STATUTES

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					                                        STATUTES

PENAL CODE

§ 266h. Pimping

§ 266i. Pandering

§ 290. Registration of sex offenders

§ 314. Indecent exposure

§ 315. Keeping or residing in house of ill-fame

§ 316. Keeping disorderly house

§ 318. Prevailing upon person to visit place for gambling or prostitution

§ 415. Disturbing the peace

§ 602. Trespasses

§ 647. Disorderly conduct; Restrictions on probation

  Every person who commits any of the following acts is guilty of disorderly conduct, a
misdemeanor:

  (a) Who solicits anyone to engage in or who engages in lewd or dissolute conduct in any
public place or in any place open to the public or exposed to public view.

 (b) Who solicits or who agrees to engage in or who engages in any act of prostitution.

 (d) Who loiters in or about any toilet open to the public for the purpose of engaging in or
soliciting any lewd or lascivious or any unlawful act.



HEALTH AND SAFETY CODE

§ 11054. Schedule I list of controlled substances

§ 11055. Schedule II list of controlled substances

§ 11056. Schedule III list of controlled substances

§ 11057. Schedule IV list of controlled substances

§ 11058. Schedule V list of controlled substances

§ 11550. Use of controlled substance; Drug rehabilitation program; Possession of firearm
PENAL CODE

§ 266h. Pimping

  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), any person who, knowing another person is a
prostitute, lives or derives support or maintenance in whole or in part from the earnings or
proceeds of the person's prostitution, or from money loaned or advanced to or charged
against that person by any keeper or manager or inmate of a house or other place where
prostitution is practiced or allowed, or who solicits or receives compensation for soliciting for
the person, is guilty of pimping, a felony, and shall be punishable by imprisonment in the
state prison for three, four, or six years.

  (b) Any person who, knowing another person is a prostitute, lives or derives support or
maintenance in whole or in part from the earnings or proceeds of the person's prostitution,
or from money loaned or advanced to or charged against that person by any keeper or
manager or inmate of a house or other place where prostitution is practiced or allowed, or
who solicits or receives compensation for soliciting for the person, when the prostitute is a
minor, is guilty of pimping a minor, a felony, and shall be punishable as follows:

   (1) If the person engaged in prostitution is a minor over the age of 16 years, the offense
is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison for three, four, or six years.

  (2) If the person engaged in prostitution is under 16 years of age, the offense is
punishable by imprisonment in the state prison for three, six, or eight years.

§ 266i. Pandering

  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), any person who does any of the following is
guilty of pandering, a felony, and shall be punishable by imprisonment in the state prison
for three, four, or six years:

  (1) Procures another person for the purpose of prostitution.

  (2) By promises, threats, violence, or by any device or scheme, causes, induces,
persuades or encourages another person to become a prostitute.

  (3) Procures for another person a place as an inmate in a house of prostitution or as an
inmate of any place in which prostitution is encouraged or allowed within this state.

  (4) By promises, threats, violence or by any device or scheme, causes, induces,
persuades or encourages an inmate of a house of prostitution, or any other place in which
prostitution is encouraged or allowed, to remain therein as an inmate.

  (5) By fraud or artifice, or by duress of person or goods, or by abuse of any position of
confidence or authority, procures another person for the purpose of prostitution, or to enter
any place in which prostitution is encouraged or allowed within this state, or to come into
this state or leave this state for the purpose of prostitution.

  (6) Receives or gives, or agrees to receive or give, any money or thing of value for
procuring, or attempting to procure, another person for the purpose of prostitution, or to
come into this state or leave this state for the purpose of prostitution.

 (b) Any person who does any of the acts described in subdivision (a) with another person
who is a minor is guilty of pandering, a felony, and shall be punishable as follows:

  (1) If the other person is a minor over the age of 16 years, the offense is punishable by
imprisonment in the state prison for three, four, or six years.

  (2)If the other person is under 16 years of age, the offense is punishable by
imprisonment in the state prison for three, six, or eight years.

§ 290. Registration of sex offenders

   (a)(1) (A) Every person described in paragraph (2), for the rest of his or her life while
residing in California, or while attending school or working in California, as described in
subparagraph (G), shall be required to register with the chief of police of the city in which
he or she is residing, or the sheriff of the county if he or she is residing in an unincorporated
area or city that has no police department, and, additionally, with the chief of police of a
campus of the University of California, the California State University, or community college
if he or she is residing upon the campus or in any of its facilities, within five working days of
coming into, or changing his or her residence within, any city, county, or city and county, or
campus in which he or she temporarily resides.

  (B) If the person who is registering has more than one residence address at which he or
she regularly resides, he or she shall register in accordance with subparagraph (A) in each
of the jurisdictions in which he or she regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or
nights spent there. If all of the addresses are within the same jurisdiction, the person shall
provide the registering authority with all of the addresses where he or she regularly resides.

  (C) Every person described in paragraph (2), for the rest of his or her life while living as a
transient in California shall be required to register, as follows:

   (i) A transient must register, or reregister if the person has previously registered, within
five working days from release from incarceration, placement or commitment, or release on
probation, pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), except that if the person previously
registered as a transient less than 30 days from the date of his or her release from
incarceration, he or she does not need to reregister as a transient until his or her next
required 30-day update of registration. If a transient is not physically present in any one
jurisdiction for five consecutive working days, he or she must register in the jurisdiction in
which he or she is physically present on the fifth working day following release, pursuant to
paragraph (1) of subdivision (a). Beginning on or before the 30th day following initial
registration upon release, a transient must reregister no less than once every 30 days
thereafter. A transient shall register with the chief of police of the city in which he or she is
physically present within that 30-day period, or the sheriff of the county if he or she is
physically present in an unincorporated area or city that has no police department, and
additionally, with the chief of police of a campus of the University of California, the
California State University, or community college if he or she is physically present upon the
campus or in any of its facilities. A transient must reregister no less than once every 30
days regardless of the length of time he or she has been physically present in the particular
jurisdiction in which he or she reregisters. If a transient fails to reregister within any 30-day
period, he or she may be prosecuted in any jurisdiction in which he or she is physically
present.

  (ii) A transient who moves to a residence shall have five working days within which to
register at that address, in accordance with subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of
subdivision (a). A person registered at a residence address in accordance with subparagraph
(A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), who becomes transient shall have five working days
within which to reregister as a transient in accordance with clause (i).

  (iii) Beginning on his or her first birthday following registration, a transient shall register
annually, within five working days of his or her birthday, to update his or her registration
with the entities described in clause (i). A transient shall register in whichever jurisdiction
he or she is physically present on that date. At the 30-day updates and the annual update,
a transient shall provide current information as required on the Department of Justice
annual update form, including the information described in subparagraphs (A) to (C),
inclusive, of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), and the information specified in clause (iv).

  (iv) A transient shall, upon registration and reregistration, provide current information as
required on the Department of Justice registration forms, and shall also list the places
where he or she sleeps, eats, works, frequents, and engages in leisure activities. If a
transient changes or adds to the places listed on the form during the 30-day period, he or
she does not need to report the new place or places until the next required reregistration.

  (v) Failure to comply with the requirement of reregistering every 30 days following initial
registration pursuant to clause (i) of this subparagraph shall be punished in accordance with
paragraph (6) of subdivision (g). Failure to comply with any other requirement of this
section shall be punished in accordance with either paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (g).

   (vi) A transient who moves out of state shall inform, in person , the chief of police in the
city in which he or she is physically present, or the sheriff of the county if he or she is
physically present in an unincorporated area or city that has no police department, within
five working days, of his or her move out of state. The transient shall inform that registering
agency of his or her planned destination, residence or transient location out of state, and
any plans he or she has to return to California, if known. The law enforcement agency shall,
within three days after receipt of this information, forward a copy of the change of location
information to the Department of Justice. The department shall forward appropriate
registration data to the law enforcement agency having local jurisdiction of the new place of
residence or location.

  (vii) For purposes of this section, "transient" means a person who has no residence.
"Residence" means one or more addresses at which a person regularly resides, regardless of
the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located
by a street address, including, but not limited to, houses, apartment buildings, motels,
hotels, homeless shelters, and recreational and other vehicles.

  (viii) The transient registrant's duty to update his or her registration no less than every 30
days shall begin with his or her second transient update following the date this subdivision
became effective.

  (D) Beginning on his or her first birthday following registration or change of address, the
person shall be required to register annually, within five working days of his or her birthday,
to update his or her registration with the entities described in subparagraph (A). At the
annual update, the person shall provide current information as required on the Department
of Justice annual update form, including the information described in subparagraphs (A) to
(C), inclusive, of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e).

  (E) In addition, every person who has ever been adjudicated a sexually violent predator,
as defined in Section 6600 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall, after his or her
release from custody, verify his or her address no less than once every 90 days and place of
employment, including the name and address of the employer, in a manner established by
the Department of Justice.

