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RATIONALIZATION

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					           RATIONALIZATION

                   Module 1
(Organic Chem, Inorganic Chem, Medicinal Chem)
1. It is the only unicyclic Antidepressant:
a. Lexapro -escitalopram
b. Prozac - fluoxetine
c. Wellbutrin - bupropion
d. Remeron – mirtazapine
                       Thenard’s blue
                       Reaction from:
                       Aluminum heated in Sodium carbonate
                       in Cobalt nitrate soln
2. The ion that gives positive result to Thenard’s
  Test causes:
a. Reye’s syndrome -
b. Minamata diseases -
c. Wilson’s disease -
d. Shaver’s disease -
3. A fourth generation Cephalosporin:
a. Axera – cefepime
b. Rocephin – ceftriaxone
c. Zinacef – cefuroxime
d. Monowel – cefoxitin
4. A rule that states that when stress is applied
  to a system in equilibrium, the equilibrium
  shifts to relieve stress:
a. Law of Conservation of Mass
b. Law of Definite Proportion
c. Law of Mass Action
d. Le Chatelier’s Principle
5. This element is present in Insulin:
a. Co
b. Zn
c. Mg
d. Fe
e. NOTA
6. It is administered in an ice-cold condition to
  lessen its disagreeable bitter taste;
  parenterally used as an anti convulsant:
a. Glauber’s salt
b. Rochelle salt
c. Epsom salt
d. Purgative lemonade
7. The ion that gives a purple solution with
  Sodium bismuthate:
a. Cobalt
b. Ferrous
c. Manganese
d. Ferric
8. The sum of the number of protons & neutron:
a. Mass number
b. Atomic weight - average mass of atoms of an
    element
c. Isotope - atoms of the same element can
    have different numbers of neutrons
d. Atomic number - # of protons present in
    nucleus
Q#49
9. Principle which states that it is impossible to
  accurately determine simultaneously the
  position & motion of an electron:
a. Pauli’s exclusion principle The Aufbau (building up)
                                Principle:
b. Aufbau principle             an orbital cannot take more
c. Heisenberg principle         than 2 electrons.

d. NOTA
10. Acids have the following properties except:
a. pH below 7
b. acceptor of protons
c. neutralizes base
d. Sour taste
11. Which of the ff is/are
    considered slow
    acetylators:             a.   III only
 I. Eskimos                  b.   I and II only
 II. Egyptians               c.   III and IV only
 III. Filipinos              d.   II and IV only
 IV. Mediterranean Jews      e.   I and III only

                             Eskimos and Orientals are
                             rapid acetylators
12. Which of the ff is/are
  parent drug/s?
                             a.   I and II only
I.     Digitoxin             b.   III and IV only
II.    Hydrocortisone        c.   I, II and IV only
III.   Primidone             d.   I, III, and IV only
IV.    Propranolol           e.   AOTA
13. An agent that prevents infection by the
  destruction of pathogenic microorganisms
  when applied to inanimate objects:
a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Antibiotic
d. Sanitizer
e. Pesticide
14. A dye used as an antidote for cyanide
  poisoning:                   It promotes conversion of
   a.   Malachite green                hemoglobin to
                                   methemoglobin, which
   b.   Methylene blue
                                because of its high affinity for
   c.   Phenolphthalein          cyanide ion diverts it from
   d.   Gentian violet           inactivating Cytochrome C
   e.   NOTA
15. The antibiotic that binds with Ribosome 30s
  subunit:
  a.   Chloramphenicol
  b.   Tetracycline
  c.   Erythromycin
  d.   Lincomycin
  e.   Penicillin
                                     30S
                              A-minoglycosides
                              T-etracycline
16. Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it
  to contain a fused ring system which is the:
  a.   β – lactam thiazolidine structure
  b.   β – lactam penam structure
  c.   6 – Aminopenicillinanic acid
  d.   β – lactam phenylpenicillin ring
  e.   β – lactam alkylamino ethyl ring
17. Tienam is a
  combination of:
                      a.   II and IV
I.     Piperacillin   b.   I and II
II.    Cilastatin     c.   I and IV
III.   Tazobactam     d.   II and III
IV.    Imipenem       e.   I and III
18. Vigocid is a
  combination of:
                      a.   II and IV
