1. When an excitatory neurotransmitter binds to its receptor
a. voltage-gated Na+ channels open.
b. voltage-gated K+ channels open.
c. chemically-gated Na+ channels open.
d. None of these answers.
2. Temporal summation takes place when
a. two EPSPs from the same presynaptic input occur so closely together in time that
they add together or sum.
b. an EPSP and an IPSP occur simultaneously in time and cancel each other out.
c. two EPSPs that occur simultaneously from different presynaptic inputs add
together or sum.
d. action potentials occurring in two presynaptic inputs simultaneously converge
upon the postsynaptic cell, initiating two different action potentials in the postsynaptic
3. In convergence,
a. thousands of synapses from many different presynaptic cells end upon a single
b. the axon of a nerve cell branches so that the activity in one neuron influences
many other cells.
c. the dendrites all converge upon the cell body.
d. All of these answers.
4. Which component of the nervous system is comprised of sympathetic and parasympathetic
a. central nervous system.
b. somatic nervous system.
c. autonomic nervous system.
d. afferent division.
5. The arachnoid mater is
a. the innermost meningeal layer.
b. a delicate, richly vascularized meningeal layer that is "cobwebby" in appearance.
c. a tough, inelastic membrane that covers the central nervous system.
d. involved with the formation of cerebrospinal fluid.
6. Cerebrospinal fluid
a. is formed by the choroid plexuses.
b. is formed by the arachnoid villi.
c. separates the blood and brain to form the blood-brain barrier.
d. None of the above
7. The outer most meninge is the
a. arachnoid mater
b. dura mater
c. dural sinus
d. pia mater
8. The left cerebral hemisphere normally excels in all of the following except
a. musical ability.
b. verbal tasks.
c. math skills.
d. language ability.
9. Parkinson's disease is
a. associated with a deficiency of serotonin.
b. characterized by an intention tremor.
c. characterized by a resting tremor.
d. Both (a) and (c) above.
10. A deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the basal nuclei causes
c. Parkinson's disease.
11. What part of the brain plays a vital role in short-term memory involving the integration of
various related stimuli and is also crucial for consolidation into long-term memory?
b. basal nuclei
d. cerebral cortex
12. Which sensory tract transmits conscious sensory impulse regarding 'fine discriminative
a. dorsal columns.
b. fasciculus gracilis.
c. lateral spinothalamic.
13. Which of the following statements concerning the spinal cord is incorrect?
a. afferent fibers enter the spinal cord through the ventral root.
b. the dorsal and ventral roots at each level of the spinal cord join to form a spinal
c. the ventral horn contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons that supply
d. the white matter of the spinal cord is organized into ascending and descending
14. In somatosensory pathways where do first-order neurons synapse with second-order neurons
a. dorsal root.
b. medulla oblongata.
c Both (a) and (b) above.
d. None of the above
15 .Which of the following structures normally controls the amount of light entering the eye?
a. ciliary muscle.
b. suspensory ligaments.
16. The retina
a. is the middle layer of the eye.
b. contains the photoreceptors.
c. becomes specialized anteriorly to form the cornea.
d. secretes the aqueous humor.
17. The first structure to intercept light as it enters the eye is the
a. aqueous humor.
18. Which of the following helps reduce internal reflection (scattering of light within the eye)?
c. blind spot.
19. During accommodation (focusing) for near vision, the
a. ciliary muscle does not contract.
b. lens becomes more convex.
c. suspensory ligaments become less taut.
d. Both (b) and (c) above.
20. The blind spot
a. is the point on the retina at which the optic nerve leaves and blood vessels pass
b. contains no rods or cones.
c. is near the fovea
d. All of these answers.
a. are more sensitive to light than cones.
b. have low acuity.
c. provide vision in shades of gray.
d. All of these answers.
22. The tympanic membrane
a. vibrates when struck by sound waves.
b. contains the organ of Corti.
c. produces ear wax.
d. is connected to the cochlear.
23 .The hair cells for hearing are located in the
b. eustachian tube.
24. Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
a. arise from the ganglion chain located along either side of the spinal cord.
b. release acetylcholine.
c. secrete noradrenaline.
d. Both (a) and (b) above.
25. .All of the following release acetylcholine except
a. sympathetic preganglionic fibers.
b. parasympathetic preganglionic fibers.
c. sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
d. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers.
26. The sympathetic nervous system
a. is part of the autonomic nervous system.
b. has cholinergic preganglionic and adrenergic postganglionic fibers.
c. originates in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
d. All of these answers
27. Surgical anaesthesia is when the patient is at the following Stage and Level:
a. Stage 1, Level 2
b. Stage 2, Level 1
c. Stage 3, Level 3
d. Stage 4 Level 2
28. Which of the following is not associated with an ideal general anaesthetic
c. low therapeutic index
d. rapid recovery
29. Stage 4 of general anaesthesia is associated with
(a) the induction of anaesthesia
(b) surgical anaesthesia
(c) medullary depression
(d) oscillating with periods of deep breathing separated by quiescent periods
30. If ATROPINE is administered before an operation the patient should have a decreased risk of
(a) experiencing strong pain on recovering consciousness
(b) dying from anaesthetic-induced hypertension
(c) suffering from a dry mouth after the operation
(d) choking on bronchial secretions
31. Neostigmine may be used as a post-operative drug to
(a) prevent development of malignant hyperthermia while under anaesthesia
(b) inhibit anaesthetic-induced nausea
(c) reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
(d) potentiate the actions of the general anaesthetic
32. Which of the following statements concerning local anaesthetics is incorrect
a. They block Na channels
b. They preferentially block myelinated neurons
c. They may be used in epidural anaesthesia
d. They can be injected at the site where nerve block is required
33. Which of the following is not a chemical mediator of inflammation.
34. Which of the following are NOT therapeutically beneficial uses of opioids?
a. analgesia and euphoria for tolerance of chronic pain
b. respiratory depression for hyperventilation
c. constipation for treatment of diarrhoea
d. suppression of the cough reflex for a dry unproductive cough.
35. Allopurinol is useful in the treatment of gout because it:
a. increases the excretion of uric acid
b. inhibits the synthesis of uric acid
c. reduces migration of leukocytes into joints
d. reduces the production of inflammatory compounds that cause discomfort.
36. A useful drug to reduce the level of joint inflammation and suppress the immune responses in
rheumatoid arthritis is:
37. Which of the following is NOT an effect resulting from acetylcholine (ACh) stimulating
(a) increased acid secretion in the stomach.
(b) secretion by mucous glands.
(c) contraction of skeletal muscle.
(d) decreased heart rate.
38. Which of the following results after activation of beta 2 receptors
(a) increased gastrointestinal motility
(b) increased acid secretion
(c) increased cognition
39. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in the central control of both motor co-
ordination and behaviour
40. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in mediating the symptoms of allergy /
PART B QUESTIONS
1. What are the ions responsible for the development of EPSP’s and
2. What is dangerous about Stage 4 of General Anaesthesia
3. What is a clinical use of an Opioid antagonist
4. (i) Describe the location of β1 receptors
(ii) Describe the physiological effects following β1 receptor activation