  (F) No entity shall require a person to pay a fee to register or update his or her
registration pursuant to this section. The registering agency shall submit registrations,
including annual updates or changes of address, directly into the Department of Justice
Violent Crime Information Network (VCIN).
  (G) Persons required to register in their state of residence who are out-of-state residents
employed, or carrying on a vocation in California on a full-time or part-time basis, with or
without compensation, for more than 14 days, or for an aggregate period exceeding 30 days
in a calendar year, shall register in accordance with subparagraph (A). Persons described in
paragraph (2) who are out-of-state residents enrolled in any educational institution in
California, as defined in Section 22129 of the Education Code, on a full-time or part-time
basis, shall register in accordance with subparagraph (A). The place where the out-of-state
resident is located, for purposes of registration, shall be the place where the person is
employed, carrying on a vocation, or attending school. The out-of-state resident subject to
this subparagraph shall, in addition to the information required pursuant to subdivision (e),
provide the registering authority with the name of his or her place of employment or the
name of the school attended in California, and his or her address or location in his or her
state of residence. The registration requirement for persons subject to this subparagraph
shall become operative on November 25, 2000. The terms "employed or carries on a
vocation" include employment whether or not financially compensated, volunteered, or
performed for government or educational benefit.

  (2) The following persons shall be required to register pursuant to paragraph (1):

  (A) Any person who, since July 1, 1944, has been or is hereafter convicted in any court in
this state or in any federal or military court of a violation of Section 207 or 209 committed
with intent to violate Section 261, 286, 288, 288a, or 289, Section 220, except assault to
commit mayhem, Section 243.4, paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (6) of subdivision (a) of
Section 261, or paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 262 involving the use of force or
violence for which the person is sentenced to the state prison, Section 264.1, 266, or 266c,
subdivision (b) of Section 266h, subdivision (b) of Section 266i, Section 266j, 267, 269,
285, 286, 288, 288a, 288.5, or 289, Section 311.1, subdivision (b), (c), or (d) of Section
311.2, Section 311.3, 311.4, 311.10, 311.11, or 647.6, former Section 647a, subdivision
(c) of Section 653f, subdivision 1 or 2 of Section 314, any offense involving lewd or
lascivious conduct under Section 272, or any felony violation of Section 288.2; or any
statutory predecessor that includes all elements of one of the above-mentioned offenses; or
any person who since that date has been or is hereafter convicted of the attempt to commit
any of the above-mentioned offenses.

  (B) Any person who, since July 1, 1944, has been or hereafter is released, discharged, or
paroled from a penal institution where he or she was confined because of the commission or
attempted commission of one of the offenses described in subparagraph (A).

  (C) Any person who, since July 1, 1944, has been or hereafter is determined to be a
mentally disordered sex offender under Article 1 (commencing with Section 6300) of
Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or any person who has
been found guilty in the guilt phase of a trial for an offense for which registration is required
by this section but who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity in the sanity phase
of the trial.

  (D)(i) Any person who, since July 1, 1944, has been, or is hereafter convicted in any
other court, including any state, federal, or military court, of any offense that, if committed
or attempted in this state, would have been punishable as one or more of the offenses
described in subparagraph (A).

  (ii) Any person ordered by any other court, including any state, federal, or military court,
to register as a sex offender for any offense, if the court found at the time of conviction or
sentencing that the person committed the offense as a result of sexual compulsion or for
purposes of sexual gratification.
  (iii) Except as provided in clause (iv), any person who would be required to register while
residing in the state of conviction for a sex offense committed in that state.

  (iv) Clause (iii) shall not apply to a person required to register in the state of conviction if
the conviction was for the equivalent of one of the following offenses, and the person is not
subject to clause (i):

  (I) Indecent exposure, pursuant to Section 314.

  (II) Unlawful sexual intercourse, pursuant to Section 261.5.

  (III) Incest, pursuant to Section 285.

  (IV) Sodomy, pursuant to Section 286, or oral copulation, pursuant to Section 288a,
provided that the offender notifies the Department of Justice that the sodomy or oral
copulation conviction was for conduct between consenting adults, as described in
subparagraph (F) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), and the department is able, upon the
exercise of reasonable diligence, to verify that fact.

   (E) Any person ordered by any court to register pursuant to this section for any offense
not included specifically in this section if the court finds at the time of conviction or
sentencing that the person committed the offense as a result of sexual compulsion or for
purposes of sexual gratification. The court shall state on the record the reasons for its
findings and the reasons for requiring registration.

  (F) Any person required to register pursuant to any provision of this section, regardless of
whether the person's conviction has been dismissed pursuant to Section 1203.4, unless the
person obtains a certificate of rehabilitation and is entitled to relief from registration
pursuant to Section 290.5.

  (G)(i) Notwithstanding any other subdivision, a person who was convicted before January
1, 1976, under subdivision (a) of Section 286, or Section 288a, shall not be required to
register pursuant to this section for that conviction if the conviction was for conduct
between consenting adults that was decriminalized by Chapter 71 of the Statutes of 1975 or
Chapter 1139 of the Statutes of 1976. The Department of Justice shall remove that person
from the Sex Offender Registry, and the person is discharged from his or her duty to
register pursuant to the following procedure:

  (I) The person submits to the Department of Justice official documentary evidence,
including court records or police reports, that demonstrate that the person's conviction
pursuant to either of those sections was for conduct between consenting adults that was
decriminalized; or

  (II) The person submits to the department a declaration stating that the person's
conviction pursuant to either of those sections was for consensual conduct between adults
that has been decriminalized. The declaration shall be confidential and not a public record,
and shall include the person's name, address, telephone number, date of birth, and a
summary of the circumstances leading to the conviction, including the date of the conviction
and county of the occurrence.

  (III) The department shall determine whether the person's conviction was for conduct
between consensual adults that has been decriminalized. If the conviction was for
consensual conduct between adults that has been decriminalized, and the person has no
other offenses for which he or she is required to register pursuant to this section, the
department shall, within 60 days of receipt of those documents, notify the person that he or
she is relieved of the duty to register, and shall notify the local law enforcement agency
with which the person is registered that he or she has been relieved of the duty to register.
The local law enforcement agency shall remove the person's registration from its files within
30 days of receipt of notification. If the documentary or other evidence submitted is
insufficient to establish the person's claim, the department shall, within 60 days of receipt of
those documents, notify the person that his or her claim cannot be established, and that the
person shall continue to register pursuant to this section. The department shall provide,
upon the person's request, any information relied upon by the department in making its
determination that the person shall continue to register pursuant to this section. Any person
whose claim has been denied by the department pursuant to this clause may petition the
court to appeal the department's denial of the person's claim.

  (ii) On or before July 1, 1998, the department shall make a report to the Legislature
concerning the status of persons who may come under the provisions of this subparagraph,
including the number of persons who were convicted before January 1, 1976, under
subdivision (a) of Section 286 or Section 288a and are required to register under this
section, the average age of these persons, the number of these persons who have any
subsequent convictions for a registerable sex offense, and the number of these persons who
have sought successfully or unsuccessfully to be relieved of their duty to register under this
section.

  (b)(1) Any person who is released, discharged, or paroled from a jail, state or federal
prison, school, road camp, or other institution where he or she was confined because of the
commission or attempted commission of one of the offenses specified in subdivision (a) or is
released from a state hospital to which he or she was committed as a mentally disordered
sex offender under Article 1 (commencing with Section 6300) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of
Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall, prior to discharge, parole, or release,
be informed of his or her duty to register under this section by the official in charge of the
place of confinement or hospital, and the official shall require the person to read and sign
any form that may be required by the Department of Justice, stating that the duty of the
person to register under this section has been explained to the person. The official in charge
of the place of confinement or hospital shall obtain the address where the person expects to
reside upon his or her discharge, parole, or release and shall report the address to the
Department of Justice. The official shall at the same time forward a current photograph of
the person to the Department of Justice.

  (2) The official in charge of the place of confinement or hospital shall give one copy of the
form to the person and shall send one copy to the Department of Justice and one copy to
the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having jurisdiction over the place the
person expects to reside upon discharge, parole, or release. If the conviction that makes the
person subject to this section is a felony conviction, the official in charge shall, not later
than 45 days prior to the scheduled release of the person, send one copy to the appropriate
law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction where the person expects to
reside upon discharge, parole, or release; one copy to the prosecuting agency that
prosecuted the person; and one copy to the Department of Justice. The official in charge of
the place of confinement or hospital shall retain one copy.

  (c)(1) Any person who is convicted in this state of the commission or attempted
commission of any of the offenses specified in subdivision (a) and who is released on
probation, shall, prior to release or discharge, be informed of the duty to register under this
section by the probation department, and a probation officer shall require the person to
read and sign any form that may be required by the Department of Justice, stating that the
duty of the person to register under this section has been explained to him or her. The
probation officer shall obtain the address where the person expects to reside upon release
or discharge and shall report within three days the address to the Department of Justice.
The probation officer shall give one copy of the form to the person, send one copy to the
Department of Justice, and forward one copy to the appropriate law enforcement agency or
agencies having local jurisdiction where the person expects to reside upon his or her
discharge, parole, or release.

