FFI & II Practice Quiz J.R. St.Croix 231-218-3486 Disclaimer This is not intended to be your only preparation for the state test. You need to do as a minimum the following: Review your books. Review your study objectives in your books and know each of them. Review your homework. Review all handouts. Review all notes taken throughout the class. Retain all information gathered for life not just for class test. Disclaimer The intent of this quiz is to recognize any particular area that you may feel you are week in and need to focus on. The questions on this quiz are not to be mistaken as the State test questions. Nor is it to be mistaken that this quiz is a representation of the State Test. You may do well on this and bomb the State Test or visa Versa. Do Not Underestimate the Test. You better be prepared! How To Take This Quiz. 1. Read the question carefully. 2. Read all answers. 3. Select the best answer. 4. If in doubt go with your gut instinct. 5. If you are gutless take a guess. No answer is the same as a wrong answer. You have a 25% chance when guessing. 6. If your answer is wrong mark it wrong. 7. No not cheat there is no reason to. 8. Do not answer questions out load. How to score your quiz. FFI & FFII: FFI only: Answer each question. Answer only the questions There are 200 of them and with a “–1” after the each is worth 1/2%. number. There are 100 of them and each is worth 1% You can get no less than 70% This means for 1&2 you can miss FFII only: 60 questions. For level 1 or 2 only Answer only the questions you can miss 30. But I prefer you with a “–2” after the number. There are 100 of Shoot for a minimum of 90% Do them and each is worth 1% Not sell yourself short. You can do it. Sample Question Who is most responsible for your making it thru the class and to the State Test? a) You the student. b) The person you copied your homework from. c) Your instructors. d) Your Fire Chief. Okay lets get on with it. Good luck. #1-1 Fire department standard operating procedures should be established in the most commonly accepted order of fire ground priorities, which is: a) Life safety, property conservation, fire control. b) Property conservation, life safety, fire control. c) Fire control, life safety, property conservation. d) Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation. #2-1 ________ relates to the number of personnel an individual can effectively supervise. a) Staff Rule. b) Span Of Control. c) Rule Of Thumb. d) Line Rule. #3-1 In the incident Management System (IMS) the functional area for all incident activities, including the development and implementation of strategic decisions is: a) Planning. b) Operations. c) Logistics. d) Command. #4-1 What is the best definition of policy? a) A detailed guide to action. b) A guide to decision making within an organization. c) A predetermined plan for an emergency. d) A performance standard. #5-1 What is the best definition of procedure? a) A detailed guide to action. b) A guide to decision making within an organization. c) A predetermined plan for an emergency. d) A performance standard. #6-1 What is a geographic destination assigning responsibility for all operations within an assigned area? a) Sector. b) Division. c) Region. d) Zone. #7-1 If a firefighter must exit an apparatus in contact with electrical wires, the firefighter should: a) Exit one foot at a time. b) Touch the handrail and the ground simultaneously. c) Slowly touch the ground. d) Jump clear of the apparatus. #8-1 What rule applies to using saws in flammable atmospheres or near flammable liquids? a) Use only saws without a grounding plug. b) Use only double-insulated saws. c) Use only double-insulated saws with a grounding plug. d) Avoid the use of all saws. #9-1 When should relief crews be sent into a burning structure or danger area? a) Shortly after the estimated time when the first crew’s SCBA low pressure alarms will sound. b) Shortly before the estimated time when the first crew’s SCBA low pressure alarms will sound. c) Only after the first crew has signaled for a relief crew to enter. d) Only after all members of the first crew are safely out of the structure or danger area. #10-2 The incident management system has a number of components that provide the basis for an effective IMS operation. Which of the following is not one of these components? a) Common terminology. b) Unified command. c) Modular organization. d) Pre-fire plans. #11-2 Which of the following is not a component of an incident Management System? a) Integrated communications. b) Pre-designated facilities. c) Modular organization. d) Independent action plans. #12-2 In the IMS, the ______ is responsible for implementing the tactical assignments to meet the strategic goal. a) Incident Commander. b) Operations Officer. c) Planning Chief. d) Safety Officer. #13-2 Who should initiate IMS a) The highest ranking officer within the department. b) The highest ranking officer within the department who is on duty at the time of the incident. c) The dispatcher. d) The first person to arrive on scene. #14-2 Which of the following is not required to be included in a situation status report? a) A description of what happened. b) Whether the incident fell within the expertise and authority of the person relinquishing command. c) What resources are on the scene or en route. d) An assessment of whether current resources are adequate. #15-2 Transfer of command occurs _____ a) When an arriving senior member decides that command should be transferred. b) Automatically upon arrival of a senior member. c) Automatically when a senior member is en- route to the scene. d) Automatically after a senior member properly acknowledges receiving a situation status report. #16-1 When the concentration of a gas is within the range where it can ignite, it is said to : a) Be at its ignition temperature. b) Have reached its boiling point. c) Be within its flammable explosive range. d) Be at its flash point. #17-1 A British Thermal Unit ( BTU ) is: a) The amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. b) A substance or an agent that causes two or more objects or parts