Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. B 1. Which of these characteristically does not cross placental barrier in humans? a. IgG1 c. IgG3 b. IgG2 d. IgG4 B - ? –same question as #1 2. Which of these characteristically does not cross placental barrier in humans? a. IgG1 c. IgG3 b. IgG2 d. IgG4 A – there are 4; one is nondistinct; 3. IgA protease is produced by several other 3 are for IgA1 bacterial pathogens against: a. IgA1 c. Both b. IgA2 d. Neither A 4. Which of the following possess a J- chain ? a. IgM c. Both b. IgD d. Neither E – rest are all parts of 5. Which of the following is not immunoglobulins, which plasma produced by plasma cells ? cells create a. Mu d. J -chains chains b. Kappa e. Secretory chains piece c. Lambda chains A – IgM does not pass through 6. The immunoglobulin in the serum of placenta this infant is all of maternal origin. a. Th IgM d. The is of immunoglobulin fetal in the serum is origin all of fetal origin. b. The IgM e. The is both immunoglobulin of fetal in the serum of and this infant is all maternal of maternal origin. origin. c. The IgG is of fetal origin. B 7. Which is the region of complement fixation? a. Light d. Hypervariable chain region b. Heavy e. Fab portion chain c. Kappa or lambda chain Matching research gives the following answers – not a. IgA d. IgG matching! b. IgD e. IgM c. IgE f. S-IgA E 8. Fixes Complement best of all immunoglobulins. D 9. Half-life in human blood of approximately 21 days D 10. Immunoglobulin class most frequently acting as rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis. D 11. Multiple myeloma is most frequently associated with which immunoglobulin class? A 12. Selective immunoglobulin deficiency most frequently involves which class? A 13. Heavy chain (Franklin's) disease usually involves the heavy chains of which antibody class? a. IgG d. A and C only b. IgM e. A,B and C c. Complement f. A and B only E 14. Type II hypersensitivity reactions may involve which of the above? a. IgG d. A,B and C b. IgM e. A and C only c. Complement f. A and B only E - ? – same as #14 15. Type II hypersensitivity reactions may involve which of the above? a. IgA d. LgG b. IgD e. LgM c. IgE f. S-lgA D – IgG would be the only one to 16. The cord blood of a newborn is cross placenta analyzed shortly after birth because of a suspected in utero infection. An elevation of which Ab class best confirms this suspicion st mutans is oral – dental decay a. Hemophilus d. St. mutans influenzae b. St. e. Neisseria pneumoniae gonorrhoeae c. St. pyogenes D 17. IgA protease is produce by all of the following EXCEPT a. Anaphylatoxin c. Inmune activity adherence b. Chemotaxis for phagocytes B 18. C3b A 19. C3a C 20. C4b a. IL-1 c. Both b. IL-2 d. Neither B 21. Produced by T cells. A 22. Produced by Macrophages D 23. Produced by Mast cells. a. C2a d. C5a b. C3a e. C3bBb3b c. C4a f. C3bPBb D 24. Most potent anaphylatoxin of the Complement systems: a. NK cell d. Eosinophil b. T-cell e. Platelet c. Basophil f. Mast: cell E 25. Peripheral blood elements of humans which contain both histamine and serotonin: a. Cytotoxic T- f. B -cells cells (Tcyt) b. NK cells g. choices A,C, and E only c. T killer cells h. A,B & C only d. Helper T i. All of these cells except choice D e. Macrophages j. Choices A through F D 26. The disorder known as Insulin- dependent diabetes (or Type I diabetes) develops as a result of action associated with which of the above: a. 10,800 >_ c. 10,500 Dif 12___> > fer N65, E4, 13 en B1, L25, > t M5 N69, ins 38 E3, B0, tru L26, cti M2 on s 37 Be b. 4,500 > d. 7,500 lo 15 > w > N52, 16 E3, B0, > [A L40, M5 N63, ] if 45 E3, B0, a, L30, b M4 & c ar 47 e co ABCD - can’t find out what these 27. Which of the following sets of rre values represent hematologic values obtained from ct adult female patients is abnormal? [D ] if only d is correct [B] if a & c are correct [E] if all are correct [C] if b & d are correct E 1. Which of the following is/are not classified as Type II Hypersensitivity a. serum sickness c. Systemic anaphylaxis b. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Erythroblastosis fetalis C 2. Factor H, a tetramer found in normal serum, has which of the following activities? a. It prevents Factor d. It stabilizes and protects C3 B from binding convertase. to C3b b. It removes Factor e. All of the above. Bb from C3 convertase of the Alternate Pathway (ACP). c. It enhances b-yes Factor I c-yes binding to C3b d-yes and thus increases the inactivation of C3b by Factor I. D 3. Which of the following cells in human peripheral blood possess lysozyme? a. Eosinophil c. Basophil b. Monocyte d. Neutrophil C 4. For which of these conditions would you consider urgent antipyretic therapy (e.g. acetaminophen) for a previously healthy adult 25 YOA male in good nutritional state? a. 37.5 ¡C-normal c. 38¡C - normal b. 100.4 ¡F - high d. 40¡C - high E 5. The term, ""fever of unknown origin" when applied to a child implies: a. Thorough evaluation by a d. Lack of a physician with a physical exam, diagnosis after history and appropriate lab tests one week of including culture of blood, urine, hospitalization. CBC, etc. b. A body temperature of 38.5 or e. All of the more. above. c. The febrile state lasting for a duration of at least 2 weeks E 6. In which of the following