Take Home Exam for Final Study
1. Which one of the following is true of the influenza virus?
A. Transmission usually occurs by water contamination
B. The virion has no protein associated with it
C. The virion has no envelope
D. The virion undergoes antigenic variations
2. Guillain-Barré syndrome and Reye's syndrome are both
A. accompanied by massive amounts of virus in the brain tissue.
B. associated with influenza viruses.
C. due to adenoviruses.
D. viral diseases of the skin.
3. Studies performed in the 1980s suggested a link between
A. measles and orchitis in men.
B. Kawasaki disease and genital warts.
C. ethylene oxide and relief from influenza.
D. aspirin and Reye's syndrome.
4. Viruses that have spikes on their envelopes and contain both hemagglutinin and
neuraminidase and cause
D. the common cold.
5. A major change in hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens is called
A. antigenic drift.
B. Reye's syndrome.
C. antigenic shift.
6. The prospects for developing a vaccine for the common cold are not promising
A. viruses cannot be cultivated in tissue culture medium.
B. many different viruses can cause the common cold.
C. funds for this type of research are not available.
D. there would be virtually no candidates for such a vaccine.
7. All the following characteristics apply to the rhinoviruses except
A. they are DNA viruses with helical symmetry.
B. they belong to the Picornaviridae family of viruses.
C. they take their name from the Greek rhinos meaning nose.
D. they can cause head colds.
8. Which one of the following applies to the adenoviruses?
A. One type causes an eye inflammation called pharyngoconjunctivitis.
B. The viruses are involved in liver diseases.
C. Most adenoviruses are transmitted by contaminated arthropods.
D. They are composed of RNA.
9. When adenovirus multiplies in the nucleus of an infected cell, it produces
A. skin lesions called vesicles.
B. visible nuclear granules called inclusions.
C. nuclear changes called fomites.
D. Koplik spots.
10. The respiratory syncytial virus takes its name from the
A. formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells.
B. involvement of the liver tissue.
C. lysis of the red blood cells, which accompanies the disease.
D. involvement of the nervous system.
1. All the following apply to AIDS except
A. the disease is caused by a retrovirus.
B. the immune system is affected in the disease.
C. opportunistic diseases accompany HIV infection.
D. transmission usually occurs by contaminated food and water.
2. All of the following are used to treat HIV infections except
C. protease inhibitors.
D. fusion inhibitors, which work by blocking receptor recognition to the surface of
CD4+ T cells.
3. The retrovirus that leads to AIDS
A. has no envelope.
B. contains RNA in its genome.
C. uses reverse transcriptase to convert DNA to RNA.
D. multiplies only within the brain cells of the body.
4. Which one of the following symptoms is not associated with HIV infection?
A. headache, tiredness
B. Low-grade fever that remains for weeks or months at a time
C. enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and groin
D. Painful ulcers of the gastrointestinal tract
5. Damaged lymph nodes and tissues, and opportunistic illnesses are characteristic of
A. CMV disease.
B. hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
C. HIV infections.
D. Marburg disease.
6. Vaccines are available for all of the following diseases except
A. yellow fever.
D. D. polio
7. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus. Another condition caused
by this virus is
A. cytomegalovirus disease.
B. Lyme arthritis.
C. serum hepatitis.
D. Burkitt's lymphoma.
8. A viral disease that may be transmitted by saliva is
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. Dengue fever.
