LAM Core Surgery by mikeholy


									LAM Core Surgery

1. the intestinal suture pattern which coats the serosal surfaces and penetrates the lumen of the intestine is the:

A. horizontal cushing

B. connell

C. czerny-lembert

D. lembert

E. parker kerr

Answer: B

2. when is the best time to castrate male pigs?

A. at weaning

B. at two weeks of age

C. shortly after birth

D. at 2 months of age

E. at 4 months of age

Answer: B

3. an episiotomy is recommended for:

A. enlargement of the external genital orifice

B. treatment of mares with pneumovagina

C. treatment of bitches with perineal lacerations

D. mares with third degree perineal lacerations

E. removal of urinary calculi in mares

Answer: A

4. following the excision of an interdigital fibroma, immobilization of the claws is best affected by:

A. applying a plaster of paris cast

B. taping the foot with an elastic tape

C. applying a wooden block with clips

D. applying a poultice boot

E. wiring the claws

Answer: E

5. the most effective method to correct a pharyngeal cyst in the equine is:

A. to drain the cyst

B. to inject a sclerosing agent to produce scar formation

C. to excise the cyst

D. not to treat them since they usually regress spontaneously

E. there is no effective treatment at the present time

Answer: C

6. the typical dog-bite wound is classified as a/an:

A. penetrating, avulsion type

B. laceration

C. open, crushing wound

D. abrasion

E. contusion

Answer: A

7. a sinus:

A. is generally lined by epithelium

B. is a passage connecting skin with a mucous surface

C. is a passage connecting one mucous surface with another

D. generally contains a foreign body or dead tissue

E. should respond to systemic antibiotics

Answer: D

8. hematomas and abscesses can be difficult to differentiate. which one of the following physical
characteristics is generally the most useful in differentiating a hematoma from an abscess?

A. size of the lesion

B. location of the swelling

C. presence or absence of heat

D. presence or absence of a zone of inflammatory edema around the swelling

E. presence or abscence of pain

Answer: D

9. with regard to artificial arrest of hemorrhage during surgery:

A. ligation is used less frequently than crushing or torsion techniques

B. electrocoagulation is usually more traumatic to the tissues than ligation and is associated with more delay in

C. there is no need to ligate or clamp an artery proximally and distally before cutting it as bleeding occurs only
from the proximal end

D. cryosurgery can be used in place of electrocoagulation

E. the use of tourniquets should be discouraged, however, they are often necessary for surgery in the
extremities where blood vessels are small and complex

Answer: E

10. the most critical problem caused by excessive bleeding is:

A. it encourages infection

B. it delays healing

C. it produces anoxia of vital organs and structures

D. it obscures the surgical field

E. none of the above

Answer: C

11. in making a paramedian incision the muscle between the ventral and dorsal fascia is the:

A. internal oblique

B. rectus abdominis

C. external oblique

D. transversus abdominis

E. external abdominis

Answer: B

12. with regard to surgical drainage: 1) the penrose drain is a soft rubber tube and fluid can gravitate around it
as well as through it 2) a penrose drain cannot be used in the axilla without a body bandage to immobilize the
leg 3) in a general a seton made of gauze is as efficient as a penrose drain 4) suction drainage is generally
more efficient than gravity drainage, however, this added efficiency is rarely needed 5) penrose drains should
be radiopaque

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2, 4 and 5

C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

D. 2, 3, 4 and 5

E. 1, 2, 3, and 5

Answer: B

13. in performing a caesarean section in the cow, the left paralumbar fossa is desensitized by anesthetizing:

A. t13, l1, l2 and l3

B. l1, l2 and l3

C. t14, l1 and l2

D. t13, l1 and l2

E. t13, t14 and l1

Answer: D

14. the primary hemostatic response is characterized by which of the following?

A. reinforcement of the platelet plug

B. autolysis of platelets

C. interaction of platelets with the damaged vessel wall

D. increased production of the fibrin producing enzyme prostacyclin

E. decreased fibrinolysin

Answer: C

15. which of the following statements is not true in regards to tension pneumothorax?

