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Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
B 1. Which of these characteristically does
not cross placental barrier in
humans?
a. IgG1 c. IgG3
b. IgG2 d. IgG4
B - ? –same question as #1 2. Which of these characteristically does
not cross placental barrier in
humans?
a. IgG1 c. IgG3
b. IgG2 d. IgG4
A – there are 4; one is nondistinct; 3. IgA protease is produced by several
other 3 are for IgA1 bacterial pathogens against:
a. IgA1 c. Both
b. IgA2 d. Neither
A 4. Which of the following possess a J-
chain ?
a. IgM c. Both
b. IgD d. Neither
E – rest are all parts of 5. Which of the following is not
immunoglobulins, which plasma produced by plasma cells ?
cells create a. Mu d. J -chains
chains
b. Kappa e. Secretory
chains piece
c. Lambda
chains
A – IgM does not pass through 6. The immunoglobulin in the serum of
placenta this infant is all of maternal origin.
a. Th IgM d. The
is of immunoglobulin
fetal in the serum is
origin all of fetal
origin.
b. The IgM e. The
is both immunoglobulin
of fetal in the serum of
and this infant is all
maternal of maternal
origin. origin.
c. The IgG
is of
fetal
origin.
B 7. Which is the region of complement
fixation?
a. Light d. Hypervariable
chain region
b. Heavy e. Fab portion
chain
c. Kappa
or
lambda
chain
Matching
research gives the following answers – not
a. IgA d. IgG matching!
b. IgD e. IgM
c. IgE f. S-IgA
E 8. Fixes Complement best of all
immunoglobulins.
D 9. Half-life in human blood of
approximately 21 days
D 10. Immunoglobulin class most
frequently acting as rheumatoid
factor in rheumatoid arthritis.
D 11. Multiple myeloma is most frequently
associated with which
immunoglobulin class?
A 12. Selective immunoglobulin deficiency
most frequently involves which
class?
A 13. Heavy chain (Franklin's) disease
usually involves the heavy chains of
which antibody class?
a. IgG d. A and C
only
b. IgM e. A,B and C
c. Complement f. A and B
only
E 14. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
may involve which of the above?
a. IgG d. A,B
and C
b. IgM e. A and
C only
c. Complement f. A and
B only
E - ? – same as #14 15. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
may involve which of the above?
a. IgA d. LgG
b. IgD e. LgM
c. IgE f. S-lgA
D – IgG would be the only one to 16. The cord blood of a newborn is
cross placenta analyzed shortly after birth because
of a suspected in utero infection. An
elevation of which Ab class best
confirms this suspicion
st mutans is oral – dental decay
a. Hemophilus d. St. mutans
influenzae
b. St. e. Neisseria
pneumoniae gonorrhoeae
c. St.
pyogenes
D 17. IgA protease is produce by all of the
following EXCEPT
a. Anaphylatoxin c. Inmune
activity adherence
b. Chemotaxis
for
phagocytes
B 18. C3b
A 19. C3a
C 20. C4b
a. IL-1 c. Both
b. IL-2 d. Neither
B 21. Produced by T cells.
A 22. Produced by Macrophages
D 23. Produced by Mast cells.
a. C2a d. C5a
b. C3a e. C3bBb3b
c. C4a f. C3bPBb
D 24. Most potent anaphylatoxin of the
Complement systems:
a. NK cell d. Eosinophil
b. T-cell e. Platelet
c. Basophil f. Mast: cell
E 25. Peripheral blood elements of humans
which contain both histamine and
serotonin:
a. Cytotoxic T- f. B -cells
cells (Tcyt)
b. NK cells g. choices A,C,
and E only
c. T killer cells h. A,B & C only
d. Helper T i. All of these
cells except choice
D
e. Macrophages j. Choices A
through F
D 26. The disorder known as Insulin-
dependent diabetes (or Type I
diabetes) develops as a result of
action associated with which of the
above:
a. 10,800 >_ c. 10,500 Dif
12___> > fer
N65, E4, 13 en
B1, L25, > t
M5 N69, ins
38 E3, B0, tru
L26, cti
M2 on
s
37 Be
b. 4,500 > d. 7,500 lo
15 > w
> N52, 16
E3, B0, > [A
L40, M5 N63, ] if
45 E3, B0, a,
L30, b
M4 &
c
ar
47 e
co
ABCD - can’t find out what these 27. Which of the following sets of rre
values represent hematologic values obtained from ct
adult
female patients is abnormal?