to bind. c) Decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by light d) The concentration level of a substance at which it will burn #18-1 The Fire Triangle is composed of: a) Heat, chemical reaction, and fuel. b) Heat, fuel, and oxygen. c) Oxygen, nitrogen, and fuel. d) Fuel, oxygen, and carbon monoxide. #19-1 The normal concentration of oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere is: a) 21% b) 16% c) 25% d) 47% #20-1 If a gas vapor has a vapor density greater than one when it escapes from its container: a) It will raise. b) Its movement will be dependant on wind direction and speed. c) Its movement will be dependant on temperature. d) It will sink and collect at low points. #21-1 Which of the following materials has the greatest flammable limit range? a) Carbon monoxide. b) Kerosene. c) Butane. d) Natural Gas. #22-1 Stratification is: a) A column of heat rising from a source. b) A process in which the molecules of a liquid are liberated into the atmosphere at a rate greater than the rate at which the molecules return to a liquid. c) The layered configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels. d) Decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. #23-1 Which type of heat transfer is a major contributor to flashover? a) Radiation. b) Conduction. c) Convection. d) Nuclear. #24-1 Fires involving combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, zirconium, sodium, and potassium, are _________fires. a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D #25-1 What kind of chemical change is oxidation? a) Combustion. b) Decomposition. c) Solution. d) Exothermic. #26-1 When exposed to intense heat, a lightweight metal truss can: a) Maintain it’s structural integrity. b) Often contain a fire to a specific area. c) Be expected to fail in 5 to 10 minutes. d) Be expected to support firefighting operations for at least 20 minutes. #27-1 Type I is ________construction. a) Noncombustible. b) Heavy Timber. c) Ordinary. d) Fire Resistive. #28-1 Generally, what type of construction is unprotected steel framing and usually has floors and a roof with a steel joist as the main structural members? a) Type II Noncombustible. b) Type III Ordinary. c) Type I Fire Resistive. d) Type V Frame. #29-1 Experience has shown that the collapse of unprotected lightweight steel trusses is caused by the: a) Amount of heat generated by the fire in a structure. b) Poor method of construction. c) Impact load of firefighters on the roof. d) Unknown (still being researched). #30-1 What building material has been identified most closely with rapid fire spread and toxic products of combustion? a) Wood shake shingles. b) Combustible furnishings and finishes. c) Heavy content fire loading. d) Wood floors and ceilings. #31-1 What tactic is essential for slowing the spread of fire in buildings with large, open spaces? a) Proper horizontal ventilation. b) Proper hydraulic ventilation. c) Immediate fire attack and delayed ventilation. d) Proper vertical ventilation. #32-1 How far out from a building should a collapse zone extend? a) One and a half times the height of the building. b) Twice as far as the height of the building. c) A minimum of 100 feet (30m). d) At least 300 feet (90m). #33-1 Why are lightweight metal and lightweight wood trusses some of the most serious building construction hazards facing firefighters today? a) If one member fails, the entire truss system is likely to fail. b) Construction codes do not prohibit the installation of such trusses nationwide on large commercial buildings where they often provide inadequate support in fire conditions. c) They have become the most common building technique for residential structures, yet they create spaces that conceal hidden fires that damage roof integrity. d) Use of such trusses creates large, open spaces popular in today’s open housing designs but is a major contributor to fire spread. #34-2 Spalling of concrete could lead to early collapse because: a) Loss of moisture in concrete reduces its fire rating. b) The added weight of broken pieces may cause overload. c) It could create void spaces. d) Reinforcing steel is exposed to the heat of the fire. #35-2 Firefighters should know that fire in Type V construction presents: a) Shortening of steel components. b) Breakdown of the concrete members due to the heat buildup. c) Extensive spalling. d) High potential for fire extension within the building. #36-2 Near what temperature can the failure of steel structural members be anticipated? a) 1,000 F (538 C) b) 1,250 F (677 C) c) 1,500 F (816 C) d) 1,800 F (982 C) #37-2 Firefighter A says that the length of time a steel member has been exposed to heat indicates when it may fail. Firefighter B says that water can cool steel structural members and reduce the chance of failure. Who is right? a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #38-2 Why does gypsum resist heat so well? a) Like brick, heat only cures the material more. b) It has a high water content. c) Its molecules retain their excellent bonding capabilities to temperatures near 2,000 F. d) It is an excellent heat conductor and can quickly dissipate heat up to 2,000 F. #39-1 The gas which is a product of incomplete combustion is: a) Carbon monoxide. b) Carbon dioxide. c) Hydrogen chloride. d) Hydrogen cyanide. #40-1 A poisonous gas with the odor of almonds is: a) Sulphur dioxide b) Hydrogen cyanide c) propane d) chlorine #41-1 When exposed to products of combustion, the_____are more vulnerable to injury than any other body area. a) Lungs and respiratory tract. b) Heart and respiratory tract. c) Lungs and eyes. d) Brain and spinal cord. #42-1 Firefighter a says that SCBA should be worn during ventilation operations only if the wind is blowing smoke and toxic gases directly toward the firefighter Firefighter B says the ventilation practices provide little danger of inhaling toxic gases, so SCBA does not need to be worn during ventilation operations. Which is right? a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #43-1 What product of combustion causes more fire deaths than any other? a) Phosgene. b) Hydrogen