Explanations for GMAT_Book_Verbal_Advanced_Practice by rahulspurohit1

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EXPLANATIONS FOR APC
SET 1


1.      C
The original sentence supplies the plural verb construction “have risen” for the
singular subject “price.” Further, the phrase “have risen and will continue to
rise” is redundant. Finally, the original sentence uses the plural pronoun “their”
to refer to the singular subject “management.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This answer corrects the pronoun issue, but suffers from the lack of
agreement between the subject “the price” and the verb “have risen.” This
answer choice also retains the redundant and wordy construction “have risen
and will continue to rise.”
(C) CORRECT. This answer replaces the redundant construction “have risen
and will continue to rise” with the more concise “will continue to rise.” This
change is possible without any loss of content, since using “will continue to
rise” already implies that the price of oil and fuel components has been
increasing to date. Further, this modification resolves the subject-verb
agreement issue in the original sentence. Finally, this answer choice replaces
the plural pronoun “their” with the article “the,” thus remedying the original lack
of agreement between the noun “management” and pronoun “their.”
(D) While supplying the appropriate singular verb “has risen” for the singular
subject “the price,” this choice is wordy and retains the incorrect pronoun
“their” from the original sentence.
(E) While resolving the issues of redundancy and subject-verb agreement,
this answer uses the plural pronoun “their” to refer to the singular noun
“management."




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2.     D


The subject of the sentence is "one of the most problematic ethnic groups", a
singular noun. The verb, however, is "were," which is plural. We need to find a
choice that uses a singular verb instead.
(A) This choice is the same as the original sentence.
(B) This choice does not correct the subject-verb issue; it still uses "were" to
refer to "group."
(C) This choice uses the singular "was," but the simple past is not the
appropriate tense here because of the ongoing nature of the problem.
Moreover, "the reunified Germany's most problematic ethnic groups" is an
awkward construction.
(D) CORRECT. This choice uses the singular "has been," which is also in the
present perfect tense, indicating the ongoing nature of the problem. Moreover,
"in terms of cultural and economic assimilation" is a more idiomatic and
elegant phrasing than that of the original.
(E) This choice does not correct the subject-verb issue; it uses "have been" to
refer to "group."




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3.     E
The original sentence contains several errors. First, the opening modifier
"given its authoritative coverage of other science topics" describes the
textbook as a whole, yet the subject of the main clause is "the textbook's
chapter on genetics." Second, the relative pronoun "which" is used here to
modify the entire clause "the textbook's chapter on genetics is surprisingly
tentative." "Which" must modify the immediately preceding noun only; it
cannot modify the action of an entire clause, as it does here.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifier issue is not corrected here, since "the chapter" remains the
subject of the main clause (as opposed to "the textbook"). However, this
choice does correct the misuse of "which" by replacing it with "leading."
(C) The modifier issue is corrected here by making "the textbook" the subject
of the main clause. However, the misuse of "which" is retained. The relative
pronoun "which" is used here to modify the entire clause "the textbook's
chapter on genetics is surprisingly tentative." "Which" must modify the
immediately preceding noun only; it cannot modify the action of an entire
clause, as it does here.
Also, the phrase "surprising and tentative" implies that the chapter on
genetics is both "surprising" and "tentative," two characteristics that
are independent of one another. However, it is clear in the original
sentence that "surprisingly" is meant to be an adverb that modifies the
adjective "tentative." The chapter is "suprisingly tentative," not
"suprising and tentative."
(D) The modifier issue is not corrected here, since "the textbook's chapter" is
the subject of the main clause (as opposed to "the textbook").
Moreover, the verb "leads" is incorrectly parallel with "is" when it
should be subordinate (e.g., "leading"). This makes it less clear that
doubting the author's scholarship is a result of the tentativeness of the
chapter on genetics.
(E) CORRECT. The modifier issue is corrected here by making "the textbook"
the subject of the main clause. Moreover, "which" is replaced by "leading,"
thus eliminating the incorrect use of "which" while preserving the meaning of
the sentence.


