Documents
Resources
Learning Center
Upload
Plans & pricing Sign in
Sign Out

3U_Exam_Review

VIEWS: 8 PAGES: 4

									                                         SPH 3U1 - Final Exam Review
Unit 1: Kinematics
1. State the number of significant figures in the following.
   a) 0.0045           b) 306.503                 c) 4503 x 103               d) 0.4500

                                                  2. For the velocity-time graph shown, find
                                                  i) the velocity         a) at 2s        b) at 6s

                                                  ii) the acceleration     a) at 2s       b) at 6s
                                                                           c) from 10-12s d) from 12-16s

 20                                               iii) the average acceleration a) from 0-10s        b) from 6-12s
 15                                                                          c) from 16-24s
 10
  5                                               iv) the displacement from a) 0-4s b) 0-10s c) 10-12s d) 12-16s

       2 4 6 8 10 12 14                                   v) the average velocity a) from 0-10s      b) 0-6s c) 10-16s
                                  Time (s)
                                                          vi) time(s) when acceleration is a) 0               b) +
                                                          c) -            d) increasing e) decreasing

        vii) time(s) when velocity is      a) +              b) 0             c) -    d) increasing uniformly
                                                                                               e) decreasing uniformly

3. A ball is rolled 4.0 m [S], then 2.0 m [E], then 4.0 m [N], then 6.0 m [W]. The total time was 16 seconds.
   Find:
       a) distance       b) displacement          c) speed         d) velocity

4. How far does an object move if it moves at a constant velocity of 4.0 m/s for 20.0 seconds?

5. How long does it take an object to fall freely from a height to 25 m to the ground if it starts from rest?

6. An object starts at rest and accelerates at 2.5 m/s2 for 12 seconds. It then moves at a constant velocity for 5.0 s
   and then slows down uniformly at 1.5m/s2 until it stops. Calculate:
       a) the constant velocity b) the time taken for deceleration           c) the total displacement

7. A boy runs at a constant velocity of 5.0 m/s for 5.0 s; then 4.0 m/s for 10.0 s and then 3.0 m/s for 15 seconds.
   Find his average velocity.

8. A ball is thrown upwards at 22 m/s. How high is it after 1.1 seconds?

9. Find the displacement of an object after it has moved 6.2 m [42ºN of E], then 10.0 m [W], and then 8.0m
   [12ºE of S].

10. A mouse moves 0.50m/s [N] in a car. The car moves 1.5 m/s [S] on a ferry. The ferry moves 15 m/s [W] on
    the water. The current in the water is 5.0m/s [E]. Find the resultant velocity of the mouse with respect to the
    shore.

11. A cannon ball is launched from a cliff that is 34 m high. If the cannon ball has an initial velocity of 16.5m/s
    horizontally determine
    a) How far horizontally the cannon ball flies.
    b) The final velocity of the ball as it strikes the ground.

12. A golf ball is hit at an angle of 42o from the horizontal, with an initial speed of 25 m/s across a flat golf course.
    a) How long will the ball be in the air?
    b) How far down field does the ball land?
13. Kyle kicks a soccer ball at an angle of 38o from the horizontal, with an initial speed of 15 m/s across a flat
    soccer field.
    a) How long will the ball be in the air?
    b) How far down field does the ball land?

Unit 2: Dynamics

14. A man pulls with a force of 25 N [N]. A second pulls with a force of 15 N [S]. Find the unbalanced force.

15. A mass is being pulled forward at a constant velocity of 3 m/s with a force of 15 N. The weight of the mass is
    9.0 N.
    a) Draw a FBD; find all forces
    b) Find the coefficient of friction
    c) What applied force must be exerted so that the mass will accelerate to 14 m/s in 4.0 seconds.

16. A toboggan is being pulled along a flat surface at a constant speed. A horizontal force of 90.0 N is needed to
    pull the 54 kg toboggan and its passengers.
    a) What is the force of gravity on the toboggan?
    b) What is the coefficient of friction?

17. An elevator with a mass of 1.0 x 103 kg accelerates downward at 0.10 m/s2.
    a) Calculate the force of gravity acting on the elevator.
    b) What would the force of tension be in the supporting elevator cable?

18. A mass, 5.0 kg is being pulled from rest with an applied force of 25N. The friction force is 10.0 N.
    a) How far has it moved after 6.0 s?
    b) Find the weight of the mass and the coefficient of friction.

19. A falling toy, mass 10.0 kg experiences an upward force due to air friction of 40.0 N. Find the acceleration of
    the toy.

20. Carrying your textbooks from school to home can sometimes be quite a burden. Assume that your backpack
    weighs 78.5 N on Earth where g = 9.81 m/s2. Determine the weight of your backpack on Mars where the
    acceleration due to gravity is 3.72 m/s2.

Unit 3: Work, Energy and Power

21. A can of pop is slid across a counter. A 15 N friction force stops it from moving in 82 cm.
    a) How much work did the frictional force do on the pop can?
    b) Calculate the initial speed of the can if it has a mass of 3.0 x 102g.