hypersensitivity states is complement NOT involved? a. serum c. Goodpasture's sickness syndrome b. Allergic d. Tuberculin rhinitis sensitivity A 7. Routine initial work-up of a patient with FUO would least likely include which of the following: a. Blood d. Exploratory cultures surgery b. Liver biopsy e. All of the above c. Liver function tests B 8. Which of the following does not serve as a moderator for activities of mediator factors involved in immediate allergic reactions? a. Na chromglycate d. Eysozyme b. Epinephrine e. Corticosteroid c. Ephedrine B 9. Which of the following test procedures is used to quantitate the allergen-specific IgE in a patient? a. Prausnitz-Kustner passive d. RIST cutaneous anaphylaxis test b. Serum electrophoresis e. Patch test c. RAST A 10. Of the following causes of FUO, which is the most common in US hospitals? a. Connective tissue d. Neoplastic disease disease b. Undiagnosed disease e. All of the above c. Infection D 11. The Pel-Epstein fever type of febrile state is most suggestive of which of these disease conditions? a. Pulmonary embolus d. Hodgkin's disease b. Infectious e. Sarcoidosis endocarditis c. Systemic lupus erythematosis Matching a. IgA d. IgC b. IgD e. IgM c. IgE f. S-IgA C 12. The immunoglobulin class which is chiefly involved as a blocking Ab for Type I hypersensitivity reaction is: a. IgA d. IgG b. IgD e. IgM c. IgE f. None of these F 13. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with reactions with cellular antigen. C 14. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with Type I hypersensitivity. F 15. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with Type IV hypersensitivity. F 16. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with adverse reactions to the fetus in hemolytic disease of the newborn. a. Factor H e. Decay accelerating Factor (DAF) inhibiting immune adherence. b. Factor I f. C5 convertase of CCP c. C3 g. None of these convertase of the ACP d. C3 convertase of OCP D 17. C4b2b F 18. c4b2b3b G 19. C3bBb3b A 20. C3Bb C 21. C3bBb B 22. An endopeptidase which cleaves C3b. E 23. Inhibits activity of C3 convertase a. Active naturally-acquired d. Passive artificially acquired immunity immunity b. Passive naturally acquired e. Passive adaptively acquired immunity immunity c. Active artificially acquired immunity B 24. Colostrum ingestion C 25. Tetanus toxoid administration C 26. MMR childhood immunization C 27. DPT & OPV childhood immunization A 28. Chicken pox infection A 29. Infection with Salmonella organisms E 30. Transplacental crossover of maternal ABS a. Stabilizes or c. Both protects C3 convertase b. Stabilizes or d. Neither protects C5 convertase A 31. Properdin A 32. Factor H A 33. Factor I a. Killed virus f. Antitoxin b. Killed bacteria g. Toxoid c. Live attenuated virus h. Immune serum globulin d. Live attenuated bacteria i. Antivenom e. Toxin j. None of these F 34. Diphtheria childhood immunizations C 35. Polio childhood immunizations F 36. Tetanus childhood immunizations D 37. Pertussis childhood immunizations C 38. Measles, mumps, rubella childhood vaccine C 39. Prophylactic therapy for Hepatitis A case contacts a. CH2 region of molecule d. VH and VL regions of the molecule b. CH3 region of molecule e. None of these c. CH4 region of the molecule can’t find a decent biochem reference for this ABCDE 40. The Clq binding site of IgG ABCDE 41. The Clq binding site of IgM ABCDE 42. The Clq binding site of IgD ABCDE 43. The Clq binding site of IgE ABCDE 44. The Clq binding site of IgE ABCDE 45. The Clq binding site of IgE ABCDE 46. J chain binding site of IgG ABCDE 47. Neutrophil binding site if IgM ABCDE 48. Antigenic combining site of IgG Allergy capable of transient a. passive transfer from one person c. Both to another by serum. Allergy capable of passive transfer b. d. Neither by means of cells only. D 49. Systemic anaphylaxis A 50. Tuberculin sensitivity D 51. Food Allergy D 52. Contact dermatitis B 53. Poison Ivy Possess a. chemotactic c. Both activity Possess b. d. Neither anaphylatoxin C 54. C3a B 55. C4a C 56. C5a D 57. C5b67 Myeloperoxidase Chronic granulomatous a. c. deficiency disease b. Chediak-Higashi disease d. Systemic lupus erythematosis B 58. Disease characterized by severe recurrent and lingering bacterial infections beginning in infancy, or early childhood. Causative agents are most often members of the Enterobacteriaceae (e.g. Serratia, Escherichia, Klebsiella, etc or S. aureus. The patient's neutrophils are adequate for chemotaxis and pathogen ingestion. C 59. The patients frequently exhibit a state of neutropenia coupled with recurrent severe attacks of bacterial sinusitis and pneumonia and/or deep tissue abscesses accented by mild bleeding episodes. Presence of normal microbe ingestion, abnormally large lysosomes, deficient chemotaxis and diminished degranulation of the neutrophils characterize neutrophils after phagocytosis. A 60. Inherited condition most frequently recognized by patients increased susceptibility to Candida albicans infections. Neutrophil chemotaxis, phagocytosis and degranulation activity is normal. Microbe killing is defective. Diagnosis is made in part by testing levels of specific enzyme-associated activity in blood cells on the blood film.
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