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4.     A
The original is correct. The equivalent elements, “that growth had
accelerated...” and “that the policy makers remain...,” are parallel clauses
beginning with "that." The verb tenses are also correct; the action that
occurred in the most distant past (“had picked up pace”) uses the past perfect;
the later past event (“statement also said”) uses the simple past. Also, “few” is
correct, since it modifies the quantifiable noun "signs."
(A) CORRECT. This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice is not parallel; "that" is required before “growth had
accelerated...” to make it parallel to “that the policy makers remain..."
(C) This choice is not parallel; “that growth had accelerated...” is not parallel to
“the policy makers remain...” Moreover, “little” is incorrect; since “signs” are
countable, “few” is required.
(D) This choice is parallel, but the syntax is incorrect. "That" can be
colloquially omitted after the verb "said," but not in formal writing. Also,
"little" should be replaced by "few."
(E) This choice is parallel, but incorrectly uses the simple past, “accelerated.”
This action is the earlier past event, as it must have occurred before the Fed
commented on the trend. The earlier of multiple past events must use the past
perfect.
5.     D
The original sentence contains several errors. First, the construction "X rather
than Y" requires parallelism between X and Y, but the original sentence pairs
an active verb ("accept") with a passive one ("was sent"). Second, the use of
"if" in this context is incorrect. On the GMAT, "if" is used only to introduce
conditional clauses (e.g. “if X, then Y”). Here, "whether" should be used
instead of “if” to indicate uncertainty about reaching India by traveling west.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The construction "X rather than Y" requires parallelism between X and Y,
but this choice pairs an active verb ("accepting") with a passive one ("was
sent"). Second, the use of "if" in this context is incorrect. On the GMAT, "if" is
used only to introduce conditional clauses (e.g. “if X, then Y”). Here, "whether"
should be used instead of “if” to indicate uncertainty about reaching India by


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traveling west.
(C) This choice begins with "instead of," which is incorrectly used to
compare the verbs “accepting” and “sailed.” When comparing verbs,
“rather than” is the correct choice.
(D) CORRECT. This choice uses the construction “X rather than Y” to
correctly compare the parallel active verbs “accept” and “sailed.” The
uncertainty about reaching India by traveling west is correctly indicated by the
word “whether.”
(E) This choice begins with "instead of," which is incorrectly used to compare
the verbs “accepting” and “sailed.” When comparing verbs, “rather than” is the
correct choice.
Even if “instead of” were correct, the construction "X instead of Y" requires
parallelism between X and Y, but this choice pairs an active verb ("accepting")
with a passive one ("was sent"). Finally, the use of "if" in this context is
incorrect. On the GMAT, "if" is used only to introduce conditional clauses (e.g.
“if X, then Y”). Here, "whether" should be used instead of “if” to indicate
uncertainty about reaching India by traveling west.
6.     B
The original sentence intends to identify a sparrow by the fact that it lives in
cypress groves, eats certain berries, and has certain coloring. All these facts
about the sparrow must be presented in parallel form. However, in the original
sentence, these facts are presented in different forms. We need to find a
choice that presents them all in parallel fashion. Moreover, "whose coloring is
different from all other sparrows" is incorrect. The sparrow's coloring is
different from the coloring of other sparrows, not from the sparrows
themselves. We need to find a choice that makes this clear.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. This choice remedies the parallelism issue: "lives only in...., is
almost wholly... and has coloring..." The comparison issue is also remedied:
"has coloring different from that of all other sparrows." The comparison is
now logically drawn between the coloring of the new species and the coloring
("that") of other species.
(C) This answer choice remedies neither the parallelism issue ("living..., is
almost..., and whose coloring") nor the illogical comparison (coloring and


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sparrows).
(D) While this answer choice remedies the comparison, the parallelism issue
persists from the original sentence.
(E) This parallelism issue has been remedied in this answer choice, but the
illogical comparison has not. In addition, the correct idiomatic expression is
"different from," not "different than."