I.     Piperacillin   b.   I and II
II.    Cilastatin     c.   I and IV
III.   Tazobactam     d.   II and III
IV.    Imipenem       e.   I and III
19. The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used
  in chemotherapy:
  a.   Amikacin
  b.   Gentamicin
  c.   Streptomycin
  d.   Kanamycin
  e.   Neomycin
20. It is used primarily for treating polycythemia
  vera:
  a.   Hexamethylamine
  b.   Asparaginase
  c.   Tamoxifen
  d.   Pipobroman
  e.   Hydroxyurea
21. Diamox is:
  a.   Methazolamide
  b.   Dichlorphenamide
  c.   Amoxicillin
  d.   Hydrochlorothiazide
  e.   Acetazolamide
22. The major adverse effect of Midamor:
  a.   Hypokalemia
  b.   Hyponatremia
  c.   Hypocalcemia
  d.   Hyperkalemia
  e.   Hypomagnesemia
Q#91(same)
23. The major source of histamine in the body
  results from the decarboxylation of this amino
  acid:
  a.   Tryptophan            Serotonin
  b.   Histidine
  c.   Tyrosine             Dopa-->NE/Epi
  d.   Phenylalanine
  e.   Arginine
24. A class of antibiotics that contain a
  macrocyclic ring bridged across two
  nonadjacent positions of an aromatic nucleus
  and called ansamycins:
  a.   Cephalosporins
  b.   Macrolides
  c.   Penicillins
  d.   Rifamycins
  e.   Aminoglycosides
25. Which of the following
  is/are side effect/s of
  dactinomycin?              a.   I, II and III
                             b.   I and II
I. Alopecia                  c.   II and III
II. Bone marrow              d.   I only
     depression
                             e.   III only
III. Nausea and vomiting
26. A semi-synthetic derivative of
  podophyllotoxin which in combination with
  other chemotherapeutic agents is the first
  choice treatment for small-cell lung cancer:
  a.   Vinblastine
  b.   Vincristine
  c.   Doxorubicin       Effective alone or in combination
  d.   Daunorubicin        w/ other agents for refractory
  e.   Etoposide              testicular tumors, acute
                             nonlymphocytic leukemia,
                           Hodgkin’s dse, Non Hodgkin’s
                           lymphoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma
27. Which of the following
  is/are brand name/s of
  Ibuprofen:                 a.   I only
                             b.   II only
I. Tylenol                   c.   I and II only
II. Advil                    d.   AOTA
III. Siverol                 e.   I and III
28. Possesses the antitussive properties of
  codeine, without the analgesic, additive,
  central depressant, and constipating features:
  a.   Levopropoxyphene
  b.   Noscapine
                                   10 mg dextro = 15mg
  c.   Dextromethorphan             dose of codeine in
  d.   Caramiphen                    antitussive effect
  e.   Benzonatate
29. This is entitled when a neutron converts to a
  proton:
  a.   Positron
  b.   Negatron
  c.   Gamma rays
  d.   Alpha rays
30. This describes the relative position of an
  energy level with respect to the other energy
  levels present:
   a.   Principle quantum number
   b.   Magnetic spin quantum number
   c.   Subquantum number (l)
   d.   Magnetic quantum number (m l)
B. Is the magnetic component contributed by the spin of the electrons
C. l describes the different electron distribution for a given n
D. The magnetic contribution of angular momentum due to movement
of electron in space.
31. This is a chronic condition resembling
  tuberculosis in symptom:
                           It develops after long exposure (7
  a.   Silicosis
                             yrs or more) to respirable dust
  b.   Parakeratosis                 (Silica particles)
  c.   Itai-Itai disease
  d.   Minamata disease
Q#54
32. Same molecular formula but different order
  of atomic linkages
  a.   Functional isomer
  b.   Constitutional isomer
  c.   Enantiomers
  d.   Diastereomers
Q#97
33. Cobalt meta-aluminate is: Rinman’s green
                               aka “Cobalt green”
  a.   Rinman’s green
                               Reaction from:
  b.   Azure crystals          Zinc + cobalt nitrate
  c.   Thenard’s blue
                               Thenard’s blue
  d.   Emerald blue crystals   aka “Cobalt blue”
                               Reaction from:
                               Aluminum heated in
                               Sodium carbonate in
                               Cobalt nitrate soln.
