal colony?
A. Atlanta
B. Augusta
C. Macon
D. Savannah
199. Governor Reynolds disbanded the legislature because
A. there was a disagreement over how to improve military defenses.
B. there was a conflict between the two houses in the legislature.
C. some members of the lawmaking body were elected illegally.
D. he believed the governor should have sole power.
200. Who was the second royal governor of Georgia?
A. Henry Ellis
B. Henry Musgrove
C. John Reynolds
D. James Wright
201. What change was NOT brought about during the term of Georgia’s second royal governor?
A. More merchants started businesses.
B. Newcomers brought slaves to Georgia.
C. The number of profitable farms increased.
D. The first newspaper in Georgia was published.
202. Who was governor of Georgia when palisades were built around Savannah, Sunbury
became Georgia’s main port of entry, and the term crackers was used to refer to
A. James Wright
B. John Reynolds
C. James Oglethorpe
D.Henry Ellis
203. During the time that Georgia was a royal colony, how many acres of land did a citizen
have to own in order to be elected to the Commons House of Assembly?
A. 100
B. 250
C. 500
D. 1,000
204. When Georgia was a royal colony, how were members of the upper house of the legislature,
the Governor’s Council, chosen?
A. They were elected by the voters.
B. They were appointed by the king.
C. They were appointed by the royal governor.
D. They were chosen by members of the lower house of the legislature.
205. In which area did Georgia settlers NOT show progress during the time it was a royal
A. land ownership
B. expansion of slavery
C. growth of self-government
D. closer political ties with Great Britain
206. Which statement BEST describes Georgia’s first government as a royal colony?
A. The government had a unicameral legislature representing Georgia’s eight counties.
B. The government had a bicameral legislature representing Georgia’s eight parishes.
C. The government included a House of Commons and a House of Assembly.
D. The government had an Advisory Council appointed by the king of England.
234. Which statement BEST describes the military preparedness of the French and the British
as the French and Indian War began?
A. The French forces had more experienced military leaders but lacked a strong army to
fight the British.
B. The British had the strongest navy and army but lacked Indian alliances to fight the
C. The French had the strongest navy and army but their settlers fought bitterly among
D. The French had a number of alliances with the Indians, but the British had a larger
number of troops.
235. Which statement BEST describes how Great Britain’s victory in the French and Indian
War contributed to problems between the colonists and the Indians?
A. After the British victory, the colonists resented the Indians, who had fought with the
French against the British in the war.
B. When the British gained French lands at the end of the war, the colonists moved into
these new territories, which were occupied by the Indians.
C. When the French and the Indians lost the war, the British and the colonists sought to
punish the Indians.
D. When the war ended, the Indians became allies with Spain and continued their hostilities
against the British and the British colonies.
236. Which statement BEST describes the effect of the French and Indian War on Georgia’s
growth and development?
A. Georgia gained new lands, new water access for shipping, ample farmland, and rich
forests with timber and naval stores.
B. Georgia gained many new settlers who were living in the lands that were added to
Georgia’s colonial boundaries.
C. Georgia took possession of several key French forests, which added to the defenses of
Georgia against the Spanish.
D. Once the French and the Indian tribes were defeated and no longer a threat to Georgia,
the colony prospered in a stable and peaceful environment.
237. During the French and Indian War, why did most of the Native American tribes side
with the French?
A. The Indians had become Catholic.
B. The Indians worked for the French as guides.
C. The Indians negotiated treaties with the French.
D. The Indians were trading partners with the French.
238. What two countries were involved in the negotiations that ended the French and Indian
A. Italy and France
B. France and Great Britain
C. Great Britain and Portugal
D. France and the United States
239. Which statement BEST describes Georgia’s gains from the French and Indian War?
A. Georgia gained lands to the south and east, water access for shipping, and timber
B. Georgia gained lands to the north and west, part of Florida, and waterways for travel.
C. Georgia gained land, naval stores and timber, farm acreage, and new settlers.
D. Georgia gained the Creek and Cherokee Indian lands and gold mines.
240. What law forbade colonists to move west of the Appalachian Mountains?
A. Emancipation Proclamation
B. Intolerable Acts
C. Missouri Compromise
D. Proclamation of 1763
241. Which does NOT describe an important use of the land that was given up by the Indians
under the terms of the Proclamation of 1763?
A. The land provided a buffer against the Spanish settlements.
B. The land contained forests with naval stores resources.
C. The land provided water access for future shipping.
D. The land provided rich soil for good farming.
242. The Proclamation of 1763 moved Georgia’s southern boundary to the
A. Altamaha River.
B. Flint River.
C. St. Marys River.
D. Suwannee River.
243. Which statement BEST describes how the French and Indian War led to America’s
Revolutionary War?
A. Great Britain gained control of Canada and tried to use Canada’s tax structure on the
thirteen colonies.
B. France lost the Louisiana Territory and the Southern Colonies argued with Great Britain
over claims to the newly acquired land.
C. To get revenge, France incited rebellion in the colonies and enticed Spain to move into
the territories of the British colonies.
D. To get money to repay war debts, Great Britain taxed the colonies on the premise that
the war had been necessary to protect the colonies from the French.
244. Which was NOT a cause of the American Revolution?
A. Stamp Act
B. Sugar Act
C. Taxation Act
D. Townshend Acts
245. Which British policy had the greatest affect on Georgia?
A. The British increased an existing tax on wine and imported goods.
B. The British required the colonies to ship their goods only on British ships.
C. The British passed the Stamp Act adding a tax on newspapers and licenses.
D. The British passed the Sugar Act to tax sugar and molasses from the West Indies.
246. Which event began with a snowball fight and ended with five deaths?
A. Battles of Lexington and Concord
B. Battle of Bunker Hill
C. Boston Massacre
D. Boston Tea Party
247. Which was NOT a provision of the Intolerable Acts?
A. The British closed the port of Boston until the colonists paid for the tea that was destroyed
in the Boston Tea Party.
B. The British required citizens in Boston to pay additional taxes to pay for damage during
the Boston Tea Party.
C. The British prohibited the Massachusetts colonists from having town meetings.
D. The British required citizens in all the colonies to house and feed British soldiers.
248. Which was NOT a reason for Georgia to stay loyal to England?
A. Many colonists still had family in Great Britain and did not want to put them in
B. Life under the Patriots might be harder than life under the control of the British.
C. The colonists in Georgia were not directly affected by the British laws.
D. The British king was still paying money to support the colonies.
249. What is the first of the three parts of the Declaration of Independence called?
A. Introduction
B. Objective
C. Preamble
D. Preface
250. How many grievances against King George III are listed in the Declaration of
A. 25
B. 27
C. 29
D. 33
251. Who was the primary author of the Declaration of Independence?
A. John Adams
B. Benjamin Franklin
C. Thomas Jefferson
D. Thomas Paine
252. What is included in the third part of the Declaration of Independence?
A. a declaration of independence
B. a declaration of war on Great Britain
C. a warning to King George to change his ways
D. a call for a meeting to establish a new government
253. Where did the first colonial victory in Georgia during the American Revolution occur?
A. Kettle Creek
B. Lexington
C. Savannah
D. Sunbury
254. Who was the commander of the Continental Army during the American Revolution?
A. Elijah Clarke
B. Nathanael Greene
C. Benjamin Lincoln
D. George Washington
255. Where did the final major battle of the American Revolution take place?
A. Camden
B. Concord
C. Lexington
D. Yorktown
256. Which statement does NOT describe an advantage of the colonists during the American
A. They were fighting for their freedom.
B. They were fighting in a concentrated area.
C. They were fighting for their homes.
D. They were fighting on familiar terrain.
257. What were the Townshend Acts of 1767?
A. British taxes on imported goods such as tea and glass.
B. British taxes on hotels and other lodging accommodations.
C. British taxes on newspapers, magazines, and official licenses.
D. British taxes on all goods not exported or imported on British vessels.
258. Which statement BEST explains why anti-British sentiment was less in Georgia than in
the other colonies during the Revolutionary period?
A. Georgia had more British settlers than the other colonies, and they were more loyal to
Great Britain.
B. Georgia was far younger as a colony than the other colonies, and it still needed much
support from Great Britain.
C. Georgia was not as successful as the other colonies, and it could not afford to raise funds
to fight the British.
D. Georgia had a much smaller population than the other colonies, and it did not have
enough men for an army to fight the British.
259. Which countries’ representatives signed the Treaty of Paris to end the American
A. Great Britain, Spain, and the United States
B. The United States and Great Britain
C. Great Britain, France, and the United States
D. Great Britain and the Thirteen Colonies
260. Which statement does NOT describe a way in which independence from Great Britain
affected Georgia’s ability to govern itself?
A. Georgia had to work cooperatively with other colonies, which were now independent.
B. Georgia would have to abide by the laws of a strong, new national government.
C. Georgia would no longer have financial support from Great Britain.
D. Georgia would be able to establish a new form of government.
261. What was a consequence of the Stamp Act?
A. Georgia’s only newspaper ceased being printed.
B. The colonists stopped all trade with the British.
C. British troops were housed in colonial homes.
D. The Boston Tea Party was held.
Use the map to answer Questions 262-264.
North America in 1763
262. What period in American history is represented by the map?
A. post-Revolutionary War
B. post-Civil War
C. post-French and Indian War
D. the Exploration Period
263. What natural feature did the Proclamation Line of 1763 follow?
A. Appalachian Mountains
B. Atlantic Ocean
C. Mississippi River
D. Ohio River
264. What country controlled the land west of the Mississippi River?
A. Great Britain
B. France
C. Spain
D. The United States
Use the two maps below to answer Questions 265-266.
265. The map on the left shows North America before 1763 while the one on the right shows
North America after 1763. What territorial change did NOT occur after 1763?
A. Russia claimed land in present-day Alaska.
B. Spain controlled the Louisiana Territory.
C. Great Britain got control of Spanish Florida.
D. France gave up disputed land in the Ohio Valley.
266. According to the information on the two maps, which statement best describes territorial
changes in North America after 1763?
