SAN ANTONIO WRITTEN BOARD DIAGNOSTIC QUESTIONS by nikeborome

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									SAN ANTONIO-    1998 WRITTEN BOARD DIAGNOSTIC QUESTIONS

There were a total of      questions of the diagnostic portion of the exam. We
were given 5 hours which was plently of time. 30% of the questions were exact or
near exact repeats from prior exams. The following are new questions only. The
questions that were repeated have been marked with the year on the other files.

BONE

Single Best Answer

1. 40 yo woman with thickening of bilateral Achilles tendon and soft tissue
nodules of her hands and feet. Decreased signal intensity on T1 and T2 weighted
MR.

a.   gout
b.   rheumatoid arthritis
c.   amyloid
d.   hyperlipidemia
e.   neurofibromatosis

ANS: the answer is probably hyperlipidemia. Stoller described xanthomas in this
way, however, the fast spin echo T2 signal is usually hyperintense. This may be
due to the difference in fat signal intensity on fast spin echo sequences vs.
standard spin echo sequences.

2. 12 yo child with para-articular soft tissue masses around shoulder, hip and
elbow. On radiographs these are lobulated and calcified.

a.   myositis ossificans progressiva
b.   hypolipidemia
c.   juvenile gout
d.   Lesh-Nyhan
e.   Polymyalgia rheumatica

ANS:

3. Regarding supracondylar fractures:

a.   most common elbow fracture
b.   usually salter-harris type II
c.   cubitus valgus is a common complication
d.   the anterior humeral line intersecting the middle of the capitellum is normal

ANS: A is correct for children. D is correct. B is incorrect. C is usually
describes concerning fracture separation of the distal humeral epiphysis. Those
are usually Salter Harris type I or Type II fractures.

4. Fracture of the big toe growth plate is most associated with:

a.   osteomyelitis
b.   child abuse
c.   growth disturbance
d.   subungal exostosis
e.   osteonecrosis

ANS:
5. A lesion in the proximal humerus of a child that has a typical appearance for
chondroblastoma. Some periosteal reaction is noted of the proximal metaphysis:

a.    pathologic fracture
b.    normal chondroblastoma
c.    malignant degeneration
d.    clear cell chondrosarcoma

ANS

6. The best way to distinguish between an enchondroma and a low grade
chondrosarcoma:

a.    plain film
b.    NUCS
c.    MR
d.    CT
e.    Clinical symptoms

ANS

7. Three days after surgical repair of a proximal humerus fracture a plain film
shows apparent inferior subluxation of the humeral head. Most likely cause

a.    quadrilateral space problem
b.    axillary nerve damage
c.    glenohumeral joint hematoma
d.    2 other choices

ANS

8. Know about the magic angle effect in MR :

What    angle does it occur?
What    types of sequences is it seen with?
What    sequences is it not seen with?
What    can be done to reduce its effect?
What    can it be mistaken for (ie tendon tear)?

9. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies have what in common?

a.    severe osteoporosis
b.    soft tissue nodules
c.    dental abnormalities
d.    periostitis

ANS

10. 40 yo man with back pain. MR show well defined round foci with increased T1
and T2 signal within a vertebral body. Most likely diagnosis

a.    metastasis
b.    infection
c.    bone island
d.    hemangioma
ANS

True/False

Chronic dorsiflexion instability of the wrist is associated with:

11.      Keinboch's disease
12.    Widening of the scapholunate interval
13.    Downward migration of the capitate
14.    Volar tilt of the lunate
15.    Horizontal positioning of the scaphoid on the lateral wrist xray

ANS

Matching

16.     Bifurcate                             a.   anterior tibial tubercle
17.     Peroneal retinaculum                  b.   dorsal talus
18.     Anterior tib-fib ligament             c.   anterior process of distal fibula
19.     Extensor digitorum brevis             d.   lateral margin of distal fibula
                                              e.   lateral margin of distal calcaneus

ANS

20.   Cortical tunneling                              a. osteomalacia
21.Cspine endplate collapse
b. hyperparathyroidism
22.   Subligamentous resorbtion
c. dialysis osteodystrophy
23.   Transverse lucencies incompletely extending through cortex

ANS:


NUCS

Single Best Answer

24.   Question on ictal SPECT imaging. Timing of imaging , injection of RP in
relation to ictus.

25.   Question regarding QC of SPECT, will being one pixel off on rotation cause
artifact? And others

26. 38 yo woman 2 days post op from total thyroidectomy for papillary thyroid
carcinoma. What is the most appropriate next step?

