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GEOG tidal waves


									                                     GEOG 140
                                   FINAL EXAM

M. S. Kearney                                                      Fall 2001

Instructions. Multiple Choice: select the best answer from those given.

1. Which of the following coasts is the most vulnerable to any future rise in sea
level rise, with respect to shore erosion and movement of the shoreline.
a. barrier islands
b. deltas
c. cliff coasts
d. rocky cliff coasts

2.   This feature occurs seaward of an inlet:
a.   flood tidal delta
b.   ebb tidal delta
c.   overwash
d.   primary dune line

3. Which of the following is a plant responsible for creation and development of
coastal dunes?
a. Spartina alterniflora
b. Phragmites australis
c. Ammophila sp.
d. eel grass

4.   A wide intertidal zone is found in which of these coastal types?
a.   barrier islands
b.   deltas
c.   cliff coasts
d.   rocky cliff coasts

5. In translatory waves, which of these wave characteristics apply?
a. great wave height
b. short wavelength
c. long wave period
d. great wave steepness

6.    Which elements of the barrier island system is not so fundamental, that without
it,   barrier island is not a barrier island?
a.    the mainland
b.    the lagoon
c.    the barrier island
d.    the primary dune

7. In the cycle of seasonal changes on a beach, which of the following generally
a. the backshore widens during winter
b. the backshore narrows in summer
c. offsore bars form in summer to store eroded sand from the beach
d. none of the above

8. The disappearance of the intertidal zone due to rising sea levels is most likely to
occur on what coast?
a. barrier islands
b. deltas
c. cliff coasts
d. rocky cliff coasts

9.    Which of the following determines how large waves will be as they form?
a.    wave celerity
b.    fetch
c.    wave orbitals
d.    wave height

10. When we say a barrier is prograding, we mean the island is:
a. getting bigger
b. becoming smaller
c. not changing
d. getting flatter

11. This type of barrier is characterized by fixed inlets:
a. drumstick barrier island
b. spit barrier complex

12. Human modifications of barrier islands that least affects the longshore
transport of sand that maintains the islands are:
a. beach nourishment
b. groins
c. jetties
d. none of the above

13. This features represents the best example of a natural “bridge” created by
coastal processes:
a. stack
b. abrasion platform
c. flood tidal delta
d. sea arch

14. Which of the following shore protection features runs parallel to the shoreline?
a. seawall
b. breakwater
c. beach nourishment
d. none of the above

15. Which of the following delta types is characterized by lobes forming over
a. tidal-dominated
b. wave-dominated
c. river-dominated

16. Sea level rise worldwide right now averages how fast per year?
a. 10 cm per year
b. 5 mm per year
c. 2 mm per year
d. 2 ft per year

17. Spit barrier island systems are characterized by which of the following?
a. stable and permanent inlets
b. marsh-choked lagoons
c. by a headland as a source of sand
d. none of the above

18. In gravity waves, the initiating force is:
a. centrifugal
b. tidal
c. wind

19. The primary tidal force is:
a. centrifugal force
b. gravitational force of the sun
c. gravitational force of the moon
d. none of the above

20. The relatively slow rate of sea level rise along the Maine coast reflects:
a. plate tectonics
b. postglacial rebound

21. Which of the following marsh plants can also form coastal dunes?
a. Phragmites australis
b. Uniola sp.
c. Spartina patens
d. Spartina alterniflora

22. The youngest dune on a barrier island that is characterized by more than one
dune system is the one _________ the ocean shoreline:
a. closest to
b. farthest away from

23. Which part of a sandy beach actually changes in width to produce seasonal
changes in beach width?
a. abrasion platform
b. foreshore
c. backshore
d. dune line

24. The process where sand moves across the subaerial part of a barrier to the
lagoon side of the island through a breach in the dunes:
a. inlet creation
b. wave set up
c. overwash
d. blowout

25. The Barrier Island Resources Act of 1982 says:
a. all barrier island development will no longer be eligible for flood insurance
b. existing barrier island development will be excluded from federal flood
insurance, but new development will be covered by federal flood insurance
c. barrier islands can’t be purchased for further development
d. none of the above

26. On rocky cliff coasts, change in the shoreline usually begins with what
a. wave erosion
b. weathering
c. tidal changes
d. tidal prism changes

27. As was discussed in class, these types of beaches are common in the British
a. sandy
b. mud
c. coral sand
d. shingle

28. Which of the following types of beaches is likely to reflect wave power and
be more vulnerable to erosion?
a. a beach that is steep in profile
b. a beach that is gentle in profile
29. In a hypersynchronous estuary, the tide _______ in height up the estuary.
a. decreases
b. doesn’t change
c. increases
d. none of the above

30. A seawall may cause beaches in front of it to:
a. prograde
b. erode
c. detach and become barrier islands
d. rise in height above mean tide level

31. In low cliff coasts, the intertdal zone is:
a. very wide
b. very narrow

32. Downdrift of a jetty or groin field what generally happens:
a. the beach begins to prograde
b. the dune line migrates in response to increased sand supply
c. the beaches become sand starved
d. the beaches widen

33. Wave power is the mass (size) of the wave times its:
a. wavelength
b. wave base
c. wave steepness
d. speed or velocity

34. As noted in lecture and the Davis text, the best example of a successful beach
nourishment project along the U. S. Atlantic Coast is:
a. Ocean City
b. Outer Banks
c. Hilton Head
d. Miami Beach

35. A small isolated island-like feature often found seaward of rocky cliff coasts:
a. sea arch
b. ebb tidal delta
c. stack
d. coral reefs