chloride. c) Carbon monoxide. d) Hydrogen cyanide. #44-1 Which of the following is not caused by taking excessive heat (temperature exceeding 120 F to 130 F / 40 C to 54 C) into the lungs? a) Increased blood pressure b) Failure of the circulatory system c) Edema d) Asphyxiation #45-1 How does carbon monoxide attack the body? a) Combining with the blood’s hemoglobin and crowding oxygen from the blood. b) Causing swelling and obstruction of the upper respiratory tract. c) Interfering with respiration at the cellular and tissue level by hampering the proper exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. d) Paralyzing the brain’s respiratory center. #46-1 When using positive pressure SCBA, a poor seal between the face piece and the firefighter’s face is: a) Not dangerous, because the positive pressure will keep toxic gases out of the face piece. b) Dangerous, because it is still possible for toxic gases to enter the face piece. c) Not possible, because the positive pressure will seal the face piece to the face. d) Likely to occur. #47-1 Trapped firefighters awaiting rescue will use less air if they: a) Partially close the cylinder valve. b) Open the bypass valve. c) Struggle to get free. d) Control their breathing. #48-1 Which of the following is not one of the four basic components of SCBA? a) Face piece assembly. b) Regulator. c) Backpack and harness. d) PASS alarm. #49-1 Filling an air cylinder from a cascade system must be done slowly to prevent: a) Damage to the pressure gauge. b) Causing an air hammer. c) Excessive heat buildup. d) Contamination. #50-1 Steel and aluminum cylinders for breathing apparatus should be hydrostatically tested after each____-year period. a) Two. b) Three. c) Four. d) Five. #51-1 At what level does the SCBA cylinder pressure alarm sound? a) Approximately one-tenth of the cylinder’ maximum rated pressure. b) Approximately one-eight of the cylinder’ maximum rated pressure. c) Approximately one-fifth of the cylinder’s maximum rated pressure. d) Approximately one-fourth of the cylinder’s maximum rated pressure. #52-1 Firefighter a says that when an SCBA low- pressure alarm sound, there is enough air remaining for an additional 5 to 10 minutes of work before leaving the area. Firefighter B says that when the low- pressure alarm sound, the firefighter should leave the area immediately. a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A & B d) Neither A nor B #53-1 The primary use of the ____is to attach a rope to a cylindrical object. a) Clove hitch. b) Bowline. c) Becket/sheet bend. d) Rescue knot. #54-1 The knot used to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together is the: a) Clove hitch. b) Square knot. c) Becket/sheet bend. d) Half hitch. #55-1 When a rope is bent back on itself while keeping the sides parallel, a____has been formed. a) Knot. b) Round turn. c) Bowline. d) Bight. #56-1 A pike pole should: a) Be hoisted point down. b) Be hoisted sideways. c) Be hoisted point up. d) Not be hoisted due to the risk of injury to the firefighters on the ground. #57-1 Ropes should be inspected: a) By conducting static load and elongation tests. b) Only when contact with chemicals has occurred. c) After each use. d) A minimum of every two years. #58-1 Which of the following requires the use of life safety rope? a) Tag line. b) Rappelling. c) SCBA guide rope. d) Securing backpack assembly to confined space rescuer’s harness. #59-1 Which is a good knot for forming a single loop that will not constrict the object it is placed around? a) Becket bend or sheet bend. b) Figure-eight. c) Bowline. d) Clove hitch. #60-1 All portable extinguishers are classified according to their: a) Size. b) Freeze potential. c) Intended use. d) conductivity. #61-1 Extinguishing agents safe for use on fires in or near energized electrical equipment include: a) Dry powder, carbon dioxide, and AFFF. b) Carbon dioxide, and dry chemical. c) Dry chemical, pressurized water, and carbon dioxide. d) AFFF, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical. #62-1 Dry powder extinguishers are rated for use on _____ fires? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D #63-1 Fire extinguisher classification symbols are are displayed by all of the following except: a) Color. b) Shape. c) Letter. d) Weight of container. #64-1 What extinguishers receive a numerical rating in addition to a letter classification? a) B and C b) C and D c) A and C d) A and B #65-1 What extinguisher type would be best for suppressing vapors on a small liquid fuel spill? a) Pump-tank water. b) AFFF. c) Halon 1211. d) All-purpose dry chemical. #66-2 The length of cribbing pieces may vary, but _____ inches is the standard. a) 8” – 10” b) 16” – 18” c) 24” – 26” d) 10” – 12” #67-2 _____ jacks can be dangerous because they are the least stable of all types of jacks. a) Hydraulic b) Ratchet - lever c) Air d) Bar screw #68-2 A pulley or set of pulleys encased within a frame is known as a: a) Tackle. b) Spinner. c) Sling. d) Block. #69-2 The first power hydraulic tool that became available to firefighters was: a) Cutter. b) Spreader. c) Combi - tool d) Ram. #70-2 Portable power plants should be run at least once a week while: a) Watching for incoming amp. Drops. b) Inspecting connected electrical cords for frays and or exposed wires. c) Inspecting the spark plug and plug wires. d) Powering an electrical device. #71-2 Lighting equipment can be divided into two categories: a) Inverters and Generators. b) Emergency and non-emergency. c) Auxiliary and Installed. d) Fixed and Portable. #72-2 The primary goal of stabilization is to prevent further movement of the vehicle by: a) Minimizing the area of contact between the vehicle and the ground. b) Removing all victims as quickly as possible. c) Maximizing the area of contact between the vehicle and the ground. d) Pulling the valve stems. #73-2 The key to an efficient extrication operation is proper _____ of the situation. a) Dispatch. b) Size – up. c) Pre - planning. d) Assignment. #74-2 A _____ collapse occurs when floor supports fail I a structure causing large sections to drop