34. This metals exhibit autocomplexation:
  a.   Noble metals
  b.   Volatile metals            Group II-B ( Zinc,
  c.   Coinage metals          Cadmium and Mercury)
  d.   Alkaline earth metals
35. Among the acids of halogens, which is
  considered to be the most acidic?
  a.   HBr
  b.   HI
  c.   HF               (decreasing acidity)
  d.   HCl
36. An alloy composed of 50% tin and 50% lead:
  a.   Pewter
  b.   Solder           Pewter:
                        80% Tin & 20% Lead
  c.   Gun metal        Gun Metal:
  d.   Rose metal       10% Tin & 90% Copper
                        Rose Metal:
                        25% Tin, 25% Lead & 50%
                        Bismuth
37. Vleminckx’s solution is prepared by boiling
  sublimed sulphur and:
  a.   Lime
  b.   a&d
  c.   calcium Carbonate
  d.   Calcium oxide
   3x to lumabas sa boards ko!
38. Type of sulphur used in Vleminckx’s solution:
  a.   Precipitated sulphur
  b.   Lac sulphur
  c.   Sublimed sulphur
  d.   NOTA
39. Which of the following has the highest
  boiling point:
                     more carbon-carbon linkages, the
  a.   Decane        more bonds to break, the higher
  b.   Pentane       the boiling point.
  c.   Hexane
  d.   Butane
40. “Speed” is a ____________ form of
  Amphetamine:
  a.   Formylated
  b.   Acetylated
  c.   Butylated
  d.   Methylated
41. Potassium added in glass:
  a.   Increases the refractive index of the glass
  b.   Makes the glass amber and light resistant
  c.   Reduces the coefficient of expansion
  d.   AOTA
42. Produces a bluish green flame through a
  cobalt glass:
  a.   Sodium        Through cobalt glass:
  b.   Barium        Barium – bluish green
                     Sodium – Nil(pale green)
  c.   Strontium
                     Potassium – crimson
  d.   Calcium       Calcium – light green
                     Strontium – purple
43. To prepare White Lotion USP, sulfurated
  potash is added to:
  a.   Zinc sulfide
  b.   Zinc oxide
  c.   Zinc sulfate
  d.   NOTA
Q#45
44. It is a measure of the energy required to
  remove an electron by overcoming the
  attractive forces of the nucleus:
  a.   Electron affinity
  b.   Electronegativity
  c.   Ionization potential
  d.   NOTA
45. It is the ability of an atom in a molecule to
  attract electrons in itself:
                              Measures how strongly the atom
  a.   Electron affinity       attracts ADDITIONAL electrons
  b.   Electronegativity
                                 Measures how strongly the
  c.   Ionization potential
                                 atom holds to its electrons
  d.   NOTA
46. Purest native form of uncombined carbon:
  a.   Diamond
  b.   Graphite
  c.   Lamp black
  d.   Coal
47. The unit of radiation damage used in
  medicine:
  a.   Rem
  b.   RBE       Relative Biological Effectiveness of the radiation
  c.   Sievert      SI unit for effective dosage; 1 sv=100 rem
  d.   Rad
48. Employed as systemic acidifier:
  a.   Sodium bicarbonate
  b.   Ammonium chloride
  c.   Calcium chloride
  d.   b and c
49. It states that no two electrons in an atom
  can have the same set of four quantum
  numbers:
  a.   Heisenberg uncertainty principle
  b.   Aufbau principle
  c.   Pauli’s exclusion principle
  d.   a and b
50. The process by which water molecules move
  under high pressure through a semipermeable
  membrane from the more concentrated to the
  less concentrated solution:
  a.   Osmosis       Lower to higher concentration
  b.   Passive diffusion
  c.   Active diffusion
  d.   Reverse osmosis
51. Give the IUPAC name of the given chemical
  CH2=CHCH2CH2CH3:
    a.   Pentene
    b.   1- pentene
    c.   Pentane
    d.   1- pentyne
    e.   2- pentene
•
52. The chemical CH3OCH3 is an example of
  what type of organic compound:
  a.   Ketone            •Ether: R-O-R
                         •Alcohol: ROH
  b.   Ester
                         •Aldehyde: RCHO
  c.   Ether             •Ketone: RCOR
  d.   Aldehyde          •Carboxylic acid: RCOOH
                         •Ester: RCOOR
  e.   Acid anhydride    •Acid halide: RCOX
                         •Amide: RCONH2
53. The compound with the formula,
  CH3CH2COCH2CH3 is a/an:
  a.   Ketone
  b.   Aldehyde
  c.   Carboxylic acid