36. If you were trying to protect a coast from major wave damage from storms,
which of the following shore protection features would be the best bet?
a. groins
b. bulkheads
c. breakwater
d. seawall

37. Why are rates of shore erosion greater for protected coasts like Chesapeake
Bay than for the open coast like Assateague Island?
a. no long period swell in protected coasts
b. bigger waves in protected coasts
c. larger fetch in protected coasts
d. all of the above

38. Which type of beach is more likely to reflect more wave energy and erode
a. a beach where the shore profile is steep
b. a beach where the shore profile is gentle

39. These features are major channels conveying water and sediment across the
deltaic plain:
a. crevasse splays
b. distributaries
c. levees
d. tidal creeks
40. Which barrier migration process with sea level rise does not characterize short
stubby drumstick barrier islands?
a. overwash
b. new inlet formation

41. Which of the following shore modification structures is less likely to stop the
flow of sand along a sandy coast, at least for a while?
a. jetty
b. offshore breakwater
c. groins
d. none of the above

42. What is the principal reason seawalls are built along the coast?
a. to maintain and widen the beach
b. to stop all coastal flooding from storms
c. to stop wave damage to landward structures
d. to cause sand to accumulate at the shore

43. When oscillatory deep ocean waves begin to touch the sea bottom, which of
the following happens?
a. the wavelength becomes longer
b. the wave orbitals become more circular
c. the wave period gets shorter
d. none of the above

44. Leading edge continental margins are also known as:
a. passive continental margins
b. wave reflective coasts
c. wave dissipative coasts
d. none of the above

45. The reason tides are different in time throughout the Atlantic Ocean is due to:
a. the difference in the gravitational of the moon and sun throughout the month on
the water envelope
b. the centrifugal force of the sun’s pull
c. the amphidromic system
d. changes in how close the moon is to the earth

46. In early summer there is often a sharp little cliff-like feature on the backshore
showing where winter storms eroded sand. This feature is generally trampled on
and disappears on beaches with human activity. The feature is:
a. a bar
b. a berm
c. duneline
d. foreshore

47. Which of the following is true of the Bay of the Fundy?
a. mesotidal
b. microtidal
c. hyposynchronous
d. tidal bore

48. In the Northern Hemisphere, sea levels are highest at what time of year
(remember the connection between sea level and seasons)?
a. late summer
b. spring
c. winter
d. fall

49. Before the beginning of environmental controls, the greatest human impacts on
coastal dunes were from:
a. beach volley ball
b. berry pickers
c. off road vehicles
d. island ponies

50. A drift divide along a spit barrier island system along the U. S. Atlantic Coast
is where:

a. the sand from the eroding headland moves south in summer from waves out of
the southeast
b. the sand from the eroding headland moves north during winter from waves out
the northeast
c. the sand moves south during winter, and north during summer
d. none of the above

51. The distance from the trough of the wave to its crest:
a. wave height
b. wavelength
c. wave base
d. wave celerity

52. The plant species that characterizes the low marsh of a true salt marsh:
a. Spartina alterniflora
b. Spartina patens
c. Phragemites australis
d. Juncus roemerianus

53. Postglacial rebound in the coast of Maine makes rates of sea level rise
_________ there than in Chesapeake Bay.
a. faster
b. slower

54. Sea floor spreading is due to which type of plate boundary?
a. subduction zones
b. collision coasts
c. trailing edge continental margins
d. mid-oceanic ridges

55. This part of littoral drift operates day-to-day from the inswash and backswash
of incoming waves:
a. longshore drift
b. rip currents
c. beach drift
d. adrift

56. A jetty is a ______ type of shore modification.
a. shore parallel
b. shore normal

57. With a seawall, what kind of wave process could we expect as the wave
impacts it?
a. diffraction
b. refraction
c. reflection

58. If more sediment moves seaward than landward due to the tides, we say that
the tidal cycle is:
a. flood-dominated
b. ebb-dominated

59. Which of the following plants is the primary plant forming dunes along the U.
S. middle Atlantic Coast and farther north?
a. Spartina patens
b. Ammophila
c. Uniola

60. If barrier islands keep up with sea level rise, and continue to migrate, what will
ultimately happen to them?
a. become a bar system
b. become a dune system
c. become a mainland beach

61. If we look at delta environments, where could you expect to find all the
a. prodelta
b. distributaries
c. deltaic plain

62. The main way spit barrier islands migrate landward is by:
a. inlet creation
b. overwash
c. storm surges

63. Shingle beaches are composed of:
a. sand
b. mud
c. gravel
d. boulders

64. Beach nourishment:
a. is a soft shore modification feature
b. can be very temporary depending on storms
c. is used to maintain the width of the beach
d. all of the above

65. The Ganges is a:
a. wave-dominated delta
b. tide-dominated delta
c. river-dominated delta

66. Which of the following estuary types would likely have a very sharp zone
where incoming river sediments are deposited?
a. salt wedge
b. fully mixed
c. partially mixed
d. absolutely mixed

67. Which wave process makes nor’easters such powerful storms with respect to
coastal flooding and erosion?
a. storm surge
b. wave setup
c. wave refraction
d. wave diffraction

68. The Georgia coast is ______ coast in terms of tidal range.
a. microtidal
b. mesotidal
c. macrotidal

69. When deep ocean waves come onshore and touch bottom, what happens to the
wave orbitals?
a. they get bigger
b. they more circular
c. they start to flatten
d. they start bouncing

70. The fate of all estuaries is to become ______ if sea level stops rising and river
sediments keep coming in.
a. barrier islands
b. deltas
c. beaches
d. none of the above


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