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RATIONALIZATION
Module 1
(Organic Chem, Inorganic Chem, Medicinal Chem)
1. It is the only unicyclic Antidepressant:
a. Lexapro -escitalopram
b. Prozac - fluoxetine
c. Wellbutrin - bupropion
d. Remeron – mirtazapine
Thenard’s blue
Reaction from:
Aluminum heated in Sodium carbonate
in Cobalt nitrate soln
2. The ion that gives positive result to Thenard’s
Test causes:
a. Reye’s syndrome -
b. Minamata diseases -
c. Wilson’s disease -
d. Shaver’s disease -
3. A fourth generation Cephalosporin:
a. Axera – cefepime
b. Rocephin – ceftriaxone
c. Zinacef – cefuroxime
d. Monowel – cefoxitin
4. A rule that states that when stress is applied
to a system in equilibrium, the equilibrium
shifts to relieve stress:
a. Law of Conservation of Mass
b. Law of Definite Proportion
c. Law of Mass Action
d. Le Chatelier’s Principle
5. This element is present in Insulin:
a. Co
b. Zn
c. Mg
d. Fe
e. NOTA
6. It is administered in an ice-cold condition to
lessen its disagreeable bitter taste;
parenterally used as an anti convulsant:
a. Glauber’s salt
b. Rochelle salt
c. Epsom salt
d. Purgative lemonade
7. The ion that gives a purple solution with
Sodium bismuthate:
a. Cobalt
b. Ferrous
c. Manganese
d. Ferric
8. The sum of the number of protons & neutron:
a. Mass number
b. Atomic weight - average mass of atoms of an
element
c. Isotope - atoms of the same element can
have different numbers of neutrons
d. Atomic number - # of protons present in
nucleus
Q#49
9. Principle which states that it is impossible to
accurately determine simultaneously the
position & motion of an electron:
a. Pauli’s exclusion principle The Aufbau (building up)
Principle:
b. Aufbau principle an orbital cannot take more
c. Heisenberg principle than 2 electrons.
d. NOTA
10. Acids have the following properties except:
a. pH below 7
b. acceptor of protons
c. neutralizes base
d. Sour taste
11. Which of the ff is/are
considered slow
acetylators: a. III only
I. Eskimos b. I and II only
II. Egyptians c. III and IV only
III. Filipinos d. II and IV only
IV. Mediterranean Jews e. I and III only
Eskimos and Orientals are
rapid acetylators
12. Which of the ff is/are
parent drug/s?
a. I and II only
I. Digitoxin b. III and IV only
II. Hydrocortisone c. I, II and IV only
III. Primidone d. I, III, and IV only
IV. Propranolol e. AOTA
13. An agent that prevents infection by the
destruction of pathogenic microorganisms
when applied to inanimate objects:
a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Antibiotic
d. Sanitizer
e. Pesticide
14. A dye used as an antidote for cyanide
poisoning: It promotes conversion of
a. Malachite green hemoglobin to
methemoglobin, which
b. Methylene blue
because of its high affinity for
c. Phenolphthalein cyanide ion diverts it from
d. Gentian violet inactivating Cytochrome C
e. NOTA
15. The antibiotic that binds with Ribosome 30s
subunit:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Tetracycline
c. Erythromycin
d. Lincomycin
e. Penicillin
30S
A-minoglycosides
T-etracycline
16. Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it
to contain a fused ring system which is the:
a. β – lactam thiazolidine structure
b. β – lactam penam structure
c. 6 – Aminopenicillinanic acid
d. β – lactam phenylpenicillin ring
e. β – lactam alkylamino ethyl ring
17. Tienam is a
combination of:
a. II and IV
I. Piperacillin b. I and II
II. Cilastatin c. I and IV
III. Tazobactam d. II and III
IV. Imipenem e. I and III
18. Vigocid is a
combination of:
a. II and IV
I. Piperacillin b. I and II
II. Cilastatin c. I and IV
III. Tazobactam d. II and III
IV. Imipenem e. I and III
19. The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used
in chemotherapy:
a. Amikacin
b. Gentamicin
c. Streptomycin
d. Kanamycin
e. Neomycin