  d.   Ether
  e.   Ester
54. Stereoisomers that are not mirror-images of
  each other are called:
  a.   Structural isomers
  b.   Cis-Trans isomers
  c.   Enantiomers        Mirror-image isomers that are
                              not super imposable
  d.   Anomers
  e.   Diastereomers
55. What is the most potent effect of
  trimethylxanthine substitutions in positions
  1,3, and 7 of the xanthine molecule:
  a.   Diuresis
  b.   Coronary Vasodilation
  c.   Cardiac stimulation
  d.   CNS stimulation
  e.   Skeletal muscle relaxation
56. The structure given below represents the
  common structure of which group of drugs:

  a.   Benzodiazepine
  b.   Barbiturates
  c.   Phenothiazine
  d.   SSRIs
  e.   MAOIs
57. What is the IUPAC name of Valproic acid:
  a.   2- Methylpropanoic acid
  b.   2- Ethylbutanoic acid
  c.   2- Propylpentanoic acid
  d.   2- Butylhexanoic acid
  e.   2- Pentylheptanoic acid
58. Which of the following drug is also known as
  1,3-dimethylxanthine:
  a.   Theophylline
  b.   Caffeine         1,3,7-trimethylxanthine

  c.   Theobromine         3,7-dimethylxanthine
  d.   Pentoxyfylline   1-(5-oxohexyl)-3, 7-dimethylxanthine
  e.   Doxofylline        7-(1,3-dioxolan-2-ylmethyl)-1,3-
                             dimethylpurine-2,6-dione
59. Which of the following calcium channel
  blockers is a benzothiazepine:
  a.   Verapamil - phenylalkylamine
  b.   Nifedipine - dihydropyridine
  c.   Diltiazem
  d.   Amlodipine - dihydropyridine
  e.   Isradipine - dihydropyridine
60. Which of the following
  endogenous substances
  promote platelet           a.   I only
  agrregration:
                             b.   III only
                             c.   I and II only
I. cAmp       Inhibits!
                             d.   II and III only
II. TXA2
                             e.   AOTA
III. ADP
61. Which of the following agents is an example
  of an H2-antihistamine:
  a.   Telfast -fexofenadine
  b.   Pariet - rabeprazole
  c.   Prevacid – lansoprazole
  d.   Aerius -desloratadine
  e.   Ulcin - ranitidine
62. Which of the following drug is an example of
  Proton Pump Inhibitor:
  a.   Pariet - rabeprazole
  b.   Ulcin - ranitidine
  c.   Iselpin - sucralfate
  d.   Zantac - ranitidine
  e.   Telfast - fexofenadine
63. Which of the following opioids contains a
  piperidine nucleus:          •Phenanthrene:
  a.   Dextromethorphan        Codeine
                               Oxycodone
  b.   Oxycodone               Oxymorphone
  c.   Pentazocine             Hydromorphoine
  d.   Meperidine              •Miperidine:
                               Diphenoxylate
  e.   Codeine                 Fentanyl
                               •Benzomorphan:
                               Pentazocine
64. A given drug is known to antagonize the 5-
  HT 1D receptor. What is most likely clinical
  indication of this drug:
  a.   Glaucoma
  b.   Migraine
  c.   Hypertyension
  d.   Anxiety
  e.   Psychosis
65. Which of the following agents is primarily a
  5-HT3 receptor antagonist:
  a.   Ondansetron
  b.   Cisapride
  c.   Clozapine
  d.   Ergonovine
  e.   Naratriptan
66. This form of insulin is the primary storage
  form in man:
                       Form of Insulin that is absorbed
  a.   Monomer        and interacts with insulin receptor
  b.   Dimer
  c.   Tetramer
  d.   Pentamer
  e.   Hexamer
67. Which of the following
  is/are factors affecting
  drug metabolism:           a.   I only
                             b.   AOTA
I.     Age                   c.   I and II only
II.    Economic status       d.   I, III and IV only
III.   Species and strain    e.   I, II and III only
IV.    Gender
68. The term that denotes the selective
  metabolism of two or more similar functional
  groups, or two or more similar atoms that are
  positioned in different regions of a molecule:
  a.   Stereoisomerism
  b.   Regioselectivity
  c.   Selective toxicity
  d.   Substrate stereoselectivity
  e.   Bioselectivity
69. Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of a
  disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to
  kill a given strain of a bacterium. What
  microorganism is used in determining the phenol
  coefficient?