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7.     D
The original makes a comparison between car sales in 2004 and this January.
However, the comparison is of prepositional phrases, which must be
compared using "as," not "like," which is used to compare nouns. ("Like"
would be correctly used to compare one year to another, for example, "Like
2004, 2005 was a good year.")
Also, this sentence has an idiomatic error. The idiom “as often as” must be
written out and cannot be contracted to “as often.” Finally, the phrasing "car
sales to first-time buyers as often as to return customers" is awkward and
should be recast.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice incorrectly uses the comparison term "Like." Also, the idiom
“as often” is incorrect; it should be “as often as.”
(C) This sentence uses the correct idiom, "as often as." However, the pronoun
“it” does not have an antecedent, as “sales” (as well as "buyers") is
plural. Finally, "and it" weakens the syntax and meaning of the first part of the
sentence.
(D) CORRECT. This choice clearly compares sales in the two years. The
idiom “as often as” is correctly written and is placed in a comparison of
actions (i.e., "first-time buyers bought cars") rather than in a comparison of
prepositional phrases, which is more awkward.
(E) The idiom “as often” is incorrect; it should be “as often as.”
8.     C
The original sentence contains several errors. First, the pronoun "it" is used to
refer to the film, but the film has not been mentioned in the sentence. Instead
"the sequel's poor critical reception" has been mentioned. This is not the
same as the film, so the pronoun "it" has no grammatical antecedent and
must be changed. Second, the phrase "at least as good or even better than"
is incomplete: there should be another "as" after "good". Third, the
cinematography and acting are being compared to the "original". What is
meant here is that the cinematography and acting in the sequel are as good
as the cinematography and acting in the original. This must be changed. (A)
This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence. (B) The pronoun
"it" has no grammatical antecedent and the phrase "at least as good or even


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better" is missing the second "as" after "good." (C) CORRECT. This choice
replaces "it" with "film", adds the missing "as", and makes clear that the acting
and cinematography in the sequel are compared to the acting and
cinematography in the original. (D) The pronoun "it" has no grammatical
antecedent and the phrase "at least as good or even better" is missing the
second "as" after "good." (E) This choice introduces the possessive
redundancy "those of the original's." One could say either "those of the
original" or "the original's", but using both is redundant.




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9.        E
In the original sentence, the verb "had implemented" is in the past perfect
tense, indicating that this event occurred at some point before the
commissioner spoke. The verb "will try", however, is in the simple
future. When the future is indicated from the point of view of the past, the
simple future is not used. Instead, the conditional is required. For example,
"The man said that he would buy a new car" is preferable to "The man said
that he will buy a new car." We need to find a conditional verb. Moreover, the
pronoun "it" begins a new clause and thus requires repetition of "that" in order
to make clear, using parallel structure, that this new clause is still something
that the commissioner said. For example, "The man said that he would buy a
new car and that he would drive it everywhere" is preferable to "The man said
that he would buy a new car and he would drive it everywhere."
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice does not offer the conditional "would try", though it does offer
another "that". The past tense "tried" is definitely wrong here because
the trying will happen "in the future" according to the original sentence. Thus
this choice changes the meaning unacceptably.
(C) This choice uses the past perfect tense "had tried" where the conditional
"would try" is preferred. An extra "that" is needed to make the two clauses
"the government had..." and "it had tried" parallel.
(D) This is a tempting choice as it fixes the verb tense to the conditional
"would." However, the tense is technically "conditional perfect" (would have
tried), which is not the proper tense. Moreover, an extra "that" is needed to
make the two clauses "the government had..." and "it would try" parallel.
(E) CORRECT. This choice provides the plain conditional tense and another
"that".




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10.      E
The original sentence incorrectly utilizes the past perfect tense in its use of
“had contributed.” The past perfect tense demands that the simple past tense
also be used in the sentence to refer to another action that occurred in the
past but after the action referred to by the past perfect tense. Here, the
sentence uses the present perfect tense “has cited” and the present participle
“estimating,” but does not use the simple past tense to refer to another action
in the later past.


(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.


(B) This choice is awkward in its use of the structure “Overcomplexity,
increasing mobility . . . , and poor financial planning . . .have been cited” as
this structure leads to the use of the passive voice, which is less preferable
than the active voice. It is also problematic in its use of both the past tense
“estimated” and the present perfect tense “have been cited” to refer to the
recent study; the verb tenses should be consistent in their treatment of the
study.