   (2) Any person who is convicted in this state of the commission or attempted commission
of any of the offenses specified in subdivision (a) and who is granted conditional release
without supervised probation, or discharged upon payment of a fine, shall, prior to release
or discharge, be informed of the duty to register under this section in open court by the
court in which the person has been convicted, and the court shall require the person to read
and sign any form that may be required by the Department of Justice, stating that the duty
of the person to register under this section has been explained to him or her. If the court
finds that it is in the interest of the efficiency of the court, the court may assign the bailiff to
require the person to read and sign forms under this section. The court shall obtain the
address where the person expects to reside upon release or discharge and shall report
within three days the address to the Department of Justice. The court shall give one copy of
the form to the person, send one copy to the Department of Justice, and forward one copy
to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction where the
person expects to reside upon his or her discharge, parole, or release.

  (d)(1) Any person who, on or after January 1, 1986, is discharged or paroled from the
Department of the Youth Authority to the custody of which he or she was committed after
having been adjudicated a ward of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 of the Welfare
and Institutions Code because of the commission or attempted commission of any offense
described in paragraph (3) shall be subject to registration under the procedures of this
section.

  (2) Any person who is discharged or paroled from a facility in another state that is
equivalent to the Department of the Youth Authority, to the custody of which he or she was
committed because of an offense which, if committed or attempted in this state, would have
been punishable as one or more of the offenses described in paragraph (3), shall be subject
to registration under the procedures of this section.

  (3) Any person described in this subdivision who committed an offense in violation of any
of the following provisions shall be required to register pursuant to this section:

  (A) Assault with intent to commit rape, sodomy, oral copulation, or any violation of
Section 264.1, 288, or 289 under Section 220.

  (B) Any offense defined in paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section
261, Section 264.1, 266c, or 267, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of, or subdivision (c) or
(d) of, Section 286, Section 288 or 288.5, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of, or subdivision
(c) or (d) of, Section 288a, subdivision (a) of Section 289, or Section 647.6.

  (C) A violation of Section 207 or 209 committed with the intent to violate Section 261,
286, 288, 288a, or 289.

  (4) Prior to discharge or parole from the Department of the Youth Authority, any person
who is subject to registration under this subdivision shall be informed of the duty to register
under the procedures set forth in this section. Department of the Youth Authority officials
shall transmit the required forms and information to the Department of Justice.

  (5) All records specifically relating to the registration in the custody of the Department of
Justice, law enforcement agencies, and other agencies or public officials shall be destroyed
when the person who is required to register has his or her records sealed under the
procedures set forth in Section 781 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. This subdivision
shall not be construed as requiring the destruction of other criminal offender or juvenile
records relating to the case that are maintained by the Department of Justice, law
enforcement agencies, the juvenile court, or other agencies and public officials unless
ordered by a court under Section 781 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

  (e)(1) On or after January 1, 1998, upon incarceration, placement, or commitment, or
prior to release on probation, any person who is required to register under this section shall
preregister. The preregistering official shall be the admitting officer at the place of
incarceration, placement, or commitment, or the probation officer if the person is to be
released on probation. The preregistration shall consist of all of the following:

  (A) A preregistration statement in writing, signed by the person, giving information that
shall be required by the Department of Justice.

  (B) The fingerprints and a current photograph of the person.

  (C) Any person who is preregistered pursuant to this subdivision is required to be
preregistered only once.

  (2) A person described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall register, or reregister if
the person has previously registered, upon release from incarceration, placement,
commitment, or release on probation pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a). The
registration shall consist of all of the following:

  (A) A statement in writing signed by the person, giving information as shall be required by
the Department of Justice and giving the name and address of the person's employer, and
the address of the person's place of employment if that is different from the employer's
main address.

  (B) The fingerprints and a current photograph of the person taken by the registering
official.

  (C) The license plate number of any vehicle owned by, regularly driven by, or registered
in the name of the person.

 (D) Notice to the person that, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (4), he or she
may have a duty to register in any other state where he or she may relocate.

   (E) Copies of adequate proof of residence, which shall be limited to a California driver's
license, California identification card, recent rent or utility receipt, printed personalized
checks or other recent banking documents showing that person's name and address, or any
other information that the registering official believes is reliable. If the person has no
residence and no reasonable expectation of obtaining a residence in the foreseeable future,
the person shall so advise the registering official and shall sign a statement provided by the
registering official stating that fact. Upon presentation of proof of residence to the
registering official or a signed statement that the person has no residence, the person shall
be allowed to register. If the person claims that he or she has a residence but does not have
any proof of residence, he or she shall be allowed to register but shall furnish proof of
residence within 30 days of the date he or she is allowed to register.

  (3) Within three days thereafter, the preregistering official or the registering law
enforcement agency or agencies shall forward the statement, fingerprints, photograph, and
vehicle license plate number, if any, to the Department of Justice.

  (f)(1) (A) Any person who was last registered at a residence address pursuant to this
section who changes his or her residence address, whether within the jurisdiction in which
he or she is currently registered or to a new jurisdiction inside or outside the state, shall, in
person, within five working days of the move, inform the law enforcement agency or
agencies with which he or she last registered of the move, the new address or transient
location, if known, and any plans he or she has to return to California .

  (B) If the person does not know the new residence address or location at the time of the
move, the registrant shall, in person, within five working days of the move, inform the last
registering agency or agencies that he or she is moving . The person shall later notify the
last registering agency or agencies, in writing, sent by certified or registered mail, of the
new address or location within five working days of moving into the new residence address
or location, whether temporary or permanent.

  (C) The law enforcement agency or agencies shall, within three working days after receipt
of this information, forward a copy of the change of address information to the Department
of Justice. The Department of Justice shall forward appropriate registration data to the law
enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction of the new place of residence .

  (2) If the person's new address is in a Department of the Youth Authority facility or a
state prison or state mental institution, an official of the place of incarceration, placement,
or commitment shall, within 90 days of receipt of the person, forward the registrant's
change of address information to the Department of Justice. The agency need not provide a
physical address for the registrant but shall indicate that he or she is serving a period of
incarceration or commitment in a facility under the agency's jurisdiction. This paragraph
shall apply to persons received in a Department of the Youth Authority facility or a state
prison or state mental institution on or after January 1, 1999. The Department of Justice
shall forward the change of address information to the agency with which the person last
registered.

  (3) If any person who is required to register pursuant to this section changes his or her
name, the person shall inform, in person, the law enforcement agency or agencies with
which he or she is currently registered within five working days. The law enforcement
agency or agencies shall forward a copy of this information to the Department of Justice
within three working days of its receipt.

  (g)(1) Any person who is required to register under this section based on a misdemeanor
conviction or juvenile adjudication who willfully violates any requirement of this section is
guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one
year.

  (2) Except as provided in paragraphs (5), (7), and (9), any person who is required to
register under this section based on a felony conviction or juvenile adjudication who willfully
violates any requirement of this section or who has a prior conviction or juvenile
adjudication for the offense of failing to register under this section and who subsequently
and willfully violates any requirement of this section is guilty of a felony and shall be
punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 16 months, or two or three years.

  If probation is granted or if the imposition or execution of sentence is suspended, it shall
be a condition of the probation or suspension that the person serve at least 90 days in a
county jail. The penalty described in this paragraph shall apply whether or not the person
has been released on parole or has been discharged from parole.

  (3) Any person determined to be a mentally disordered sex offender or who has been
found guilty in the guilt phase of trial for an offense for which registration is required under
this section, but who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity in the sanity phase of
the trial, or who has had a petition sustained in a juvenile adjudication for an offense for
which registration is required under this section pursuant to subdivision (d), but who has
been found not guilty by reason of insanity, who willfully violates any requirement of this
section is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail
not exceeding one year. For any second or subsequent willful violation of any requirement
of this section, the person is guilty of a felony and shall be punished by imprisonment in the
state prison for 16 months, or two or three years.

  (4) If, after discharge from parole, the person is convicted of a felony or suffers a juvenile
adjudication as specified in this subdivision, he or she shall be required to complete parole
of at least one year, in addition to any other punishment imposed under this subdivision. A
person convicted of a felony as specified in this subdivision may be granted probation only
in the unusual case where the interests of justice would best be served. When probation is
granted under this paragraph, the court shall specify on the record and shall enter into the
minutes the circumstances indicating that the interests of justice would best be served by
the disposition.

  (5) Any person who has ever been adjudicated a sexually violent predator, as defined in
Section 6600 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who fails to verify his or her
registration every 90 days as required pursuant to subparagraph (E) of paragraph (1) of
subdivision (a), shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison, or in a county jail
not exceeding one year.

  (6) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (5), any person who is required to register
or reregister pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a)
and willfully fails to comply with the requirement that he or she reregister no less than
every 30 days is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by imprisonment in a
county jail at least 30 days, but not exceeding six months. A person who willfully fails to
comply with the requirement that he or she reregister no less than every 30 days shall not
be charged with this violation more often than once for a failure to register in any period of
90 days. Any person who willfully commits a third or subsequent violation of the
requirements of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) that he or she
reregister no less than every 30 days shall be punished in accordance with either paragraph
(1) or (2) of this subdivision.

  (7) Any person who fails to provide proof of residence as required by subparagraph (E) of
paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), regardless of the offense upon which the duty to register is
based, is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not
exceeding six months.