C. Cocksackie virus disease.
D. West Nile virus.
9. In the monospot test, is used to detect heterophile antibodies for
A. Downey cells.
B. mononucleosis virus.
C. Ebola virus.
D. Negri bodies.
10. Cytomegaloviruses pose a threat to pregnant women because they
A. rob the body of important nutrients.
B. pass across the placenta and damage fetal tissues.
C. are resistant to most antibiotics used for viral diseases.
D. interrupt the normal digestive patterns.
11. The cytomegalovirus is so-named from the
A. enlarged cells in infected tissues.
B. large size of the virus.
C. presence of cellular inclusions in the viral genome.
D. large number of capsomeres in the viral capsid.
12. The TORCH group of diseases refers to congenital infections. The letter and disease
A. “C” for Colorado tick fever.
B. “C” for cytomegalovirus disease.
C. “C” for Cocksackie virus disease.
D. “H” for hepatitis.
13. A vaccine is currently available for use against
A. cytomegalovirus disease but not Lassa fever.
B. Colorado tick fever but not Rift Valley fever.
C. infectious mononucleosis but not Lassa fever.
D. hepatitis B but not hepatitis C.
14. The modes of transmission of HIV are very similar to those observed for
A. infectious hepatitis.
B. hepatitis B.
C. echovirus disease such as exanthema.
D. measles and rubella.
15. Detection of hepatitis B in blood is aided by
A. identification of hepatitis B surface antigens.
B. observation of foreign cell membranes in the blood.
C. demonstration of Downey cells.
D. development of Koplik spots.
16. The reason hepatitis C infections are often misdiagnosed is because
A. early symptoms are clear but patients ignore them.
B. symptoms develop slowly.
C. the symptoms are often confused with hepatitis B.
D. the symptoms are often confused with HIV infections.
17. You are a health care worker who is planning to work with hepatitis B patients. You
should be immunized against hepatitis B if you
A. are younger than 21.
B. are older than 21.
C. don’t need to be immunized as long as you don’t come in contact with patients blood.
D. are of any age.
18. Yellow fever is so-named because
A. it is accompanied by substantial jaundice.
B. it is transmitted by a yellow mosquito.
C. the virus appears yellow when observed under the electron microscope.
D. the virus produces fever blisters containing a yellow fluid.
19. Yellow fever was the first human disease associated with a virus. This was found in
1901 by an American group led by
A. J. R. Downey
B. Walter Reed
C. Ronald Valdiserri
D. Robert Thom
20. A woman with a fluctuating fever comes to a physician. She says that every bone in
her body feels like it's breaking. Of the following, the patient is likely to be suffering
A. dengue fever.
C. West Nile encephalitis.
D. Lyme arthritis.
21. In the summer of 1993, a brief epidemic occurred among residents of the
southwestern United States. The deer mouse is the host for the virus, which shed the virus
in saliva, urine, and feces. What was the cause of this outbreak?