A. The French continued to control Quebec.
B. Russia expanded its land claims south of present-day Alaska.
C. Spain controlled more land in North America.
D. Great Britain ceded land to Spain.
343. Which was NOT a characteristic of the North in the antebellum period?
A. mobile class structure
B. large number of cities
C. favored high tariffs
D. supported states’ rights
344. Which was NOT a characteristic of the South in the antebellum period?
A. mobile class structure
B. favored low tariffs
C. supported slavery
D. few formal educational institutions
345. In the southern social ladder, which group was immediately above the yeoman farmers?
A. planters
B. free blacks
C. farmers with slaves
D. merchants and people of “letters”
346. In the southern social ladder, which group represented the smallest number of people?
A. farmers with slaves
B. free blacks
C. planters
D. slaves
347. The largest group of white southerners were the
A. planters.
B. yeoman farmers.
C. farmers with slaves.
D. merchants and people of “letters.”
348. Which group did NOT include free blacks?
A. lawyers
B. farmers
C. day laborers
D. artisans
349. With which church was Bishop Richard Allen associated in the early 1800s?
A. Roman Catholic Church
B. First African Baptist Church
C. Church of the Latter Day Saints
D. African Methodist Episcopal Church
350. Which statement BEST describes a “land grant university,” such as the University of
A. The college was established as an agricultural college to improve farming.
B. The college was a public university with free tuition to state residents.
C. The land for the college was donated by the federal government.
D. The land could not be used for any purpose other than a college.
351. What was Georgia’s earliest college for women?
A. Franklin College
B. Georgia Female College (Wesleyan)
C. Georgia Women’s College
D. University of Georgia
352. Which was the LEAST well-established church in Georgia in the early 1800s?
A. Anglican
B. Catholic
C. Quaker
D. Baptist
353. The First African Baptist Church was established under the leadership of Andrew Bryan
A. Savannah.
B. Brunswick.
C. Augusta.
D. Albany.
354. What was the first building constructed at what is now the University of Georgia?
A. Allen Hall
B. Franklin College
C. The School of Commerce
D. Wesleyan Hall
355. What city became Georgia’s capital after Augusta?
A. Atlanta
B. Albany
C. Savannah
D. Louisville
356. Who gave the tract of land that became the University of Georgia?
A. Native Americans
B. Federal government
C. General Assembly
D. Colonial charter
357. By 1860, the two largest church denominations in Georgia were
A. Methodist and Baptist.
B. Baptist and Jewish.
C. Episcopal and Methodist.
D. Episcopal and Catholic.
358. Which church sent circuit riders to frontier settlements to provide monthly services?
A. Baptist
B. Catholic
C. Episcopal
359. Who established the first Methodist church in Georgia?
A. John and Charles Wesley
B. Bishop Richard Allen
C. George Whitefield
D. Samuel Nunes
360. All the records from the Yazoo land fraud were burned in public in Georgia’s capital
city of
A. Savannah.
B. Louisville.
C. Atlanta.
D. Athens.
361. The Methodist and Baptist churches split over permitting
A. divorce.
B. slavery.
C. communion for children.
D. ordained women ministers.
362. Why was Louisville chosen as Georgia’s capital in 1786?
A. Louisville was more centrally located.
B. Louisville was the state’s largest city.
C. Louisville was the most important center for trade.
D. Louisville played an important role in the American Revolution.
363. The city of Louisville was modeled after
A. Atlanta.
B. New York.
C. Philadelphia.
D.Washington, D.C.
Use the chart to answer Questions 364-366.
Year From Great Britain From Ireland From Germany From Asia
1820 2,400 3,600 970 0
1830 1,150 2,720 1,900 0
1840 2,600 39,430 29,700 1
364. According to the data, the largest increase in the number of immigrants was
A. from Asia between 1850 and 1860.
B. from Germany between 1830 and 1840.
C. from Ireland between 1840 and 1850.
D. from Great Britain between 1840 and 1850.
365. According to the data, which area sent the largest number of immigrants to the United
States from 1820 through 1860?
A. Asia
B. Ireland
C. Germany
D. Great Britain
366. According to the data, which is the largest increase in immigration?
A. from Ireland between 1830 and 1840
B. from Germany between 1840 and 1850
C. from Great Britain between 1840 and 1850
D. from Germany between 1830 and 1840
367. Which invention had the greatest effect on Georgia’s economy in the early 1800s?
A. railroad
B. telegraph
C. cotton gin
D. mechanical reaper
368. What LEAST affected industrialization during the period of western expansion?
A. loans for land purchases to increase commercial farming
B. abundant power and a supply of laborers for manufacturing
C. inventions such as the cotton gin, reaper, and cotton spinning wheels
D. the discovery of gold, which could be used as a source of funding or industrial
369. Which invention did NOT contribute directly to the industrialization of the United
States during the period of western expansion?
A. cotton gin
B. mechanical reaper
C. Franklin pot-bellied stove
D. water-powered spinning machine
370. According to the map, which city was BEST served by early railroads in Georgia?
A. Savannah
B. Macon
C. Augusta
D. Atlanta
371. Which area of the state was LEAST served by early railroads in Georgia?
A. northwest
B. Atlantic coast
C. northeast
D. central
372. Atlanta at one time was called Terminus because
A. a majority of the railroads went through the city.
B. no major railroad went through the city.
C. the longest railroad line ended there.
D. all the railroads ended there.
373. Who invented the cotton gin?
A. Cyrus McCormick
B. Eli Whitney
C. Elias Howe
D. John Deere
374. The cotton gin was used to
A. pick cotton.
B. plant cotton.
C. turn cotton fiber into thread.
D. separate the seeds from the cotton fiber.
375. Where was the first model of the cotton gin made?
A. Augusta
B. Macon
C. Savannah
D. Valdosta
376. Who invented the reaper?
A. Elias Howe
B. Cyrus McCormick
C. James Rumsey
D. Eli Whitney
377. How did the cotton gin and reaper affect Georgia farmers?
A. The inventions decreased the need for slaves.
B. The inventions gave farmers more leisure time.
C. The inventions increased the cost of farm products.
D. The inventions allowed farmers to work larger farms.
378. Which railroad became the primary railroad in Georgia in the 1830s?
A. Chesapeake and Ohio
C. Norfolk and Western
C. Baltimore and Ohio
D.Western and Atlantic
379. Before the railroad came to Georgia, which was NOT a method of transporting freight?
A. riverboat
B. steamboat
C. ferry
D. wagon train
380. What were roads that were built with logs in wet, swampy places called?
A. turnpikes
B. plank roads
C. highways
D. footpaths
381. How did Eli Whitney’s invention influence the growth of slavery in the South?
A. It made it easier for slaves to pick cotton.
B. It increased the profits from growing cotton.
C. It made it easier to produce cloth from cotton.
D. It replenished the soil so that more cotton could be grown.
382. What led to America’s becoming a “market economy”?
A. discovery of gold
B. growth of industrialization
C. expansion of transportation
D. development of commercial agriculture
383. Which was NOT a consequence of the depression that followed the Panic of 1837?
A. Because people had little money to buy goods, many businesses closed.
B. Because banks did not have enough cash to cover withdrawals, many banks failed.
C. Because the federal government rushed to print more money, the depression was shortlived.
D. Because many planters could not repay the bank loans on their land, they lost their
384. Which statement BEST explains the nation’s move to a market economy during the
period of western expansion?
A. The beginning of commercial agriculture produced cash crops.
B. The production of cash crops left little produce available for bartering.
C. The invention of the cotton gin allowed ten times more cotton production per day.
D. The opening of mills to spin cotton into yarn led the nation into an industrial period.
385. Which practice did NOT have the potential to hurt farmers in the new market economy?
A. Farmers borrowed money on their lands while waiting for crops to sell.
B. Farmers took risks on prices when deciding when to take crops to market.
C. Farmers borrowed heavily to buy more land to increase production for the marketplace.
D. Farmers used transportation facilities to move products to distant markets thus promoting
the expansion of railroads.
386. Which characteristic does NOT describe America’s movement into the industrial age?
A. the innovations in farming and inventions of manufacturing equipment
B. the investment of money to expand factories and production processes
C. the change from subsistence agriculture to commercial agriculture
D. the overextension of loans to farmers and factory owners
387. Which statement does NOT describe the North’s position on states’ rights?
A. States should obey the laws passed by Congress.
B. All political decisions should be made to benefit the entire country.
C. The interests of the national government should take precedence over the states.
D. Politicians from states like Maine or New York cannot relate to the needs of states like
Georgia or South Carolina.
388. Uncle Tom’s Cabin was written by
A. Harriet Beecher Stowe.
B. Angelina Grimke.
C. William Lloyd Garrison.
D. Frederick Douglass.
389. According to the provisions of the Missouri Compromise, what state was admitted as a
free state?
A. California
B. Kansas
C. Maine
390. What was the main importance of the Missouri Compromise?
A. It permitted slavery to expand into the upper midwestern United States.
B. It gave slaves states more representation than free states in Congress.
C. It ended border skirmishes between Missouri and Kansas.
D. It provided a temporary solution to the slavery question.
391. Sectionalism may BEST be defined as the
A. belief that one region is better or more important than another.
B. differences among states based on states’ rights.
C. allocation of resources based on need.
D. desire to divide two or more regions.
423. Which state was among the first seven states to leave the Union?
A. Virginia
B. North Carolina
C. Missouri
D. Georgia
424. Who was the president of the Confederate States of America?
A. Jefferson Davis
B. Robert E. Lee
C. Alexander Stephens
D. Robert Toombs
425. What was the importance of Fort Sumter?
A. It was strategically important to the South.
B. It was the last southern garrison under federal control.
C. It was the location of the first skirmish of the Civil War.
D. It was the largest southern garrison under federal control.
426. After the firing on Fort Sumter, which states seceded?
A. Arkansas, Tennessee, North Carolina, and Virginia
B. Tennessee, Alabama, Georgia, and Virginia
C. Tennessee, Kentucky, Virginia, and Arkansas
D. Kentucky, Virginia, North Carolina, and Texas
427. Which was NOT an advantage of the North as it prepared for war?
A. The North had a larger and better educated population.
B. The North was the location of the federal government.
C. The North had a better transportation system.
D. The North had more factories and industry.
428. Which was NOT an advantage of the South as it prepared for war?
A. The South had better military leaders.
B. The South had closer ties to foreign countries.
C. The South was fighting for a cause — independence.
D. The South was familiar with the land where most of the fighting would take place.
429. What contributed to the lack of success of the Union blockade?
A. The South had a superior navy.
B. Blockade runners slipped through the blockade.
C. Great Britain found other ways to trade with the South.
D. The Union did not have enough ships to enforce the blockade.
430. What Confederate states would be isolated if the Anaconda Plan succeeded?
A. Alabama, Louisiana, and Tennessee
B. Louisiana, Mississippi, and Tennessee
C. Mississippi, Texas, and Arkansas
D. Texas, Arkansas, and Louisiana
431. Who was the general who headed the Confederate forces?
A. Ulysses S. Grant
B. Robert E. Lee
C. George B. McClellan
D. William T. Sherman
432. What were the two major campaigns fought in Georgia during the Civil War?
A. Atlanta campaign and the Savannah campaign
B. Northern Georgia campaign and the Atlanta campaign
C. Chickamauga campaign and the Jonesboro campaign
D. Fort Pulaski campaign and the Chickamauga campaign
433. Which Union general led the “March to the Sea,” which devastated much of Georgia on
a path from Atlanta to Savannah?
A. William T. Sherman
B. John M. Schofield
C. William S. Rosecrans
D. Ulysses S. Grant
434. After the destruction caused by his march through Georgia, why did General Sherman
refrain from burning Savannah?