  (8) Any person who is required to register under this section who willfully violates any
requirement of this section is guilty of a continuing offense as to each requirement he or
she violated.

  (9) In addition to any other penalty imposed under this subdivision, the failure to provide
information required on registration and reregistration forms of the Department of Justice,
or the provision of false information, is a crime punishable by imprisonment in a county jail
for a period not exceeding one year.

  (h) Whenever any person is released on parole or probation and is required to register
under this section but fails to do so within the time prescribed, the parole authority, the
Youthful Offender Parole Board, or the court, as the case may be, shall order the parole or
probation of the person revoked. For purposes of this subdivision, "parole authority" has the
same meaning as described in Section 3000.

  (i) Except as otherwise provided by law, the statements, photographs, and fingerprints
required by this section shall not be open to inspection by the public or by any person other
than a regularly employed peace officer or other law enforcement officer.

  (j) In any case in which a person who would be required to register pursuant to this
section for a felony conviction is to be temporarily sent outside the institution where he or
she is confined on any assignment within a city or county including firefighting, disaster
control, or of whatever nature the assignment may be, the local law enforcement agency
having jurisdiction over the place or places where the assignment shall occur shall be
notified within a reasonable time prior to removal from the institution. This subdivision shall
not apply to any person who is temporarily released under guard from the institution where
he or she is confined.

  (k) As used in this section, "mentally disordered sex offender" includes any person who
has been determined to be a sexual psychopath or a mentally disordered sex offender under
any provision which, on or before January 1, 1976, was contained in Division 6
(commencing with Section 6000) of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

  (l)(1) Every person who, prior to January 1, 1997, is required to register under this
section, shall be notified whenever he or she next reregisters of the reduction of the
registration period from 14 to 5 working days. This notice shall be provided in writing by the
registering agency or agencies. Failure to receive this notification shall be a defense against
the penalties prescribed by subdivision (g) if the person did register within 14 days.

  (2) Every person who, as a sexually violent predator, as defined in Section 6600 of the
Welfare and Institutions Code, is required to verify his or her registration every 90 days,
shall be notified wherever he or she next registers of his or her increased registration
obligations. This notice shall be provided in writing by the registering agency or agencies.
Failure to receive this notice shall be a defense against the penalties prescribed by
paragraph (5) of subdivision (g).

  (m) The registration provisions of this section are applicable to every person described in
this section, without regard to when his or her crime or crimes were committed or his or her
duty to register pursuant to this section arose, and to every offense described in this
section, regardless of when it was committed.

§ 314 Indecent exposure

  Every person who willfully and lewdly, either:

 1. Exposes his person, or the private parts thereof, in any public place, or in any place
where there are present other persons to be offended or annoyed thereby; or,

  2. Procures, counsels, or assists any person so to expose himself or take part in any
model artist exhibition, or to make any other exhibition of himself to public view, or the
view of any number of persons, such as is offensive to decency, or is adapted to excite to
vicious or lewd thoughts or acts, is guilty of a misdemeanor.

  Every person who violates subdivision 1 of this section after having entered, without
consent, an inhabited dwelling house, or trailer coach as defined in Section 635 of the
Vehicle Code, or the inhabited portion of any other building, is punishable by imprisonment
in the state prison, or in the county jail not exceeding one year.

  Upon the second and each subsequent conviction under subdivision 1 of this section, or
upon a first conviction under subdivision 1 of this section after a previous conviction under
Section 288, every person so convicted is guilty of a felony, and is punishable by
imprisonment in state prison.

§ 315. Keeping or residing in house of ill-fame

  Every person who keeps a house of ill-fame in this state, resorted to for the purposes of
prostitution or lewdness, or who wilfully resides in such house, is guilty of a misdemeanor;
and in all prosecutions for keeping or resorting to such a house common repute may be
received as competent evidence of the character of the house, the purpose for which it is
kept or used, and the character of the women inhabiting or resorting to it.

§ 316. Keeping disorderly house

   Every person who keeps any disorderly house, or any house for the purpose of
assignation or prostitution, or any house of public resort, by which the peace, comfort, or
decency of the immediate neighborhood is habitually disturbed, or who keeps any inn in a
disorderly manner; and every person who lets any apartment or tenement, knowing that it
is to be used for the purpose of assignation or prostitution, is guilty of a misdemeanor.

§ 318. Prevailing upon person to visit place for gambling or prostitution

  Whoever, through invitation or device, prevails upon any person to visit any room,
building, or other places kept for the purpose of illegal gambling or prostitution, is guilty of
a misdemeanor, and, upon conviction thereof, shall be confined in the county jail not
exceeding six months, or fined not exceeding five hundred dollars ($ 500), or be punished
by both that fine and imprisonment.

§ 415. Disturbing the peace

  Any of the following persons shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for a
period of not more than 90 days, a fine of not more than four hundred dollars ($ 400), or
both such imprisonment and fine:

  (1) Any person who unlawfully fights in a public place or challenges another person in a
public place to fight.

  (2) Any person who maliciously and willfully disturbs another person by loud and
unreasonable noise.

  (3) Any person who uses offensive words in a public place which are inherently likely to
provoke an immediate violent reaction.

§ 602. Trespasses; What acts included; Punishment

  Except as provided in paragraph (2) of subdivision (v), subdivision (x), and Section 602.8,
every person who willfully commits a trespass by any of the following acts is guilty of a
misdemeanor:

  (a) Cutting down, destroying, or injuring any kind of wood or timber standing or growing
upon the lands of another.

  (b) Carrying away any kind of wood or timber lying on those lands.

   (c) Maliciously injuring or severing from the freehold of another anything attached to it, or
its produce.

  (d) Digging, taking, or carrying away from any lot situated within the limits of any
incorporated city, without the license of the owner or legal occupant, any earth, soil, or
stone.

  (e) Digging, taking, or carrying away from land in any city or town laid down on the map
or plan of the city, or otherwise recognized or established as a street, alley, avenue, or
park, without the license of the proper authorities, any earth, soil, or stone.

   (f) Maliciously tearing down, damaging, mutilating, or destroying any sign, signboard, or
notice placed upon, or affixed to, any property belonging to the state, or to any city, county,
city and county, town or village, or upon any property of any person, by the state or by an
automobile association, which sign, signboard or notice is intended to indicate or designate
a road, or a highway, or is intended to direct travelers from one point to another, or relates
to fires, fire control, or any other matter involving the protection of the property, or putting
up, affixing, fastening, printing, or painting upon any property belonging to the state, or to
any city, county, town, or village, or dedicated to the public, or upon any property of any
person, without license from the owner, any notice, advertisement, or designation of, or any
name for any commodity, whether for sale or otherwise, or any picture, sign, or device
intended to call attention to it.

  (g) Entering upon any lands owned by any other person whereon oysters or other
shellfish are planted or growing; or injuring, gathering, or carrying away any oysters or
other shellfish planted, growing, or on any of those lands, whether covered by water or not,
without the license of the owner or legal occupant; or damaging, destroying, or removing,
or causing to be removed, damaged, or destroyed, any stakes, marks, fences, or signs
intended to designate the boundaries and limits of any of those lands.

   (h)(1) Entering upon lands or buildings owned by any other person without the license of
the owner or legal occupant, where signs forbidding trespass are displayed, and whereon
cattle, goats, pigs, sheep, fowl, or any other animal is being raised, bred, fed, or held for
the purpose of food for human consumption; or injuring, gathering, or carrying away any
animal being housed on any of those lands, without the license of the owner or legal
occupant; or damaging, destroying, or removing, or causing to be removed, damaged, or
destroyed, any stakes, marks, fences, or signs intended to designate the boundaries and
limits of any of those lands.

  (2) In order for there to be a violation of this subdivision, the trespass signs under
paragraph (1) must be displayed at intervals not less than three per mile along all exterior
boundaries and at all roads and trails entering the land.

  (3) This subdivision shall not be construed to preclude prosecution or punishment under
any other provision of law, including, but not limited to, grand theft or any provision that
provides for a greater penalty or longer term of imprisonment.

  (i) Willfully opening, tearing down, or otherwise destroying any fence on the enclosed land
of another, or opening any gate, bar, or fence of another and willfully leaving it open
without the written permission of the owner, or maliciously tearing down, mutilating, or
destroying any sign, signboard, or other notice forbidding shooting on private property.

  (j) Building fires upon any lands owned by another where signs forbidding trespass are
displayed at intervals not greater than one mile along the exterior boundaries and at all
roads and trails entering the lands, without first having obtained written permission from
the owner of the lands or the owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession.

  (k) Entering any lands, whether unenclosed or enclosed by fence, for the purpose of
injuring any property or property rights or with the intention of interfering with, obstructing,
or injuring any lawful business or occupation carried on by the owner of the land, the
owner's agent or by the person in lawful possession.