A. a tear in the pleura acts as a one way valve

B. pleural pressure is below atmospheric pressure

C. pneumothorax is a rapidly deteriorating condition

D. pneumothorax may arise from a variety of causes

Answer: B

16. which of the following statements is true about intestinal anastomosis?

A. without serosa-to-serosa contact of tissue at the anastomotic site, leakage of intestinal contents will occur

B. approximating suture patterns give a stronger seal at the anastomotic site than do inverting patterns

C. the anastomosis is functionally stronger at three days postoperatively than it is at one day postoperatively

D. the submucosa is the anatomic layer of greatest strength and must be consistently penetrated by sutures or
breakdown is likely

E. all of the above

Answer: D

17. von willebrand's factor is a necessary co-factor for:

A. platelet adhesion to a foreign body

B. platelet activation

C. platelet secretion of sertonin

D. constriction of the injured vessel

E. activation of factor xii

Answer: A

18. paradoxical breathing refers to __________movement of the chest wall during ______ and ________
movement during _________:

A. inward; inspiration

B. inward; expiration

C. outward, expiration

D. a and b

E. a and c

Answer: E

19. a form of pleural cavity disease characterized by an obvious chest deformity and paradoxical breathing is:

A. pneumothora

B. flail chest

C. chylothorax

D. diaphragmatic hernia

E. tension pneumothorax

Answer: B

20. which of the following criteria is most valuable in the clinical assessment of intestinal viability?

A. color

B. perfusion

C. peristalsis

D. temperature

E. all of the above

Answer: C

21. all of the following forms of pleural cavity disease may require surgical intervention except:

A. hydrothorax from hypoproteinemia

B. spontaneous pneumothorax

C. diaphragmatic hernia

D. lung lobe torsion

E. flail chest

Answer: A

22. in the surgery of hollow organs the continuous cushing suture pattern:

A. does not penetrate the lumen

B. requires the use of silk

C. produces eversion of the tissues

D. should not be pulled snugly

E. is the only effective suture pattern

Answer: A

23. idiopathic laryngeal hemiplegia causes:

A. dysphagia, dyspnea and cough

B. inspiratory dyspnea and noise during exercise

C. rhinorrhagia, exercise intolerance and ocular discharge

D. voice changes, cough and expiratory dyspnea

E. none of the above

Answer: B

24. laryngeal hemiplegia is a result of neuropathy of the recurrent laryngeal nerve:

A. it may be caused by strangles or guttural pouch mycosis

B. it is usually congenital

C. it is usually left sided

D. the longer length of the left nerve is a factor in the condition

E. all of the above

Answer: E

25. surgical treatment of laryngeal hemiplegia by excision of the lateral ventricle involves which of the

A. ventriculectomy via a midline incision through the cricothyroid membrane

B. cauterization of the lateral ventricle through the mouth under general anesthesia using laser therapy

C. adequate suturing of the ventriculectomy site to prevent retraction due to scar formation

D. excision of part of the vocal ligament increases the size of the rima glottidis

E. bilateral ventriculectomy is recommended to prevent the development of right-sided paresis

Answer: A

26. excess tissue making up the alar fold leads to:

A. development of an atheroma

B. a hematoma of the dorsal turbinate

C. a snoring sound on inspiration

D. edema of the pharyngeal recess resulting in a gurgling sound

E. a snorous sound produced on expiration

Answer: C

27. in sows and gilts the site of epidural anesthesia is between:

A. the first and second coccygeal vertebrae

B. the last sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae

C. the last lumbar and first sacral vertebrae

D. the first and second sacral vertebrae which are not fused in the porcine

E. none of the above

Answer: C

28. respiratory distress syndrome "shock lung" has been associated with all of the following except:

A. administration of 100% oxygen

B. elevated serum aldosterone concentrations and a marked reduction in urinary sodium excretion

C. prolonged positive pressure ventilation

D. intravenous administration of non-colloid solutions

E. hemorrhagic shock

Answer: B

29. in a typical reconstructive procedure in dogs:

A. undermining of skin is done with a scalpel in preference to scissors to minimize tissue trauma

B. the decision to close a defect by a y-pattern, sliding flap, or rotating flap is based mainly on the shape of the
defect rather than on the degree and location of loose skin adjacent to the defect

C. the ratio between the width of the base of a skin flap and the length of the flap can vary tremendously,
however, in general the ratio should be no greater than 1:2 or 1:3

D. at least two relaxing incisions are needed; one is not sufficient

E. undermining of skin is not needed in the typical procedures of local rotation for closing triangular defects
and sliding flaps for square flaps.

Answer: C

30. spillage from the cut ends of the small intestine can be prevented by occluding the lumen with:

A. non-crushing babcock forceps

B. carmalt forceps

C. oschner-pean forceps

D. kelly forceps

E. non-crushing doyen forceps

Answer: E

31. the most ideal method of dehorning (disbudding) 10-14 days old goats involve the use of:

A. paste-caustic cauterizing chemicals

B. surgical excision utilizing a scalpel and heavy mayo scissors

C. heat cautery with a dehorning iron with a sized copper ring

D. the use of keystone dehorner

E. cornual nerve block and the use of the barnes dehorner

Answer: C

32. the most common causes(s) for failure of a wound located below the hock or carpus to heal is (are):

A. failure to search for and remove foreign bodies (including bony sequestra)

B. failure to suture the wound using heavy vetafil sutures to relieve tension

C. failure to apply counter-pressure

D. a and b

E. a and c

Answer: E

33. in addition to closure of the tear, diversion of the fecal stream and attention to fluid and electrolyte
requirements, treatment of rectal tears in the equine also include:

A. the early administration of antibiotics chosen on the basis of aerobic culture and sensitivity testing of
bacteria in the peritoneal exudate

B. the early administration of broadspectrum antibiotics effective against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

C. daily intraperitoneal instillation of broadspectrum antibiotics

D. the early administration of antibiotics effective against gramnegative organisms

E. the early administration effective against aerobic bacteria

Answer: B

34. the trephine opening in the nasal bones for removal of the nasal septum is placed:

A. at a point midway between the medial canthi of the eyes

B. at the point where the dorsal ridge of the nasal bones begin to diverge from their parallel arrangement

C. at a point midway between the left and right infraordital foramen

D. three inches rostral to the ethmoid plate

E. directly over the turbinate portion of the frontal sinus

Answer: B

35. when repairing an inguinal-scrotal hernia in a one month old colt not destined to be castrated one should:

A. always resect and anastomose any intestine that is in the scrotum

B. reduce the opening in the vaginal tunic with a modified purse string suture, and partially close the inguinal

C. push the testicle and intestine into the peritoneal cavity and close the inguinal ring with simple interrupted

D. completely close the internal inguinal ring with wire since it causes the least tissue reaction

E. always castrate the animal

Answer: B

36. a rumenotomy can be done safely:

A. with the use of a rumen board

B. with the use of two stay sutures

C. by suturing skin to rumen

D. using all of the above

E. utilizing a and c

Answer: E

37. a caslick operation:

A. increases the length of the vulvar commissure

B. is contraindicated in first or second degree lacerations of the perineum

C. is synonymous with episioplasty

D. does not increase conception rate in mares

E. should be used following breeding on foal heat

Answer: C

38. after extraction of the third maxillary cheek tooth:

A. care must be taken to sterilize feed for 10 days

B. postoperative radiographs must be obtained

C. healing of the bony socket is enhanced by the administration of anabolic steroids

D. the maxillary sinus must be protected from food impactions

E. all of the above

Answer: D

39. wolf teeth:

A. are vestigal in mares

B. are a common cause of hard mouth

C. are more common in the mandible than in the maxilla

D. rarely make occlusal contact

E. all of the above

Answer: D

40. during right paramedian abomasopexy, which part of the abomasum is sutured to the body wall?