A. He spared the hometown of his West Point roommate.
B. He gave Savannah to President Lincoln as a Christmas present.
C. He protected over $28 million worth of cotton stored in Savannah.
D.He had divided the upper and lower Confederacy and so did not need to destroy the
435. William T. Sherman attacked the civilian infrastructure between Atlanta and Savannah
in order to
A. retaliate for lives lost in the battle for Atlanta.
B. force Georgia troops to return home to defend Georgia.
C. end civilian support for the war effort and shorten the war.
D. punish the South for seceding from the Union and forming the Confederacy.
436. Where was a notorious Confederate prison in Georgia?
A. Alcatraz
B. Andersonville
C. Belle Isle
D. Fulton
437. What Civil War battlefield is an Indian name meaning “River of Death”?
A. Antietam
B. Chancellorsville
C. Chickamauga
D. Kanawha
438. Who was the Confederate commander at Chickamauga?
A. P. G. T. Beauregard
B. Braxton Bragg
C. John Floyd
D. Robert E. Lee
439. Who was the Union commander at Chickamauga?
A. Ulysses S. Grant
B. George McClellan
C. William Rosecrans
D. William T. Sherman
440. Near what city is Chickamauga located?
A. Atlanta
B. Savannah
C. Birmingham
D. Chattanooga
441. Why was Chickamauga important to both the North and the South?
A. It was a railroad center.
B. It was a major recruiting center for the South.
C. It was located halfway between two state capitals.
D. It had a number of factories that produced war supplies.
442. After what battle was the Emancipation Proclamation issued?
A. Vicksburg
B. Gettysburg
C. Bull Run
D. Antietam
443. How was the Emancipation Proclamation a concession to the South?
A. All slaves would be freed.
B. Only male slaves would be freed.
C. The South could keep their slaves if they stopped fighting.
D. The slaves could decide if they wanted to remain on the plantations.
444. Who was the commander of the Confederate prison at Andersonville?
A. Henry Wirz
B. George Murphy
C. John Hood
D. John Calhoun
445. Who was the Confederate commander during the battle for Atlanta?
A. John Floyd
B. John Hood
C. Robert E. Lee
D. William T. Sherman
446. How long did the Union army occupy Atlanta before burning it to the ground?
A. Two weeks
B. One month
C. Six weeks
D. Over two months
447. Who was the Union commander during the battle for Atlanta?
A. William T. Sherman
B. Robert E. Lee
C. John Hood
D. John Floyd
448. Where did the bloodiest one-day battle of the Civil War take place?
A. Antietam
B. Gettysburg
C. Shiloh
D. Vicksburg
449. In what state did the Battle of Gettysburg take place?
A. Maryland
B. Mississippi
C. Pennsylvania
D. Virginia.
450. What was President Abraham Lincoln’s plan for Reconstruction called?
A. 10 Percent Plan
B. 100 Percent Plan
C. Congressional Plan
D. Radical Republican Plan
451. According to Lincoln’s Reconstruction plan, which group of southerners would be
pardoned after taking an oath of allegiance?
A. former soldiers and prisoners of war
B. high-ranking civil and military leaders
C. government officials
D. Confederate generals
452. To be pardoned, former Confederates had to agree to
A. not purchase additional slaves.
B. defend the U.S. Constitution.
C. pay their fair share of taxes.
D. lay down their arms.
453. To whom did President Johnson’s Reconstruction plan deny a general pardon?
A. Southerners who owned more than 25 slaves
B. Southerners who owned more than 50 slaves
C. Southerners who owned more than $20,000 worth of land
D. Southerners who owned more than $50,000 worth of land
454. Why was President Lincoln’s Reconstruction plan NOT enacted?
A. The plan was too easy on the South.
B. The Wade-Davis bill took its place.
C. The plan did not have the support of the states.
D. The plan did not become effective before Lincoln was assassinated.
455. Which provision was NOT part of President Andrew Johnson’s Reconstruction plan?
A. Southern states had to pay higher taxes.
B. Southern states had to approve the 13th Amendment.
C. Southern states had to nullify their ordinances of secession.
D. Southern states had to promise not to repay those who helped finance the Confederacy.
456. Under the terms of the radical congressional plan of Reconstruction, what
amendment did a southern state have to ratify before it could rejoin the Union?
A. 13th
B. 14th
C. 15th
D. 16th
457. Why did President Johnson appoint James Johnson as provisional governor of
Georgia in 1865?
A. He had opposed succession as a state congressman.
B. He was extremely popular with the people of Georgia.
C. He denounced the congressional Reconstruction plan.
D.He had supported Johnson when he ran for vice president.
458. What did the Thirteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution do?
A. It abolished slavery.
B. It made blacks citizens.
C. It gave blacks the right to vote.
D. It gave blacks the right to own property.
459. What did the Fourteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution do?
A. It abolished slavery.
B. It made blacks citizens.
C. It gave blacks the right to vote.
D. It gave blacks the right to own property.
460. What did the Fifteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution do?
A. It abolished slavery.
B. It made blacks citizens.
C. It gave blacks the right to vote.
D. It gave blacks the right to own property.
461. Who was one of the first two African Americans to serve in the United States
A. Aaron Bradley
B. Blanche Bruce
C. Rufus Bullock
D. Frederick Douglass
462. Who did Governor Rufus Bullock secretly swear in as his replacement in 1870
before the Democrats could regain control of the government ofGeorgia?
A. Aaron Bradley
B. Blanche Bruce
A. Benjamin Conley
B. James M. Smith
463. What was the purpose of the Freedmen’s Bureau?
A. to help former slaves
B. to help all free people in the South
C. to help all poor people in the South
D. to help former slaves and poor whites
464. Who was the first commissioner of the Freedmen’s Bureau?
A. Rufus Bullock
B. Ulysses S. Grant
C. Oliver O. Howard
D. Alfred Terry
465. What was NOT provided to sharecroppers?
A. seed
B. houses
C. workers
D. farming tools
466. With whom did sharecroppers share their harvest?
A. land owner
B. neighbors
C. creditors
D. the poor
467. How were tenant farmers different from sharecroppers?
A. Tenant farmers owned all their equipment.
B. Tenant farmers usually made a small profit.
C. Tenant farmers bought their seed from the owner.
D. Tenant farmers usually didn’t pay rent for their houses.
468. Which statement BEST describes the differences between sharecroppingand tenant
A. Sharecroppers received a percentage of the crops produced and could set aside cash
money to purchase their own land, while tenant farmers had difficulty saving cash.
B. Sharecroppers owned nothing but their labor, while tenant farmers owned farm animals
and equipment to use in working other people’s lands.
C. Tenant farmers received a cash salary or wage for their farm work, while sharecroppers
received only a portion of the crops they raised.
D. Tenant farmers earned equity or an interest in the land they worked from year to year
so that eventually they would own their own property.
469. The Black Codes
A. denied blacks an education.
B. set a five-day work week for blacks.
C. allowed marriage between the races.
D. allowed imprisonment of unemployed blacks.
470. The Ku Klux Klan began in Tennessee in 1865 as a
A. social club.
B. terrorist group.
C. college fraternity.
D. church organization.
471. Perhaps the main goal of the Ku Klux Klan was to
A. return control of the southern governments to the Democrats.
B. force the carpetbaggers to move back North.
C. attract members from all social classes.
D. return land to former Confederates.
472. The BEST description of the Freedmen’s Bureau during Reconstruction was that it
A. registered newly freed slaves to vote.
B. helped the newly freed slaves adjust to their freedom.
C. provided education, training, and social services for newly freed slaves.
D. managed the distribution of farm land and animals to newly freed slaves.
473. Which statement about the Black Codes is FALSE?
A. The Black Codes limited the types of jobs that newly freed slaves could have.
B. The Black Codes permitted African Americans to be put in prison if they did not have
C. The Black Codes restricted the freedmen’s right to vote, serve on juries, and testify
against whites in court.
D. The Black Codes established minimum working hours, a minimum work week, and a
minimum wage for the freedmen.
474. Which statement BEST describes the most important difference between the
Reconstruction plans of President Lincoln and the radical Congress?
A. Lincoln’s plan involved bringing the nation back together to heal the wounds of war.
B. The congressional plan sought to punish the South and prevent its reentry into the
C. Lincoln’s plan required loyalty oaths and sought to help the South reenter the Union
D. The congressional plan treated the southern states like conquered provinces requiring
Congress to monitor the treatment of freedmen.
475. The Fourteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution was passed in response to
A. the adoption of laws known as Black Codes by the southern states.
B. the rising violence from terrorist organizations such as the Ku Klux Klan.
C. the refusal of white southerners to provide freedmen with land and farm animals.
D. the refusal of some southern states to adopt constitutional provisions calling for an end
to slavery and involuntary servitude.
476. Which statement BEST describes the contributions of the Freedmen’s Bureau in
A. The Bureau founded over 10,000 primary schools throughout the South for black and
white children.
B. The Bureau established six major colleges in the South, all of which are located in the
metropolitan Atlanta area.
C. The Bureau opened government agencies, including schools, colleges, and universities
for poor blacks and whites in the South.
D. The Bureau set up thousands of primary schools, industrial or vocational schools, and
teacher training centers for African Americans in the South.
477. Which action led Congress to argue that Georgia was NOT “adequately reconstructed”
in 1866?
A. activities of the Ku Klux Klan
B. limited number of Freemen’s Bureau schools opened in Georgia
C. refusal of Georgia to ratify the 13th Amendment to the Constitution
D. passage of Black Codes to restrict the civil rights of freedmen in Georgia
478. What was the Georgia Act of 1869?
A. federal legislation returning Georgia to military control because of KKK terrorism against
B. federal legislation refusing to admit Georgia to the Union until it ratified the 13th
C. state legislation allowing freedmen the right to vote and the right to hold public office
D. state legislation ending Reconstruction in Georgia
479. What were the stages of Reconstruction in the South following the CivilWar?
A. military, constitutional, and judicial stages of Reconstruction
B. political, economic, social, and cultural stages of Reconstruction
C. presidential, congressional, and military stages of Reconstruction
D. loyalty, slavery, protection under the law, and voting protection stages of Reconstruction
480. How long did Reconstruction last in Georgia?
A. two years
B. five years
C. seven years
D. ten years
481. Henry McNeal Turner was expelled from his seat in the Georgia state legislature because
A. he did not win the election fairly and honestly.
B. he did not have the knowledge to be a legislator.
C. he did not live in the district from which he was elected.
D. he did not have the right to hold political office according to the constitution.
482. After the Civil War, the only railroad operating in Georgia was the
A. Georgia Pacific Railroad.
B. Norfolk and Western Railroad.
C. Western and Atlantic Railroad.
D. Chesapeake and Ohio Railroad.
483. After the Civil War, which business was NOT revived by the increased production of
A. shipping
B. importing
C. dry goods
D. manufacturing
484. Which statement BEST explains why northern businessmen invested money to build
Georgia’s textile industry after the Civil War?
A. Georgia had plenty of cotton, abundant land and water, and inexpensive labor to supply
and operate textile mills.
B. Georgia had plenty of railroads and major seaports for transporting cotton and textile
products when the Civil War ended.
C. Georgia was one of the few southern states to retain capital (cash money and investments)
after the Civil War.
D. Georgia was one of the few southern states to avoid violence and terrorism after the war
485. What important contribution did the Grange movement make in Georgia?
A. It organized purchasing co-ops for farmers.
B. It pressured the state legislature to form a Department of Agriculture.
C. It forced railroads to lower freight rates and banks to lower farm loan rates.
D. It showed new equipment and providing training to farmers in the newest techniques.
486. Which were major Georgia industries in the New South era?
A. textiles, forest products, and mining
B. farming, textile mills, and naval stores
C. cotton, textiles, naval stores, and kaolin
D. rice, indigo, row crops, and forest products
487. Which statement BEST explains the growth of Georgia’s textile industry during the
late 1800s?
A. Georgia had abundant water resources to provide power for textile mills.
B. Georgia had abundant supplies of the two essential raw materials for textiles — cotton
and wood.
C. Georgia had water resources, a network of railroad lines, a supply of cotton, and coastal
D. Georgia had a strong educational system, which trained workers with special skills and
expertise in textiles.
488. Which statement does NOT describe an economic benefit of Georgia’s extensive forest
A. Forest products created sawmills, which served as the basis for new communities and
offered employment for many.