while one side remains supported, forming a void. a) V - Type b) Lean – To. c) Tunnel. d) Pancake. #75-2 The process of erecting materials such as wood panels, timber, or jacks to strengthen a wall or prevent further collapse is known as: a) Shoring. b) Cribbing. c) Packing. d) Supporting. #76-2 Which type of building collapse is most likely to result in a secondary collapse? a) Cantilever. b) V – Shaped. c) Lean – To. d) Pancake. #77-1 During a search of a building involved in fire, if the firefighter becomes disoriented, the firefighter should attempt to: a) Remain calm. b) Retrace steps to original location. c) Seek a place of refuge and activate pass device. d) All of the above. #78-1 In the fire service, the basic definition of the word rescue is: a) Removal of trapped victims from machinery. b) Removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety. c) Stabilizing a victim before transporting. d) Performing CPR on a victim. Oh No Not Them Too. Ohh yeah baby!!! LAWS Remember these? #79-2 Public Act 207 of 1941 refers to ________? a) Michigan Vehicle Code. b) Fire Prevention Code. c) Firefighter Safety and Health. d) Fire Fighters Training Council Act. #80-2 Public Act 300 of 1949 refers to _____. a) Michigan Vehicle Code. b) Fire Prevention Code. c) Firefighter Safety and Health. d) Fire Fighters Training Council Act. #81-2 NFPA 1001 Refers To_____? a) Standard For Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications. b) Standard For Portable Fire extinguishers. c) Standard For Protective Ensemble for Structural Fire Fighting. d) Standard For Fire Department Occupational safety And Health. #82-2 NFPA 1500 Refers To_____? a) Standard For Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications. b) Standard For Portable Fire extinguishers. c) Standard For Protective Ensemble for Structural Fire Fighting. d) Standard For Fire Department Occupational safety And Health. #83-2 NFPA 10 Refers To_____? a) Standard For Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications. b) Standard For Portable Fire extinguishers. c) Standard For Protective Ensemble for Structural Fire Fighting. d) Standard For Fire Department Occupational safety And Health. #84-2 NFPA 1971 Refers To_____? a) Standard For Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications. b) Standard For Portable Fire extinguishers. c) Standard For Protective Ensemble for Structural Fire Fighting. d) Standard For Fire Department Occupational safety And Health.. #85-2 Public Act 291 of 1966 refers to _____. a) Michigan Vehicle Code. b) Fire Prevention Code. c) Firefighter Safety and Health. d) Fire Fighters Training Council Act. #86-2 MDCIS – Health & Safety Standards Part 74 Refers To _____? a) Confined Space Entry. b) Respiratory Protection. c) Fire Fighting. d) Personal Protective Equipment. #87-1 Firefighters conducting a search_____ if such an action will not cause the spread of fire. a) May open windows to provide adequate light. b) May open windows for ventilation. c) May break windows from the inside. d) Should never open windows even. #88-1 What are the two objectives of a building search? a) Searching for victims and extinguishing fires. b) Searching for life and searching for fire extension. c) Rescuing living victims and removing bodies. d) Searching for fire extension and extinguishing fire. #89-1 What method of searching a small room reduces the likelihood of rescuers becoming lost? a) Both take turns searching the room or waiting at the door. b) Both search the room in the same direction. c) Both search the room in opposite directions. d) One is assigned to search all rooms while the other waits at the door. #90-1 Which is the recommended method of marking rooms that have been searched? a) Blocking the door open with furniture. b) Marking the door with chalk or crayon. c) Marking the floor just inside the door with masking tape. d) Making a shallow X on the door with an axe. #91-1 Of these examples, the type of window that is most difficult to force open is: a) Casement. b) Checkrail. c) Projected ( Factory - Type ) d) Jalousie. #92-1 If, as a last resort, it becomes necessary to break through a tempered plate glass door, where should the glass be shattered? a) Bottom Corner. b) Top Center. c) Side Center. d) Top Corner. #93-1 A cutting torch has a flame temperature in excess of: a) 10,000 Deg. F. b) 15,000 Deg. F. c) 12,000 Deg. F. d) 5,000 Deg. F. #94-1 Why should an axe head not be ground too sharp? a) It becomes more dangerous than a dull blade. b) It may embed itself too deeply into the material being cut. c) It becomes too difficult to drive through ordinary objects. d) Pieces of the blade may break when striking gravel roofs. #95-1 In the arms – length carry of a ladder by two firefighters, each grasps the _____, permitting the ladder to swing along side their legs at arm’s length. a) Bottom Beam. b) Nearest Rung. c) Inside of the bottom beam. d) Outside of the top beam. #96-1 Manufacturers of fiberglass and metal ladders require that the fly section be placed: a) In, toward the building. b) Out, away from the building. c) Even with the window sill. d) Either in or out, placement does not matter. #97-1 When a firefighter is to perform ventilation of a window, the ladder should be placed: a) Below the window. b) With the ladder tip about even with the top of the window. c) To the leeward side. d) All of the above. #98-1 What is the recommended minimum number of firefighters required to safely raise a 35’ extension ladder? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 #99-1 The proper distance the foot or butt of a ladder should stand out from a building is _____ of the working distance of the ladder from the base of the wall. a) 1/2 b) 1/4 c) 1/3 d) 1/8 #100-1 For smooth operation, parts of metal ladders should be lubricated_____where the _____. a) Weekly, dogs contact the rungs. b) Sometimes, guides contact the beams. c) Thoroughly, testing agency suggests. d) Occasionally, manufacturer recommends. #101-1 The recommended method to prevent a backdraft explosion is _____ ventilation. a) Horizontal b) Lateral c) Vertical d) Passive #102-1 Which of the following statements regarding a trench cut is incorrect? a) It is an offensive action. b) It is 2 – 3 feet wide. c) It is not opened until the entire cut is complete. d) It is made using any available building features. #103-1 The most common water distribution system is a _____ system. a) Pumped. b) Combination pumped and gravity. c) Gravity. d) Tender shuttle. #104-1 Residual pressure is: a) The pressure in the system with no hydrants or water flowing. b) The pressure in a system after water has begun flowing. c) The level of ground water under the surface. d) A device that speeds the unloading of water from a tender. #105-1 In a dry barrel hydrant the valve that controls water flow to all outlets is located _____ of the hydrant. a) At the top. b) On the side. c) At the base. d) By each outlet. #106-1 What is a distribution system that provides feed from several mains called? a) Secondary feeder. b) Primary feeder. c) Grid system. d) Backup system. #107-1 What size distribution mains should be used on all principal streets and for long mains not cross-connected at frequent intervals? a) 6” b) 8” c) 10” d) 12” #108-1 How are gate valves marked to indicate opening and closing procedures. a) With arrows. b) With open and closed symbols. c) With the words “ Open and closed” d) With numerals. #109-2 In high value districts: a) Hydrants should be placed no more than 200 feet apart. b) Hydrants should be located so that spacing does not exceed 300 feet. c) One hydrant should be placed at least every 500 feet and at or near the midpoint of each 500 feet. d) At least one hydrant should be placed in front of or beside each building over two stories. #110-2 Residual pressure is defined as: a) Stored potential energy available. b) That part of total available pressure that is not used to overcome friction or gravity. c) Forward velocity pressure at the point of discharge. d) The minimum pressure required in a residential area. #111-2 Which of the following pressures can be measured by a pitot tube? a) Static b) Normal operating. c) Residual d) Flow #112-2 A hydrant with a n orange bonnet or caps may be expected to flow at ______ gallons per minute. a) Less than 500 b) 500 - 999 c) 1000 - 1499 d) Greater than 1500 #113-2 A hydrant with a flow rate of 1000 to 1499 GPM may have a(n) _____colored bonnet. a) Light Blue b) Green c) Orange d) Red #114-2 What is the most common fire service definition of pressure? a) Compression of water volume. b) Force of water per unit of area. c) Quickness of water motion. d) Velocity of water in a conduit. #115-2 What is the best definition of Static Pressure? a) The part of the total available pressure that is not used to overcome friction or gravity while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters. b) Pressure found in a water distribution system during periods of normal consumption demand. c) Forward velocity pressure at a water distribution system discharge opening while water is flowing. d) Stored potential energy that is available to force water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters. #116-2 What is the best definition of Flow Pressure? a) Stored potential energy that is available to force water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters. b) That part of the total available pressure that is not used to overcome friction or gravity while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters. c) Forward velocity pressure at a water distribution system discharge opening while water is flowing. d) Pressure found in a water distribution system during periods of normal consumption demand. #117-2 NFPA recommends fire hydrants flowing 1,500 GPM or greater be colored: a) Red b) Light Blue c) Green d) Orange #118-2 When containers of flammable liquids are exposed to flame impingement, the water for cooling the container should be applied to cool the: a) Vapor Space. b) Relief Valve. c) Ends of the tanks. d) Firefighters. #119-2 For incidents involving a break in a natural gas line, firefighters should: a) Evacuate the area upwind from it. b) Eliminate ignition sources in the area. c) Extinguish any flames coming from the line. d) Shut down the main valve to stop the leak. #120-2 Substances that are normally in a liquid state and that have a flash point greater than 100 Deg. F. such as kerosene and vegetable oil are known as _____: a) Ignitable liquids. b) Combustible liquids. c) Inflammable liquids. d) Flammable liquids. #121-2 Firefighter A says that liquid fuels that mix with water are known as hydrocarbons. Firefighter B says that liquid fuels that do not mix with water are known as polar solvents. Who is correct? a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #122-2 What action should be taken for flowing fuel fires burning around relief valves or piping if the leaking product cannot be turned off? a) Extinguish the fire as the first priority. b) Dispatch personnel in full thermal gear to repair the leak. c) Set up a master foam nozzle to keep the site of the leak in a constant flow of foam. d) Do not extinguish the fire but try to contain the pooling fuel. #123-2 Which of the following is an accurate statement with regard to fires involving liquid fuels? a) Unburned vapors are generally lighter than air and will quickly disperse in the open or collect at the ceiling in enclosed areas. b) An increase in the intensity of the sound or fire issuing from a relief valve indicates that the container is nearly empty and that most of the fuel has escaped. c) Relief valves may not be adequate to relieve excess pressures from systems exposed to severe fire conditions. d) If properly grounded, vehicles and electrical systems do not present ignition sources in the presence of flammable liquids. #124-2 Which of the following statements is true with regard to using water as a cooling agent for flammable liquid fires? a) Water should not be used as a cooling agent for flammable liquid fires. b) Water is most effective on heavier oils. c) Water is most effective on light petroleum distillates. d) Because of the intense heat of flammable