   a.   Bacillus subtilis
   b.   Enterobacter aerogenes
   c.   Pseudomonas aeruginosa
   d.   Salmonella typhi
   e.   Proteus vulgaris
70. A preparation of 5% iodine in water with
  potassium iodide:          •Iodine Solution:
  a.   Iodine solution       2% Iodine in Water with
                             Sodium Iodide
  b.   Iodine tincture       •Iodine Tincture:
  c.   Lugol’s solution      2% Iodine in 50% alcohol
  d.   Mayer’s reagent       with Sodium Iodide
                             •Mayer’s reagent:
  e.   Wagner’s reagent      Potassium Mercuric Iodide
                             •Wagner’s reagent:
                             Iodine in Potassium Iodide.
71. Methicillin is chemically named as:
  a. 2-Ethoxy-1-naphthylpenicillin
  b. 5-Methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolylpenicillin
  c. 5-Methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-
     penicillin
  d. 2,6-Dimethoxylphenylpenicillin
  e. 2,6-Dimethylpenicillin
72. A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of
  an octahydronaphthacene,a hydrocarbon
  system that comprises four annelated six-
  membered rings:
  a.   Macrolides
  b.   Tetracycline
  c.   Lincomycins
  d.   Polymyxin
  e.   Sulfonamides
73. Drowsiness is a side effect of antihistamines
  that is common to the:
  a.   Ethylenediamines           Ex. aminophylline
  b.   Tertiary aminoalkyl ethers
  c.   Phenothiazine                   Mostly
                                   antipsychotics
  d.   H2-receptor antagonists
  e.   Cimetidine
74. It has become the drug of choice in the
  treatment of genital herpes:
  a.   Symmetrel - amantadine
  b.   Zovirax -acyclovir        Also used in HSV1 & 2,
                                    Varicella-Zoster,
  c.   Hepsera -adefovir              Epstein Barr
  d.   Tamiflu -oseltamivir
  e.   Valtrex -valaciclovir
75. A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
  that causes spastic paralysis to susceptible
  helminthes:
  a.   Pyrantel pamoate
                          Inh. fumarate reductase helminth
  b.   Thiabendazole                   specific
  c.   Mebendazole        Irreversibly block glucose uptake
  d.   Niridazole
  e.   Niclosamide
76. A non steroidal agent that has shown potent
  antiestrogenic properties in animals and is
  useful in the palliative treatment of advanced
  breast cancer in postmenopausal women:
  a.   Megestrol
  b.   Testolactone
  c.   Mitotane
  d.   Leuprolide
  e.   Tamoxifen
77. An ion that often shows expectorant action
  is:
  a.   Iodide
  b.   Phosphate
  c.   Fluoride
  d.   Iodate
78. Copper is an essential trace element used for
  the utilization of iron occurs in:
  a.   Hemoglobin
  b.   Albumin
  c.   Hemocyanin          Respiratory
                            pigment
  d.   Heme
                    •Hemoglobin contains Iron in its molecule
                    •Heme constitutes about 4% of its weight
                    consisting iron in the center of pyrrole-
                    porphyrin ring
                    •Albumin is the primary protein found in
                    blood
79. The only single acid that can dissolve gold:
  a.   HCl
                          HCl and HNO3 can’t
  b.   HNO3
                          dissolve gold alone
  c.   Selenic acid       but when mixed as
  d.   Aqua regia         aqua regia (3:1) it can
                          dissolve gold but not
                          as SINGLE acid.