B. Pine forests were used in the production of naval stores such as turpentine, pitch, and
C. Coastal hardwood forests provided abundant timber for shipbuilding industries.
D. Trees were turned into lumber for building and making furniture.
489. Which change did NOT benefit Georgia’s economic reconstruction?
A. the construction of new railroad lines
B. the opening of coastal seaports to handle imports and exports
C. the repeated growth of cotton and tobacco crops year after year
D. the reopening of banks capable of loaning money to farmers, businesses, and merchants
490. What was the major crop produced in Georgia when Reconstruction ended?
A. cotton
B. indigo
C. naval stores
D. rice
491. Which industry was NOT part of the economic growth of the New South?
A. glass
B. mining
C. textiles
D. timber
492. The New South, envisioned by Henry W. Grady, would
A. provide separate facilities for different races.
B. maintain its southern heritage.
C. rival the North economically.
D. promote tourism.
493. What group was supported by Tom Watson, a Georgia populist?
A. farmers
B. mill workers
C. miners
D. railroad workers
Name: Date:
494. What was Tom Watson’s greatest accomplishment?
A. a voting bill for women
B. the Rural Free Delivery bill
C. a bill to provide meat inspections
D. a bill to increase the minimum wage
495. Which statement BEST explains why the term “Bourbon Triumvirate” was most
appropriate for Joseph Brown, Alfred Colquitt, and John Gordon?
A. The three men ruled the state consecutively for a period of over thirty years.
B. The three men shared a strong belief in white supremacy or white superiority.
C. The three men were political rulers drawn together by power and political goals.
D. The three men were known for excessive business practices and high profit motives.
496. Rebecca Latimer Felton did NOT support the
A. educational reform movement.
B. temperance movement.
C. suffrage movement.
D. convict lease system.
497. Joseph Brown, a member of the Bourbon Triumvirate, did NOT support
A. increasing the number of industries in the South.
B. creating stronger economic ties to the North.
C. white supremacy.
D. states’ rights.
498. The Bourbon Triumvirate believed in
A. lower taxes.
B. improving working conditions.
C. economic assistance for the poor.
D. expansion of educational opportunities.
499. Which is NOT an accomplishment of Henry Grady?
A. He increased the circulation of the Atlanta Constitution.
B. He helped plan the International Cotton Exposition.
C. He served as governor of Georgia.
D.He helped establish Georgia Tech.
500. What was the main purpose of the International Cotton Exposition that was held in
A. It was to showcase the industries of the New South.
B. It was to get ideas from foreign countries.
C. It was to showcase the cotton gin.
D. It was to bring visitors to Atlanta.
501. Which description most clearly reflects the meaning of the phrase “New South?”
A. The South began to change in the areas of business, industrialization, agriculture, race
relations, and social change.
B. The South showed a new economic growth and prosperity after the Reconstruction
and Redemption periods.
C. The South reflected new ways of thinking and made huge strides in social, cultural,
economic, and political areas.
D. The South moved away from agriculture and began to develop new industries to compete
with the North.
Name: Date:
502. Which description BEST explains how the Bourbon Triumvirate might have
described the Redemption period?
A. A time for black and white southerners to come together and work in harmony to
rebuild the state’s economic, social, and political systems
B. A blending of the new and the old, keeping old southern traditions while building
new traditions around industries to rival the North
C. A New South Progressive era when farms had to be replaced by business and industry
in order for the South to prosper
D. A time for social, economic, and political reforms to ease the suffering caused by
the war
503. What Georgia leader coined the phrase “New South?”
A. Alfred H. Colquitt
B. Rebecca Latimer Felton
C. John B. Gordon
D.Henry W. Grady
504. Supporters of the progressive movement believed that
A. government could correct the ills of society.
B. individual citizens could work to improve social problems.
C. business and the free enterprise system could best improve society.
D. progress could only be made if people in the private business sector were left alone.
505. The progressive movement grew out of changes in
A. industry and agriculture.
B. housing and voting rights.
C. prohibition and working hours.
D. political beliefs and corporations.
506. Who first used the term muckraker to describe journalists whose writing called for
reforms during the Progressive Era?
A. John D. Rockefeller
B. Theodore Roosevelt
C. Upton Sinclair
D. Ida Tarbell
507. When Rebecca Latimer Felton wrote for the Atlanta Journal, she focused on the
need for reforms in
A. voting laws.
B. race relations.
C. the prison system.
D. working conditions.
508. What reform was NOT supported by the Populist party?
A. 8-hour workday
B. Australian ballot
C. graduated income tax
D. private ownership of railroads
Name: Date:
The song “The Mill Mother’s Lament,” written by Ella May Wiggins, illustrates problems of
industrialization in the late 1800s. Read the words of the song and then answer Questions 509-510.
We leave our homes in the morning,
We kiss our children good-bye,
While we slave for the bosses,
Our children scream and cry.
And when we draw our money,
Our grocery bills to pay,
Not a cent to spend for clothing
Not a cent to lay away.
And on that very evening
Our little son will say:
“I need some shoes, mother,
And so does sister May.”
How it grieves the heart of a mother,
You and everyone must know:
But we can’t buy for our children,
Our wages are too low.
509. To what issue did “The Mill Mother’s Lament” draw attention?
A. low wages
B. child labor
C. women working
D. the high cost of food
510. According to the words of the song, what could the family not afford?
A. food
B. housing
C. clothing
D. child care
511. The murder trial of Leo Frank resulted in a
A. mistrial.
B. hung jury.
C. lynching.
D. death sentence.
512. The racial unrest brought about by the Leo Frank case resulted in the creation of a
chapter of the Ku Klux Klan who called themselves the Knights of
A. Columbus.
B. Leo Frank.
C. Mary Phagan.
D. Stone Mountain.
Name: Date:
513. The county unit system allowed
A. the larger counties to have more power than the smaller ones.
B. a candidate to carry the most populated counties but lose the election.
C. a candidate to be elected only if he or she had a majority of the popular vote.
D. a candidate to carry only the most populated counties in order to win the election.
514. Who benefited from the county unit system?
A. cities
B. rural areas
C. metro regions
D. heavily populated counties
515. What was a positive aspect of the county unit system?
A. It was easy to buy votes.
B. It was difficult to administer.
C. It allowed people to be elected without a majority of the popular vote.
D. It allowed less populated areas to have the same political power as larger populated
516. What is the subject of the political cartoon?
A. Rosa Parks’s meeting with a United States senator
B. Carrie Nation’s testimony before the U.S. Congress
C. a recognition ceremony for widows of World War I
D. Rebecca Latimer Felton serving as a United States senator
517. Which clue helps to identify the content of the political cartoon?
A. clothing that the two people are wearing
B. the name of one of the people pictured
C. the desk and table in the cartoon
D. the gentleman’s greeting
518. The immediate cause of the riot that occurred in Atlanta in 1906 was the
A. the killing of a black family.
B. blacks being denied the right to vote.
C. the election of Hoke Smith as governor.
D. stories of black violence against whites in the Atlanta newspapers.
519. How long did the Atlanta riot of 1906 last?
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
520. Which was one result of the Atlanta riot of 1906?
A. five blacks were executed
B. at least eighteen blacks were killed
C. downtown Atlanta was set on fire
D. the president sent in the national guard
521. What happened to Leo Frank after his trial?
A. He was sentenced and put to death.
B. He was taken from jail and lynched.
C. He spent the rest of his life in prison.
D.He was found guilty, but was later freed.
522. What was the “bridge” that linked the New South and the Progressive Era?
A. 16th Amendment
B. 17th Amendment
C. 18th Amendment
D. 19th Amendment
523. Which piece of legislation allowed less populated counties in Georgia to have the same
or greater power and influence in the General Assembly as the more populated counties?
A. Smith-Lever Act
B. Neill Primary Act
C. Smith-Hughes Act
D. Smith-Watson Act
Name: Date:
524. Which groups united to form the Populist party in 1891?
A. Grange and Farmers’ Alliance
B. Australian party and Democrats
C. People’s party and Republicans
D. Farmers’ Alliance and labor unions
525. Jim Crow laws did NOT result in separate
A. schools.
B. churches.
C. restrooms.
D. waiting rooms.
526. What did the U.S. Supreme Court rule in Plessy v. Ferguson?
A. Blacks could be denied the right to vote.
B. Segregated facilities must be equal.
C. Blacks and whites were equal.
D. Schools must be integrated.
527. What became legal under Plessy v. Ferguson?
A. Blacks and whites could have separate schools.
B. Blacks and whites could attend the same schools.
C. Blacks and whites could be admitted to the same hospital.
D. Blacks and whites could drink from the same water fountain.
528. Plessy v. Ferguson gave states the right to promote
A. equal rights.
B. segregation.
C. terrorist attacks.
D. voting rights for blacks.
529. According to Plessy v. Ferguson, what Constitutional amendment was NOT
violated by establishing “separate-but-equal” facilities?
A. 13th Amendment
B. 14th Amendment
C. 15th Amendment
D. 16th Amendment
530. What Constitutional amendment was violated by Jim Crow legislation?
A. 13th Amendment
B. 14th Amendment
C. 18th Amendment
D. 19th Amendment
531. Homer Plessy sat in the “Whites Only” car on a train because
A. it was the only seat available.
B. he wanted the comfortable seats there.
C. he wanted to sit with his traveling companions.
D. he wanted to test the legality of a law requiring separate-but-equal facilities.
Name: Date:
532. What Georgia case tested the decision in Plessy v. Ferguson?
A. Roe v. Wade
B. Worcester v. Georgia
C. Brown v. Board of Education
D. Cummings v. Richmond County Board of Education
533. The ruling in Cummings v. Richmond County Board of Education stated that
A. African Americans had the right to be educated only through the eighth grade.
B. African Americans should attend the same schools as white students.
C. Closing a high school serving 60 black students was against the law.
D. Closing the white high school violated the separate-but-equal policy.
534. Who cast the single dissenting vote in Plessy v. Ferguson?
A. John Marshall Harlan
B. John Marshall
C. Thurgood Marshall
D. Sandra Day O’Connor
535. Which did NOT restrict the voting rights of African Americans in Georgia in the early
A. poll tax
B. grandfather clause
C. gerrymandering
D. eligibility clause
536. Which voting qualification was designed to prevent African Americans from voting?
A. literacy test
B. party affiliation
C. identification number
D. residency requirement
537. Which is an example of racial violence during the early 1900s?
A. kidnaping
B. lynching
C. picketing
D. gerrymandering
580. What countries were allies in World War I?
A. United States, France, Austria-Hungary, and Great Britain
B. Great Britain, France, United States, and Russia
C. Germany, Russia, and Austria-Hungary
D. Germany, Japan, and Russia
581. What was the “final blow” that led President Woodrow Wilson to ask Congress to
declare war against the Central Powers in World War I?