(C) This choice incorrectly places the modifying phrase “Citing
overcomplexity, increasing mobility . . . and poor financial planning” adjacent
to “less than half of American workers,” incorrectly suggesting that it is less
than half of American workers, and not a recent study, that cites these factors
as causes for a lack of contribution to retirement plans. This choice also
repeats the original verb tense error with "had contributed."


(D) This choice repeats the original verb tense error with "had contributed."


(E) CORRECT. This choice correctly uses both the present participle (“Citing
. . .”) and the present perfect (“has estimated”) to refer to the recent study, as
well as the present tense “contribute” in reference to the study findings. The
phrase “Citing overcomplexity, increasing mobility . . . , and poor financial
planning,” is correctly used here as a modifier for “a recent study.”



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11.    E
The original sentence contains a misplaced modifier, which alters the
intended meaning of the sentence. The modifying phrase “Nearly 2000 years
after its initial construction” incorrectly modifies “the United Nations,” the
adjacent noun. However, it is the “Roman aqueduct” that was constructed
nearly 2000 years earlier, not “the United Nations.” Further, “declared the
Roman aqueduct…to be a Heritage of Humanity” uses an incorrect idiom:
“declare X to be Y.” The correct form of the idiom is: “declare X Y.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This sentence implies that it was the deterioration of the aqueduct that
prompted the “Spanish government to begin renovations.” However, the
intended meaning, as dictated by the original sentence, is that the United
Nations’ declaration prompted the renovations. Further, “declared the Roman
aqueduct…to be a Heritage of Humanity” uses an incorrect idiom: “declare X
to be Y.” The correct form of the idiom is: “declare X Y.”
(C) The modifying phrase “After being declared…in 1985” incorrectly modifies
the adjacent noun “Spanish government.” It is not the “Spanish government”
that was declared a Heritage of Humanity, but rather the “Roman aqueduct.”
Additionally, the modifying phrase “which had been deteriorating…” incorrectly
modifies the immediately preceding noun, “Segovia.” Again, it was not
“Segovia” that had been deteriorating, but rather the “Roman aqueduct.”
(D) The verbs “declared” and “prompted” are written with parallel
structure. This changes the original meaning of the sentence by making
these actions independent and sequential. However, the intended
meaning is that the “prompting” occurred not independently of the
declaration, but as a consequence of the declaration. Further, “declared
the Roman aqueduct…to be a Heritage of Humanity” uses an incorrect
idiom: “declare X to be Y.” The correct form of the idiom is: “declare X
Y.”
(E) CORRECT. This sentence is clear in meaning. The modifying phrase
“which had been deteriorating…” correctly modifies the immediately preceding
noun “aqueduct.” Also, the phrase “prompting the Spanish government…” is
subordinate to “declared,” making it clear that the “prompting” occurred as a



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result of the declaration. Finally, “declared the Roman aqueduct…a Heritage
of Humanity” uses the correct form of the idiom: “declared X Y.”


12.    C
Since the passage contains information about both TopNotch High School
graduates and those accepted to Ivy League universities, a valid conclusion
must contain information that does not contradict either situation. In addition,
a valid conclusion must remain true for every possible situation compatible
with the passage. In contrast, a conclusion can be shown to be invalid if it can
be demonstrated that a situation can occur that does not contradict the
passage, but contradicts the given conclusion. Be careful not to make
unwarranted assumptions: for example, a person who attends a school does
not necessary graduate from it, a person who graduates from high school
does not necessarily apply to a university, and a person who is accepted to a
university does not necessarily attend it.
(A) The passage states that every student with an IQ of 150 who applies to
the Ivy League will be accepted by at least one of the universities. However, it
is possible that a graduate of TopNotch High with an IQ of 150 did not apply,
and thereby was not accepted, to any of the schools. Hence, this conclusion
is not valid.
(B) The passage states that every graduate of TopNotch High has an IQ of
over 120. The conclusion only states that the student is a high school
graduate and that he has an IQ of less than 120. It does NOT state that he or
she was a graduate of TopNotch High. It is possible, however, that after
attending TopNotch High for a period of time, he or she graduated from
another high school. If this is the case, the situation does not contradict the
passage, but contradicts the conclusion (he or she was a student at TopNotch
High). Hence, this conclusion is not valid.
(C) CORRECT. Nothing in the passage precludes a person who is a graduate
of TopNotch High from having an IQ of 130 and from attending an Ivy League
university. Neither does anything in the passage preclude a person who has
an IQ of 130 and is attending an Ivy League school to have graduated from
TopNotch High. Therefore, it is possible for both situations to exist
simultaneously, so the conclusion is valid.