  (l) Entering any lands under cultivation or enclosed by fence, belonging to, or occupied
by, another, or entering upon uncultivated or unenclosed lands where signs forbidding
trespass are displayed at intervals not less than three to the mile along all exterior
boundaries and at all roads and trails entering the lands without the written permission of
the owner of the land, the owner's agent or of the person in lawful possession, and

  (1) Refusing or failing to leave the lands immediately upon being requested by the owner
of the land, the owner's agent or by the person in lawful possession to leave the lands, or

  (2) Tearing down, mutilating, or destroying any sign, signboard, or notice forbidding
trespass or hunting on the lands, or

  (3) Removing, injuring, unlocking, or tampering with any lock on any gate on or leading
into the lands, or

  (4) Discharging any firearm.

  (m) Entering and occupying real property or structures of any kind without the consent of
the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession.

  (n) Driving any vehicle, as defined in Section 670 of the Vehicle Code, upon real property
belonging to, or lawfully occupied by, another and known not to be open to the general
public, without the consent of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful
possession. This subdivision shall not apply to any person described in Section 22350 of the
Business and Professions Code who is making a lawful service of process, provided that
upon exiting the vehicle, the person proceeds immediately to attempt the service of
process, and leaves immediately upon completing the service of process or upon the
request of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession.

   (o) Refusing or failing to leave land, real property, or structures belonging to or lawfully
occupied by another and not open to the general public, upon being requested to leave by
(1) a peace officer at the request of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful
possession, and upon being informed by the peace officer that he or she is acting at the
request of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession, or (2) the
owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession. The owner, the owner's agent,
or the person in lawful possession shall make a separate request to the peace officer on
each occasion when the peace officer's assistance in dealing with a trespass is requested.
However, a single request for a peace officer's assistance may be made to cover a limited
period of time not to exceed 30 days and identified by specific dates, during which there is a
fire hazard or the owner, owner's agent or person in lawful possession is absent from the
premises or property. In addition, a single request for a peace officer's assistance may be
made for a period not to exceed six months when the premises or property is closed to the
public and posted as being closed. However, this subdivision shall not be applicable to
persons engaged in lawful labor union activities which are permitted to be carried out on the
property by the California Agricultural Labor Relations Act, Part 3.5 (commencing with
Section 1140) of Division 2 of the Labor Code, or by the National Labor Relations Act. For
purposes of this section, land, real property, or structures owned or operated by any
housing authority for tenants as defined under Section 34213.5 of the Health and Safety
Code constitutes property not open to the general public; however, this subdivision shall not
apply to persons on the premises who are engaging in activities protected by the California
or United States Constitution, or to persons who are on the premises at the request of a
resident or management and who are not loitering or otherwise suspected of violating or
actually violating any law or ordinance.

  (p) Entering upon any lands declared closed to entry as provided in Section 4256 of the
Public Resources Code, if the closed areas shall have been posted with notices declaring the
closure, at intervals not greater than one mile along the exterior boundaries or along roads
and trails passing through the lands.
  (q) Refusing or failing to leave a public building of a public agency during those hours of
the day or night when the building is regularly closed to the public upon being requested to
do so by a regularly employed guard, watchman, or custodian of the public agency owning
or maintaining the building or property, if the surrounding circumstances would indicate to a
reasonable person that the person has no apparent lawful business to pursue.

  (r) Knowingly skiing in an area or on a ski trail which is closed to the public and which has
signs posted indicating the closure.

  (s) Refusing or failing to leave a hotel or motel, where he or she has obtained
accommodations and has refused to pay for those accommodations, upon request of the
proprietor or manager, and the occupancy is exempt, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section
1940 of the Civil Code, from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1940) of Title 5 of Part 4
of Division 3 of the Civil Code. For purposes of this subdivision, occupancy at a hotel or
motel for a continuous period of 30 days or less shall, in the absence of a written agreement
to the contrary, or other written evidence of a periodic tenancy of indefinite duration, be
exempt from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1940) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of
the Civil Code.

  (t) Entering upon private property, including contiguous land, real property, or structures
thereon belonging to the same owner, whether or not generally open to the public, after
having been informed by a peace officer at the request of the owner, the owner's agent, or
the person in lawful possession, and upon being informed by the peace officer that he or
she is acting at the request of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful
possession, that the property is not open to the particular person; or refusing or failing to
leave the property upon being asked to leave the property in the manner provided in this
subdivision.

  This subdivision shall apply only to a person who has been convicted of a violent felony,
as specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, committed upon the particular private
property. A single notification or request to the person as set forth above shall be valid and
enforceable under this subdivision unless and until rescinded by the owner, the owner's
agent, or the person in lawful possession of the property.

  (u)(1) Knowingly entering, by an unauthorized person, upon any airport or passenger
vessel terminal operations area if the area has been posted with notices restricting access to
authorized personnel only and the postings occur not greater than every 150 feet along the
exterior boundary, to the extent, in the case of a passenger vessel terminal, as defined in
subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3), that the exterior boundary extends shoreside. To the
extent that the exterior boundary of a passenger vessel terminal operations area extends
waterside, this prohibition shall apply if notices have been posted in a manner consistent
with the requirements for the shoreside exterior boundary, or in any other manner approved
by the captain of the port.

  (2) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1) shall be punished as follows:

  (A) By a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($ 100).

  (B) By imprisonment in the county jail not exceeding six months, or by a fine not
exceeding one thousand dollars ($ 1,000), or both, if the person refuses to leave the airport
or passenger vessel terminal after being requested to leave by a peace officer or authorized
personnel.

  (C) By imprisonment in the county jail not exceeding six months, or by a fine not
exceeding one thousand dollars ($ 1,000), or both, for a second or subsequent offense.
  (3) As used in this subdivision the following definitions shall control:

  (A) "Airport operations area" means that part of the airport used by aircraft for landing,
taking off, surface maneuvering, loading and unloading, refueling, parking, or maintenance,
where aircraft support vehicles and facilities exist, and which is not for public use or public
vehicular traffic.

  (B) "Passenger vessel terminal" means only that portion of a harbor or port facility, as
described in Section 105.105(a)(2) of Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations, with a
secured area that regularly serves scheduled commuter or passenger operations. For the
purposes of this section, "passenger vessel terminal" does not include any area designated
a public access area pursuant to Section 105.106 of Title 33 of the Code of Federal
Regulations.

  (C) "Authorized personnel" means any person who has a valid airport identification card
issued by the airport operator or has a valid airline identification card recognized by the
airport operator, or any person not in possession of an airport or airline identification card
who is being escorted for legitimate purposes by a person with an airport or airline
identification card. "Authorized personnel" also means any person who has a valid port
identification card issued by the harbor operator, or who has a valid company identification
card issued by a commercial maritime enterprise recognized by the harbor operator, or any
other person who is being escorted for legitimate purposes by a person with a valid port or
qualifying company identification card.

  (D) "Airport" means any facility whose function is to support commercial aviation.

  (v)(1) Except as permitted by federal law, intentionally avoiding submission to the
screening and inspection of one's person and accessible property in accordance with the
procedures being applied to control access when entering or reentering a sterile area of an
airport or passenger vessel terminal, as defined in Section 171.5.

  (2) A violation of this subdivision that is responsible for the evacuation of an airport
terminal or passenger vessel terminal and is responsible in any part for delays or
cancellations of scheduled flights or departures is punishable by imprisonment of not more
than one year in a county jail if the sterile area is posted with a statement providing
reasonable notice that prosecution may result from a trespass described in this subdivision.

  (w) Refusing or failing to leave a battered women's shelter at any time after being
requested to leave by a managing authority of the shelter.

  (1) A person who is convicted of violating this subdivision shall be punished by
imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year.

  (2) The court may order a defendant who is convicted of violating this subdivision to make
restitution to a battered woman in an amount equal to the relocation expenses of the
battered woman and her children if those expenses are incurred as a result of trespass by
the defendant at a battered women's shelter.

  (x)(1) Knowingly entering or remaining in a neonatal unit, maternity ward, or birthing
center located in a hospital or clinic without lawful business to pursue therein, if the area
has been posted so as to give reasonable notice restricting access to those with lawful
business to pursue therein and the surrounding circumstances would indicate to a
reasonable person that he or she has no lawful business to pursue therein. Reasonable
notice is that which would give actual notice to a reasonable person, and is posted, at a
minimum, at each entrance into the area.
  (2) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1) shall be punished as follows:

  (A) As an infraction, by a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($ 100).

  (B) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding
one thousand dollars ($ 1,000), or both, if the person refuses to leave the posted area after
being requested to leave by a peace officer or other authorized person.

  (C) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding
two thousand dollars ($ 2,000), or both, for a second or subsequent offense.

  (D) If probation is granted or the execution or imposition of sentencing is suspended for
any person convicted under this subdivision, it shall be a condition of probation that the
person participate in counseling, as designated by the court, unless the court finds good
cause not to impose this requirement. The court shall require the person to pay for this
counseling, if ordered, unless good cause not to pay is shown.

   (y) Except as permitted by federal law, intentionally avoiding submission to the screening
and inspection of one's person and accessible property in accordance with the procedures
being applied to control access when entering or reentering a courthouse or a city, county,
city and county, or state building if entrances to the courthouse or the city, county, city and
county, or state building have been posted with a statement providing reasonable notice
that prosecution may result from a trespass described in this subdivision.