22. How much work is being done by
    a) a box being pushed by a force of 8.0 N if it moves 3.0 m at 6.0 m/s.
    b) a box being pushed by a forward force of 10.0 N for 3.0 m if the friction force is 5.0 N.
    c) a box being pushed by a force of 5.0 N and the box remains stationary.

23. A 3.5 kg block slides across a frictionless table at a constant velocity covering 2.0 m in 3.0 s. Calculate the
    work done on the block while it is sliding?

24. A boy runs up a flight of stairs. If the vertical height is 15 m, the boys weight is 550 N and the time taken is
    8.2 s find:
    a) The increase in gravitational potential energy.
    b) The power used.
   25. A 22 kg child starting from rest at the top of a 3.0 m slide reaches a maximum speed at the bottom of 2.5 m/s.
       a) Calculate energy lost while the child was sliding down.
       b) How efficiently was gravitational potential energy converted to kinetic energy?

   26. A ball, mass 2.0 kg, is moving at 4.0 m/s and is 20.0 m off the ground.
       a) Find the total energy of the ball when 20.0 m off the ground.
       b) Find the velocity of the ball when it hits the ground (assume no loss of energy from heat)

   27. A boy, mass 50.0 kg slides down a slide from a vertical height of 22 m. Find his velocity when he is 15 m off
       the ground.

   28. During a step-aerobics class, Jane stepped up onto a platform 35 cm above the floor 625 times.
       a) If Jane’s mass is 52 kg, calculate the total amount of energy she used stepping up onto the platform.
       b) Cycling consumes approximately 52.7 kJ for every km traveled. How far could Jane have cycled with the
       energy she used during the class?

   29. Two pitchers of lemonade are left sitting in the sun at a picnic. One pitcher is made of copper and the other of
       glass.
       a) Which pitcher will contain cooler lemonade? Explain.
       b) If each empty pitcher has a mass of 965 g and absorbs 1.0 x 103 J of energy every 10.0 minutes, calculate
       the temperature increase of both empty pitchers in 1.0 hours.

   30. Calculate the power generated by a crane able to lift 2.00 x 102 kg to a height of 12.0 m in 18.5 s.
   31. Complete the following nuclear equations:

       (a) ? + 10n ---> 249Bk + 0-1e                 (b) 20Ne + ? ---> 24Mg + 

   32. Identify the daughter nucleus in each of the following decays and write the balanced nuclear equation: (a) 
       decay of tritium; (b)  decay of krypton-87; (c)  decay of protactinium-225.

   33. Identify the daughter nucleus in each of the following decays and write the balanced nuclear equation: (a) 
       decay of actinium-228; (b)  decay of radon-212; (c)  decay of francium-221.

   34. Write the balanced nuclear equation for the following radioactive decays: (a)  decay of nickel-63; (b)  decay
       of gold-185.

Unit 4: Waves and Sound

   35. If there are 60 cycles in 2.00 minutes, find the period and frequency.

   36. Draw and label a transverse and longitudinal wave. Show points in phase and out of phase.

   37. Understand constructive and destructive interference

   38. If the frequency of a wave is 850 Hz and the velocity is 45 m/s, find the wavelength of the wave.

   39. A tuning fork makes 232 vibrations per second in air. What is the wavelength of the tone emitted? Assume the
       speed of sound is 341 m/s.

   40. Find the velocity of sound in air that is 15C.

   41. A sound is send towards a cliff 95 m away. If the echo is heard 0.55s later, calculate:
       a) the speed of sound.               b) the temperature of the air.

   42. Explain each of the following:        a) beat frequency        b) Doppler effect          c) resonance
     43. The first resonant length of a closed air column occurs when the length is 25 cm. What are the lengths of the
         2nd and 3rd resonances?

     44. What is the shortest air column, closed at one end, that will resonate at a frequency of 220 Hz when the speed
         of sound is 350 m/s?

     45. An organ pipe, open at both ends, resonates at its first length with a frequency of 115 Hz. What is the length
         of the pipe if the air temperature is 25C?

Unit 5: Electricity and Magnetism

     46. Calculate the amount of current through an appliance if it takes 950 C for 2.2 minutes.

     47. An appliance used in the house (120V) is rated at 850W. Calculate:
            a) the current it draws.
            b) the energy used in 6.0 hours of operation.
            c) the cost (cost is 11.6 cents/kWh).

     48. There are 10 resistors, each 5.0 ohms and a 6.0 V power source. Calculate the total current if the resistors are
         hooked up in:
            a) series                  b) parallel

     49. There are 5 bulbs, each of same resistance. Are they brighter if hooked up in series or in parallel?

     50. An appliance of 8.6 ohms resistance is hooked up to a 120V source. What current does it draw?

     51. Draw magnetic fields around bar magnets, note directions, draw in compass directions.

     52. Understand electric motor, electric bell, DC generator, transformer

     53. Calculate the voltage output by the secondary winding of a transformer if the primary voltage is 35 volts, the
         secondary winding has 4500 turns, and the primary winding has 355 turns.

     54. Calculate the number of turns needed in the secondary winding of a transformer to transform a primary voltage
         of 300 volts down to a secondary voltage of 180 volts, if the primary winding has 1150 turns of wire.

								
To top