A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
B. Sandfly fever
C. Rift valley fever
D. Hanta virus
16. Many grains, peanuts, and hay can become contaminated with fungi that produce
powerful toxins called aflatoxins. These toxins are produced by
A. Aspergillus flavus.
B. Aspergillus fumigatus.
C. Sporothrix schenckii.
D. Candida albicans.
17. The common bread mold Rhizopus stolonifer is a member of the phylum
21. If a sexual cycle has not been identified in the fungus, it is classified in the phylum
22. Cryphonectria parasitica, is primarily a disease of
A. the lungs.
B. soldiers and other military personnel.
C. the winter months.
D. oak trees and grape vines.
27. Dermatophytosis refers to fungal disease
A. that resists antibiotic treatment.
B. of the hair, skin and nails.
C. that spreads to the internal organs.
D. that accompanies predisposing factors.
28. A mixture of benzoic acid and salicylic acid called Whitfield's ointment is used in the
29. Tinea diseases are dermatophytoses caused by several different genera of fungi. Each
of the following is identified in this chapter as causing tinea except
30. Candida albicans infection of the intestine may occur as a result of
A. excessive intake of alcoholic beverages.
B. overuse of antibiotics.
C. overgrowth of certain bacteria in the intestine.
D. production of fungal toxins.
31. Nystatin is
A. a supplement added to fungal growth media.
B. an antifungal agent used to treat candidiasis.
C. a toxin produced during the growth of Claviceps purpurea.
D. None of the above (A-C) is correct.
32. The “yeast disease” in humans usually refers to
A. a form of coccidioidomycosis.
B. the infection due to Candida albicans.
C. infection with Saccharomyces ellipsoideus.
D. an untreatable and usually fatal fungal infection.
33. Which one of the following is not associated with Candida albicans?
D. All the above are correct
34. Some fungal diseases are caused by an organism that is normally found in the human
intestine. This “opportunistic” pathogen is
A. Cryptococcus neoformans.
B. Sporothrix schenkii.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Ajellomyces dermatitidis.
35. A patient with a venereal disease goes to her gynecologist. She has pruritis, a whitish
“cheesy” discharge, and burning internal pain. The physician's diagnosis probably is
B. yeast disease.
D. Darling's disease.
36. Resistance to cryptococcosis and candidiasis appears to depend on
A. the intake of high-carbohydrate foods.
B. continual presence of rotaviruses in the intestine.
C. proper functioning of the T lymphocytes.
D. the level of protein in the diet.
37. Which one of the following applies to the fungus Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. The organism belongs to the phylum Ascomycota
B. The organism grows in the droppings of pigeons
C. The organism is an anaerobic fungus
D. The organism is normally found in the human intestine
38. The drug often used to treat cryptococcosis is
A. amphotericin B.
B. gentian violet.
39. Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of
A. the lungs.
B. soldiers and other military personnel.
C. the winter months.
D. oak trees and grape vines.
40. Pneumocystis jiroveci was formerly a member of the
A. kingdom Monera.
B. kingdom Protista.
C. kingdom Plantae.
41. Aspergillus fumigatus causes several diseases. If the spores of this organism become
localized in earwax, hyphae may invade the auditory canal. This condition is referred to
1. The “world's most urgent public health problem” is
A. sleeping sickness.
2. Protozoa take their name from two Greek words that translate to
11. Cases of leishmaniasis may be characterized by
A. disruption of intestinal functions.
B. infection of the body's white blood cells.
D. deep intestinal ulcers.
12. All the following apply to leishmaniasis except
A. one form looks like a volcano with a raised edge and central crater
B. infection of the body's white blood cells occurs.
C. transmission is by the sandfly Phlebotomus.
D. one form is a neurological disease.
13. Sandflies transmit several diseases. One of these is protozoal in origin and is caused
A. Leishmania donovani.
B. Babesia microti.
C. Trypanosoma brucei.
D. Toxoplasma gondii.
14. A distinguishing feature of cases of amoebiasis is
A. severe anemia due to loss of red blood cells.
B. intestinal ulcers.
C. interference with reproductive functions in the victim.
D. deterioration of the mental capacity.
15. Cyst formation by certain protozoa permits
A. survival in the arthropod vector.
B. enhanced reproduction by the protozoan.
C. passage through the stomach acid and other environmental stresses.
D. using of carbon dioxide as an energy source.
16. Repeated attacks of amoebiasis may occur because
A. there are no effective treatments.
B. the body's immune system does not respond.
C. the protozoa remain in the body as cysts.
D. diagnostic methods are very poor.
17. An amoeba produces a disease of the intestines that begins with watery stools but, if
untreated, will cause bloody stools to develop as digestion of the tissue by the organism
reaches the underlying blood vessels. This disease is
D. African trypanosomiasis.
18. Recent cases of giardiasis have been traced to
A. infected triatomid bugs.
B. infected mosquitoes.
C. contaminated water supplies.
D. canned foods.
19. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of giardiasis?