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(D) The conclusion states that most, but not necessarily all, of the graduates
from TopNotch High with IQ of 120 who apply to the Ivy League are accepted
by at least one of the school. The conclusion, however, does not state
positively that any of the TopNotch High graduates had an IQ of over 150.
Hence, even if it is unlikely, it is possible that none of the TopNotch graduates
had IQ of over 150, and, of the remaining graduates who applied to the Ivy
League, none were accepted to an Ivy League university. This conclusion is
thereby not valid.
(E) The passage states that any student with an IQ of 150 who applies to one
or more Ivy League universities will be accepted to at least one of them. It is
possible, however, that some of those who had applied and been accepted to
an Ivy League university chose not to attend. Hence, this conclusion is not
valid.


13.      Answer (B). Answer choice (D) looks perfect at first glance, but the
author never indicated that the children could identify only the utensils that
they used. Rolling pins, yes; utensils, no. The correct answer choice is (B),
which many test takers quickly pass over. Let’s examine each answer:
Answer choice (A): From the text, it seems possible that the children did
understand the function of a rolling pin; certainly, they were able to identify the
rolling pin they used. Answer choice (B): This is the correct answer choice.
The answer must be true because we know that despite being asked to
identify all the rolling pins, each child selected only the rolling pin he had
used. No two children picked the same rolling pin and therefore no two
children understood the name “rolling pin” to apply to the same object. Answer
choice (C): Apparently not, otherwise logic would say the children would pick
other rolling pins aside from the one they used. Answer choice (D): Do not be
concerned if you fell into this trap, but consider it a lesson for the future. The
test makers smoothly slip “utensils” into the answer choice, and most students
make the mistake of equating utensils with rolling pins. Yes, a rolling pin is a
utensil, but there are other utensils as well, and the stimulus does not give us
information about whether the children could identify those utensils. This is
the essence of the Shell Game: you expect one thing and the test makers slip
something quite similar but essentially different into its place. Answer choice


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(E): This is an Opposite Answer. As indicated by the final sentence of the
stimulus, the children were able to distinguish the rolling pin they used from
the other rolling pins. This circumstance is exactly opposite of that stated in
answer choice (E), which declares, “The children were not able to
distinguish...” In this case, if you miss the “not,” this answer choice is very
attractive.
14.    A
In simplified form, the conclusion appears as follows: P = program to raise
high school morale, RD = reduction in dropouts, P→RD. Regardless of the
question asked, this assessment is helpful.


The correct answer, (A), is THE ALTERNATE CAUSE.


Answer choice (A): This is the correct answer. The answer attacks the
conclusion by introducing an alternate cause: it was not the morale program
that led to a decrease in high dropouts, but rather the fact that no jobs were
available for individuals contemplating dropping out of high school. The job
availability factor is important because the first sentence of the stimulus
indicates that high school students who drop out go to work. Thus, if a
recession led to a high level of unemployment, this could cause high school
students to rethink dropping out and stay in school. Answer choice (B): At
best, this answer confirms that some of the high school students had a low
morale, and in that sense, the answer strengthens the argument. At worst, the
answer choice is irrelevant. Answer choice (C): The argument indicates that
the dropout rate is lower relative to the preceding year; there is no claim that
the dropout rate ever exceeded the retention rate. Thus, to suggest that more
students stayed in school than dropped out has no effect on the argument.
Answer choice (D): The stimulus refers to high school dropouts. This answer
choice refers to high school graduates. Answer choice (E): The argument
uses information about the city’s overall dropout rate. Therefore, the target
high schools of the anti-dropout program are irrelevant.