a.    Start i.v.TSH
b.    Start p.o T4
c.    In 4-6 weeks do an I-131 total body scan and ablative treatment with I-131
d.    Start XRT
e.    Have serum calcium, phosphorus and alk phos levels checked

Ans:

27.     Octreotide is not good for imaging:
a.    carcinoid
b.    meningioma
c.    medullary cancer of thyroid
d.    renal cell carcinoma
e.    one other

Ans:

27.     Which is NOT hot on all three phases of a bone scan:

a. a 2wk old fracture of the radius
b. osteomyelities after one week of antibiotics
c. Charcot joint
d. Osteonecrosis of the toes due to severe peripheral vascular disease of the
extremity

ANS:

28. V/Q mismatch may occur in all but:

a.    fibrosing mediastinitis
b.    after XRT of mediastinum
c.    interstitial pneumonitis
d.    chronic pulmonary artery obstruction
e.    lymphadenopathy

ANS

29. Indium is the agent of choice for:

a. Inflammatory bowel disease
b. Otitis media
c. Diskitis
e. Lung disease

ANS

True/False

Regarding nuclear pharmacy:

30. the maximum allowable Mo is 0.10 ug/mCu Tc99m
31. Aluminum contamination causes an insoluble precipitate
32. Thin layer chromotography can be used to isolate free tech from insoluble
radiopharmaceuticals

ANS

Regarding     radionucleide ventriculography

33.    Eight cardiac cycles required for adequate study
34.    6-8 data collections per cardiac cycle required for adequate study
35.    the ejection fraction increases when the background is subtracted
36.    an adequate study can be obtained with in vivo labeling
37.    Tc needs to be +7 for labeling

ANS
Reduced particules in perfusion portion of V/Q for :

38.    Pregnancy
39.    Children
40.    Prior PE
41.    Pulmonary hypertension

ANS


Matching

42. Hibernating myocardium
43. Stunned myocardium
44. Scarred myocardium s/p myocardial infarction

a.    normal perfusion, normal wall motion
b.    normal perfusion, hypo- or a-kinetic motion
c.    fixed defect, normal wall motion
d.    fixed defect, hypo- or a-kinetic motion
e.    reverse redistribution, normal motion


GU

Single Best Answer

45. 25 yo with nephropathy for one year develops acute onset of left flank pain
and gross hematuria. IVP shows large left kidney with delayed nephrogram.

a.    renal infarct
b.    obstruction due to stone
c.    renal vein thrombosis
d.    ?

ANS:

46. Regarding urethral diverticulum in women:

a.    most are posterior
b.    usually due to long term catheter use
c.    treatment is marsupulization of diverticulum
d.    can cause stress incontinence
e.    most are congenital

ANS

47. 30 yo who had a CT with and without contrast of the kidneys. It shows a
bifid collecting system with a 3 cm mass between the collecting systems which
enhances homogenously with the renal parenchyma so that it is not detectable.

a.    normal kidney
b.    lymphoma
c.    renal cell carcinoma
d.    transitional cell carcinoma
e.    oncocytoma
ANS

48. Regarding metformin:

a.    directly nephrotoxic
b.    don't give contrast if patient ingested with 48 hours
c.    when combined with IV contrast metformin is nephrotoxic
d.    causes lactic acidosis in patients with renal failure
e.    other

ANS

49. In male children, lower urinary tract obstruction most commonly occurs:

a.    trigone
b.    internal sphincter
c.    prostatic urethra
d.    bulbous urethra
e.    membranous urethra

ANS

50. An IVP shows thin cresents of contrast in the region of the collecting
system:

a. due to layering of contrast in large urine filled dilated calyces
b. others

ANS

51. Associated with worse prognosis in renal cell carcinoma

a.    involvement of ipsilateral adrenal gland
b.    clot extending to right atrium
c.    extends outside renal capsule
d.    positive lymph nodes
e.    involvement of contralateral kidney

ANS

52. In a patient with NSAID abuse, the most common etiology for a renal pelvis
mass is:

a. TCC
b. Squamous cell CA
c. Renal cell CA

ANS

True/False

Regarding bicornuate uterus:

53. Common cause of infertility
54. Commonly causes complications during delivery
55. Can be differentiated from a septate uterus by HSG
56. Caused by DES exposure

