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Take Home Exam for Respiratory CH

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Take Home Exam for Respiratory CH 20-21-22

   1. As we breathe, the air is cooled because our body temp is cooler than the
       external air. A. T B. F
   2. The air we inhale is kept moist due to
           a. Ciliated cells
           b. Water in connective tissue
           c. Water in mucous layer
   3. Protection for the respiratory system against foreign particles is the
           a. Alveoli
           b. Serous glands
           c. Mucociliary blanket
           d. Epithelial lining
   4. The visceral pleura is located distally to the rib, when compared to the
       parietal layer in proximity to the rib. A. T B. F
   5. The alveolar wall is mainly for gas exchange, not structural support.. A. T
       B. F
   6. Resp. system requires continual input from
           a. Endocrine system
           b. GI system
           c. Nervous system
   7. Control of actual breathing depends upon
           a. Intercostals and the SCM
           b. Pons
           c. Diaphragm and medulla
           d. Pons and medulla
   8. In the nasopharyngeal airways, the upper portion supplies warmth and
       moisture due to
           a. Coarse hairs
           b. Ciliated cells
           c. Network of small blood vessels
           d. Enzymes
   9. The thin, transparent, double, layer serous membrane that lines the
       thoracic cavity is
           a. Visceral
           b. Parietal
           c. Pleura
   10. Cold air holds more moisture than warm air.
    A. T B. F
   11. Intrapleural pressure is essentially equal to intrathoracic pressure. A. T
        B. F
   12. A change in lung volume accompanied by a change in intrapulmonary
        pressure is known as
           a. Respiratory pressures
           b. Lung compliance
           c. Elastic recoil
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   13. Dorsal is responsible for inspiration and ventral is responsible for
       expiration. A. T B. F
   14. Apneustic center controls
          a. Resp. rate and inspiration
          b. Stops inspiration and begins expiration
          c. Excites and prolongs inspiration
   15. The amount is air that moves in and out of lungs in one breath is
          a. Residual volume
          b. Total lung capacity
          c. Tidal volume
   16. Due to a brain injury the ventral group lacked the stimulation needed for
       phrenic nerve stimulation, this is explained by
          a. This can’t happen because the apneustic center is in the upper
              pons and cuts off expiration
          b. This could happen due dorsal is always in response to ventral and
              it controls the intercostals muscles
          c. This couldn’t happen due to the ventral group not controlling the
              phrenic nerve
   17. Peripheral chemoreceptors monitor
          a. Arterial gases
          b. Arterial gases and blood Oxygen levels
          c. Monitor Carbon Dioxide only
          d. Monitor Oxygen only
   18. The pH level in the extracellular fluid of the brain plays a direct role in
       blood regulation of CO2 and O2. A. T B. F
   19. A person with chronically elevated CO2 will no longer respond to the
       stimulus for needing increased ventilation. A. T B. F
   20. Which type of lung receptor is located in the smooth muscle?
          a. Irritant
          b. Stretch
          c. Juxtacapillary
   21. The layer upon which provides lubricant for breathing is
          a. Visceral
          b. Parietal
   22. Fluid that has accumulated in the pleural cavity in a patient with
       congestive heart failure and has cirrhosis of the liver may have
          a. Exudate fluid
          b. Pus as fluid as well as chlye
          c. Chlye and clear fluid mixed
          d. Clear fluid only
23. Rheumatoid arthritis may cause fluid accumulation to be
          a. very light
          b. light and show a decreased mast cell size
          c. heavy only
          d. heavy and increased mast cell size
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     24. A car wreck patient who had a ruptured lung ,and (post surgery with great
         prognosis) returns with a lung infection, will most likely show signs of
            a.Definitely pneumonia
            b.Chyle draining via the GI tract
            c.Pleural effusion with empyema
     25. A hemothorax may be due to
            a. Pneumonia
            b. Aortic aneurysm
     26. A patient with an air –filled blister on their lung ruptures, they are
         diagnosed with
            a. Tension pneumonthorax
            b. Spontaneous pneumothorax
            c. Traumatic pneumothorax
27.Air entering the pleural cavity through the wound on inhalation and leaving on
exhalation is
        a. tension pneumothorax
        b. open pneumothorax
28.Loosing too much heat in the winter may cause
     a. extrinsic bronchial asthma attack
     b. intrinsic bronchial asthmas attack
29. The normal response time for mast cells due to hyposensitivity is
     a. 1 hour
     b. 10-20 minutes due to negative feedback loop
     c. 10-20 minutes due to positive feedback loop
     d. 2 hours due to increasing O2 increase due to positive feedback loop
     30. Unable to maintain O2 levels, chronic mucous thickness and short of
     breath and a habit of half a pack of cigarettes a day are signs
     of__________in a middle aged man when accompanied by a persistent
     cough.