§ 647. Disorderly conduct; Restrictions on probation

 Every person who commits any of the following acts is guilty of disorderly conduct, a
misdemeanor:

  (a) Who solicits anyone to engage in or who engages in lewd or dissolute conduct in any
public place or in any place open to the public or exposed to public view.

  (b) Who solicits or who agrees to engage in or who engages in any act of prostitution. A
person agrees to engage in an act of prostitution when, with specific intent to so engage, he
or she manifests an acceptance of an offer or solicitation to so engage, regardless of
whether the offer or solicitation was made by a person who also possessed the specific
intent to engage in prostitution. No agreement to engage in an act of prostitution shall
constitute a violation of this subdivision unless some act, in addition to the agreement, is
done within this state in furtherance of the commission of an act of prostitution by the
person agreeing to engage in that act. As used in this subdivision, "prostitution" includes
any lewd act between persons for money or other consideration.

  (c) Who accosts other persons in any public place or in any place open to the public for
the purpose of begging or soliciting alms.

  (d) Who loiters in or about any toilet open to the public for the purpose of engaging in or
soliciting any lewd or lascivious or any unlawful act.

   (e) Who loiters or wanders upon the streets or from place to place without apparent
reason or business and who refuses to identify himself or herself and to account for his or
her presence when requested by any peace officer so to do, if the surrounding
circumstances would indicate to a reasonable person that the public safety demands this
identification.

  (f) Who is found in any public place under the influence of intoxicating liquor, any drug,
controlled substance, toluene, or any combination of any intoxicating liquor, drug, controlled
substance, or toluene, in a condition that he or she is unable to exercise care for his or her
own safety or the safety of others, or by reason of his or her being under the influence of
intoxicating liquor, any drug, controlled substance, toluene, or any combination of any
intoxicating liquor, drug, or toluene, interferes with or obstructs or prevents the free use of
any street, sidewalk, or other public way.

   (g) When a person has violated subdivision (f) , a peace officer, if he or she is reasonably
able to do so, shall place the person, or cause him or her to be placed, in civil protective
custody. The person shall be taken to a facility, designated pursuant to Section 5170 of the
Welfare and Institutions Code, for the 72-hour treatment and evaluation of inebriates. A
peace officer may place a person in civil protective custody with that kind and degree of
force which would be lawful were he or she effecting an arrest for a misdemeanor without a
warrant. No person who has been placed in civil protective custody shall thereafter be
subject to any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding based on the facts giving
rise to this placement. This subdivision shall not apply to the following persons:

  (1) Any person who is under the influence of any drug, or under the combined influence of
intoxicating liquor and any drug.

  (2) Any person who a peace officer has probable cause to believe has committed any
felony, or who has committed any misdemeanor in addition to subdivision (f) .

  (3) Any person who a peace officer in good faith believes will attempt escape or will be
unreasonably difficult for medical personnel to control.

   (h) Who loiters, prowls, or wanders upon the private property of another, at any time,
without visible or lawful business with the owner or occupant. As used in this subdivision,
"loiter" means to delay or linger without a lawful purpose for being on the property and for
the purpose of committing a crime as opportunity may be discovered.

  (i) Who, while loitering, prowling, or wandering upon the private property of another, at
any time, peeks in the door or window of any inhabited building or structure, without visible
or lawful business with the owner or occupant.

  (j) Who lodges in any building, structure, vehicle, or place, whether public or private,
without the permission of the owner or person entitled to the possession or in control of it.

  (k) (1) Any person who looks through a hole or opening, into, or otherwise views, by
means of any instrumentality, including, but not limited to, a periscope, telescope,
binoculars, camera, motion picture camera, or camcorder, the interior of a bedroom,
bathroom, changing room, fitting room, dressing room, or tanning booth, or the interior of
any other area in which the occupant has a reasonable expectation of privacy, with the
intent to invade the privacy of a person or persons inside. This subdivision shall not apply to
those areas of a private business used to count currency or other negotiable instruments.

  (2) Any person who uses a concealed camcorder, motion picture camera, or photographic
camera of any type, to secretly videotape, film, photograph, or record by electronic means,
another, identifiable person under or through the clothing being worn by that other person,
for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other person,
without the consent or knowledge of that other person, with the intent to arouse, appeal to,
or gratify the lust, passions, or sexual desires of that person and invade the privacy of that
other person, under circumstances in which the other person has a reasonable expectation
of privacy.

  (3) (A) Any person who uses a concealed camcorder, motion picture camera, or
photographic camera of any type, to secretly videotape, film, photograph, or record by
electronic means, another, identifiable person who may be in a state of full or partial
undress, for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other
person, without the consent or knowledge of that other person, in the interior of a bedroom,
bathroom, changing room, fitting room, dressing room, or tanning booth, or the interior of
any other area in which that other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, with the
intent to invade the privacy of that other person.

  (B) Neither of the following is a defense to the crime specified in this paragraph:

  (i) The defendant was a cohabitant, landlord, tenant, cotenant, employer, employee, or
business partner or associate of the victim, or an agent of any of these.

  (ii) The victim was not in a state of full or partial undress.

  (l) In any accusatory pleading charging a violation of subdivision (b), if the defendant has
been once previously convicted of a violation of that subdivision, the previous conviction
shall be charged in the accusatory pleading. If the previous conviction is found to be true by
the jury, upon a jury trial, or by the court, upon a court trial, or is admitted by the
defendant, the defendant shall be imprisoned in a county jail for a period of not less than 45
days and shall not be eligible for release upon completion of sentence, on probation, on
parole, on work furlough or work release, or on any other basis until he or she has served a
period of not less than 45 days in a county jail. In all cases in which probation is granted,
the court shall require as a condition thereof that the person be confined in a county jail for
at least 45 days. In no event does the court have the power to absolve a person who
violates this subdivision from the obligation of spending at least 45 days in confinement in a
county jail.

  In any accusatory pleading charging a violation of subdivision (b), if the defendant has
been previously convicted two or more times of a violation of that subdivision, each of these
previous convictions shall be charged in the accusatory pleading. If two or more of these
previous convictions are found to be true by the jury, upon a jury trial, or by the court,
upon a court trial, or are admitted by the defendant, the defendant shall be imprisoned in a
county jail for a period of not less than 90 days and shall not be eligible for release upon
completion of sentence, on probation, on parole, on work furlough or work release, or on
any other basis until he or she has served a period of not less than 90 days in a county jail.
In all cases in which probation is granted, the court shall require as a condition thereof that
the person be confined in a county jail for at least 90 days. In no event does the court have
the power to absolve a person who violates this subdivision from the obligation of spending
at least 90 days in confinement in a county jail.

  In addition to any punishment prescribed by this section, a court may suspend, for not
more than 30 days, the privilege of the person to operate a motor vehicle pursuant to
Section 13201.5 of the Vehicle Code for any violation of subdivision (b) that was committed
within 1,000 feet of a private residence and with the use of a vehicle. In lieu of the
suspension, the court may order a person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle restricted,
for not more than six months, to necessary travel to and from the person's place of
employment or education. If driving a motor vehicle is necessary to perform the duties of
the person's employment, the court may also allow the person to drive in that person's
scope of employment.
HEALTH AND SAFETY CODE

§ 11054. Schedule I list of controlled substances

  (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule I.

  (b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the
following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters,
and ethers whenever the existence of those isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible
within the specific chemical designation:

  (1) Acetylmethadol.

  (2) Allylprodine.

  (3) Alphacetylmethadol (except levoalphacetylmethadol, also known as levo-alpha-
acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM).

  (4) Alphameprodine.

  (5) Alphamethadol.

  (6) Benzethidine.

  (7) Betacetylmethadol.

  (8) Betameprodine.

  (9) Betamethadol.

  (10) Betaprodine.

  (11) Clonitazene.

  (12) Dextromoramide.

  (13) Diampromide.

  (14) Diethylthiambutene.

  (15) Difenoxin.

  (16) Dimenoxadol.

  (17) Dimepheptanol.

  (18) Dimethylthiambutene.

  (19) Dioxaphetyl butyrate.

  (20) Dipipanone.

  (21) Ethylmethylthiambutene.

  (22) Etonitazene.
  (23) Etoxeridine.

  (24) Furethidine.

  (25) Hydroxypethidine.

  (26) Ketobemidone.

  (27) Levomoramide.

  (28) Levophenacylmorphan.

  (29) Morpheridine.

  (30) Noracymethadol.

  (31) Norlevorphanol.

  (32) Normethadone.

  (33) Norpipanone.

  (34) Phenadoxone.

  (35) Phenampromide.

  (36) Phenomorphan.

  (37) Phenoperidine.

  (38) Piritramide.

  (39) Proheptazine.

  (40) Properidine.

  (41) Propiram.

  (42) Racemoramide.

  (43) Tilidine.

  (44) Trimeperidine.

  (45) Any substance which contains any quantity of acetylfentanyl (N-[1-phenethyl-4-
piperidinyl] acetanilide) or a derivative thereof.

  (46) Any substance which contains any quantity of the thiophene analog of acetylfentanyl
(N-[1-[2-(2-thienyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl] acetanilide) or a derivative thereof.