liquid fires, water is ineffective as a cooling agent for exposures. #125-2 Firefighter A says that an incident site involving a flammable liquid transport vehicle at night should be marked off with open-flame flares. Firefighter B says that if law enforcement personnel are not available at an incident site involving a flammable liquid transport vehicle, than a firefighter should be assigned to provide traffic control. Who is correct? a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #126-2 What is the recommended protocol for firefighter involved in shutting off gas at a meter? a) Request the utility to shut off the gas at the main distribution b) Do not shut off the gas if there is not a fire. c) Advance the team with a medium-expansion foam applied to the team using the rain-down method d) Advance the team with a fog pattern hoseline. #127-2 To achieve the maximum efficient use of water when cooling flammable liquid storage tanks, fire streams should be directed: a) Around the tank base. b) Above the level of the contained liquid c) Below the level of the contained liquid d) Into the involved tank. #128-2 The acronym “BLEVE” stands for Boiling Liquid: a) Exhausting Vapor Explosion b) Expanding and Venting Explosion c) Expanding Vapor Explosion d) Exhausting Vapor Expansion #129-2 Liquids that have flash points less than ____are___liquids. a) 1 F, hydrocarbon b) 10 F, noncombustible c) 100 F, flammable d) 1000 F, combustible. #130-2 When approaching a fire in the passenger compartment of a vehicle, the best stream pattern to use is a ____stream. a) Straight b) Narrow fog c) Wide fog d) solid #131-2 The_____acronym is used as a reminder of the signals for communication when utilizing a lifeline. a) OATS b) OATH c) SAVE d) HELP #132-2 During an interior structural fire attack, if ventilation holes cannot be made large enough, or if ventilation will be delayed, then it is important to keep the nozzle on a _____stream. a) 30 fog b) straight c) combination d) 60 fog #133-2 A 1-1/2” to 1-3/4 handline flows GPM. a) 10-35 b) 40-125 c) 140-350 d) 360-500 #134-2 To efficiently use water during a direct attack with a solid or straight stream, the firefighter should apply the water____directly on the____until the fire darkens down. a) Continuously, burning fuels b) Continuously, ceiling c) In short bursts, ceiling d) In short bursts, burning fuels #135-2 Fires in above-ground transformers containing PCB should be: a) Allowed to completely burn themselves out because of the degree of danger to the firefighters. b) Rapidly extinguished with a fog stream to prevent PCB from becoming vaporized. c) Permitted to burn until firefighters de- energize the transformer. d) Permitted to burn until qualified utility personnel can extinguish the fire with a dry chemical extinguisher. #136-2 When attacking wildland fires, the control line may be established: a) At the edge of the fire, next to it, or at a distance away. b) Inside the black. c) At the head only. d) From the flank only. #137-2 Aspect is the : a) Direction a slope faces. b) Measure of the steepness of a slope. c) Measure of the roughness of a slope. d) Measure of the direction in which the wind moves across a slope. #138-2 The three most important factors that affect wildland firefighters are: a) Fuel, equipment, and location. b) Topography, resources, and time of day. c) Fuel, weather, and topography. d) Staffing, resources and apparatus. #139-2 What type of attack is desirable when firefighters are unable to enter a structure because of intense fire conditions? a) Direct b) Blanket c) Indirect d) Combination #140-1 There is a maximum distance to any fog stream. Further increase in nozzle pressure will only increase: a) Critical velocity. b) Back pressure. c) Cavitation. d) Volume. #141-1 The standard nozzle pressure for a solid stream nozzle on a handline is ____PSI. a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200 #142-1 At 212 F, a cubic foot of water expands to approximately ____times its original volume when converted into steam. a) 500 b) 1,700 c) 2,400 d) 4,200 #143-1 What happens to a solid stream when it reaches the point of break over? a) It begins to fan out and sheet. b) It becomes denser and heavier. c) It dissipates into a fine mist. d) It falls into showers of spray. #144-1 The four elements that make a fire stream are a pump, water, nozzle, and : a) Volume. b) Velocity. c) Friction loss. d) Hose. #145-2 In what way is foam an effective fire fighting agent? a) By forming a blanket on the burning fuel. b) By releasing water onto the fire as the foam breaks down. c) By preventing the release of flammable vapors. d) All of the above. #146-2 What term is applied to a foam’s ability to create a barrier between a fire and fuel? a) Separating. b) Cooling. c) Suppressing. d) Smothering. #147-2 Which of the following is not a fire that a specialized foam would aid in extinguishing? a) Deep-seated Class A fire. b) Electrical equipment fire. c) Confined, or enclosed- space fire d) Fire involving acid spills, pesticides, or other hazardous liquids. #148-2 Firefighter A says that the mixing of water with foam concentrate is called proportioning. Firefighter B says that the dispersion of the foam from the end of the nozzle is called aeration. Who’s right? a) Firefighter A. b) Firefighter B. c) Both A and B. d) Neither A nor B. #149-2 Which of the following is an acceptable device for discharging Class A foam? a) Fog nozzle. b) Medium and high-expansion devices. c) Air-aspiration foam nozzle. d) All of the above. #150-2 What does the abbreviation AFFF stand for? a) Aqueous film forming foam. b) Acidic film forming fluoroprotein. c) Advanced fluoroprotein forming foam. d) Aspirated foam forming filter. #151-2 Use of a device with a restricted diameter to draw foam concentrate into a hoseline is an example of what method of foam proportioning? a) Premixing. b) Batch-mixing. c) Induction. d) Injection. #152-2 Which proportioning method uses a pump or head pressure to force concentrate into the fire stream a the correct ration ? a) Induction. b) Injection. c) Premixing. d) Batch-mixing. #153-2 