15.    E



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The author concludes that one will only be able to determine the age of a
Brazilian ash by counting its rings if the temperature in the tree's environment
never exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit. The author bases this conclusion on
the fact that the tree loses rings when the temperature exceeds that level.
However, if the number of rings lost by a Brazilian ash at high temperatures
can be predicted, it may be possible to determine the age of a tree even if the
temperature exceeds 95 degrees.
(A) The argument says nothing about precipitation. This answer choice is out
of scope since it would require a number of other assumptions to make it
relevant to the argument's conclusion.
(B) Whether other trees share this feature is irrelevant; the argument focuses
only on the Brazilian ash.
(C) The number of days of excessive heat needed to cause the tree to lose
rings is irrelevant.
(D) The thickness of the rings is irrelevant.
(E) CORRECT. The conclusion is that the rings will be a reliable measure only
if the temperature never exceeds 95 degrees. This is true only if there is no
way to predict how many rings would be lost when the temperature does
exceed 95 degrees. (If it were possible to predict this, one might be able to
assess the age of a tree using its rings even if the temperature had exceeded
95 degrees.)
16.    ANS. E


The conclusion of the argument is based on the causal assumption that
electronic devices cause a disturbance in low-power circuitry, creating an
obvious danger: ED = electronic devices, I = interference with low-power
circuitry, ED→I. The four incorrect answers will each strengthen the
argument.
Answer choice (A): This answer choice strengthens the argument by showing
that when the cause is absent, the effect does not occur. Once the laptop was
turned off, the cause disappeared, and according to the author’s beliefs, the
effect should then disappear as well. Answer choice (B): This answer
strengthens the argument by showing that the data used to make the
conclusion is accurate. By stating that all electronic devices emit radiation, the


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answer choice closes a hole in the argument. Answer choice (C): This answer
choice strengthens the argument by showing that when the cause is absent,
the effect does not occur. Answer choice (D): This answer strengthens the
argument by showing that the data used to make the conclusion is accurate.
By showing that radiation can travel far enough to reach the cockpit, the
cause is confirmed as possible. Answer choice (E): This is the correct answer.
The fact that the circuitry and electronic devices became popular at the same
time does not offer any supporting evidence to the contention that the
electronic devices cause the interference with the low power circuitry. This
answer has no effect on the argument and is therefore correct.




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17.    C
The conclusion states that if you buy a Bolter’s power hedge trimmer, you
know the trimmer is safe. In the question stem, we are asked to evaluate the
truth of this conclusion. Each answer choice is then posed in the form of a
question. The answer choice that is correct will contain the question that,
when answered, will reveal whether the conclusion is strong or weak. In order
to understand the application of the EXTREMES Test, we will look at each
answer choice in succession.


Answer choice (A) asks if National Laboratories has performed tests on other
machines from Bolter Industries. To apply the Extremes Test, we should
supply different and opposing answers to the question posed by the answer
choice. First, try the answer “No.” With this answer, would the fact that
National Laboratories did not perform safety test on other Bolters machines
affect the safety of the Bolter’s hedge trimmer? No—this does not help us
evaluate the safety of the hedge trimmer. What if the answer was “Yes”?
Would the fact that National Laboratories performed safety tests on other
Bolters machines affect the safety of the Bolter’s hedge trimmer? Not at all.
So, regardless of how we respond to the question posed in answer choice (A),
our view of the conclusion is the same—we do not know whether the claim
that the hedge trimmer is safe is good or bad. According to the Extremes
Test, if the answer is correct, then supplying opposite answers should yield
different views of the conclusion. Since our assessment of the conclusion did
not change, the Extremes Test tells us that this answer is incorrect. The
question in answer choice (B) is, “How important to the average buyer of a
power hedge is safety of operation?” Again, apply the Extremes Test and
supply opposite answers to the question in the answer choice. In this case, try
“Very Important” and “Not Important.” If safety of operation is very important to
a buyer of hedge trimmers, would that affect whether the Bolter’s hedge
trimmer itself is safe? No. Let’s look at the opposite side: if safety of operation
is not important at all to a buyer of hedge trimmers, would that affect whether
the Bolter’s hedge trimmer itself is safe? No. Because our view of the validity
of the conclusion does not change when we consider different responses to
the question posed in answer choice (B), the Extremes Test tells us that