ANS

Matching

57.    Renal artery stenosis
58.    Renal vein thrombosis
59.    Temporary renal dysfunction
60.    Furosemide nephropathy

a.    echogenic pyramids
b.    small echogenic kidney
c.    enlarged adrenal gland
d.    discrete echogenic foci in medulla

ANS

61. Cryptorchidism
62. Megaureter
63. Hutch diverticulum

a.    hypospadias
b.    trigone absence
c.    reflux
d.    decreased ureteral emptying
e.    renal agenesis

ANS

Regarding prostate gland:

64.    Cancer
65.    BPH
66.    Stage C cancer
67.    Largest zone

a.    central zone
b.    transitional zone
c.    peripheral zone
d.    seminal vessicle
e.    verumontanum

ANS

TRUE/FALSE

A striated nephrogram can be seen with:

68.    renal vein thrombosis
69.    renovascular HTN
70.    tubular obstruction with protein
71.    acute nephritis
72.    renal infarction


GI
Single Best Answer

73. H. pylori is NOT associated with:

a.    gastric ulcer
b.    duodenal ulcer
c.    Zollinger Ellison syndrome
d.    Gastric cancer
e.    Gastric lymphoma

ANS:

74. Regarding cavernous hemangioma:

a.    increased uptake on Tc-SC delayed images
b.    most common ultrasound appearance is a hyperechoic, well-defined mass
c.    detectable fast flow on doppler ultrasound
d.    a rare, benign tumor

ANS

75. Regarding Whipples disease:

a.    associated with high density spleen
b.    small low density nodules in colon wall seen on CT
c.    low density periaortic lymph nodes
d.    other

ANS

76. Regarding Crohn's disease:

a.    usually asymmetric bowel wall thickening
b.    jejunum commonly involved
c.    gastroduodenal region almost always involved
d.    continuous segment involvement usually occurs
e.    small bowel and colon involvement at the same time

ANS

77. A nodular foci in one limb of an adrenal gland most likely represents:

a.    hyperplasia
b.    adenoma
c.    metastasis
d.    pheo

ANS

78. Regarding laproscopic cholecystectomy:

a. most common cause of complications is due to congenital abnormalities in the
location of the CBD
b. duodenal perforation is a complication
c. CT is the preferred modality for imaging of suspected biloma (or abcess?)
d. Hepatoscintigraphy is not a good test to evaluate for biloma
e. Cannot perform an intraoperative cholangiogram when doing a lap chole

ANS

79. Most common cause of a presinusoidal portal hypertension:

a.    Laennec cirrhosis
b.    Post necrotic cirrhosis
c.    CHF
d.    Schistosomiasis
e.    Biliary disease

ANS

80. 69 yo with blood in stool. Barium enema shows an excavated nonobstructive
lesion of the distal ileum with moves with palpation.

a.    Crohn's
b.    Peutz-Jeughers
c.    Lymphoma
d.    Carcinoid
e.    Adenocarcinoma

ANS

81. Aneurysmal dilation of small bowel is seen in which type of tumor:

a.    lymphoma
b.    adenocarcinoma
c.    metastasis
d.    carcinoid
e.    leiomyosarcoma

ANS

82. Which is FALSE regarding islet cell tumors:

a.    VIPomas have decreased potassium
b.    50% of insulinomas are malignant
c.    gastrinomas occur in and around the pancreas
d.    glucagonomas cause ulcers
e.    metastasis to the liver are hypervascular

ANS

83. Which is true regarding leiomyomas

a.    treatment is XRT
b.    CT findings of a large leiomyoma are necrotic mass with cystic areas
c.    Worse prognosis than gastric carcinoma
d.    Large broad mucosal based mass

ANS

84. Secondary esophageal contractions

a. painful
b. secondary to incoordination
c. initiated by swallowing bolus
d. initiated by focal distention of esophagus

ANS

85. Regarding Zenker's diverticulum

a.    cricophayngeus muscle inferior to Zenkers diverticulum
b.    cricopharyngeus muscle located in inferior cervical esophagus
c.    cricopharyngeus muscle at level of C2
d.    cricopharyngeus muslce not important in the swallowing mechanism
e.    a type of traction diverticulum

ANS


True/False

Regarding fatty infiltration of liver

86.    geographic region of increased echogenicity on US
87.    area of US abnormality corresponds to high attenuation on CT
88.    commonly around the gallbladder fossa
89.    doesn't displace the vessels
90.    chemical shift image in MR can help diagnose