        a. emphysema
        b. pink puffer syndrome
        c. chronic bronchitis
31. Which cell when accumulating may damage the alveoli when responding to
irritants?
        a. basophils
        b. eosinophils
        c. neutrophils
32. If Trypsin was activated on a continually, what would be damaged the most?
        a. WBC
        b. Alveoli
        c. Bronchial tube
        d. RBC
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33.Producing too many RBC is known as
               a. Cyanosis
               b. Leukocypenia
               c. Polycythemia
               d. Erythrotosis
34. A secondary problem as a result of a respiratory disease may be Cor
pulmonale, the signs may be
       a. pulmonary dilation and decreased O2
       b. Decreased O2 and vasoconstriction and less RBC’s being produced
       c. Polycythemia, vasoconstriction and decreased lung ventilation
35. Patients with CF suffer from
   a. mutation on chromosome 13 that limits the regulator
   b. mutation on chromosome 7 which limits epithelial membrane to transport
       lipids correctly
   c. mutation on chromosome which impairs the chloride transport proteins
   d. mutation on chromosome 13 that inhibits amino acids from activating
       trypsin conversion with anti-trypsin
36. Loosing lipids via the GI tract is known as
       a, Biliary duct obstruction
   b.Flatulence
   c. steatorrhea
37.DVT are sometimes signs of
       a. pulmonary obstruction
       b. pulmonary embolism
38. Lungs that are resistent to movement may show signs of
       a. rapid breathing due to decreased O2 levels
       b. slow shallow breaths
       c. rapid shallow breaths
39. A test given to patients with possible lung interstitial disease is
   a. the Gallium Lung Scan to test for lung tidal volume
   b. Gallium Lung Scan testing for inflammation of the bronchial tube
   c. Gallium Lung Scan testing for inflammation of alveoli
   d. None of the above
40. A blood borne substance will never cause a DVT. A.T B. F
41. Patients with too much thrombin are at risk for
       a. hip displacement due to overproduction of marrow
       b. DVT
       c. Pleurisy
42. Normal arterial pressure is
       a. 15
       b. 25
       c. 35
43. Elevation in left arterial pressure may result in
       a. DVT
       b. Cor pulmonae
       c. Pulmonary hypertension
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44. Primary pulmonary hypertension has been linked to
       a. sleep apnea and family history
       b. family history
       c. AIDS
       d. Both B and C
45. Bacterial infections cause the most respiratory tract infections. A. T B. F
46. The rhino virus has approximately 100+ serotypes with the majority striking
people under 25 with compromised immunity. A. T B. F
47. Summer is prime time to acquire Respiratory Syncytial Virus. A. T B. F
48.The incubation time for the rhino virus is 3 days. A. T B. F.
49. You can being infected by only 1 serotype at a time of the
rhino virus. A. T B. F.