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answer choice (B) is incorrect. The question in answer choice (C) is, what
were the results of the tests of Bolter’s hedge trimmer? Using the Extremes
Test, supply one response that says, “Bolter’s hedge trimmer failed the safety
test.” If this is true, then the conclusion is unquestionably weakened. Now
supply a response that says, “Bolter’s hedge trimmer passed the safety test.”
If this is true, then the conclusion is strengthened. So, depending on the
answer supplied to the question posed in answer choice (C), our view of the
validity of the argument changes: sometimes we view the conclusion as
stronger and other times as weaker. Therefore, according to the Extremes
Test, this is the correct answer. In this instance, the Extremes Test reveals
the flaw in the argument: the author simply assumed that being tested means
safety is assured. Nowhere in the argument did the author mention that the
hedge trimmer passed the tests, and the Extremes Test reveals this flaw. In
answer choice (D), “Yes” and “No” responses do not change our view of the
argument, and answer choice (D) is incorrect. In answer choice (E), “Yes” and
“No” responses do not change our view of the argument, and answer choice
(E) is incorrect. The key thing to note is that the Extremes Test is applied
according to the nature of each answer choice. Thus, with some answer
choices we might supply responses of “Yes” and “No,” and other answer
choices might require responses of “0%” and “100%,” or “Very Important” and
“Not Important.” But, in each case, the answers we supply are opposites, and
the correct answer is always the one that changes your view of the validity of
the conclusion when those different responses are supplied. If your view of
the argument does not change, then the answer choice is incorrect. Keep in
mind that the Extremes Test should only be applied to the contending answer
choices. In the discussion above we applied it to every answer choice, but we
did this simply to show how to effectively apply the Extremes Test. During the
actual test you would only want to apply the Extremes Test to two or three
answer choices at most.


18.    B
The question asks us to find a choice that contributes most towards explaining
why City Y is considered less affordable than City X. This situation is
surprising because the percentage of yearly income devoted to housing costs


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is higher in City X than in City Y, implying that it is more expensive to live in
City X. We do know, however, that insurance and fuel costs are generally
exorbitant in both cities, and that both cities are home to many commuters.
(A) This does not explain why City Y is less affordable than City X. Private
school is a choice. Public schools remain a free option for parents in both
cities.
(B) CORRECT. If City Y has no effective public transportation system, its
residents will need to provide their own means of transportation. Since
insurance and fuel costs are exorbitant in both cities, we know that residents
of City Y will likely be forced to spend significant amounts on car insurance
and gasoline. Because City X has an inexpensive public transportation
system, its residents may be able to avoid these specific expenses.
(C) If new houses are more expensive in City X than in City Y, one would
expect City X to be considered less affordable than City Y. This does not
explain why City Y is considered less affordable than City X.
(D) The presence of expensive restaurants and boutiques in City Y is not
relevant, since these represent only one end of the retail spectrum and do not
preclude the presence of inexpensive alternatives. Moreover, we know
nothing about the retail establishments in City X; they could be even more
expensive.
(E) We do not know whether the relocations have affected the ability of
residents of City Y to cover their living expenses.




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19.    D
The marketing analyst begins his argument by describing the usual
relationship between the introduction of a new product and the impact on
corporate revenues. Note the use of the word “traditionally” at the beginning of
this premise, indicating that the suggested pattern of cause and effect
typically holds. Thus, the first statement in boldface represents a
generalization that the market analyst accepts as accurate. The analyst then
goes on to conclude that this time, however, the usual cause-and-effect
relationship will not hold and the introduction of a new product will reduce
rather than increase the company’s profits. To support this conclusion, the
analyst offers evidence explaining why the new product launch may erode the
company’s profits. Therefore, the second statement in boldface represents
evidence that supports the main conclusion of the analyst.


(A) This answer choice incorrectly states that the first statement will be
repeated in the case at issue. Remember, the analyst argues that the usual
pattern will not hold this time. The second statement is correctly described as
acknowledging a circumstance in which the usual pattern will not hold.


(B) This answer choice correctly describes the role of the first portion but
mistakenly states that the second part in boldface follows from this
generalization. The second statement in boldface presents evidence that
supports the opposite effect from that described in the first portion.
Specifically, the analyst claims that the new product launch will decrease
rather than increase profits.