ANS

Matching

91.Spigelian
92. Obtutator
93. Richter
94. Paraduodenal

a.    congenital and malrotation
b.    semilunar line
c.    inferior mesenteric artery
d.    ant/med thigh pain which worsens with moving leg
e.    only one side of bowel involved in hernia

ANS

95.    HIV
96.    Candida
97.    Esophageal catheter
98.    TB

a.    traction diverticulum
b.    large shallow ulcer
c.    esophageal pseudodiverticulosis
d.    long stricture

ANS
CV/ INTERVENTIONAL

Single Best Answer

99. Which is NOT associated with constrictive pericarditis?

a.    thickened myocardium
b.    pericardium greater than 2mm thick
c.    tubular ventricles
d.    decreased ventricular volume
e.    enlarged atria

ANS

100. Concerning a supracardiac TAPVR: In the snowman configuration of the heart
that is seen with this disease, what makes up the left superior border of the
mediastinum?

a.    vertical vein
b.    innominate vein
c.    superior pulmonary vein
d.    pulmonary artery
e.    aorta

ANS:

101. TIPS is NOT indicated in :

a.    intractable ascites
b.    cirrhotic hydrothorax
c.    gastric bleed secondary to splenic vein thrombosis
d.    bleeding esophageal varices which failed sclerotheraphy
e.    second episode of esophageal bleeding in a cirrhotic patient

ANS

102. Which will have the best response to angioplasty:

a. A 69 yo smoker with tandem lesions in the lower extremity
b. 55 yo with an ostial lesion of the left renal artery
c. 55 yo with a focal concentric 90 % stenosis of the common iliac artery
d. 75 yo with long segment occlusion from the proximal superficial artery to
popliteal artery

ANS:

103. Angioplasty should     NOT be considered an initial treatment for:

a.    fresh thrombus
b.    calcified plaque
c.    occlusion extending to popliteal artery
d.    poor distal runoff

ANS

104. Concerning renal artery angioplasty for renovascular hypertension:
a.    angioplasty contraindicated if renin levels don't lateralize
b.    cures hypertension in >90% patients
c.    rupture of the renal artery is a complication in 30% with FMD
d.    severe systemic hypotension a common complication
e.    good success with ostial lesions

ANS

105. Best plane to evaluate the LV wall, size:

a.    horizontal long axis
b.    longitudinal long axis
c.    short axis
d.    coronal
e.    other

ANS

106. Most serious complication when performing a PA gram.

a.    Right bundle branch block
b.    Left bundle branch block
c.    Swan ganz catheter in place
d.    IVC filter in place
e.    Pulmonary artery pressures of 25/12 mm Hg

ANS

107. Most common complication of a dacron AVF graft:

a.    stenosis at the arterial end of the graft
b.    stenosis at the venous end of the graft
c.    stenosis in the middle of the graft
d.    2 others

ANS

108. Cause of LV failure in a 70 yo with emphysema

a.    chronic PE
b.    pulmonary artery hypertension
c.    atherosclerotic disease
d.    2 others

ANS

109. Regarding angiodysplasia during angiography

a. extravasation into bowel lumen
b. large vascular nidus
c. early draining vein which persists

ANS


True/False
Regarding percutaneous biliary drainage: (T/F)

110. ascites is a relative contraindication
111. antibiotics need to be given prior to the procedure only in patients with
fever or sepsis
112. often relieves biliary pruritis in patients with diffuse liver mets
113. an indication is for patients with pancreatic head mass
114. to access the right hepatic ducts, a subcostal anterior approach is desired

ANS

Regarding exercise induced thoracic outlet syndrome

115.    most commonly occurs in elderly women
116.    usually secondary to central venous catheters
117.    initial trial of thrombolysis is indicated for treatment
118.    surgical resection of first rib can relieve symptoms
119.    involves brachial vein

ANS

Matching

120. SVC obstruction before Right atrium
121. Splenic vein thrombosis
122. IVC thrombosis above renal arteries

To pathway of alternate blood flow

ANS

Concerning mitral valve motion on echo:

123.    Anterior motion of leaflet during systole
124.    Decreased motion of anterior leaflet during diastole
125.    Accentuated posterior motion with systole
126.    Anterior wall motion with systole
127.    Posterior motion in diastole

a.    Mitral valve prolapse
b.     Papillary muscle rupture
c.    IHSS
d.    Mitral valve stenosis
e.    Mitral regurgitation
f.    Left atrial myxoma

ANS

128. Annuloaortic ectasia
129. Occluded LAD
130. Right sided stomach and right aortic arch

a.    left atrial myxoma
b.    normal heart
c.    aortic insufficiency
d.    sick sinus syndrome
e.    right ventriculloarrhythmia
ANS

Match meds with condition:

131. Acute arterial spasm
132. Bronchospasm
133. Vasovagal reaction

a.    nitroglycerine
b.    phetolamine
c.    lidocaine
d.    atropine
e.    epinephrine

ANS


MAMMS

Single best answer

134. Question regarding the MR appearance of breast cancer during gado enhanced
dynamic imaging. Is the enhancement delayed, early, does enhancement increase
over time?