50. When the nasal turbinates of the nasal cavity are obstructed, the greater risk
for
       a. Flu
       b. Rhinosinusitis
       c. RhinoVirus
51. Having 4 episodes of rhinosinusitis within 12 months is known as
       a. acute
       b. subacute
       c. chronic
52. Bacterial Rhinosinusitis may result from H. influenzae. A. T B. F.
53.Viral sinusitis lasts longer than bacterial. A. T B. F.
54. When patients suffering from _____, get chronic rhinosinusitis plus gram
negative organisms, it can be fatal.
       a. streptococcal infections
       b. leucopenia
       c. Stapholococcal infections
       d. Leukocytosis
55.Flu type C is the most common flu to infect people. A. T B. F.
56.Proteins that allow a virus to enter via the epithelial cells are
       a. hemalutinin surface glycoproteins
       b. neuroaminidase surface proteins
57.If NA surface glycoproteins were inhibited, the flu
       a. would mutate
       b. would not replicate
       c. would undergo lysis and type B would mutate becoming C due to
           changing surface receptors.
58. Flu type B undergoes antigenic shift.. A. T B. F
59. Flue type A mutates and undergoes antigenic shift. A. T B. F.
60. The drug amantadine treats only Flu types that
undergo antigenic shift. A. T B. F.
61. Viral pneumonia may produce the following
       a. fever and bradycardia
       b. tachycardia and slow labored breathing
       c. tachycardia and tachypnea
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62. Amantadine directed impacts
        a. HA glycoproteins
        b. NA glycoproteins
63. Legionnaires disease is
        a. also known as TB
        b. viral
        c. bacterial
        d. found only in asthmatics
64. TB is caused by
        a. H. influenzae
        b. M. tuberculosis
        c. S. aureus
65. Ghon complex reactivation is only in patients with primary TB. A. T B. F.
66. Lymph node granulomas are a result of
        a. Ghon Focus weakening
        b. Ghon complex reactivation
        c. Secondary TB
67. NSCLC are
        a. columnar cells
        b. always large and squamous
68. An infection such as TB, additional scarring due to injury and an carcinoma in
the alveolar tissue is usually a sign of _______-in women.
        a. Squamous cell carcinoma
        b. Adenocarcinoma
        c. LCLC
69. Bronchiogenic carcinoma are the easiest to treat because they are local and
spread slow. A. T B. F.
70. SCLC are usually in smokers. A. T B. F.
71. Pnuemonias are based on where they became infect only. A. T B. F.
72. Bronchopneumonia includes
        a. the upper lobe and remaining alveoli
        b. all alveoli and total lung
        c. alveoli only and one bronchial tube
73. A positive TB test results from
        a. a cell mediated immune response
        b. polycythemia
        c. immune response to lytic enzymes
74. Lung development in utero happens after 25th weeks of gestation. A. T B. F
75. The air left in the lungs at the end of normal expiration is known as
 functional residual capacity. A. T. B. F
76. The most commonly affected age group for suffering Croup is
        a. neonate
        b. over 40
        c. 10-15 yrs
        d. under 5
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77. Parainfluenzae viruses 75% and adenoviruses 25% are responsible for
       a. bronchopulmonary dysplasia
       b. viral croup
       c. RDS
78.An increase in CO2 content in the blood is
       a. hypoxemia
       b. hypercapnia
       c. hypoventilation
79. Hypoxemia is usually treated with
       a. CO2
       b. O2
       c. PCO2
80.-100. (20 points) 5 each. On separate sheet of paper on answer the
following from CH 22.
        Mrs. X has a diagnosis of primary pulmonary hypertension.
              80A. Her mean pulmonary artery blood pressure is most likely to be
                      (14? 26? 94?) mm Hg. This value is considerably (higher?
                      Lower?) than normal?
              80B.This is relatively (common? Rare?) condition, occurring in
              about one person in a (Thousand? Million?). The 5 years survival
              rate is about ___%.
              80C. What signs or symptoms is Mrs. X likely to manifest?
              80D. What treatments may help?

				
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