  (47) 1-Methyl-4-Phenyl-4-Propionoxypiperidine (MPPP).

  (48) 1-(2-Phenethyl)-4-Phenyl-4-Acetyloxypiperidine (PEPAP).

  (c) Opium derivatives. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule,
any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the
existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific
chemical designation:

  (1) Acetorphine.

  (2) Acetyldihydrocodeine.

  (3) Benzylmorphine.

  (4) Codeine methylbromide.

  (5) Codeine-N-Oxide.

  (6) Cyprenorphine.

  (7) Desomorphine.

  (8) Dihydromorphine.

  (9) Drotebanol.

  (10) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt).

  (11) Heroin.

  (12) Hydromorphinol.

  (13) Methyldesorphine.

  (14) Methyldihydromorphine.

  (15) Morphine methylbromide.

  (16) Morphine methylsulfonate.

  (17) Morphine-N-Oxide.

  (18) Myrophine.

  (19) Nicocodeine.

  (20) Nicomorphine.

  (21) Normorphine.

  (22) Pholcodine.

  (23) Thebacon.

  (d) Hallucinogenic substances. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another
schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation, which contains any quantity of
the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers, and
salts of isomers whenever the existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is
possible within the specific chemical designation (for purposes of this subdivision only, the
term "isomer" includes the optical, position, and geometric isomers):
  (1) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine--Some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-
dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA.

 (2) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine--Some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-
methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA.

 (3) 4-methoxyamphetamine--Some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-alpha-
methylphenethylamine, paramethoxyamphetamine, PMA.

  (4) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine.

  (5) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine--Some trade or other names: 4-methyl-2,5-
dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; "DOM"; and "STP."

  (6) 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine.

  (7) 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine.

  (8) Bufotenine--Some trade or other names: 3-(beta-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-
hydroxyindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5 indolol; N,N-dimethylserolonin, 5-hydroxy-N,N-
dimethyltryptamine; mappine.

  (9) Diethyltryptamine--Some trade or other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET.

  (10) Dimethyltryptamine--Some trade or other names: DMT.

 (11) Ibogaine--Some trade or other names: 7-Ethyl-6,6beta, 7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-
methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b] indole; Tabernantheiboga.

  (12) Lysergic acid diethylamide.

  (13) Marijuana.

  (14) Mescaline.

  (15) Peyote--Meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora
williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of
the plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of
the plant, its seeds or extracts (interprets 21 U.S.C. Sec. 812(c), Schedule 1(c)(12)).

  (16) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate.

  (17) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate.

  (18) Psilocybin.

  (19) Psilocyn.

  (20) Tetrahydrocannabinols. Synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the
plant, or in the resinous extractives of Cannabis, sp. and/or synthetic substances,
derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity
such as the following: delta 1 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers;
delta 6 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers; delta 3,4 cis or trans
tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers.

  (Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized, compounds
of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered).

  (21) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine--Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-
phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)
ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE.

  (22) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine--Some trade or other names: 1-(1-
phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine, PCP, PHP.

  (23) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine--Some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2 thienyl)-
cyclohexyl]-piperidine, 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine, TPCP, TCP.

  (e) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts,
isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of
isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

  (1) Mecloqualone.

  (2) Methaqualone.

  (3) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid (also known by other names such as GHB; gamma
hydroxy butyrate; 4-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutanoic acid; sodium oxybate; sodium
oxybutyrate), including its immediate precursors, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of
isomers, esters, and ethers, including, but not limited to, gammabutyrolactone, for which an
application has not been approved under Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 355).

  (f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material,
compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances
having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its isomers:

  (1) Cocaine base.

  (2) Fenethylline, including its salts.

  (3) N-Ethylamphetamine, including its salts.

§ 11055. Schedule II list of controlled substances

  (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule II.

  (b) Any of the following substances, except those narcotic drugs listed in other schedules,
whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or
independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by combination of extraction and
chemical synthesis:

  (1) Opium, opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate,
with the exception of naloxone hydrochloride (N-allyl-14-hydroxy-nordihydromorphinone
hydrochloride), but including the following:

  (A) Raw opium.

  (B) Opium extracts.
  (C) Opium fluid extracts.

  (D) Powdered opium.

  (E) Granulated opium.

  (F) Tincture of opium.

  (G) Apomorphine.

  (H) Codeine.

  (I) Ethylmorphine.

  (J) Hydrocodone.

  (K) Hydromorphone.

  (L) Metopon.

  (M) Morphine.

  (N) Oxycodone.

  (O) Oxymorphone.

  (P) Thebaine.

  (2) Any salt, compound, isomer, or derivative, whether natural or synthetic, of the
substances referred to in paragraph (1), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of
opium.

  (3) Opium poppy and poppy straw.

  (4) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, but not
including decocainized coca leaves or extractions which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.

  (5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid, or
powder form which contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy).

  (6) Cocaine, except as specified in Section 11054.

  (7) Ecgonine, whether natural or synthetic, or any salt, isomer, derivative, or preparation
thereof.

  (c) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless in another schedule, any of the
following opiates, including its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters,
and ethers whenever the existence of those isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible
within the specific chemical designation, dextrorphan and levopropoxyphene excepted:

  (1) Alfentanyl.

  (2) Alphaprodine.

  (3) Anileridine.
  (4) Bezitramide.

  (5) Bulk dextropropoxyphene (nondosage forms).

  (6) Dihydrocodeine.

  (7) Diphenoxylate.

  (8) Fentanyl.

  (9) Isomethadone.

  (10) Levoalphacetylmethadol, also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl
acetate, or LAAM. This substance is authorized for the treatment of narcotic addicts under
federal law (see Part 291 (commencing with Section 291.501) and Part 1308 (commencing
with Section 1308.01) of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations).

  (11) Levomethorphan.

  (12) Levorphanol.

  (13) Metazocine.

  (14) Methadone.

  (15) Methadone-Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4, 4-diphenyl butane.

  (16) Moramide-Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic
acid.

  (17) Pethidine (meperidine).

  (18) Pethidine-Intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine.

  (19) Pethidine-Intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate.

  (20) Pethidine-Intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid.

  (21) Phenazocine.

  (22) Piminodine.

  (23) Racemethorphan.

  (24) Racemorphan.

  (25) Sufentanyl.

  (d) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:

  (1) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers.

  (2) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers.
  (3) Dimethylamphetamine (N,N-dimethylamphetamine), its salts, isomers, and salts of its
isomers.

  (4) N-Ethylmethamphetamine (N-ethyl, N-methylamphetamine), its salts, isomers, and
salts of its isomers.

  (5) Phenmetrazine and its salts.

  (6) Methylphenidate.

  (e) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts,
isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of
isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

  (1) Amobarbital.

  (2) Pentobarbital.

  (3) Phencyclidines, including the following:

  (A) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) piperidine (PCP).

  (B) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) morpholine (PCM).

  (C) Any analog of phencyclidine which is added by the Attorney General by regulation
pursuant to this paragraph.

  The Attorney General, or his or her designee, may, by rule or regulation, add additional
analogs of phencyclidine to those enumerated in this paragraph after notice, posting, and
hearing pursuant to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of
Title 2 of the Government Code. The Attorney General shall, in the calendar year of the
regular session of the Legislature in which the rule or regulation is adopted, submit a draft
of a proposed bill to each house of the Legislature which would incorporate the analogs into
this code. No rule or regulation shall remain in effect beyond January 1 after the calendar
year of the regular session in which the draft of the proposed bill is submitted to each
house. However, if the draft of the proposed bill is submitted during a recess of the
Legislature exceeding 45 calendar days, the rule or regulation shall be effective until
January 1 after the next calendar year.

  (4) Secobarbital.

  (5) Glutethimide.



  (f) Immediate precursors. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another
schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of
the following substances:

  (1) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine:

  (A) Phenylacetone. Some trade or other names: phenyl-2 propanone; P2P; benzyl methyl
ketone; methyl benzyl ketone.
  (2) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine (PCP):

  (A) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine.

  (B) 1-piperidinocyclohexane carbonitrile (PCC).

§ 11056. Schedule III list of controlled substances

  (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule III.

  (b) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts,
isomers (whether optical, position, or geometric), and salts of those isomers whenever the
existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific
chemical designation:

   (1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any
stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were
listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Section 1308.32 of Title 21 of the
Code of Federal Regulations, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in
that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of
controlled substances.

  (2) Benzphetamine.

  (3) Chlorphentermine.

  (4) Clortermine.

  (5) Mazindol.

  (6) Phendimetrazine.

  (c) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

  (1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following:

  (A) Amobarbital

  (B) Secobarbital

 (C) Pentobarbital or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients
which are not listed in any schedule.

  (2) Any suppository dosage form containing any of the following:

  (A) Amobarbital

  (B) Secobarbital

  (C) Pentobarbital or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the federal Food and
Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository.
  (3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or any
salt thereof.

  (4) Chlorhexadol.

  (5) Lysergic acid.