20. It is used primarily for treating polycythemia
vera:
a. Hexamethylamine
b. Asparaginase
c. Tamoxifen
d. Pipobroman
e. Hydroxyurea
21. Diamox is:
a. Methazolamide
b. Dichlorphenamide
c. Amoxicillin
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
e. Acetazolamide
22. The major adverse effect of Midamor:
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hyperkalemia
e. Hypomagnesemia
Q#91(same)
23. The major source of histamine in the body
results from the decarboxylation of this amino
acid:
a. Tryptophan Serotonin
b. Histidine
c. Tyrosine Dopa-->NE/Epi
d. Phenylalanine
e. Arginine
24. A class of antibiotics that contain a
macrocyclic ring bridged across two
nonadjacent positions of an aromatic nucleus
and called ansamycins:
a. Cephalosporins
b. Macrolides
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycins
e. Aminoglycosides
25. Which of the following
is/are side effect/s of
dactinomycin? a. I, II and III
b. I and II
I. Alopecia c. II and III
II. Bone marrow d. I only
depression
e. III only
III. Nausea and vomiting
26. A semi-synthetic derivative of
podophyllotoxin which in combination with
other chemotherapeutic agents is the first
choice treatment for small-cell lung cancer:
a. Vinblastine
b. Vincristine
c. Doxorubicin Effective alone or in combination
d. Daunorubicin w/ other agents for refractory
e. Etoposide testicular tumors, acute
nonlymphocytic leukemia,
Hodgkin’s dse, Non Hodgkin’s
lymphoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma
27. Which of the following
is/are brand name/s of
Ibuprofen: a. I only
b. II only
I. Tylenol c. I and II only
II. Advil d. AOTA
III. Siverol e. I and III
28. Possesses the antitussive properties of
codeine, without the analgesic, additive,
central depressant, and constipating features:
a. Levopropoxyphene
b. Noscapine
10 mg dextro = 15mg
c. Dextromethorphan dose of codeine in
d. Caramiphen antitussive effect
e. Benzonatate
29. This is entitled when a neutron converts to a
proton:
a. Positron
b. Negatron
c. Gamma rays
d. Alpha rays
30. This describes the relative position of an
energy level with respect to the other energy
levels present:
a. Principle quantum number
b. Magnetic spin quantum number
c. Subquantum number (l)
d. Magnetic quantum number (m l)
B. Is the magnetic component contributed by the spin of the electrons
C. l describes the different electron distribution for a given n
D. The magnetic contribution of angular momentum due to movement
of electron in space.
31. This is a chronic condition resembling
tuberculosis in symptom:
It develops after long exposure (7
a. Silicosis
yrs or more) to respirable dust
b. Parakeratosis (Silica particles)
c. Itai-Itai disease
d. Minamata disease
Q#54
32. Same molecular formula but different order
of atomic linkages
a. Functional isomer
b. Constitutional isomer
c. Enantiomers
d. Diastereomers
Q#97
33. Cobalt meta-aluminate is: Rinman’s green
aka “Cobalt green”
a. Rinman’s green
Reaction from:
b. Azure crystals Zinc + cobalt nitrate
c. Thenard’s blue
Thenard’s blue
d. Emerald blue crystals aka “Cobalt blue”
Reaction from:
Aluminum heated in
Sodium carbonate in
Cobalt nitrate soln.
34. This metals exhibit autocomplexation:
a. Noble metals
b. Volatile metals Group II-B ( Zinc,
c. Coinage metals Cadmium and Mercury)
d. Alkaline earth metals
35. Among the acids of halogens, which is
considered to be the most acidic?
a. HBr
b. HI
c. HF (decreasing acidity)
d. HCl
36. An alloy composed of 50% tin and 50% lead:
a. Pewter
b. Solder Pewter:
80% Tin & 20% Lead
c. Gun metal Gun Metal:
d. Rose metal 10% Tin & 90% Copper
Rose Metal:
25% Tin, 25% Lead & 50%
Bismuth
37. Vleminckx’s solution is prepared by boiling
sublimed sulphur and:
a. Lime
b. a&d
c. calcium Carbonate
d. Calcium oxide
3x to lumabas sa boards ko!