A. anti-German propaganda in the United States
B. attacks on American merchant ships
C. sinking of the Lusitania
D. Zimmermann telegram
582. At which Georgia military installation did infantry train in World War I?
A. Camp Augusta
B. Camp Benning
C. Camp Gordon
D. Camp McPherson
583. What event is celebrated on the 11th hour of the 11th day of the 11th month of the
A. the founding of the state of Georgia
B. armistice that ended World War I
C. sinking of the Lusitania
D. sinking of the Titanic
584. Which is NOT associated with World War I?
A. victory gardens
B. American Red Cross
C. sinking of the Titanic
D. General John Pershing
585. What Georgian was the first African American combat pilot?
A. Eugene Jacques Bullard
B. Alonzo Herndon
C. John Hope
D. Charles Yeager
Name: Date:
586. Which was NOT a World War I training camp located in Georgia?
A. Camp Benning
B. Camp Gordon
C. Fort Campbell
D. Fort McPherson
587. Which was NOT a way that Georgians supported World War I?
A. growing food
B. attending school
C. making uniforms
D. transporting arms and soldiers
588. The information used by the Allied nations to promote their cause and entice the United
States to enter World War I was called
A. libel.
B. slander.
C. propaganda.
D. yellow journalism.
589. What country did Germany urge to attack the United States in the Zimmermann telegram?
A. Canada
B. Italy
C. Japan
590. Which was the immediate cause of World War II?
A. German invasion of Poland
B. German invasion of the Rhineland
C. German invasion of Czechoslovakia
D. German invasion of the Soviet Union
591. The United States entered World War II when Japan attacked
A. China.
B. Manchuria.
C. Midway.
D. Pearl Harbor.
592. What country was a member of the Axis Powers in World War II?
A. Great Britain
B. Italy
C. Soviet Union
D. United States
593. What country was a member of the Allied Powers in World War II?
A. Germany
B. Italy
C. Japan
D. Soviet Union
Name: Date:
594. Which statement BEST describes the involvement of the United States in
World War II before the bombing of Pearl Harbor?
A. The United States provided lend-lease aid to Great Britain and the Soviet Union.
B. The United States maintained strict neutrality with no favoritism.
C. The United States provided advisory troops to aid Great Britain.
D. The United States secretly sank German submarines.
595. Which did the United States NOT do to protest Japanese expansion in Asia?
A. refuse to export airplanes and aircraft parts to Japan
B. refuse to provide or sell aircraft gasoline to Japan
C. seize Japanese property in the United States
D. attack Japanese military installations
596. Before the United States entered World War II, what assistance did it NOT give to
Great Britain?
A. sale and lease of ships, arms, and supplies
B. escort of British warships in the Atlantic Ocean
C. construction of air bases in Greenland and Iceland
D. escort of British merchant ships in the Atlantic Ocean
597. Why did the United States start a lend-lease system of war equipment?
A. Its allies ran out of money with which to purchase the equipment.
B. It would get the materials back at the end of the war.
C. It could charge interest and make more money.
D. Their allies preferred to lease the equipment.
598. Before the United States entered World War II, Italy had conquered
A. Albania.
B. Czechoslovakia.
C. Romania.
D. Yugoslavia.
599. “Nazi” was the name given to the followers of
A. Hirohito.
B. Hitler.
C. Mussolini.
D. Stalin.
600. What policy did France and Great Britain follow when they let Hitler take the
A. appeasement
B. internationalism
C. isolationism
D. neutrality
601. Before the United States entered World War II, Japan had seized the coastal area of
A. Vietnam.
B. Thailand.
C. Korea.
D. China.
Name: Date:
602. Which area had NOT been taken by Hitler prior to the United States’s entry into
World War II? (B)
A. Denmark
B. France
C. Poland
D. Rhineland
603. The Holocaust was a method of (C)
A. getting rid of the bodies of those who died or were killed in World War II.
B. exterminating six million Jews and other “undesirables.”
C. frightening those who opposed Adolph Hitler.
D. eliminating war prisoners.
604. Who was the world leader who instigated the Holocaust? (B)
A. Emperor Hirohito
B. Adolf Hitler
C. Benito Mussolini
D. Joseph Stalin
605. Which was NOT a concentration camp during World War II? (A)
A. Andersonville
B. Auschwitz
C. Dachau
D. Treblinka
606. Which was NOT a cause of death for prisoners in concentration camps? (B)
A. medical experimentation
B. military combat
C. starvation
D. disease
607. Who was the first black president of Atlanta Baptist College? (C)
A. Frederick Douglass
B. W. E. B. DuBois
C. John Hope
D. Booker T. Washington
608. Which college is NOT predominantly black? (A)
A. Emory and Henry
B. Morehouse
C. Morris Brown
D. Spelman
609. To what did Atlanta Baptist College change its name? (B)
A. Atlanta University
B. Morehouse
C. Morris Brown
D. Spelman
610. Where is Tuskegee Institute, founded by Booker T. Washington, located? (A)
A. Alabama
B. Arkansas
C. Georgia
611. What position was NOT supported by Booker T. Washington? (B)
A. Vocational education was essential for African Americans who sought equality.
B. Truth and knowledge would cause different races to understand and accept each other.
C. Economic equality was much more important than social equality for African Americans.
D. Political and social equality for African Americans would come from economic
612. What racial issue did Booker T. Washington support? (D)
A. economic equality
B. political equality
C. religious equality
D. social equality
Name: Date:
613. What racial issue, opposed by Booker T. Washington, did W. E. B. DuBois
support? (B)
A. economic equality
B. political equality
C. religious equality
D. social equality
614. Which is NOT associated with John Hope? (C)
A. president of the National Association of Teachers of Colored Schools
B. first black president of Atlantic Baptist College (Morehouse)
C. supported the views of Booker T. Washington
D. attended Brown University
615. What organization was founded by Lugenia Burns Hope? (C)
A. D.E.C.C.A.
B. Girl Scouts
C. Neighborhood Union
D. Y.W.C.A.
616. Which activity was NOT offered by the organization founded by Lugenia Burns Hope?
A. remedial education classes
B. financial aid for the needy
C. clubs for boys and girls
D. vocational classes
617. What business made Alonzo Herndon a successful businessman? (A)
A. Atlanta Mutual Insurance Company
B. Coca-Cola
C. Georgia Pacific
D.Western and Atlantic Railroad
618. Carl Vinson served as chairman of the House Naval Affairs Committee and
Armed Services Committee for more than twenty-nine years. In this position, he oversaw
the passage of the Vinson-Trammel Act, which authorized the manufacture of ninetytwo
major warships. He also launched the U.S. Navy’s first nuclear-powered submarine
and guided the establishment of a separate air academy. He has been credited with making
the U.S. Navy a two-ocean navy. In referring to his active involvement with military
advancements, he once said, “I devoutly hope that the casting of every gun and the
building of every ship will be done with a prayer for the peace of America. I have at heart
no sectional nor political interest, but only the Republic’s safety.” Which statement best
describes the meaning of Carl Vinson’s statement? (B)
A. Peace is better than war.
B. War may be necessary to protect our country.
C. The United States needs a strong military to defend itself.
D. The United States needs to manufacture guns and build ships to keep up with other
619. Which is NOT an accomplishment of Governor Richard Russell, Jr.? (B)
A. consolidating state offices
B. establishing a seven-month school year
C. running state government like a successful business
D. establishing the Board of Regents of the University System of Georgia
Name: Date:
620. Because of Senator Richard Russell’s sponsorship of a program for school
children, what nickname did he earn? (D)
A. Father of the graded school
B. Father of the unified curriculum
C. Father of the county school system
D. Father of the school lunch program
621. Which military base was NOT located in Georgia during World War II? (B)
A. Fort Benning
B. Fort Campbell
C. Fort McPherson
D. Fort Stewart
622. Which Georgia military base did NOT also serve as a prisoner of war camp? (C)
A. Fort Benning
B. Fort Campbell
C. Fort Gordon
D. Fort Stewart
623. Where in Georgia were Liberty ships built during World War II? (C)
A. Atlanta and Augusta
B. Brunswick and Jekyll Island
C. Brunswick and Savannah
D. St. Simons Island and Augusta
624. Which was NOT a major military installation in Georgia during World War II?
A. Camp Gordon
B. Fort Benning
C. Kings Bay Nuclear Sub Base
D.Warner Robbins Air Base
625. Near what Georgia location did a German submarine sink two ships, the S.S.
Oklahoma and the Baton Rouge? (D)
A. Jekyll Island
B. Savannah Harbor
C. St. Marys
D. St. Simons Island
626. What Georgian is known as the “father of the two-ocean navy?” (D)
A. Ben Epps
B. Walter F. George
C. Richard B. Russell, Jr.
D. Carl Vinson
627. What statement about the Bell Aircraft Company is FALSE? (C)
A. It was located in Marietta.
B. It produced B-29 aircraft.
C. It closed before World War II ended.
D. It was the largest facility of its kind in the Deep South.
Name: Date:
628. What happened to the Bell Aircraft Company? (C)
A. It has continued to operate continuously since the war.
B. It closed down before World War II ended.
C. It is part of Lockheed Martin today.
D. It is part of Hartsfield Airport today.
629. Fort Oglethorpe supported the war effort by serving as a training center for (D)
A. naval aviators.
B. combat soldiers.
C. military intelligence.
D. women in the WAAC.
630. Which was NOT associated with Carl Vinson? (D)
A. recipient of the Presidential Medal of Freedom
B. served on House Armed Services Committee
C. nuclear aircraft carrier bears his name
D. served as governor of Georgia
631. Which legislation, supported by Carl Vinson, most directly benefited Georgia? (A)
A. law to ease labor restrictions in the shipbuilding industry
B. law to increase the military readiness of the United States
C. law to expand the naval aviation system to 10,000 planes
D. law to provide military supplies to our World War II allies
632. What role did Fort McPherson play in World War II? (C)
A. It was a detainment center for American citizens of Japanese descent.
B. It was a training center for women in the armed forces.
C. It was an induction center for newly drafted soldiers.
D. It was a training center for soldiers fighting in Europe.
633. Why did Franklin Roosevelt spend so much time in Georgia? (A)
A. Roosevelt used the warm mineral waters of Warm Springs to ease his polio.
B. Roosevelt was a native of Augusta and traveled widely across the state.
C. Roosevelt had originally been a farmer and he loved farm life.
D. Roosevelt’s wife was a native of Calhoun and visited relatives.
634. What New Deal program resulted from President Franklin Roosevelt’s view of rural
Georgia while sitting on his porch in the evening? (C)
635. Where did President Franklin Roosevelt die while sitting for a portrait? (D)
A. Camp David, Maryland
B. Hyde Park, New York
C. LaGrange, Georgia
D.Warm Springs, Georgia
Name: Date:
636. How did Franklin Roosevelt’s time spent in Georgia bring about the establishment of
the Rural Electrification Agency? (D)
A. He made a campaign promise to provide electricity to rural Georgia.
B. He wanted to reduce the cost of electricity for the poor.
C. He owned rural land and wanted to have electricity.
D.He noticed that his neighbors did not have electricity.