A. fundus

B. cranial portion of the corpus

C. pyloric part

D. caudal portion of the corpus

E. pylorus

Answer: B

41. the most common cause of acute suppurative sinusitis in the bovine is:

A. dehorning

B. infection of the maxillary teeth

C. extension of infection from the nasal fossa

D. trauma resulting in hemorrhage and infection of the sinus

E. contusion and fracture of the facial bones

Answer: A

42. the correct order of progression of ingesta from the cecum to the rectum of the equine is:

A. small colon; left ventral colon; right ventral colon; right dorsal colon; left dorsal colon; rectum

B. small colon; right ventral colon left dorsal colon; right dorsal colon; tranverse colon; rectum

C. diaphragmatic flexure; right ventral colon; pelvic flexure; left dorsal colon; sternal flexure right dorsal
colon; rectum

D. right ventral colon; sternal flexure; pelvic flexure; right dorsal colon; small colon; rectum

E. right ventral colon; pelvic flexure; left ventral colon; small colon; rectum

Answer: D

43. occlusion of the nasomaxillary opening leading to the accumulation of secretions within the superior
maxillary and frontal sinuses can be corrected by:

A. reestablishing a patent nasomaxillary opening into the middle meatus

B. establishing drainage of the superior maxillary sinus into the ventral meatus

C. establishing drainage of the frontal sinus into the middle meatus

D. establishing drainage of the frontal sinus into the superior maxillary sinus

E. establishing drainage of the frontal sinus into the dorsal meatus

Answer: C

44. which of the following suture materials and suture patterns is most appropriate for permanent

A. absorbable, multifilament suture penetration of mucosa

B. non-absorbable, multifilament suture; avoiding penetration of mucosa

C. absorbable, multifilament suture avoiding penetration of mucosa

D. non-absorbable, multifilament suture; penetration of greater omentum

Answer: B

45. caries of cementum of the teeth of the equine:

A. is predisposed by hypoplasia of cementum

B. is seen most frequently in the wolf teeth

C. is a benign lesion

D. seldom occurs in the maxillary cheek teeth

E. all of the above

Answer: A

46. a trainer requests endoscopic examination of a 20 month old thoroughbred before it enters training. which
of the following findings would be least likely to adversely affect performance?

A. grade ii pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia

B. hypoplasia of the epiglottis

C. left laryngeal hemiplegia

D. dorsal pharyngeal cyst

E. entrapment of the epiglottis

Answer: A

47. if a first calf heifer has a left displaced abomasum (lda) and a significant degree of ventral edema, which of
the following procedures is most appropriate for correction of the lda?

A. left paramedian abomasopexy

B. right paralumbar fossa omentopexy

C. right paramedian abomasopexy

D. left paralumbar fossa abomasopexy

E. left paralumbar fossa omentopexy

Answer: B

48. the major postoperative complication associated with resection of an epiglottic entrapment is:

A. reflux of ingesta from the nares and dysphagia

B. aspiration pneumonia

C. deformity of the epiglottis

D. intermittent and occasionally persistent dorsal displacment of the soft palate (ddsp)

E. reentrapment by the palatopharyngeal arches resulting in decreased exercise tolerance and gurgling sounds

Answer: D

49. the principal endoscopic feature that distinguishes dorsal displacement of the soft palate (ddsp) from
epiglottic entrapment is:

A. the free margin of tissue below the arytenoid apices with ddsp

B. the absence of an epiglottic silhouette with ddsp

C. the free margin of tissue below the arytenoid apices with epiglottic entrapment

D. the patient's ability to reposition the soft palate below the epiglottis by swallowing, with epiglottic

E. the presence of an ulcer on the visible surface of the epiglottis

Answer: B

50. small intestinal incarceration in the scrotum (scrotal hernia) occurs:

A. most often in older (>8 years of age) standardbred horses

B. most often in thoroughbred horses

C. only after mounting to breed

D. most often in standardbred horses with no association with age

E. only after castration when the external inguinal ring has been incised

Answer: D

51. surgical repair of prolapsed rectum in swine is:

A. an inherited factor and justification for immediate slaughter

B. easily accomplished by resection of the prolapsed part of the rectum followed by suturing of the proximal
and distal segments to recreate communicatiion

C. best managed by colonopexy

D. not a reasonable procedure for economic reasons

E. best treated with systemic antibiotics to limit peritonitis. the prolapsed portion of rectum will slough in 7 to
10 days

Answer: B

52. the danger of using a clamp for correcting umbilical hernias in foals and calves is:

A. the peritoneum does not seal off the hernia ring

B. the clamp can easily fall off

C. after the excessive tissue sloughs off the belly wall is very weak

D. it is possible to clamp off a loop or part fo the gut wall with the clamp

E. the clamps are not strong enough

Answer: D

53. initial therapeutic management of a horse with an acute abdominal crisis should include all of the
following except:

A. relief of stomach distention

B. administration of analgesics

C. administration of a gastrointestinal stimulant

D. intravenous administration of polyionic fluids

E. administration of antibiotics

Answer: C

54. when the fetus is emphysematous and a caesarean section is indicated, the site of choice is:

A. a ventral midline or paramedian

B. a standing left paralumbar fossa

C. a lower right flank with the animal in left lateral recumbency

D. a standing right paralumbar fossa

E. a left costoabdominal

Answer: A

55. a diagnosis of seminal vesiculitis in bulls may be made on the basis of:

A. the presence of blood and pus in the urine

B. increased lobulation of the seminal vesicles and blood in the semen

C. enlargement of the vas deferens as it enters the seminal vesicles with blood and pus in the semen

D. enlargement and loss of lobulation of one or both seminal vesicles with blood and pus in the semen

E. a and b

Answer: D

56. most cases of persistent urachus in foals can be successfully managed by:

A. placement of an indwelling catheter in the bladder

B. chemical cauterization

C. amputation of the distal part of the urachus

D. incision of the urachus to provide adequate drainage

E. ligation of the urachus

Answer: B

57. cystotomy is indicated in cases of:

A. renal calculi

B. vesicular calculi

C. urethral calculi

D. prostatic calculi

E. stag horn calculi

Answer: B

58. in a bull, surgical repair of a ruptured penis should be performed after:

A. 1 to 2 months to allow formation and contraction of the scar tissue

B. 1 to 2 months since in 50% of cases an abscess develops, which must be drained

C. 4 to 10 days, when the clot has formed

D. 1 to 2 days to control hemorrhage

E. 2 to 3 weeks, when organization of the clot has occurred

Answer: C

59. inguinal hernias in neonatal foals:

A. usually require immediate surgery

B. always produce symptoms of colic

C. rapidly progress to devilatization of the herniated segment of intestine

D. usually correct themselves spontaneously

E. usually result in strangulation

Answer: D

60. all except one of the following are thought to be associated with urolithiasis in the bovine:

A. insufficient colloids

B. castration at an early age

C. hypoparothyroidism

D. crystalloid excess

E. urinary tract infection

Answer: C

61. in performing a cryptorchidectomy the retained abdominal testicle may be located by using the urinary
bladder as a landmark to find the:

A. ductus deferens

B. gubernaculum

C. spermatic artery

D. processus vaginalis

E. epididymis

Answer: A

62. during development, misplacement of the bovine testicle sometimes occurs. in such cases the ectopic
testicle is most commonly located:

A. in the inguinal canal

B. at the internal inguinal ring

C. outside the peritoneum near the kidney

D. subcutaneously alongside the penis

E. in the abdomen

Answer: D

63. intussusception in colts usually involves the terminal portion of the ileum. in order to gain access to this
structure, the best approach is an incision through the:

A. left paramedian region

B. dorsal part of the right paralumbar fossa

C. left costoabdominal region

D. left lower flank

E. dorsal part of the left paralumbar fossa

Answer: B

64. following removal of the ovaries of the mare, the incision in the anterior dorsal aspect of the vagina is:

A. sutured with silk using the goetze method of closure

B. closed with cushing type suture pattern

C. closed with a lembert pattern using "o" surgical gut

D. closed with horizontal mattress sutures

E. allowed to heal by granulation

Answer: E

65. paralytic ileus following colic surgery in the equine is best managed by:

A. administration of high levels of dexamethasone

B. administration of low levels of neostigmine i. m.

C. correction of electrolyte and acid base imbalances

D. frequent emptying of the stomach and upper g.i. tract with a stomach tube and the administration of

E. c and d

Answer: E

66. when floating a horse's teeth one floats:

A. the outer edges of the upper and lower arcades

B. the inner edges of the upper and lower arcades

C. the outer edges of the upper arcade, and inner edges of the lower arcade

D. the inner edges of the upper arcade, and outer edges of the lower arcade

E. the flat surface of the canine along with the inner edges of the upper and lower arcades

Answer: C

67. a major consideration in the management of a contaminated wound is:

A. debridement

B. injection of a corticosteroid to control inflammation

C. sterilization with mild betadine solution

D. suturing the entire wound

E. the use of tension sutures in closure

Answer: A

68. in performing a caesarean section through a right paralumbar fossa incision the uterus is exposed by:

A. splitting the omentum and pulling it laterally

B. reaching posteriorly and pulling the omentum forward

C. reaching anteriorly and pulling the omentum caudal

D. grasping the base of the omentum at its dorsal attachment and pulling it downward

E. reaching around the rumen and finding the omental attachment at the pylorus of the abomasum

Answer: B

69. the rectovaginal and rectovestibular shelves:

A. anchor the perineal body

B. hinder the reproductive efficiency of broodmares

C. must be removed in severe cases of pneumovagina

D. separate the vestibule and vagina from the rectum

E. support the urogenital tract

Answer: D

70. which of the following is not involved in the development of rectovestibular lacerations or fistulas?

A. prolonged parturition

B. an excessively large fetus

C. dystocia where the forelegs are deviated upward and crossed over the head of the fetus

D. extremely nervous mares

E. multiparous mares

Answer: E

71. in laryngeal hemiplegia, endoscopic examinations will show:

A. no movement of the affected side

B. inability to abduct, but able to adduct

C. inability to adduct, but able to abduct

D. hemorrhage in the lateral ventricle

E. ulceration of the vocal process on the affected side

Answer: A

72. in the aanes method of rectovestibular repair in the mare:

A. the initial incision is made beginning at the point of laceration and extending 4 to 5 cm beyond the dorsal
commissure of the vulva

B. the repair of the rectovestibular shelves is followed in two to three months by reconstruction of the perineal

C. two vaginal mucosal shelves are created and joined together to form the roof of the vestibulovaginal vault

D. the vaginal shelf is reconstructed by apposition of the ventral vaginal mucosa using an interrupted
horizontal mattress pattern

E. when suturing the disected vaginal shelves together, care must be taken that perivaginal tissue is not
incorporated into the sutures placed in the area of laceration

Answer: C

73. the most effective treatment for chronic grade iv pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia in the equine is:

A. spraying the pharynx with a mixture of steroid and antibiotics

B. cautery of the follicles

C. antibiotic and steroidal therapy for 7 days

D. spraying the pharynx with dmso

E. a, c, and d

Answer: B

74. renal response to severe trauma and shock include all of the following except:

A. oliguria

B. secretion of renin

C. increased water absorption

D. increased sodium retention

E. elevated urinary nitrogen

Answer: D

75. hypercoagulability of blood after severe trauma resulting in disseminated intravascular coagulation:

A. can be prevented by early administration of antibiotics

B. may result in hypoxemia

C. is seen most often during the respiratory alkalosis phase of trauma

D. has been reported in man and dogs but not horses or cattle

E. is seen after crushing injuries rather than thermal injuries

Answer: B

76. in a comparison of inverting and everting intestinal suture patterns for intestinal anastomosis, the inverting
pattern____________than the everting pattern:

A. has fewer adhesions

B. has lower potential for leaking

C. has greater potential for stenosis 1 day after surgery

D. is inserted with greater difficulty

E. has greater potential for stenosis 7 days after surgery

Answer: E

77. the annular fold of the teat:

A. surrounds the teat canal

B. separates the teat canal from the teat cistern

C. is the same as furstenburg's rosette

D. separates the teat cistern from the gland cistern

E. attaches the teat mucosa to the underlying fibrous tissue

Answer: D

78. ethmoid hematomas in the equine are most effectively treated by:

A. ligation of the external maxillary

B. surgical extirpation

C. cauterizing with an electrocautery

D. intravenous administration of lasix

E. resting the horse for 30 to 60 days

Answer: B

79. dorsal displacement of the soft palate is a frequent clinical diagnosis in the racehorse. one reasonably
effective method of treatment is:

A. partial resection of the soft palate

B. hobday's operation

C. resection of the cricopharyngeus and thyropharyngeus muscles

D. daily injections of thiamine hydrochloride for 14 days

E. removal of a portion of the epiglottis

Answer: A

80. the instrument known as a teat bistoury is used in cattle to:

A. severe the medial patella ligament

B. enlarge the teat canal

C. remove large neoplasms from the gland cistern

D. enlarge the diameter of the teat cistern

E. create a teat fistula

Answer: B

81. which of the following is not a cartilage of the larynx?

A. cricoid

B. hyoid

C. thyroid

D. arytenoid

E. epiglottic

Answer: B

82. what portion of the intestinal tract of the equine is most frequently involved in colic cases that require

A. stomach

B. duodenum

C. jejunum

D. ileum

E. large colon

Answer: D

83. in a large avulsion type wound, a reconstructive procedure such as skin grafting is generally carried out:

A. immediately, following thorough cleansing and debridement

B. in 5 to 10 days, when the wound is known to be thoroughly debrided

C. in 2 to 4 weeks, when some closure has been obtained by contraction

D. when the wound has been cleaned and debrided, the animal is stable following the traumatic incident and
systemic antibiotics have been administered

E. in 40 to 50 days when contraction has ceased

Answer: C

84. cast management includes all of the following except:

A. change cast approximately every three weeks

B. check top of cast for pressure sores

C. palpate the cast for excessive heat

D. check bottom of cast for wear

E. observe horse in stall for acceptance of cast

Answer: A

85. during endoscopy of the upper airway of the horse, adduction of the glottis can often be induced for
observation by:

A. placing the tip of the endoscope within the laryngeal airway

B. applying external pressure to the ventral surface of the larynx

C. inducing swallowing

D. directing the tip of the endoscope into the pharyngeal recess

E. withholding air by occluding the nostrils with the hands

Answer: C

86. so-called "veil obstruction" of the teat:

A. occurs commonly due to mycoplasma mastitis

B. occurs most commonly in multiparous cows following trauma

C. is another term for atresia of the teat canal due to trauma

D. occurs commonly in primiparous cows

E. occurs most commonly following bacterial mastitis

Answer: D

87. a major reason for employing internal fixation in the treatment of articular fractures in the equine is:

A. to prevent infection

B. to prevent the development of degenerative joint diseases

C. to avoid angular deformities during the healing period

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

Answer: B

88. entrance into the fetlock joint to gain access to the apex of the proximal sesamoid is performed:

A. between the suspensory ligament and the third metacarpal bone

B. between the splint bone and the third metacarpal bone

C. between the straight and cruciate sesamoidean ligaments

D. in the space between the deep digital flexor and suspensory ligament

E. from anterior after arthrotomy of the metacarpophalangeal joint

Answer: A

89. when suturing tissues within the larynx, it is important to:

A. use a non-absorbable suture material

B. bury the ends of all sutures

C. use an absorbable suture material

D. eliminate all dead space

E. use a multifilament suture material

Answer: B

90. during convalescence, free water is made available for use by the animal patient from:

A. oxidation of fat

B. anabolism of muscle

C. insensible loss from the lungs

D. kidney excretion of sodium

E. kidney reabsorption of nitrogenous end products

Answer: A

91. during the first 48 hours after surgery (phase 1 of injury) there is a:

A. decrease in urinary excretion of potassium

B. proportional loss of potassium and nitrogen

C. increase in serum potassium

D. decrease in urinary excretion of nitrogen

E. decrease in serum potassium

Answer: C

92. a transfixation ligature is:

A. commonly used to obliterate dead space

B. a means of occluding a blood vessel to protect against slippage of the ligature

C. used only in the repair of severed nerves

D. the best means of occluding medium and large bronchi

E. ideal closure of the skin because it slightly everts the skin edges

Answer: B

93. which of the following foreign bobies can be expected to produce a consistent foreign body reaction
necessitating surgical removal?

A. wood

B. glass

C. carbon particles

D. lead

E. rice grain

Answer: A

94. in thermal injuries in animals:

A. one of the ways that protein loss can occur is through rupture of the large blisters that form over the second
degree burn surface

B. fluid and electrolyte therapy is always required

C. whole blood is generally needed on the first day of therapy in a severe injury

D. in severe burns, fluid shift into tissue spaces is a more important cause of hypovolemia than is fluid loss
from the body

E. maphenide (sulfamylon) is a very useful topical preparation

Answer: D

95. the one factor which will consistently lead to inadequate healing of the intestine is:

A. sutures that are too snug

B. widely placed sutures

C. inadequate blood supply to the cut edge

D. lack of asepsis

E. failure to administer antibiotics preoperatively

Answer: C

96. laryngeal edema following laryngeal ventriculectomy can be kept to a minimum by:

A. using a burr to perform the ventriculectomy

B. administering phenylbutazone

C. removing the vocal folds along with the saccules

D. administering antibiotics

E. suturing the opening to the laryngeal ventricles

Answer: B

97. which of the following is not a symptom of chronic empyema of the maxillary sinus:

A. distortion of the face

B. a nasal exudate

C. a decreased flow of air through the nose

D. a chronic cough

E. increased lacrimation

Answer: D

98. esophageal surgery is considered by surgeons to be more difficult than surgery on other parts of the
digestive tract. the incorrect statement about the esophagus is:

A. the muscular layer of the esophagus is weak and holds sutures poorly

B. the constant movement to which the esophagus is subjected during deglutition and respiration may result in
poor healing

C. the esophagus has a thin serosal surface

D. the esophagus can distend to a considerable diameter but will not stretch longitudinally

E. the mucosa is strong, squamous in character, and holds sutures well

Answer: C

99. important "do's" in cast application include all of the following except:

A. discourage ambulation for 24 to 48 hours

B. check on the patient's position while recumbent

C. immobilize the joint above and below the fracture

D. use circular cast in fresh trauma

E. immerse plaster-of-paris rolls until bubbling stops

Answer: A

100. a 6 months old yorkshire gilt is presented with a tubular, glistening mass protruding from the anus. the
owner's history indicated that the pig developed diarrhea after the mass developed which was about five hours
before being presented. the animal was alert. the abdomen was slightly tense upon abdominal palpation. a
probe could be easily passed ten inches into the anus between the anus and the protruding mass. the diagnosis

A. rectal prolapse

B. rectal prolapse with hemorroids

C. rectal prolapse due to a neoplasm

D. prolapse of an intussusception through the anus

E. perianal fistula

Answer: D


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