38. Type of sulphur used in Vleminckx’s solution:
a. Precipitated sulphur
b. Lac sulphur
c. Sublimed sulphur
d. NOTA
39. Which of the following has the highest
boiling point:
more carbon-carbon linkages, the
a. Decane more bonds to break, the higher
b. Pentane the boiling point.
c. Hexane
d. Butane
40. “Speed” is a ____________ form of
Amphetamine:
a. Formylated
b. Acetylated
c. Butylated
d. Methylated
41. Potassium added in glass:
a. Increases the refractive index of the glass
b. Makes the glass amber and light resistant
c. Reduces the coefficient of expansion
d. AOTA
42. Produces a bluish green flame through a
cobalt glass:
a. Sodium Through cobalt glass:
b. Barium Barium – bluish green
Sodium – Nil(pale green)
c. Strontium
Potassium – crimson
d. Calcium Calcium – light green
Strontium – purple
43. To prepare White Lotion USP, sulfurated
potash is added to:
a. Zinc sulfide
b. Zinc oxide
c. Zinc sulfate
d. NOTA
Q#45
44. It is a measure of the energy required to
remove an electron by overcoming the
attractive forces of the nucleus:
a. Electron affinity
b. Electronegativity
c. Ionization potential
d. NOTA
45. It is the ability of an atom in a molecule to
attract electrons in itself:
Measures how strongly the atom
a. Electron affinity attracts ADDITIONAL electrons
b. Electronegativity
Measures how strongly the
c. Ionization potential
atom holds to its electrons
d. NOTA
46. Purest native form of uncombined carbon:
a. Diamond
b. Graphite
c. Lamp black
d. Coal
47. The unit of radiation damage used in
medicine:
a. Rem
b. RBE Relative Biological Effectiveness of the radiation
c. Sievert SI unit for effective dosage; 1 sv=100 rem
d. Rad
48. Employed as systemic acidifier:
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Ammonium chloride
c. Calcium chloride
d. b and c
49. It states that no two electrons in an atom
can have the same set of four quantum
numbers:
a. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
b. Aufbau principle
c. Pauli’s exclusion principle
d. a and b
50. The process by which water molecules move
under high pressure through a semipermeable
membrane from the more concentrated to the
less concentrated solution:
a. Osmosis Lower to higher concentration
b. Passive diffusion
c. Active diffusion
d. Reverse osmosis
51. Give the IUPAC name of the given chemical
CH2=CHCH2CH2CH3:
a. Pentene
b. 1- pentene
c. Pentane
d. 1- pentyne
e. 2- pentene
•
52. The chemical CH3OCH3 is an example of
what type of organic compound:
a. Ketone •Ether: R-O-R
•Alcohol: ROH
b. Ester
•Aldehyde: RCHO
c. Ether •Ketone: RCOR
d. Aldehyde •Carboxylic acid: RCOOH
•Ester: RCOOR
e. Acid anhydride •Acid halide: RCOX
•Amide: RCONH2
53. The compound with the formula,
CH3CH2COCH2CH3 is a/an:
a. Ketone
b. Aldehyde
c. Carboxylic acid
d. Ether
e. Ester
54. Stereoisomers that are not mirror-images of
each other are called:
a. Structural isomers
b. Cis-Trans isomers
c. Enantiomers Mirror-image isomers that are
not super imposable
d. Anomers
e. Diastereomers
55. What is the most potent effect of
trimethylxanthine substitutions in positions
1,3, and 7 of the xanthine molecule:
a. Diuresis
b. Coronary Vasodilation
c. Cardiac stimulation
d. CNS stimulation
e. Skeletal muscle relaxation
56. The structure given below represents the
common structure of which group of drugs:
a. Benzodiazepine
b. Barbiturates
c. Phenothiazine
d. SSRIs
e. MAOIs
57. What is the IUPAC name of Valproic acid:
a. 2- Methylpropanoic acid
b. 2- Ethylbutanoic acid
c. 2- Propylpentanoic acid
d. 2- Butylhexanoic acid
e. 2- Pentylheptanoic acid
58. Which of the following drug is also known as
1,3-dimethylxanthine:
a. Theophylline
b. Caffeine 1,3,7-trimethylxanthine
c. Theobromine 3,7-dimethylxanthine
d. Pentoxyfylline 1-(5-oxohexyl)-3, 7-dimethylxanthine
e. Doxofylline 7-(1,3-dioxolan-2-ylmethyl)-1,3-
dimethylpurine-2,6-dione
59. Which of the following calcium channel
blockers is a benzothiazepine:
a. Verapamil - phenylalkylamine
b. Nifedipine - dihydropyridine
c. Diltiazem
d. Amlodipine - dihydropyridine
e. Isradipine - dihydropyridine
60. Which of the following
endogenous substances
promote platelet a. I only
agrregration:
b. III only
c. I and II only
I. cAmp Inhibits!
d. II and III only
II. TXA2
e. AOTA
III. ADP
61. Which of the following agents is an example
of an H2-antihistamine:
a. Telfast -fexofenadine
b. Pariet - rabeprazole
c. Prevacid – lansoprazole
d. Aerius -desloratadine
e. Ulcin - ranitidine
62. Which of the following drug is an example of
Proton Pump Inhibitor:
a. Pariet - rabeprazole
b. Ulcin - ranitidine
c. Iselpin - sucralfate
d. Zantac - ranitidine
e. Telfast - fexofenadine
63. Which of the following opioids contains a
piperidine nucleus: •Phenanthrene:
a. Dextromethorphan Codeine
Oxycodone
b. Oxycodone Oxymorphone
c. Pentazocine Hydromorphoine
d. Meperidine •Miperidine:
Diphenoxylate
e. Codeine Fentanyl
•Benzomorphan:
Pentazocine
64. A given drug is known to antagonize the 5-
HT 1D receptor. What is most likely clinical
indication of this drug:
a. Glaucoma
b. Migraine
c. Hypertyension
d. Anxiety
e. Psychosis
65. Which of the following agents is primarily a
5-HT3 receptor antagonist:
a. Ondansetron
b. Cisapride
c. Clozapine
d. Ergonovine
e. Naratriptan
66. This form of insulin is the primary storage
form in man:
Form of Insulin that is absorbed
a. Monomer and interacts with insulin receptor
b. Dimer
c. Tetramer
d. Pentamer
e. Hexamer
67. Which of the following
is/are factors affecting
drug metabolism: a. I only
b. AOTA
I. Age c. I and II only
II. Economic status d. I, III and IV only
III. Species and strain e. I, II and III only
IV. Gender
68. The term that denotes the selective
metabolism of two or more similar functional
groups, or two or more similar atoms that are
positioned in different regions of a molecule:
a. Stereoisomerism
b. Regioselectivity
c. Selective toxicity
d. Substrate stereoselectivity
e. Bioselectivity
69. Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of a
disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to
kill a given strain of a bacterium. What
microorganism is used in determining the phenol
coefficient?
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Salmonella typhi
e. Proteus vulgaris
70. A preparation of 5% iodine in water with
potassium iodide: •Iodine Solution:
a. Iodine solution 2% Iodine in Water with
Sodium Iodide
b. Iodine tincture •Iodine Tincture:
c. Lugol’s solution 2% Iodine in 50% alcohol
d. Mayer’s reagent with Sodium Iodide
•Mayer’s reagent:
e. Wagner’s reagent Potassium Mercuric Iodide
•Wagner’s reagent:
Iodine in Potassium Iodide.
71. Methicillin is chemically named as:
a. 2-Ethoxy-1-naphthylpenicillin
b. 5-Methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolylpenicillin
c. 5-Methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-
penicillin
d. 2,6-Dimethoxylphenylpenicillin
e. 2,6-Dimethylpenicillin
72. A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of
an octahydronaphthacene,a hydrocarbon
system that comprises four annelated six-
membered rings:
a. Macrolides
b. Tetracycline
c. Lincomycins
d. Polymyxin
e. Sulfonamides
73. Drowsiness is a side effect of antihistamines
that is common to the:
a. Ethylenediamines Ex. aminophylline
b. Tertiary aminoalkyl ethers
c. Phenothiazine Mostly
antipsychotics
d. H2-receptor antagonists
e. Cimetidine
74. It has become the drug of choice in the
treatment of genital herpes:
a. Symmetrel - amantadine
b. Zovirax -acyclovir Also used in HSV1 & 2,
Varicella-Zoster,
c. Hepsera -adefovir Epstein Barr
d. Tamiflu -oseltamivir
e. Valtrex -valaciclovir
75. A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
that causes spastic paralysis to susceptible
helminthes:
a. Pyrantel pamoate
Inh. fumarate reductase helminth
b. Thiabendazole specific
c. Mebendazole Irreversibly block glucose uptake
d. Niridazole
e. Niclosamide
76. A non steroidal agent that has shown potent
antiestrogenic properties in animals and is
useful in the palliative treatment of advanced
breast cancer in postmenopausal women:
a. Megestrol
b. Testolactone
c. Mitotane
d. Leuprolide
e. Tamoxifen
77. An ion that often shows expectorant action
is:
a. Iodide
b. Phosphate
c. Fluoride
d. Iodate
78. Copper is an essential trace element used for
the utilization of iron occurs in:
a. Hemoglobin
b. Albumin
c. Hemocyanin Respiratory
pigment
d. Heme
•Hemoglobin contains Iron in its molecule
•Heme constitutes about 4% of its weight
consisting iron in the center of pyrrole-
porphyrin ring
•Albumin is the primary protein found in
blood
79. The only single acid that can dissolve gold:
a. HCl
HCl and HNO3 can’t
b. HNO3
dissolve gold alone
c. Selenic acid but when mixed as
d. Aqua regia aqua regia (3:1) it can
dissolve gold but not
as SINGLE acid.