80. Reduction occurs in:
                                 GEROA
  a.   Cathode                   LEORA
  b.   Anode
  c.   Both                Cathode –
                           negatively charged
  d.   None of these       electrode

                           Anode – positively
                           charged electrode
81. Argyria can be caused by:
  a.   Gold
  b.   Cobalt
  c.   Iron
  d.   Silver
82. A member of the second triad of Group VIII:
  a.   Platinum
  b.   Rhodium            With Ruthenium and
                               Palladium
  c.   Nickel
  d.   Iridium
83. BAL is:
                               Used in treating heavy
  a. British Anti- Lewisite    metal poisoning such as
  b. 2,3 dimercaptopropranolol mercury and gold.
  c. 3,2 dimercaptopropranolol
  d. a and b
84. Soft coal is:
   a.   Anthracite
                              It contains 70% of Carbon +
   b.   Bituminous
                             large amt of volatile matters
   c.   Charcoal
   d.   Activated charcoal
85. The first element to be discovered by the use
  of spectroscope:
  a.   Rubidium
  b.   Cesium
  c.   Iridium
  d.   Uranium
86. Inadequate oxygen tension in air i.e. Baguio,
  high altitude:
  a.   Histotoxic
  b.   Anemic
  c.   Anoxic
  d.   Stagnant
87. Mercury that falls into cracks and other
  difficult to clean places is removed best by
  covering with:         It forms sulfide with mercury and is
   a.   Sulfur            then easily vacuumed to remove
                                        easily.
   b.   Sodium hydroxide
   c.   Potassium dichromate
   d.   Zinc oxide
88. Fuller’s earth is:
   a.   Hydrated aluminium magnesium trisilicate
   b.   Floridin
   c.   Aluminium magnesium trisilicate
   d.   b and c
89. Pink in appearance:
  a.   Copper
  b.   Nickel        green
  c.   Cobalt (II)
  d.   a and c
                                              M
                                              E
                                              T
                                              A
90. In given period, as the atomic number     L
  increases, metallic properties:             L
                                              I
  a.   Increase                               C
  b.   Decrease
                                              P
  c.   Remain the same                        R
  d.   Double                                 O
                                              P

                                              In
           Metallic property decreases      crease
91. The major source of histamine in the body
  results from the decarboxylation of this amino
  acid:
  a.   Tryptophan
  b.   Histidine
  c.   Tyrosine
  d.   Phenylalanine
  e.   Arginine
92. Grignard reagents usually contain:
  a.   Co
  b.   Cu            Grignard reagents are R-Mg-X
  c.   Fe            compounds that are used as
                     intermediates in synthesis
  d.   Mg
93. Standard temperature for gas:
  a.   0: C
  b.   314K
  c.   273K
  d.   a and c
94. What is the functional group for ketones:
  a.   Carboxyl group
  b.   Hydroxyl group   •Carboxyl group for Caboxylic acids
                        •Hydroxyl group for alcohols
  c.   Amino group      •Amino group for Amines
  d.   Carbonyl group
95. The ion that gives a Turnbull’s blue
  precipitate with potassium ferricyanide:
  a.   Ferrous
  b.   Ferric                   Ferrous ferricyanide
  c.   Cobalt
  d.   Nickel
96. The ion that gives a Prussian blue precipitate
  with potassium ferrocyanide:
  a.   Ferrous         •Fe7(CN)18⋅14H2O Ferric
  b.   Ferric          ferrocyanide
                       •aka Berlin Blue or Parisian
  c.   Cobalt          blue
  d.   Nickel          •It was the traditional “blue”
                       in blueprints
                       •It has been used as
                       antidotes for certain heavy
                       metal poisoning
97. The ion that gives positive result to Rinman’s
  green:
  a.   Aluminum            aka “Cobalt green”
  b.   Chromium
                           Reaction from:
  c.   Manganese
                           Zinc + cobalt nitrate
  d.   Zinc
98. The first element produced artificially is:
  a.   Rn
  b.   Ta
  c.   Tc
  d.   Pt
99. Which of the following is a thiazolidinedione:
  a.   Actos -pioglitazone
  b.   Glucophage -metformin    Metformin – Biguanide
  c.   Solosa - glimepiride    Glimepiride- Sulfonyureas
  d.   Glucobay – acarbose
100. All are classified as 2nd generation
  sulfonylureas except:
                                1st gen:
  a.   Gliclazide               •Chlorpropamide
  b.   Gliburide                •Acetohexamide
  c.   Glimepiride              •Tolbutamide
                                •Tolazamide
  d.   Glipizide
                                2nd gen:
                                *all starting in GLI, GLY
                                except GLIMEPIRIDE

				
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