135. 3 months after resection of T1NoMo breast cancer, a patient has a 3 cm
breast lump under the surgical scar.

a.    hematoma
b.    seroma
c.    recurrent cancer
d.    lymph node
e.    skin thickening

ANS

136. Characteristics of inflammatory breast cancer

a. dermal lymphatics plugged with cancer cells
b. others

ANS

137. Type of breast cancer most difficult to detect

a.    invasive ductal
b.    tubular
c.    medullary
d.    lobular

ANS

138. 44 yo woman with serous discharge from a single duct. Most likely diagnosis

a. cancer
b. fibroadenoma
c. papilloma
d. adenosis

ANS

139. Most common appearance of lymph node on US:

a. notched mass
b. well defined homogenous mass
c. solid mass with enhanced through transmission

ANS

140. Core biopsy results come back as radial scar. What should you do?

a.    nothing, annual mammography
b.    6 month follow up
c.    repeat core biopsy
d.    excisional biopsy

ANS

141. There is a left breast mass at the nipple line on an MLO projection and
far lateral on a CC projection, where is it located.

a.    9 o'clock
b.    6
c.    3
d.    12

ANS


True/False

Regarding magnification mammography:

142.    a grid is required
143.    want to decrease source to object distance
144.    requires a source to image distance <55cm
145.    results in magnification 3x

ANS

146. Breast compression uses force of 5-10 lbs

ANS

Matching

Simplistic drawing of breast with the following labeled:
a. TDLU
b. Lobule
c. Retroareolar duct
d. Lymph node

147. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
148. Papilloma
149. Adenosis
150. Lobular carcinoma

ANS


US

Single Best Answer

151. Regarding peripheral AVF, which is FALSE:

a.    most close spontaneoulsly
b.    Increased arterial velocity distal to AVF
c.    Increased pulsatility of venous flow distal to AVF
d.    Lose arterial triphasic waveform proximal to AVF
e.    Soft tissue specular artifact seen on color flow adjacent to AVF

ANS

152. Which one is FALSE regarding asymmetric IUGR

a.    increased HC/AC ratio
b.    polyhydramnios
c.    fetal carotid artery has increased diastolic flow
d.    fetal weight below 10 percentile
e.    increased diastolic flow in the umbilical artery

ANS

153. Which is FALSE concerning paraovarian cysts:

a.    make up 10% of all ovarian cysts
b.    do not respond to hormones
c.    mullerian remnant
d.    can torse
e.    found in the broad ligament

ANS

154. In the postmenopausal patient which is true:

a.    endometrial stripe (EMS) best evaluated in the coronal plane
b.    when measuring you include the hypoechoic region around the EMS
c.    tamoxifen can thicken the EMS and cause cystic areas in the EMS
d.    fluid in the EMS indicates malignancy
e.    EMS thicker than 5mm in a patient on hormones indicates malignancy

ANS

155. Renal cell carcinoma <3cm looks most like which of the following on
sonography?

a. renal lympoma
b. abcess
c. mets
d. angiomyolipoma

ANS

156. Which is NOT seen on US in Downs syndrome?

a.    enlarged ventricles
b.    echogenic bowel
c.    nuchal thickening
d.    mild pylectasis
e.    mildly shortened femurs/humerus

ANS

True/False

Umbilical Cord:

157.    consists of 2 veins and one artery
158.    S/D ratio of 5.0 is normal in the third trimester
159.    Arterial blood flows from the placenta to the fetus
160.    Umbilicocentesis should be done at the fetal side

ANS

Matching

161.    Hypophosphatasia
162.    Osteogenesis imperfecta
163.    Achondrogenesis
164.    Achondroplasia

a.    increased visualization of intracranial structures
b.    rhizomelic shortening femurs,humerus
c.    decreased visualization of spine
d.    cloverleaf skull