  (6) Lysergic acid amide.

  (7) Methyprylon.

  (8) Sulfondiethylmethane.

  (9) Sulfonethylmethane.

  (10) Sulfonmethane.

  (11) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid, and its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, contained in
a drug product for which an application has been approved under Section 505 of the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 355).

  (d) Nalorphine.

  (e) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs,
or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set
forth below:

  (1) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams
per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium.

  (2) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams
per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic
amounts.

  (3) Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than
15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid
of opium.

  (4) Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 millilitersor not more than
15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in
recognized therapeutic amounts. Additionally, oral liquid preparations of dihydrocodeinone
containing the above specified amounts may not contain as its nonnarcotic ingredients two
or more antihistamines in combination with each other.

  (5) Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90
milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized
therapeutic amounts.

  (6) Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15
milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized
therapeutic amounts.

  (7) Not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100grams or not
more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients
in recognized therapeutic amounts.
  (8) Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per100 grams, with
one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

  (f) Anabolic steroids and chorionic gonadotropin. Any material, compound, mixture, or
preparation containing chorionic gonadotropin or an anabolic steroid (excluding anabolic
steroid products listed in the "Table of Exempt Anabolic Steroid Products" (Section 1308.34
of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations), as exempt from the federal Controlled
Substances Act (Section 801 and following of Title 21 of the United States Code)), including,
but not limited to, the following:

  (1) Androisoxazole.

  (2) Androstenediol.

  (3) Bolandiol.

  (4) Bolasterone.

  (5) Boldenone.

  (6) Chlormethandienone.

  (7) Clostebol.

  (8) Dihydromesterone.

  (9) Ethylestrenol.

  (10) Fluoxymesterone.

  (11) Formyldienolone.

  (12) 4-Hydroxy-19-nortestosterone.

  (13) Mesterolone.

  (14) Methandriol.

  (15) Methandrostenolone.

  (16) Methenolone.

  (17) 17-Methyltestosterone.

  (18) Methyltrienolone.

  (19) Nandrolone.

  (20) Norbolethone.

  (21) Norethandrolone.

  (22) Normethandrolone.

  (23) Oxandrolone.
  (24) Oxymestrone.

  (25) Oxymetholone.

  (26) Quinbolone.

  (27) Stanolone.

  (28) Stanozolol.

  (29) Stenbolone.

  (30) Testosterone.

  (31) Trenbolone.

  (32) Chorionic Gonadotropin (HGC).

  (g) Ketamine. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing ketamine.

  (h) Hallucinogenic substances. Any of the following hallucinogenic substances: dronabinol
(synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a drug product
approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration.

§ 11057. Schedule IV list of controlled substances

  (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule IV.

  (b) Schedule IV shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official
name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this
section.

  (c) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs,
or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set
forth below:

  (1) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine
sulfate per dosage unit.

  (2) Dextropropoxyphene (alpha-( + )-4-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-
propionoxybutane).

  (3) Butorphanol.

  (d) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of
those salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical
designation:

  (1) Alprazolam.

  (2) Barbital.
(3) Chloral betaine.

(4) Chloral hydrate.

(5) Chlordiazepoxide.

(6) Clobazam.

(7) Clonazepam.

(8) Clorazepate.

(9) Diazepam.

(10) Estazolam.

(11) Ethchlorvynol.

(12) Ethinamate.

(13) Flunitrazepam.

(14) Flurazepam.

(15) Halazepam.

(16) Lorazepam.

(17) Mebutamate.

(18) Meprobamate.

(19) Methohexital.

(20) Methylphenobarbital (Mephobarbital).

(21) Midazolam.

(22) Nitrazepam.

(23) Oxazepam.

(24) Paraldehyde.

(25) Petrichoral.

(26) Phenobarbital.

(27) Prazepam.

(28) Quazepam.

(29) Temazepam.

(30) Triazolam.
  (31) Zaleplon.

  (32) Zolpidem.

  (e) Fenfluramine. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any
quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position,
or geometric), and salts of those isomers, whenever the existence of those salts, isomers,
and salts of isomers is possible:

  (1) Fenfluramine.

  (f) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts,
isomers (whether optical, position, or geometric), and salts of those isomers is possible
within the specific chemical designation:

  (1) Diethylpropion.

  (2) Mazindol.

  (3) Modafinil.

  (4) Phentermine.

  (5) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof).

  (6) Pipradrol.

  (7) SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenylethane).

  (g) Other substances. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule,
any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of
pentazocine, including its salts.

§ 11058. Schedule V list of controlled substances

  (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule V.

  (b) Schedule V shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name,
common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section.

  (c) Narcotic drugs containing nonnarcotic active medicinal ingredients. Any compound,
mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts
calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below,
which shall include one or more nonnarcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient
proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation valuable medicinal
qualities other than those possessed by narcotic drugs alone:

  (1) Not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.

  (2) Not more than 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.

  (3) Not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.

  (4) Not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than 25 micrograms of
atropine sulfate per dosage unit.

  (5) Not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.

  (6) Not more than 0.5 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine
sulfate per dosage unit.

  (d) Buprenorphine.

§ 11550. Use of controlled substance; Drug rehabilitation program; Possession of
firearm; Punishment

  (a) No person shall use, or be under the influence of any controlled substance which is (1)
specified in subdivision (b), (c), or (e), or paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11054,
specified in paragraph (14), (15), (21), (22), or (23) of subdivision (d) of Section 11054,
specified in subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 11055, or specified in paragraph (1) or (2) of
subdivision (d) or in paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) of Section 11055, or (2) a narcotic
drug classified in Schedule III, IV, or V, except when administered by or under the direction
of a person licensed by the state to dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled
substances. It shall be the burden of the defense to show that it comes within the
exception. Any person convicted of violating this subdivision is guilty of a misdemeanor and
shall be sentenced to serve a term of not less than 90 days or more than one year in a
county jail. The court may place a person convicted under this subdivision on probation for
a period not to exceed five years and, except as provided in subdivision (c), shall in all
cases in which probation is granted require, as a condition thereof, that the person be
confined in a county jail for at least 90 days. Other than as provided by subdivision (c), in
no event shall the court have the power to absolve a person who violates this subdivision
from the obligation of spending at least 90 days in confinement in a county jail.

  (b) Any person who (1) is convicted of violating subdivision (a) when the offense occurred
within seven years of that person being convicted of two or more separate violations of that
subdivision, and (2) refuses to complete a licensed drug rehabilitation program offered by
the court pursuant to subdivision (c), shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for
not less than 180 days nor more than one year. In no event does the court have the power
to absolve a person convicted of a violation of subdivision (a) that is punishable under this
subdivision from the obligation of spending at least 180 days in confinement in a county jail
unless there are no licensed drug rehabilitation programs reasonably available.

  For the purpose of this section, a drug rehabilitation program shall not be considered
reasonably available unless the person is required to pay no more than the court determines
that he or she is reasonably able to pay, in order to participate in the program.

  (c) The court may, when it would be in the interest of justice, permit any person
convicted of a violation of subdivision (a) punishable under subdivision (a) or (b) to
complete a licensed drug rehabilitation program in lieu of part or all of the imprisonment in
the county jail. As a condition of sentencing, the court may require the offender to pay all or
a portion of the drug rehabilitation program.

  In order to alleviate jail overcrowding and to provide recidivist offenders with a
reasonable opportunity to seek rehabilitation pursuant to this subdivision, counties are
encouraged to include provisions to augment licensed drug rehabilitation programs in their
substance abuse proposals and applications submitted to the state for federal and state
drug abuse funds.

  (d) In addition to any fine assessed under this section, the judge may assess a fine not to
exceed seventy dollars ($ 70) against any person who violates this section, with the
proceeds of this fine to be used in accordance with Section 1463.23 of the Penal Code. The
court shall, however, take into consideration the defendant's ability to pay, and no
defendant shall be denied probation because of his or her inability to pay the fine permitted
under this subdivision.

  (e) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b) or any other provision of law, any person
who is unlawfully under the influence of cocaine, cocaine base, heroin, methamphetamine,
or phencyclidine while in the immediate personal possession of a loaded, operable firearm is
guilty of a public offense punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for not exceeding one
year or in state prison.

  As used in this subdivision "immediate personal possession" includes, but is not limited to,
the interior passenger compartment of a motor vehicle.

  (f) Every person who violates subdivision (e) is punishable upon the second and each
subsequent conviction by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or four years.

  (g) Nothing in this section prevents deferred entry of judgment or a defendant's
participation in a preguilty plea drug court program under Chapter 2.5 (commencing with
Section 1000) of Title 6 of Part 2 of the Penal Code unless the person is charged with
violating subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 243 of the Penal Code. A person charged with
violating this section by being under the influence of any controlled substance which is
specified in paragraph (21), (22), or (23) of subdivision (d) of Section 11054 or in
paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) of Section 11055 and with violating either subdivision (b)
or (c) of Section 243 of the Penal Code or with a violation of subdivision (e) shall be
ineligible for deferred entry of judgment or a preguilty plea drug court program.

				
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