[D
] if only d is correct
[B] if a & c are correct [E] if all are correct
[C] if b & d are correct
E 1. Which of the following is/are not classified as Type II Hypersensitivity
a. serum sickness c. Systemic anaphylaxis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Erythroblastosis fetalis
C 2. Factor H, a tetramer found in normal serum, has which of the following activities?
a. It prevents Factor d. It stabilizes and protects C3
B from binding convertase.
to C3b
b. It removes Factor e. All of the above.
Bb from C3
convertase of
the Alternate
Pathway
(ACP).
c. It enhances b-yes
Factor I c-yes
binding to C3b d-yes
and thus
increases the
inactivation of
C3b by
Factor
I.
D 3. Which of the following cells in human peripheral blood possess lysozyme?
a. Eosinophil c. Basophil
b. Monocyte d. Neutrophil
C 4. For which of these conditions would you consider urgent antipyretic therapy (e.g.
acetaminophen) for a previously healthy adult 25 YOA male in good nutritional
state?
a. 37.5 ¡C-normal c. 38¡C - normal
b. 100.4 ¡F - high d. 40¡C - high
E 5. The term, ""fever of unknown origin" when applied to a child implies:
a. Thorough evaluation by a d. Lack of a
physician with a physical exam, diagnosis after
history and appropriate lab tests one week of
including culture of blood, urine, hospitalization.
CBC, etc.
b. A body temperature of 38.5 or e. All of the
more. above.
c. The febrile state lasting for a
duration of at least 2 weeks
E 6. In which of the following hypersensitivity states is
complement NOT involved?
a. serum c. Goodpasture's
sickness syndrome
b. Allergic d. Tuberculin
rhinitis sensitivity
A 7. Routine initial work-up of a patient with FUO would
least likely include which of the following:
a. Blood d. Exploratory
cultures surgery
b. Liver biopsy e. All of the above
c. Liver function
tests
B 8. Which of the following does not serve as a moderator
for activities of mediator factors involved in immediate
allergic reactions?
a. Na chromglycate d. Eysozyme
b. Epinephrine e. Corticosteroid
c. Ephedrine
B 9. Which of the following test procedures is used to
quantitate the allergen-specific IgE in a patient?
a. Prausnitz-Kustner passive d. RIST
cutaneous anaphylaxis test
b. Serum electrophoresis e. Patch
test
c. RAST
A 10. Of the following causes of FUO, which is the most
common in US hospitals?
a. Connective tissue d. Neoplastic
disease disease
b. Undiagnosed disease e. All of the
above
c. Infection
D 11. The Pel-Epstein fever type of febrile state is most
suggestive of which of these disease conditions?
a. Pulmonary embolus d. Hodgkin's
disease
b. Infectious e. Sarcoidosis
endocarditis
c. Systemic lupus
erythematosis
Matching
a. IgA d. IgC
b. IgD e. IgM
c. IgE f. S-IgA
C 12. The immunoglobulin class which is chiefly
involved as a blocking Ab for Type I
hypersensitivity reaction is:
a. IgA d. IgG
b. IgD e. IgM
c. IgE f. None of these
F 13. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with reactions with
cellular antigen.
C 14. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with Type I
hypersensitivity.
F 15. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with Type IV
hypersensitivity.