What is another term commonly used to describe an induction foam proportioner ? a) Eductor. b) Injector. c) In-line Venturi. d) Pickup tube. #154-2 Firefighter A says the class B foams designed for hydrocarbon fuels can be used effectively on polar solvent fuels if the concentration is increased. Firefighter B says the Class B foams designed for polar solvent fuels can be used effectively on hydrocarbon fuels if the manufacturer of the foam specifies such use. Who’s right? a) Firefighter A. b) Firefighter B. c) Both A and B. d) Neither A nor B. #155-2 Which of following statements is true with regard to Class A foams?: a) Class A foams have super cleaning characteristics making it unnecessary to thoroughly flush equipment after use. b) Class A foams are mildly corrosive. c) An advantage of Class A foams is that they reduce water penetration into fuels so that burning liquids do not float to the top of attack sprays. d) Class A foams cannot be used with medium and high-expansion devices. #156-1 The hose load that places the fewest number of sharp bends in the fire hose is the: a) Horseshoe. b) Flat. c) Accordion. d) Minuteman. #157-1 What coupling material is not subject to corrosion? a) Nickel b) Copper c) Steel d) Brass #158-1 Which of the following methods makes the strongest couplings for normal use? a) Extruded b) Cast c) Drop-forged d) Molded. #159-1 What hose type is used to transfer water to the pump intake from a pressurized source only? a) Hard-suction hose b) Booster hose c) Flexible no collapsible intake hose d) Soft-sleeve hose. #160-1 What is a disadvantage of a forward lay? a) Pumper must stay at the incident scene. b) May be necessary for second pumper to boost pressure at hydrant. c) Pumper operator has visual contact with fire fighting crew. d) Pump operator must stay at the water source, thus making him or her unavailable for a fire fighting assignment. #161-2 The maximum length of time that fire hose should be used without a service test is: a) Six months. b) One year. c) Three years. d) Five years. #162-2 When laying out fire hose to be service tested, test lengths should be: a) No more than 150 ft. b) No more than 300 ft. c) No more than 500 ft. d) Any length desired. #163-2 Which of the following is a hose appliance ? a) Hose clamp. b) Water thief. c) Hose roller. d) Hose jacket. #164-2 With what type of lay are hydrant valves used ? a) Split lay. b) Forward lay. c) Combination lay. d) Reverse lay. #165-2 When using a hose clamp, approximately how far behind the apparatus should it be applied ? a) 5 ft. (1.5 m) b) 20 ft. (6 m) c) 12 ft. (4 m) d) 15 ft. (5 m). #166-2 Apply a hose clamp approximately____from the coupling on the incoming water side. a) 20 ft. (6 m). b) 5 ft. (1.5 m). c) 15 ft. (5 m). d) 12 ft. (4 m). #167-2 Firefighter A says that acceptance testing of fire hose is more rigorous than service testing. Firefighter B says that acceptance testing of fire hose is performed by the manufacturer. Who’s right? a) Firefighter A. b) Firefighter B. c) Both A and B. d) Neither A nor B. #168-2 Your low air alarm should sound at what % of your air bottle of your SCBA? a) 75% b) 50% c) 25% d) 5 min. #169-2 What is the purpose of a hose test gate valve? a) To measure pressure in the line. b) To meter the amount of water flowing through the hoseline. c) To allow for the line to be pressure tested when wyed. d) To prevent water from surging through the hose if it fails. #170-2 Firefighter A says that when service testing hose, the hose should be connected to discharges on the pump panel side of the apparatus. Firefighter B says that when service testing hose, all personnel operating in the area of the pressurized hose should wear at least goggles as a safety precaution. Who is right? a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #171-2 Repaired or re - coupled fire hose shall be retested to: a) The acceptance test pressure. b) The service test pressure. c) At least 50% greater than the service test pressure. d) At least 50% less than the acceptance test pressure. #172-1 During a structure fire involving a building with a sprinkler system, the incident commander orders a firefighter to shut the sprinkler system. The firefighter can accomplish this task by: a) Closing the indicating valve on each branch line. b) Closing the main control valve. c) Shutting down and removing hoses connected to the fire department connection. d) Resetting the alarm check valve. #173-1 A water motor gong is operated by: a) A remote pull station. b) An electrical signal. c) Water movement. d) Radio frequency. #174-1 Which of the following is a quick – response mechanism? a) Special fusible link. b) Modified chemical pellet. c) Electrically triggered wire. d) Motion – triggered switch. #175-1 What regulates the breaking temperature of a frangible – bulb sprinkler? a) Amount of liquid and size of bubble in the bulb. b) Color of liquid in the bulb. c) Type of gas bubble in the bulb. d) Type of liquid in the bulb. #176-1 In what position should control valves be secured? a) Closed b) Open c) Stand - by d) Stop #177-1 Firefighter A says that the water supply for a sprinkler system is designed to supply all of the sprinklers actually installed on the system. Firefighter B says that fire department pumpers supporting sprinkler systems should operate from the main that supplying the sprinkler system. Who is correct? a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #178-2 Heat detectors: a) Cannot be used as part of a suppression system. b) Are slow to detect fire and should not be used for life safety. c) Are expensive to install and operate. d) Are responsible for most false alarms. #179-2 Smoke detectors work primarily on the principles of photo electricity and: a) Rate of rise. b) Fixed temperature. c) Ionization. d) Laser beam. #180-2 Which of the following is an environment where ultraviolet flame detectors are suited for use? a) Areas where welding is done. b) Areas exposed to bright sunlight. c) Areas that are illuminated by intense mercury – vapor lamps. d) Areas where infrared flame detectors are in use. #181-1 