ANS


NEURO

Single best answer

165. Regarding brachial cleft cysts:

a.    most common age of presentation is 5-10 years of age
b.    usually presents as a painful mass
c.    usually at the angle of the mandible
d.    first brachial cleft cyst is the most common type

ANS

166. On MRI, flow dynamics best evaluated with:

a. TOF
b. Phase contrast
c. Gradient echo
d. 2 other choices

ANS

167. What can mimic multiple sclerosis on MRI?

a. abcess
b. lyme disease
c. 3 other choices

ANS

168. Skull film shows a single lucent lesion in the skull with sclerotic
margins. Most likely diagnosis?

a.    EG
b.    Hemangioma
c.    Venous lake
d.    Fibrous dysplasia
e.    Epidermoid

ANS

169. Wormian bones NOT seen in:

a.    normal variant
b.    chiari II
c.    cleidocranial dysostosis
d.    osteogenesis imperfecta
e.    hypothryoidism

ANS

170. Which is FALSE regarding Chiari II malformation:

a.    50% are associated with spinal dysraphism
b.    torcular inversion
c.    medullary kink
d.    large foramen magnum

ANS

171.     A neurofibromatosis patient has pusitile exophthalmos.   The likely cause
is:

a. Cavernous carotid fistula
b. Spenoid wing fibrous dysplasia
d. Glomus tumor

ANS
172. In a patient with cirrhosis and abnormal signal intensity in the basal
ganglia . What is the characterisitic signal abnormality on MR:

a. increased T1
b. decreased T1
c. increased T2
d. decreased T2
e. increased PD

ANS


CHEST

Single Best Answer

173. Laryngeal papillomatosis is at increased risk for malignant transformation
into which type of cancer?

a.    small cell carcinoma
b.    adenocarcinoma
c.    carcinoid
d.    squamous cell carcinoma
e.    bronchoalveolar carcinoma

ANS

174. Concerning a patient intubated with ETT:

a.    balloon prevents aspiration
b.    post intubation granulomas involve the posterior wall usually
c.    flexing the neck causes the tube to move caudally
d.    left main bronchus intubation more common than the right
e.    LPO view good way to evaluate for esophageal intubation

ANS

175. Concerning percutaneous biopsy of lung mass

a.    contraindicated if platlets less than 100,000
b.    percutaneous biopsy is best for biopies of endobronchial lesions
c.    patient is at higher risk for pneumothorax if they have emphysema
d.    10% risk of seeding the biopsy tract

ANS

176. Hounsefield units most useful for diagnosing:

a.    alveolar proteinosis
b.    bronchogenic carcinoma
c.    lipoid pneumonia
d.    others

ANS

177. 30 yo with acute hemoptysis. CXR shows one cm thick walled cavitary lesion
in the upper lobe.

a.    AVM
b.    Cancer
c.    TB
d.    PE
ANS


Matching

178.    Mucoid impaction
179.    Lipoid pneumonia
180.    Interstitial and alveolar edema
181.    Interstitial and alveolar edema with inflammatory cells

a.    atelectasis
b.    bronchiectasis
c.    drowned lung
d.    postobstuctive pneumonitis
e.    overinflation

ANS

182.    Sarcoid
183.    Cystic fibrosis
184.    Sickle cell
185.    Silicosis

a.    pseudomonas
b.    aspergillous
c.    pneumococcal pneumonia
d.    tuberculosis

ANS


PEDS

Single best answer

186. 14 yo healthy male presents with swollen face, neck, arms. CXR shows
mediastinal mass with punctate calcifications:

a. teratoma
b. tuberculosis
c. lymphoma
d. thymoma
e. histoplasmosis
ANS

187. Which one is most commonly ossified at birth:

a. Distal femur
b. Capitellum
c. Proximal femur
d. Tibia
e. Radius
ANS

188. Regarding PDA in children, which is FALSE

a. recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under PDA
b. calcification of the PDA in children indicates pulmonary HTN
c. wide pulse pressure when patent
d. indomethicin closes PDA
ANS

189. Have all alveoli by :

a. 36 weeks
b. 40 weeks
c. 6 months
d. 2 years
e. 8 years
ANS

190. NOT a cause of cardiomegaly in an infant:

a. hypoplastic left heart
b. viral myocarditis
c. abberent left coronary artery
d. truncus arteriosis
ANS

191. In a patient with hypospadius and a large diverticulum from the
veromontanum. The origin is:

a.    Muellarian remnant
b.    Wolfian remnant
c.    Cloacal
d.    Urogenital sinus
ANS

								
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