637. What was the most important crop in Georgia before World War II? (B)
A. blueberries
B. cotton
C. peanuts
D. soybeans
638. After World War II, one of Georgia’s most important agricultural products was (D)
A. sheep.
B. goats.
C. cattle.
D. poultry.
639. Which statement does NOT describe a major impact on agriculture in Georgia since
World War II? (C)
A. Technology has resulted in new crops.
B. Technology has changed the way farming is done.
C. Technology has converted more land to farmland.
D. Technology has brought about a reduction of farmland.
640. Which is NOT a result of the consolidation of farmland in Georgia? (A)
A. Fewer products are produced by the smaller number of farmers.
B. More land has been used for residential or commercial ventures.
C. International markets for Georgia’s farm products have been expanded.
D. The number of related farm businesses, i.e. fertilizer producers, has decreased.
641. Why is horticulture a major part of Georgia’s agricultural sector today? (B)
A. It has been found in Georgia since the colonization period.
B. It has become more important due to the housing boom.
C. It has become more important since people eat less meat.
D. It has been heavily subsidized by the federal government.
Name: Date:
642. What factor MOST DIRECTLY determines which crops can be grown in a
certain part of Georgia? (A)
A. soil
B. market
C. labor supply
D. climate
643. What job is LEAST associated with Georgia’s agriculture today? (C)
A. agricultural economists
B. landscape engineers
C. subsistence farmers
D. entomologists
644. Approximately how many Georgians were employed in international facilities in the
state in 2001? (B)
A. just over 50,000
B. just over 125,000
C. just over 150,000
D. just over 200,000
645. Which factor has NOT contributed to the growth in Georgia’s population since the
1980s? (B)
A. mild climate
B. state income tax
C. nonunionized work force
D. diverse transportation system
646. What is a key reason for the migration of people into Georgia since the 1960s? (B)
A. successful school reform programs
B. diversified economy
C. city infrastructure
D. abundant airports
647. Which development had little effect on Georgia’s population growth? (C)
A. new sources of revenue
B. new job creation in cities
C. balanced political power
D. expanding highway construction
648. Which statement does NOT reflect a growing conflict between urban and rural
sections of Georgia? (D)
A. Population growth in cities and suburbs provides more jobs and more taxes for those
B. As populations expand in urban areas, more highway construction is needed in those
C. Urban areas draw more water from the state’s rivers to supply their growing populations.
D. Lottery technology funds have linked libraries and resources throughout the state.
649. What percentage of Georgia’s population today lives in the Metropolitan
Atlanta area? (B)
A. just over 30 percent
B. just over 50 percent
C. just over 75 percent
D. just over 95 percent
Name: Date:
650. What percentage of Georgia’s population today lives in “urban” areas? (C)
A. just over 30 percent
B. just over 50 percent
C. just over 70 percent
D. just over 90 percent
651. Which development does NOT describe an effort to unify rural and urban
Georgia into one prosperous state? (B)
A. development of Rural Development Council Programs to help rural areas compete for
new business and industry
B. expending of state funds to attract tourists and conventions to Georgia’s World Congress
C. expansion of highway systems linking rural and urban areas throughout the state
D. expansion of University System facilities and access
652. Which is NOT a current conflict between the rural and urban “two Georgias?” (D)
A. equity in educational resources from funding formulas between state and local taxes
B. equity in water resources from the use and pollution of lakes, rivers, and streams
C. equity in employment opportunities from business and industry
D. equity in recreational resources from state parks
653. Which term is used to describe the residential area immediately around cities? (B)
A. rural
B. suburban
C. urban decay
D. bedroom communities
654. To be classified as metropolitan, a central city must have a population of at least (B)
A. 2,500.
B. 50,000.
C. 75,000.
D. 100,000.
655. Which statement BEST reflects the negative impact of suburban communities on cities?
A. Cities have more industries.
B. Suburbs have more restaurants.
C. Cities have a declining tax base.
D. Suburbs have larger residential lots.
656. Which definition does NOT describe “urban sprawl”? (A)
A. declining city tax base
B. unplanned growth surrounding cities
C. inadequate infrastructure around cities
D. inadequate building codes and guidelines
657. Which problem was created by commuting from the suburbs? (C)
A. car pool lanes
B. dwindling city parks
C. increased air pollution
D. failing public transportation systems
Name: Date:
658. A rural area in Georgia is defined as a town or community of less than (B)
A. 1,500 people.
B. 2,500 people.
C. 5,000 people.
D. 10,000 people.
659. Which population trend began in Georgia in the 1960s and 1970s? (C)
A. westward migration
B. migration northward
C. migration from cities to suburbs
D. migration from cities to small towns
660.“Urban revitalization” to restore inner city areas does NOT include (C)
A. renovating historic districts.
B. restoring older neighborhoods.
C. constructing highways and perimeters.
D. building convention and meeting facilities.
661. What is the fastest growing segment of Georgia’s population? (B)
A. young people between 18 and 25 years of age
B. senior citizens 65 years of age and older
C. children between 10 and 16 years of age
D. newborns
662. What is the fastest growing population group in Georgia? (B)
A. African Americans
B. Hispanics
C. Native Americans
D.Western Europeans
663. Under the administration of William Hartsfield, racial moderation in Atlanta included
the integration of (B)
A. the fire department.
B. lunch counters.
C. City Hall.
D. theaters.
664. What was the issue for which William Hartsfield is best remembered? (C)
A. education
B. tax reform
C. aviation
D. business
665. What government office did William Hartsfield NOT hold? (B)
A. Atlanta city councilman
B. governor of Georgia
C. mayor of Atlanta
D. state legislator
666. What advancement in Atlanta is NOT associated with William Hartsfield? (A)
A. construction of the Atlanta Braves baseball park
B. building of the expressway system
C. increase in the size of the city
D. construction of city parks
Name: Date:
667. Which is NOT considered an accomplishment of Mayor Ivan Allen in helping to end
discrimination in Atlanta? (A)
A. ending lunch counter segregation
B. integrating city government and fire departments
C. reducing restrictions on African American police officers
D. removing “Colored” and “White” signs in Atlanta’s City Hall
668. Who was the mayor of Atlanta responsible for bringing professional athletic teams to the
city? (A)
A. Ivan Allen
B. William Hartsfield
C. Maynard Jackson
D. Lester Maddox
669. What major improvement in Atlanta was voted down during the term of Ivan Allen?
A. Atlanta-Fulton County Stadium
B. Memorial Arts Center
C. Atlanta Civic Center
670. Which is NOT true about Hank Aaron? (B)
A. He played in the Negro League.
B. He played for the New York Yankees.
C. He broke Babe Ruth’s career home run record.
D.He was inducted into the Baseball Hall of Fame.
671. Which governor of Georgia helped secure funding for the Georgia Dome? (B)
A. George Busbee
B. Joe Frank Harris
C. William Hartsfield
D. Zell Miller
672. Which facility is NOT part of the Georgia World Congress Center? (A)
A. Georgia Archives
B. the Georgia Dome
C. Centennial Olympic Park
D. the Georgia World Congress Center
673. Who was the Georgia native who was the first African American major league baseball
player? (D)
A. Hank Aaron
B. Willie Mays
C. Satchel Paige
D. Jackie Robinson
Name: Date:
674. Ellis Arnall was the first governor of Georgia to serve a term of (B)
A. two years.
B. four years.
C. six years.
D. eight years.
675. Which state agency was removed from control of the governor’s office under the
administration of Ellis Arnall? (D)
A. Department of Natural Resources
B. Department of Revenue
C. Board of Public Safety
D. Board of Regents
676. Which accomplishment is NOT attributed to Ellis Arnall? (C)
A. abolishing the poll tax
B. creating a board of corrections
C. changing voter registration laws
D. adopting a new state constitution
677. What is the correct chronological sequence of these Georgia governors? (C)
A. Herman Talmadge, Ed Rivers, Lester Maddox, and Ellis Arnall
B. Lester Maddox, Herman Talmadge, Ed Rivers, and Ellis Arnall
C. Ed Rivers, Ellis Arnall, Herman Talmadge, and Lester Maddox
D. Ellis Arnall, Herman Talmadge, Ed Rivers, and Lester Maddox
678. During the Three Governors Episode, Governor Ellis Arnall set up his office in the
A. Governor’s Mansion.
B. basement of the Capitol.
C. downtown area of Atlanta.
D. Capitol information booth.
679. Who did Arnall defeat to become governor of Georgia? (D)
A. Lester Maddox
B. Ed Rivers
C. Richard Russell, Jr.
D. Eugene Talmadge
680. Who defeated Arnall in a primary runoff during his bid to again become governor in
1966? (B)
A. Howard Callaway
B. Lester Maddox
C. Richard Russell, Jr.
D. Carl Sanders
Name: Date:
681. What state office did Arnall hold before he became governor? (A)
A. attorney general
B. commissioner of agriculture
D. lieutenant governor
D. secretary of state
538. Droughts in Georgia result in
A. lower food prices.
B. increased tourism.
C. less feed for farm animals.
D. less gasoline available for cars.
539. The boll weevil originally came from
A. Texas.
B. Florida.
C. Mexico.
540. The boll weevil larvae feed on the
A. white, fluffy cotton.
B. leaves of the cotton plant.
C. yellow flowers on the plant.
D. insects that are found on the stalk.
541. Besides the boll weevil, Georgia cotton farmers have been hurt primarily by
A. tornadoes.
B. droughts.
C. frosts.
D. fires.
542. Which was NOT a result of the drought?
A. Workers moved away to seek jobs.
B. The number of working farms declined.
C. Banks faced losses of assets.
D. Tourism increased.
Name: Date:
543. What positive impact did the 1924 drought make on Georgia?
A. It slowed down the destruction by the boll weevil.
B. It contributed to the end of the Great Depression.
C. It caused tourism to increase at state parks.
D. It created a good climate to attract industry.
544. Which was NOT a cause of the Great Depression?
A. borrowing more money than could be repaid
B. speculating in the stock market
C. overproducing farm products
D. failing to save money
545. Which consequence of the depression did NOT affect Georgia?
A. declining transportation systems
B. closing schools
C. closing banks
D. using barter
546. In Franklin D. Roosevelt’s inaugural address, he said, “We are stricken by no plague of
locust. Compared with the perils which our forefathers conquered because they believed
and were not afraid, we have still much to be thankful for. Nature still offers her bounty
and human efforts have multiplied it. Plenty is at our doorstep. . . .” This statement was
meant to give the American people hope to overcome
A. World War I.
B. World War II.
C. the Great Depression.
D. the nationwide drought.
547. What United States president is blamed for the Great Depression?
A. Dwight Eisenhower
B. Herbert Hoover
C. Franklin D. Roosevelt
D.Harry Truman
548. Which was NOT common during the “Great Depression”?
A. soup kitchens
B. bartering practices
C. public assistance housing
D. migrations in search of work
549. What was the nickname for the day the stock market crashed?
A. Blue Monday
B. Black Tuesday
C. Black Thursday
D. Good Friday
550. Which is NOT a consequence of the Great Depression?
A. failure of banks across the nation
B. suspension of the country’s rail system
C. high unemployment in most industries
D. closure of schools or the reduction in the length of school terms
Name: Date:
551. Which was one effect of the Great Depression in Georgia?
A. lower income for farmers
B. increased enrollment in schools
C. increases in highway construction
D. an increase in health care services
552. What project was completed in Georgia during the Great Depression?
A. Underground Atlanta
B. Augusta National Golf Club
C. Hartsfield-Jackson International Airport
D. Interstate 16 between Atlanta and Brunswick
553. Which did President Herbert Hoover NOT do to bring relief during the Great
A. He used the government’s stored cotton and wheat to provide cloth and flour to the
B. He set up special job training programs to retrain workers who had lost their jobs.
C. He provided federal loans to needy businesses before they entered bankruptcy.
D.He had the federal government buy crops that could be sold at a later time.
554. How did laissez-faire cause the depression?
A. The United States gave businesses too many loans.
B. The United States overextended its trade agreements.
C. The United States government encouraged people to invest in the stock market.
D. The United States government did not do anything to help solve the country’s economic
555. Why did Georgia NOT immediately feel the impact of the stock market crash?
A. Georgia was already in a depression.
B. Georgia’s banks were protected by state insurance.
C. Georgians had little money invested in the stock market.
D. Georgia’s constitution prohibited the state from investing in the stock market.
556. Which did Governor Eugene Talmadge support?
A. public welfare
B. voting rights for blacks
C. reduced property taxes
D. federal assistance programs
557. How many times was Eugene Talmadge elected governor?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
558. From what group of voters did Talmadge receive his greatest support?
A. rural voters
B. black voters
C. wealthy voters
D. women voters
Name: Date:
559. Which issue did Eugene Talmadge support?
A. integration
B. states’ rights
C. higher taxes
D. white supremacy
560. What action by Eugene Talmadge resulted in the loss of accreditation of ten
Georgia public colleges and universities, including the University of Georgia?