A. It is caused by a flagellated protozoan
B. Diarrhea is a notable sign
C. it is the most commonly detected protozoal disease of the intestinal tract in the United
D. Transmission occurs by tick bites
20. The protozoal disease cryptosporidiosis is severe in individuals who
A. eat raw beef.
B. have an accompanying case of measles.
C. have a suppressed immune system.
D. eat raw pork.
21. Cyclosporiasis is characterized by all of the following except
A. symptoms last for over a month.
B. food responsible for the infection generally has been thrown away.
C. the incubation period is a matter of a few hours.
D. symptoms include abdominal cramping, bloating and vomiting.
22. A sexually transmitted protozoal disease is
A. African trypanosomiasis.
C. American trypanosomiasis.
23. The malaria attack coincides with
A. the bite of the mosquito.
B. entry of the parasites to the liver.
C. the release of parasites from infected red blood cells.
D. destruction of the spleen in the body.
24. The sporozoite, merozoite, and gametocyte are all stages of
A. the ciliate that causes balantidiasis.
B. the amoeba that causes PAM.
C. the arthropod that transmits babesiosis.
D. Plasmodium that invades red blood cells.
25. Quinine is effective in the treatment of disease caused by members of the genus
26. The triatomid bug is best known as the
A. vector of South American sleeping sickness (Chagas).
B. insect that harbors Balantidium species.
C. arthropod that transmits toxoplasmosis.
D. mosquito that carries malaria.
27. Epidemics of African trypanosomiasis may be controlled by
A. eliminating infestations of tsetse flies.
B. treating infections in pigs.
C. filtering the local water supplies.
D. cooking beef thoroughly before cooking.
28. A man comes to his physician complaining of drowsiness and a desire to sleep. He is
suffering from tremors. He has just returned from Central Africa. His physician believes
that he may be suffering from a disease caused by Trypanosoma brucei, variety
gambiense. If so, he has been bitten by a
C. triatomid bug.
D. tsetse fly.
29. Which of the following is not a form of malaria?
A. Plasmodium falciparum.
B. Plasmodium brucei.
C. Plasmodium malariae.
D. Plasmodium vivax.
31. Two important means for contracting toxoplasmosis are
A. inhaling protozoa and an arthropod bite.
B. an arthropod bite and consuming rare beef.
C. consuming rare beef and contact with a cat.
D. contact with a cat and inhaling protozoa.
32. This protozoan can cause serious problems if a pregnant woman becomes infected.
The fetus may become infected because the parasites pass across the placenta. They may
cause brain and eye damage, lesions of the visceral organs, or spontaneous abortion. This
A. Toxoplasma gondii.
B. Trypanosoma brucei.
C. Trypanosoma cruzi.
D. Trichomonas vaginalis.
33. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is generally associated with
A. an amoeba of the genus Naegleria.
B. a ciliate of the class Apicomplexa.
C. a ciliate of the genus Plasmodium.
D. a protozoan transmitted by ticks. Ans: A
34. Which of the following are considered helminthes?
D. all of the above are correct
35. Which of the following are considered round worms?
D. all of the above are correct
36. Schistosomiasis is a blood fluke that can be "caught" from
A. walking barefoot in the garden
B. swimming in contaminated water
C. eating improperly cooked meat
D. eating snails
37. Which of the following statements about Echinococcus granulosus is correct?
A. the definitive host is the dog and the intermediate host is a man
B. the definitive host is the man and the intermediate host is a dog
C. the definitive host is the dog and the intermediate host is a cat
D. the definitive host is the man and the intermediate host is a cat
38. What is the outcome if pinworms are not treated?
A. the worm load increases until the intestines are blocked
B. the patient will continue to have anal itching for months to years
C. the patient becomes anemic and listless and runs a low grade fever
D. even without medication, the worms will die in a few weeks and the infections
disappears if reinfection is prevented
39. Where can we pick up trichinosis?
A. the anal area itches intensely and scratching contaminates the hands and bed linens
B. you can pick it up from picking up dog poop in the yard or playing with your dog
C. when raw or poorly cooked pork is consumed
D. you can get it from swimming in contaminated waters
41. Which of the following diseases can be picked up with barefeet in infected soil in
warm, wet climates?
42. Which of the following organisms is responsible for the disease called elephantiasis
because of the gross swelling of lymphatic tissues?