What might have spread the fire when an incident involves separate, seemingly unconnected fires? a) Convection b) Sparklers c) Trailers d) An accelerant. #182-1 Which of the following is not included in overhaul operations? a) Covering building contents to prevent damage. b) Searching for and extinguishing hidden fires. c) Preserving any evidence of arson. d) Protecting the scene after the fire. #183-2 Requests for additional assistance should be ordered by _____. a) The incident commander. b) The operations officer. c) The command post driver. d) The telecommunicator. #184-2 Each response team should have a supervisor who is in constant contact with the team and who can_____. a) Follow local IMS and SOP’s for communication with the IC and telecommunications center. b) Terminate the incident on his or her own authority. c) Sound the evacuation alarm if required. d) Evaluate the team’s compliance with local IMS and SOP’s. #185-2 When must an incident report be completed? a) Only when a fire unit responds to an incident that is not a false alarm. b) Only when a fire unit responds to an incident involving more than $100.00 damage. c) Whenever a fire unit responds to an incident. d) Only when a fire unit responds to an incident that is not successfully concluded before the unit’s arrival at the scene. #186-2 Where do most fire departments enter the data from their incident reports? a) Databases at the local and county level. b) Databases at the state and national level. c) Databases at the county and regional level. d) Databases at the regional and national level. #187-2 What is the National Fire Incident Reporting System ( NFIRS )? a) A word processing program that allows easy input of incident information. b) A national telephone hotline fore reporting incident information. c) An alarm system used for nationwide notification in the event of a national disaster. d) An Incident – based database that records incident information from the majority of the states in the U.S. #188-2 What agency created the NFIRS? a) The United States Fire Administration. b) The National Fire Protection Agency. c) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration. d) Underwriters Laboratories. #189-2 Firefighter A says that incident reports should include information about the estimated cost of damage. Firefighter B says that incident reports do not need to include information about the number of personnel and type of apparatus that responds. Who is correct? a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #190-2 Which of the following statements is false with regard to the exterior portion of the survey? a) The firefighter should look for location of fire hydrant’s. b) The firefighter should determine drainage systems flow rates. c) The firefighter should look for the location of fire alarm boxes. d) The firefighter should determine the location and number of possible exposures. #191-2 What should a firefighter do first after receiving permission from the owner to survey the property? a) Conduct a survey of the building interior. b) Check the condition and operation of all private fire protection systems. c) Proceed directly to a roof or basement to begin a systematic survey. d) Conduct a survey of the building exterior. #192-2 What does the standard map symbol of the letters ”FA” within a circle portray? a) An automated fire alarm. b) An infrared sprinkler system. c) A fire alarm gong. d) A fire alarm box. #193-2 Which of the following statements best explains why a survey team should meet with the person in authority before leaving the premises after a pre-incident survey? a) To insure that the person in authority immediately corrects any areas that are in noncompliance regulations. b) To allow the person in authority to defend or justify any areas of noncompliance. c) To maintain a cooperative relationship with the person in authority. d) To allow the person in authority to provide a written evaluation of the survey team. #194-2 From a firefighting standpoint, what photographic view of a building is especially good for survey teams? a) Elevated b) Overhead c) Wide - angle d) Close - up #195-2 What does the standard map symbol comprised of a large dot within a circle indicate? a) Iron chimney. b) Fire pump. c) Vertical steam boiler. d) Fire department connection. #196-2 What does the standard map symbol comprised of a large “X” within a circle indicate? a) Standpipe. b) Gasoline tank. c) Single hydrant. d) Sprinkler riser. #197-2 Which of the following is not a guideline for scheduling a fire safety survey? a) Contact the owner or occupant ahead of time to arrange the survey. b) The company officer should inform the owner or occupant of the purpose of the survey. c) Schedule the survey during non-business hours to avoid congestion. d) The fire department administration should set a schedule for survey activities. #198-2 Firefighter A says that representative of the occupancy should accompany firefighters during a building survey. Firefighter B says that a representative of the occupancy should not be allowed to accompany firefighters during a building survey. a) Firefighter A b) Firefighter B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B #199-1 Which of the following steps is perhaps the most important in making a fire safety presentation. a) Preparation step. ( First step ) b) Presentation step. ( Second step ) c) Application step. ( Third step ) d) All the steps above are equally important. #200-1 Which of the following is considered a special hazard in a commercial occupancy? a) Floor cleaning solvents. b) Defective power equipment. c) Packing materials. d) Common attic over multiple occupancies. I hope that this was useful to you in your preparation for your state test. Just remember everything you were taught in class and at your station and continue with your training and you will all do fine. I look forward to fighting fire and serving with you all. I wish you the best of luck and remember to be safe out there. Now just relax and do your very best on your test. Do not allow yourself to get rattled and you will do just fine.