A. He withheld federal funds from Georgia’s colleges and universities.
B. He ordered the Confederate flag to be flown at all colleges in Georgia.
C. He fired two University System administrators who supported integration.
D.He approved the admission of several black students at two all-white colleges.
561. In what industry did Eugene Talmadge put down a strike?
A. transportation
B. auto manufacturing
C. textiles
D. mining
562. For what office did Talmadge run in which he was defeated twice?
A. U.S. senator
B. Attorney general
C. U.S. representative
D. Chief justice of Georgia Supreme Court
563. When Eugene Talmadge died in 1946 before taking office for his fourth term as governor,
who became governor?
A. The previous governor remained governor.
B. Georgia’s lieutenant governor became governor.
C. Three people claimed to be Georgia’s governor.
D. The speaker of the General Assembly became governor.
564. Besides himself and God, who did Eugene Talmadge call the friend of rural voters?
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt
B. Montgomery Ward
C. Sears Roebuck
D.William Hartsfield
565. Which statement does NOT describe Eugene Talmadge?
A. He did not like federal intervention.
B. He was a white supremacist.
C. He supported public welfare.
D.He was a conservative.
566. Why did Eugene Talmadge run for the U.S. Senate in 1936?
A. He wanted to continue to move up the political ladder.
B. He believed he could better serve Georgia in Washington, D.C.
C. He could not serve more than two consecutive terms as Georgia’s governor.
D.He wanted to get national exposure in order to run for president of the United States.
Name: Date:
567. Why did many New Deal programs NOT help African Americans in Georgia?
A. Only whites qualified for Social Security and Medicare benefits.
B. Only whites were hired by the Works Progress Administration.
C. Young blacks were not hired under the National Youth Administration.
D. Subsidies under the Agricultural Adjustment Act were paid to property owners, not the
tenant farmers.
568. What did the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) provide?
A. fire insurance
B. life insurance
C. homeowners’ insurance
D. insurance for savings accounts
569. Which New Deal program did Georgia’s textile industry resist?
570. Which New Deal program was responsible for such projects in Georgia as
Roosevelt State Park in Pine Mountain, Tybee Island’s seawall, Augusta’s Savannah
River Levee, and Macon’s airport?
571. Which was NOT a purpose of the New Deal?
A. to provide loans to students
B. to improve lifestyles for Americans
C. to reform the defects in the economy
D. to relieve the suffering of the unemployed
572. How did the NIRA affect Georgia?
A. It outlawed unions in the textile industry.
B. It was responsible for a strike in the textile industry.
C. It allowed factory owners to hire even more workers.
D. It created better working conditions in the textile industry.
573. The strike in Georgia’s textile industry resulted in
A. the end of mill villages.
B. the blacklisting of some union activists.
C. the destruction of several mills by arson.
D. the creation of an atmosphere of goodwill that resulted in increased production.
574. What did the New Deal’s rural electrification project (REA) do for Georgia’s farmers?
A. It provided loans to farmers’ cooperatives so they could run power lines in rural areas.
B. It provided funds for power companies to run lines in rural areas.
C. It required power companies to provide power at a lower rate.
D. It enabled farms to double their size.
Name: Date:
575. As president, what was the first step Franklin Roosevelt took to bring about
economic recovery?
A. He closed banks.
B. He issued more money.
C. He set up soup kitchens.
D.He made government loans.
576. What was the major accomplishment of the New Deal?
A. It ended the depression.
B. It ended unemployment.
C. It paved the way for economic recovery.
D. It provided financial security for the country’s citizens.
577. What group of people was NOT covered by Social Security?
A. store clerks
B. farm workers
C. schoolteachers
D. factory owners
578. What group of Georgians benefited most from the AAA?
A. property owners
B. tenant farmers
C. alcoholics
D. blacks
579. The purpose of social security is to
A. create a system to save the banks.
B. create a system of retirement and unemployment insurance.
C. protect the financial sovereignty of the federal government.
D. give all workers in the United States a savings plan for the future.
682. What was the ruling of the U.S. Supreme Court in Brown v. Board of Education? (B)
A. Schools would be segregated and kept separate.
B. The separate-but-equal policy was unconstitutional.
C. Black schools would get more money for books and teachers.
D. Blacks could only attend white schools if there was space available.
683. What did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 do? (C)
A. It named black principals at previously all-white schools.
B. It gave more state tax money to schools that did not integrate.
C. It withheld federal funds from schools that did not end segregation.
D. It provided armed escorts for students wanting to attend white schools.
684. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., favored bringing about social change through (D)
A. unity.
B. democracy.
C. compromise.
D. nonviolence.
685. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 did NOT integrate (C)
A. public recreational areas.
B. restaurants.
C. churches.
D. hotels.
686. Which approach did Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., NOT use to gain equality and civil
rights for all citizens? (C)
A. economic boycotts of businesses that did not treat all citizens fairly
B. direct and nonviolent actions such as marches, protests, and demonstrations
C. aggressive pursuit of black power through protests, riots, demonstrations, and political
D. legal actions against individuals and businesses that violated the civil rights of individuals
based on race
Name: Date:
687. Before the civil rights movements of the 1960s there were NOT any (C)
A. water fountains with signs “Whites Only.”
B. integrated armed forces.
C. lunch counter sit-ins.
D. integrated schools.
688. Which statement does NOT illustrate Georgia’s initial reaction to the Brown v. Board of
Education decision of the U.S. Supreme Court? (D)
A. The governor pledged not to integrate the state’s schools.
B. Georgia citizens voted 3 to 2 to close schools rather than integrate them.
C. The General Assembly voted to cut off state funds to any schools that desegregated.
D. The Sibley Commission traveled throughout the state encouraging the peaceful
desegregation of schools.
689. Which action of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., directly influenced the passage of the
Voting Rights Act of 1965? (A)
A. march from Selma to Montgomery
B. Montgomery bus boycott
C. march on Washington
D. Albany Movement
690. Which civil rights movement abandoned the principles of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.?
A. Black Panthers
691. Which individual was NOT involved with Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., in the nonviolent
civil rights movement? (A)
A. H. Rap Brown
B. Jesse Jackson
C. John Lewis
D. Andrew Young
692. Which political leader was involved in Georgia’s infamous Three Governors Episode of
1946? (D)
A. Ben Fortson
B. Mitchell Griffin
C. Carl Sanders
D.Herman Talmadge
693. What office did Benjamin Mays hold? (D)
A. state legislator
B. mayor of Atlanta
C. governor of Georgia
D. Atlanta board of education member
694. Which person was NOT a candidate in the Georgia Democratic primary for governor in
1946? (B)
A. James Carmichael
B. Lester Maddox
C. Ed Rivers
D. Eugene Talmadge
Name: Date:
695. In the 1946 Democratic primary for governor, who received the largest popular vote?
A. James Carmichael
B. Lester Maddox
C. Ed Rivers
D.Herman Talmadge
696. During the Three Governors Episode who set up an office at the Capitol’s information
counter when he was locked out of his office? (A)
A. Ellis Arnall
B. Marvin Griffin
C. Herman Talmadge
D.Melvin Thompson
697. Which was NOT given as a reason for changing the Georgia state flag of 1956 by those
who opposed it? (C)
A. It represented the past instead of looking toward the future.
B. It damaged Georgia’s tourist industry.
C. It was hard for students to draw.
D. It was a symbol of slavery.
698. Which group was instrumental in getting the 1956 Georgia state flag changed? (A)
A. Atlanta Convention and Visitors Bureau
B. supporters of Governor Roy Barnes
C. public school students
D. Rainbow Coalition
699. In what year did the Georgia state flag become an issue in the race for governor? (D)
A. 1960
B. 1968
C. 1984
D. 2000
700. What was one reason for keeping the Georgia state flag of 1956? (B)
A. It was easy for school children to draw.
B. It was a memorial to the Confederate dead.
C. It was supported by a majority of Georgians.
D. It was similar to the flags of other southern states.
701. What MOST LIKELY enabled Herman Talmadge to be elected governor of Georgia in
1950? (B)
A. his position on segregation and voting rights
B. his role in the Three Governors Episode
C. his support from wealthy businessmen
D. his campaign style and popularity
702. In what area did Herman Talmadge make his greatest contributions as governor? (D)
A. attracting new business
B. voting rights
C. tax reform
D. education
Name: Date:
703. Which accomplishment is NOT associated with Governor Herman Talmadge? (B)
A. the Georgia Minimum Foundation Program for Education Act
B. purchase of Jekyll Island for use as a state park and resort
C. creation of the Georgia Forestry Commission
D. improvements in the Georgia prison system
704. Herman Talmadge’s 3 percent sales tax was passed primarily to fund (A)
A. a lengthened school year and school improvements.
B. Georgia’s part in the Interstate Highway System.
C. the purchase of Jekyll Island as a state park.
D. the creation of county health departments.
705. What is NOT an accomplishment of Herman Talmadge’s tenure as governor? (D)
A. reconstruction of the state highway department
B. establishment of soil conservation programs
C. improvement of state prisons
D. integration of schools
706. What organization was founded two months after the 1960 sit-in at the Woolworth’s
lunch counter in Greensboro, North Carolina? (D)
707. The purpose of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference (SCLC) was to promote
A. civil rights for all citizens.
B. equal rights for African Americans.
C. civil disobedience in transportation discrimination.
D. church attendance and membership among the African American community.
708. The focus of the Albany Movement in Georgia was to (B)
A. end segregation of public schools in Albany.
B. integrate interstate bus station waiting rooms in Albany.
C. implement a “first-come, first-served” policy on Albany buses.
D. force the hiring of African American bus drivers for Albany’s bus station.
709. Which method of influencing political decision making led to the Civil Rights Act of
1964? (D)
A. the ballot
B. freedom fighters
C. special interest groups
D. the power of public opinion
710. The purpose of the Sibley Commission was to (A)
A. study the problem of school integration.
B. develop a plan for securing jobs for blacks.
C. set up a series of meetings to bring blacks and whites together.
D. make recommendations for desegregation in public transportation.
Name: Date:
711. The Sibley Commission recommended (D)
A. integrating Georgia’s public transportation system.
B. making proposals to the legislature to address racial issues.
C. establishing a quota system to ensure the hiring of black workers.
D. allowing local school systems to decide if they wanted integration.
712. Who was the first black mayor of Atlanta? (B)
A. Hamilton Holmes
B. Maynard Jackson
C. Sam Massell
D. Andrew Young
713. Who was one of the first blacks to be admitted to the University of Georgia? (A)
A. Charlayne Hunter
B. Maynard Jackson
C. Rosa Parks
D. Andrew Young
714. Who was the governor of Georgia when the first black students were admitted to the
University of Georgia? (D)
A. Lester Maddox
B. Ed Rivers
C. Herman Talmadge
D. Ernest Vandiver
715. Which was NOT associated with Maynard Jackson? (B)
A. He reduced programs for the arts.
B. He expanded MARTA into the suburbs.
C. He addressed the issue of police brutality.
D.He led an effort to have the Olympics held in Atlanta.