F 16. Immunoglobulin chiefly associated with adverse reactions
to the fetus in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
a. Factor H e. Decay
accelerating
Factor (DAF)
inhibiting
immune
adherence.
b. Factor I f. C5 convertase
of CCP
c. C3 g. None of these
convertase
of the ACP
d. C3
convertase
of OCP
D 17. C4b2b
F 18. c4b2b3b
G 19. C3bBb3b
A 20. C3Bb
C 21. C3bBb
B 22. An endopeptidase which cleaves C3b.
E 23. Inhibits activity of C3 convertase
a. Active naturally-acquired d. Passive artificially acquired
immunity immunity
b. Passive naturally acquired e. Passive adaptively acquired
immunity immunity
c. Active artificially acquired
immunity
B 24. Colostrum ingestion
C 25. Tetanus toxoid administration
C 26. MMR childhood immunization
C 27. DPT & OPV childhood immunization
A 28. Chicken pox infection
A 29. Infection with Salmonella organisms
E 30. Transplacental crossover of maternal ABS
a. Stabilizes or c. Both
protects C3
convertase
b. Stabilizes or d. Neither
protects C5
convertase
A 31. Properdin
A 32. Factor H
A 33. Factor I
a. Killed virus f. Antitoxin
b. Killed bacteria g. Toxoid
c. Live attenuated virus h. Immune serum globulin
d. Live attenuated bacteria i. Antivenom
e. Toxin j. None of these
F 34. Diphtheria childhood immunizations
C 35. Polio childhood immunizations
F 36. Tetanus childhood immunizations
D 37. Pertussis childhood immunizations
C 38. Measles, mumps, rubella childhood vaccine
C 39. Prophylactic therapy for Hepatitis A case contacts
a. CH2 region of molecule d. VH and VL regions of the molecule
b. CH3 region of molecule e. None of these
c. CH4 region of the molecule
can’t find a decent biochem reference for this
ABCDE 40. The Clq binding site of IgG
ABCDE 41. The Clq binding site of IgM
ABCDE 42. The Clq binding site of IgD
ABCDE 43. The Clq binding site of IgE
ABCDE 44. The Clq binding site of IgE
ABCDE 45. The Clq binding site of IgE
ABCDE 46. J chain binding site of IgG
ABCDE 47. Neutrophil binding site if IgM
ABCDE 48. Antigenic combining site of IgG
Allergy capable of transient
a. passive transfer from one person c. Both
to another by serum.
Allergy capable of passive transfer
b. d. Neither
by means of cells only.
D 49. Systemic anaphylaxis
A 50. Tuberculin sensitivity
D 51. Food Allergy
D 52. Contact dermatitis
B 53. Poison Ivy
Possess
a. chemotactic c. Both
activity
Possess
b. d. Neither
anaphylatoxin
C 54. C3a
B 55. C4a
C 56. C5a
D 57. C5b67
Myeloperoxidase Chronic granulomatous
a. c.
deficiency disease
b. Chediak-Higashi disease d. Systemic lupus erythematosis
B 58. Disease characterized by severe recurrent and lingering bacterial
infections beginning in infancy, or early childhood. Causative agents
are most often members of the Enterobacteriaceae (e.g. Serratia,
Escherichia, Klebsiella, etc or S. aureus. The patient's neutrophils are
adequate for chemotaxis and pathogen ingestion.
C 59. The patients frequently exhibit a state of neutropenia coupled with
recurrent severe attacks of bacterial sinusitis and pneumonia and/or
deep tissue abscesses accented by mild bleeding episodes. Presence of
normal microbe ingestion, abnormally large lysosomes, deficient
chemotaxis and diminished degranulation of the neutrophils
characterize neutrophils after phagocytosis.
A 60. Inherited condition most frequently recognized by patients increased
susceptibility to Candida albicans infections. Neutrophil chemotaxis,
phagocytosis and degranulation activity is normal. Microbe killing is
defective. Diagnosis is made in part by testing levels of specific
enzyme-associated activity in blood cells on the blood film.