80. Reduction occurs in:
GEROA
a. Cathode LEORA
b. Anode
c. Both Cathode –
negatively charged
d. None of these electrode
Anode – positively
charged electrode
81. Argyria can be caused by:
a. Gold
b. Cobalt
c. Iron
d. Silver
82. A member of the second triad of Group VIII:
a. Platinum
b. Rhodium With Ruthenium and
Palladium
c. Nickel
d. Iridium
83. BAL is:
Used in treating heavy
a. British Anti- Lewisite metal poisoning such as
b. 2,3 dimercaptopropranolol mercury and gold.
c. 3,2 dimercaptopropranolol
d. a and b
84. Soft coal is:
a. Anthracite
It contains 70% of Carbon +
b. Bituminous
large amt of volatile matters
c. Charcoal
d. Activated charcoal
85. The first element to be discovered by the use
of spectroscope:
a. Rubidium
b. Cesium
c. Iridium
d. Uranium
86. Inadequate oxygen tension in air i.e. Baguio,
high altitude:
a. Histotoxic
b. Anemic
c. Anoxic
d. Stagnant
87. Mercury that falls into cracks and other
difficult to clean places is removed best by
covering with: It forms sulfide with mercury and is
a. Sulfur then easily vacuumed to remove
easily.
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. Potassium dichromate
d. Zinc oxide
88. Fuller’s earth is:
a. Hydrated aluminium magnesium trisilicate
b. Floridin
c. Aluminium magnesium trisilicate
d. b and c
89. Pink in appearance:
a. Copper
b. Nickel green
c. Cobalt (II)
d. a and c
M
E
T
A
90. In given period, as the atomic number L
increases, metallic properties: L
I
a. Increase C
b. Decrease
P
c. Remain the same R
d. Double O
P
In
Metallic property decreases crease
91. The major source of histamine in the body
results from the decarboxylation of this amino
acid:
a. Tryptophan
b. Histidine
c. Tyrosine
d. Phenylalanine
e. Arginine
92. Grignard reagents usually contain:
a. Co
b. Cu Grignard reagents are R-Mg-X
c. Fe compounds that are used as
intermediates in synthesis
d. Mg
93. Standard temperature for gas:
a. 0: C
b. 314K
c. 273K
d. a and c
94. What is the functional group for ketones:
a. Carboxyl group
b. Hydroxyl group •Carboxyl group for Caboxylic acids
•Hydroxyl group for alcohols
c. Amino group •Amino group for Amines
d. Carbonyl group
95. The ion that gives a Turnbull’s blue
precipitate with potassium ferricyanide:
a. Ferrous
b. Ferric Ferrous ferricyanide
c. Cobalt
d. Nickel
96. The ion that gives a Prussian blue precipitate
with potassium ferrocyanide:
a. Ferrous •Fe7(CN)18⋅14H2O Ferric
b. Ferric ferrocyanide
•aka Berlin Blue or Parisian
c. Cobalt blue
d. Nickel •It was the traditional “blue”
in blueprints
•It has been used as
antidotes for certain heavy
metal poisoning
97. The ion that gives positive result to Rinman’s
green:
a. Aluminum aka “Cobalt green”
b. Chromium
Reaction from:
c. Manganese
Zinc + cobalt nitrate
d. Zinc
98. The first element produced artificially is:
a. Rn
b. Ta
c. Tc
d. Pt
99. Which of the following is a thiazolidinedione:
a. Actos -pioglitazone
b. Glucophage -metformin Metformin – Biguanide
c. Solosa - glimepiride Glimepiride- Sulfonyureas
d. Glucobay – acarbose
100. All are classified as 2nd generation
sulfonylureas except:
1st gen:
a. Gliclazide •Chlorpropamide
b. Gliburide •Acetohexamide
c. Glimepiride •Tolbutamide
•Tolazamide
d. Glipizide
2nd gen:
*all starting in GLI, GLY
except GLIMEPIRIDE