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Trichinella spiralis
Chapter: Chapter 18
1. An epidemic disease is one that
A. breaks out in explosive proportions in a population.
B. remains dormant in populations.
C. follows a primary infection.
D. is transmitted solely by arthropods.
2. A scientist who studies the pattern of disease in a community and attempts to locate its
source is called a(n)
3. What specific job is this person fulfilling? She isolates the cause of an outbreak,
prevents its spread, and gets out public health messages to people who could have been
D. Public health inspector
4. The relationship between the body and its microbiota
A. usually leads to parasitism
B. is never beneficial to either.
C. generally has a negative tone.
D. is an example of a symbiosis.
5. Which of the following is considered a new emerging infectious disease?
6. Which of the following is an example of indigenous microbiota?
A. Escherichia coli in the intestines
B. Candida albicans in the intestines
C. Lactobacillus in the human vagina
D. All of the above are correct
7. Normal flora may be found in all the following environments except
A. the blood.
B. the pharynx.
C. the vagina.
D. the upper respiratory tract.
8. The virulence of an organism may be enhanced by all the following except
A. its ability to produce exotoxins.
B. its ability to overcome body defenses.
C. its ability to spread through the tissues.
D. its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media.
9. Certain microorganisms inhabit parts of the body without causing symptoms of
disease. These organisms collectively are referred to as
A. the microbiota
C. the avirulent pathogens
10. The degree to which an organism is able to cause disease is referred to as its
11. Pathogenicity islands refer to
A. pathogens in biofilm aggregations.
B. clusters of genes responsible for virulence.
C. areas of the body prone to infection.
D. areas within a reservoir where pathogens can be found.
12. An example of opportunistic organisms are those that
A. cause typhoid fever.
B. inhabit the intestine but are incapable of causing disease.
C. inhabit the lungs and cause disease when body defenses are suppressed.
D. require an intermediary host.
13. The organisms that infect individuals with AIDS
A. are all known to be serious pathogens.
B. have a high degree of virulence.
C. produce exotoxins as well as endotoxins.
D. are examples of opportunistic organisms.
14. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a soil organism. Every time we eat a fresh salad, we
consume millions of these organisms. They usually do us no harm. However, these same
organisms can cause serious infection in persons who have been severely burned. Such a
pathogen is called
15. Pneumocystis pneumonia in an AIDS patient would be considered a(n)
A. communicable disease.
B. genetic disease.
C. primary disease.
D. secondary disease.
16. Such factors as the number of parasites, their generation time and virulence, and the
level of host resistance can influence
A. hemolysin and leukocidin production.
B. the incubation period for a disease.
C. whether an organism produces exotoxins.
D. whether a disease is local or systemic.
17. Chronic diseases are those that
A. develop rapidly and come to a climax.
B. linger for long periods of time.
C. occur in epidemic proportions.
D. require an intermediary host.
18. In the prodromal phase, symptoms
A. are at their height.
B. may include nausea, fever, and headache.
C. have begun to disappear.
D. have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease.
19. A disease that develops rapidly, shows substantial symptoms, comes to a climax, and
then fades, is a(n)
A. acute disease.
B. prodromal disease.
C. systemic disease.
D. chronic disease.
20. The period of a disease during which the symptoms subside is often referred to as the
A. period of decline.
B. period of convalescence.
C. prodromal phase.
D. acme period.
21. Tetanus will not occur in the tissue of the small intestine because
A. the organisms do not produce toxins in this area.
B. the body's white blood cells are particularly active.
C. lymph does not flow through the intestine.
D. the portal of entry for the tetanus spores was incorrect.
22. Which of the following are adhesins?
23. Invasiveness refers to the ability of a parasite to
A. produce aggressive factors.
B. add to its virulence by transduction.
C. penetrate tissues and cause structural damage.
D. convert toxins to toxoids.
24. The organisms of botulism, tetanus, and diphtheria are distinguished by their
A. production of spores.
B. ability to produce coagulase.
C. production of exotoxins.
D. growth in anaerobic environments.
25. An important effect of hemolysins is
A. destruction of phagocytes in the blood.
B. endotoxin shock.
D. lysis of neutrophils and lymphocytes.