716. Which African American did NOT serve as mayor of Atlanta? (C)
A. Bill Campbell
B. Shirley Franklin
C. Benjamin Mays
D. Andrew Young
717. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.’s “I Have a Dream” speech is associated with (B)
A. the Montgomery bus boycott.
B. the march on Washington, D.C.
C. his “Letter from the Birmingham Jail.”
D. a eulogy given at the funeral of Martin Luther King, Sr.
718. What did Lester Maddox NOT do as governor? (B)
A. integrate the Georgia State Patrol
B. name two African Americans to the state supreme court
C. name the first black member of the Board of Pardons and Paroles
D. appoint more African Americans to state boards than all prior governors combined
Name: Date:
719. What practice did Lester Maddox initiate in order to get input from the voters? (B)
A. suggestion boxes
B. People’s Days
C. monthly luncheons
D. statewide caravans
720. What statement about Andrew Young is FALSE? (B)
A. He was a minister.
B. He was born in Georgia.
C. He had a college degree in biology.
D.He was active in the civil rights movement.
721. Andrew Young helped establish “citizenship schools,” which taught (B)
A. young blacks their rights of citizenship.
B. nonviolent organizing strategies to potential leaders.
C. the art of campaigning to black potential political leaders.
D. the basic principles found in the U.S. Constitution to high school students.
722. The “citizenship schools” were under the supervision of the (A)
723. What event was the MOST significant in Andrew Young’s political career? (D)
A. He was involved in politics after he left the ministry.
B. He was the youngest African American governor to be elected in Georgia.
C. He was the first African American to graduate from the University of Georgia.
D.He was the first African American since Reconstruction to be elected to the House of
Representatives from Georgia.
724. To what position did President Jimmy Carter appoint Andrew Young? (B)
A. secretary of housing and urban development
B. ambassador to the United Nations
C. ambassador to South Africa
D. secretary of the interior
725. Which was NOT a position Andrew Young took on foreign policy? (D)
A. He supported human rights for all people.
B. He supported sanctions against apartheid.
C. He supported the economic development of Third World countries.
D.He supported not recognizing the government of Communist Vietnam.
Name: Date:
726. Which position was NOT held by Andrew Young? (A)
A. governor of Georgia
B. mayor of Atlanta
C. U.S. congressman
D. college professor
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. D
24. D
25. C
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. C
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. B
45. B
46. C
47. C
48. A
49. D
50. D
51. A
52. C
53. C
54. C
55. A
56. D
57. A
58. D
59. A
60 A
61. B
62. D
63. D
64. D
65. B
66. A
67. B
68. B
69. D
70. D
71. D
72. A
73. C
74. A
75. C
76. B
77. B
78. A
79. C
80. B
81. C
82. B
83. D
84. B
85. A
86. D
87. A
88. A
89. B
90. C
91. A
92. A
93. C
94. B
95. D
96. A
97. C
98. A
99. B
100. D
101. D
102. A
103. C
104. C
105. D
106. A
107. A
108. C
109. A
110. B
111. B
112. B
113. B
114. C
115. D
116. A
117. B
118. A
119. A
120. D
121. A
122. C
123. B
124. C
125. D
126. A
127. A
128. C
129. D
130. A
131. D
132. B
133. D
134. B
135. A
136. B
137. B
138. B
139. B
140. B
141. D
142. D
143. C
144. A
145. D
146. A
147. D
148. A
149. D
150. A
151. B
152. D
153. D
154. A
155. D
156. A
157. D
159. A
159. D
160. A
161. C
162. C
163. C
164. D
165. B
166. B
167. D
168. C
169. D
170. C
171. B
172. C
173. D
174. D
175. A
176. B
177. A
178. C
179. C
180. D
181. D
182. C
183. B
184. D
185. B
186. B
187. B
188. D
189. B
190. A
191. B
192. D
193. C
194. D
195. C
196. C
197. C
198. D
199. A
200. A
201. D
202. A
203. C
204. B
205. D
206. B
207. D
208. C
209. B
210. A
211. A
212. C
213. A
214. D
215. A
216. B
217. B
218. C
219. B
220. B
221. A
222. B
223. A
224. A
225. B
226. D
227. D
228. C
229. A
230. A
231. C
232. C
233. B
234. D
235. B
236. A
237. D
238. B
239. C
240. D
241. A
242. C
243. D
244. C
245. C
246. C
247. B
248. C
249. C
250. B
251. C
252. A
253. A
254. D
255. D
256. B
257. A
258. B
259. C
260. B
261. A
262. C
263. A
264. C
265. A
266. C
267. B
268. C
269. C
270. D
271. B
272. D
273. B
274. A
275. C
276. B
277. B
278. A
279. C
280. D
281. A
282. A
283. D
284. C
285. B
286. C
287. B
288. B
289. B
290. A
291. C
292. A
293. C
294. B
295. C
296. B
297. A
298. C
299. B
300. D
301. A
302. B
303. B
304. B
305. D
306. D
307. B
308. A
309. A
310. A
311. B
312. D
313. A
314. D
315. D
316. B
317. B
318. A
319. B
320. C
321. D
322. A
323. D
324. B
325. D
326. D
327. D
328. D
329. C
330. B
331. C
332. A
333. D
334. D
335. D
336. D
337. C
338. B
339. C
340. C
341. C
342. D
343. D
344. A
345. D
346. C
347. B
348. A
349. D
350. C
351. B
352. B
353. A
354. B
355. D
356. B
357. A
358. D
359. A
360. B
361. B
362. A
363. C
364. C
365. B
366. C
367. C
368. D
369. C
370. D
371. C
372. A
373. B
374. D
375. C
376. B
377. D
378. D
379. B
380. B
381. B
382. D
383. C
384. A
385. D
386. D
387. D
388. A
389. C
390. D
391. A
392. D
393. A
394. B
395. C
396. C
397. A
398. D
399. C
400. C
401. D
402. A
403. D
404. C
405. A
406. B
407. B
408. A
409. D
410. B
411. C
412. B
413. D
414. B
415. C
416. C
417. C
418. C
419. A
420. C
421. B
422. C
423. D
424. A
425. C
426. A
427. B
428. B
429. B
430. D
431. B
432. A
433. A
434. C
435. C
436. B
437. C
438. B
439. C
440. D
441. A
442. D
443. C
444. A
445. B
446. D
447. A
448. A
449. C
450. A
451. A
452. B
453. C
454. D
455. A
456. B
457. A
458. A
459. B
460. C
461. B
462. C
463. D
464. C
465. C
466. A
467. B
468. B
469. D
470. A
471. A
472. C
473. D
474. D
475. A
476. D
477. D
478. A
479. C
480. B
481. D
482. C
483. B
484. A
485. B
486. A
487. C
488. C
489. C
490. A
491. B
492. C
493. A
494. B
495. C
496. D
497. A
498. A
499. C
500. A
501. A
502. B
503. D
504. A
Name: Date:
505. A
506. B
507. C
508. D
509. A
510. C
511. D
512. C
513. B
514. B
515. D
516. D
517. B
518. D
519. D
520. B
521. B
522. C
523. B
524. D
525. B
526. B
527. A
528. B
529. B
530. B
531. D
532. D
533. A
534. A
535. D
536. A
537. B
538. C
539. C
540. A
541. B
542. D
543. A
544. D
545. A
546. C
547. B
548. C
549. B
550. B
551. A
552. B
553. B
554. D
555. A
556. C
557. D
558. A
559. D
560. C
561. C
562. A
563. C
564. C
565. C
566. C
567. D
568. D
569. C
570. A
571. A
572. B
573. A
574. A
575. A
576. C
577. B
578. A
579. B
580. B
581. D
582. B
583. B
584. C
585. A
586. C
587. B
588. C
589. D
590. A
591. D
592. B
593. D
594. A
595. D
596. B
597. A
598. A
599. B
600. A
601. D
602. B
603. C
604. B
605. A
606. B
607. C
608. A
609. B
610. A
611. B
612. D
613. B
614. C
615. C
616. A
617. A
618. B
619. B
620. D
621. B
622. C
623. C
624. C
625. D
626. D
627. C
628. C
629. D
630. D
631. A
632. C
633. A
634. C
635. D
636. D
637. B
638. D
639. C
640. A
641. B
642. A
643. C
644. B
645. B
646. B
647. C
648. D
649. B
650. C
651. B
652. D
653. B
654. B
655. C
656. A
657. C
658. B
659. C
660. C
661. B
662. B
663. B
664. C
665. B
666. A
667. A
668. A
669. D
670. B
671. B
672. A
673. D
674. B
675. D
676. C
677. C
678. D
679. D
680. B
681. A
682. B
683. C
684. D
685. C
686. C
687. C
688. D
689. A
690. A
691. A
692. D
693. D
694. B
695. A
696. A
697. C
698. A
699. D
700. B
701. B
702. D
703. B
704. A
705. D
706. D
707. A
708. B
709. D
710. A
711. D
712. B
713. A
714. D
715. B
716. C
717. B
718. B
719. B
720. B
721. B
722. A
723. D
724. B
725. D
726. A
727. A
728. D
729. D
730. A
731. A
732. A
733. A
734. A
735. A
736. B
737. B
738. B
739. C
740. C
741. B
742. D
743. B
744. B
745. C
746. A
747. D
748. D
749. B
750. B
751. C
752. A
753. A
754. C
755. A
756. D
757. A
758. D
759. C
760. A
761. D
762. D
763. A
764. A
765. D
766. A
767. D
768. C
769. D
770. A
771. C
772. C
773. D
774. B
775. D
776. A
777. D
778. D
779. C
780. B
781. C
782. C
783. B
784. D
785. C
786. D
787. B
788. B
789. C
790. A
791. D
792. B
793. B
794. B
795. C
796. C
797. D
798. D
799. A
800. B
801. B
802. C
803. D
804. D
805. B
806. D
807. A
808. A
809. A
810. A
811. D
812. B
813. D
814. A
815. A
816. B
817. C
818. C
819. C
820. A
821. A
822. A
823. D
824. C
825. C
826. A
827. A
828. B
829. C
830. B
831. C
832. A
833. D
834. B
835. B
836. C
837. A
838. B
839. A
840. B
841. D
842. A
843. B
844. C
845. B
846. B
847. A
848. B
849. C
850. D
851. C
852. D
853. B
854. C
855. D
856. B
857. B
858. C
859. C
860. B
861. C
862. C
863. D
864. D
865. A
866. C
867. C
868. B
869. C
870. C
871. C
872. B
873. D
874. A
875. B
876. D
877. D
878. A
879. C
880. D
881. B
882. C
883. A
884. C
885. B
886. C
887. C
888. B
889. B
890. C
891. A
892. B
893. C
894. D
895. B
896. C
897. C
898. C
899. D
900. B
901. C
902. D
903. A
904. A
905. D
906. A
907. A
908. D
909. B
910. D
911. C
912. A
913. D
914. C
915. B
916. B
917. C
918. B
919. B
920. D
921. B
922. C
923. C
924. B
925. B
926. A
927. D
928. B
929. C
930. D
931. A
932. C
933. A
934. B
935. C
936. D
937. A
938. C
939. B
940. B
941. A
942. C
943. A
944. C
945. A
946. D
947. C
948. A
949. A
950. B
951. D
952. A
953. C
954. C
955. B
956. D
957. B
958. D
959. D
960. A
961. D.
962. B
963. D
964. C
965. D
966. C
967. C
968. B
969. D
970. A
971. B
972. A
973. D
974. B
975. A
976. D
977. D
978. B
979. D
980. A
981. D
982. A
983. A
984. D
985. A
986. A
987. B
988. B
989. D
990. D
991. D
992. B
993. D
994. A
995. B
996. C
997. C
998. A
999. A

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