(C) This answer choice correctly describes the role of the first statement but
incorrectly states that the second statement represents the conclusion rather
than the supporting evidence for that conclusion. Remember, the conclusion
of the analyst is that the new product launch will decrease rather than
increase profits.


(D) CORRECT. This answer choice correctly identifies the role of each of the
two parts in boldface. The first part represents the generalization that is


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typically accurate but will not be repeated in the case at issue. The second
portion presents evidence in support of the analyst’s prediction.


(E) This answer choice incorrectly states that the first portion supports rather
than weighs against that analyst’s prediction. In addition, this answer choice
incorrectly states that the second portion in boldface represents the analyst’s
prediction rather than the evidence supporting it.




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20.    D
The key to success is to isolate the conclusion, which appears in the last
sentence: “companies producing carpet will be able to gain market share
in the carpet market only through purchasing competitors.” GMS = gain
market share in the carpet market, PC = purchasing competitors. GMS→PC.
According to the author, to gain market share in the carpet market a company
must purchase a competitor. Answer choice (C) is often selected by students,
but it does not attack this idea. Answer choice (C) simply suggests that when
companies purchase their competitors the endeavor is often financially
unsuccessful. Essentially, answer choice (C) fails to prove that purchasing
competitors is unnecessary to gain market share. Answer choice (D), on the
other hand, does suggest a way for companies to gain market share without
purchasing competitors. Thus, answer choice (D) is correct.


Answer choice (A): This answer goes beyond the scope of the argument,
which is limited to the carpet market (and not other floor coverings).
Answer choice (B): This is an Opposite answer that strengthens the
argument. If there are no remaining niches to fill, then there is no way to
expand other than to purchase a competitor.
Answer choice (C): This attractive answer is wrong for a very strong reason:
The conclusion is about market share. Answer choice (C) is about a decline in
profits and revenues. The two are not the same, and so the information in the
answer choice does not weaken the conclusion.
Answer choice (D): This is the correct answer. If price reductions drive out
some of the carpet producers, then other producers can take the market
share left behind. This scenario shows that a company can gain market share
without purchasing a competitor, thus attacking the necessary condition in the
conclusion.
Answer choice (E): This Opposite answer strengthens the argument. If the
consumers are resistant to new styles, then one fewer possibility exists if a
company is trying to increase market share. By eliminating this option, the
conclusion is strengthened (by eliminating an idea that would hurt the
argument, one can strengthen the argument because it has fewer
“competitors.”).


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SET 2


1.      E
The list of creators, "by a professional writer, a blogger, and by individual
users" violates the principle of parallelism in two ways. First, while "a
professional writer" and "a blogger" are singular, the third element in the list,
"individual users," is plural. Second, the word "by" introduces the first and third
elements in the list ("by a professional writer . . . by individual users") but not
the second element in the list ("a blogger"). To create a parallel sentence, the
word "by" should introduce the entire list and should not be repeated. In
addition to the parallelism problem, the subject of the underlined portion is the
singular "market" which does not agree with the plural verb phrase "are
expanding."
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice fails to resolve the subject-verb agreement issue, as the
singular "market" does not agree with the plural verb phrase "are expanding."
In addition, this choice fails to maintain parallel structure because the word
"by" introduces the first and third elements in the list of creators ("by
professional writers . . . by individual users") but not the second element
("bloggers"). To create a parallel sentence, the word "by" should introduce the
entire list and should not be repeated.
(C) This choice has proper subject-verb agreement since the singular
"market" agrees with the singular verb phrase "is expanding." However, the
list of 3 types of creators is not written in parallel form. While "a professional
writer" and "a blogger" are singular, the third element in the list, "individual
users," is plural.
(D) The phrase "created by professional writers, bloggers, and individual
users" lists elements in parallel form. However, this choice fails to resolve
the subject-verb agreement issue, as the singular "market" does not agree
with the plural verb phrase "are expanding."
(E) CORRECT. The phrase "created by professional writers, bloggers, and
individual users" lists elements in parallel form. Each element in the list is
plural and the entire list is introduced by the word "by" which is correctly not


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repeated. In addition, the singular subject "market" agrees with the singular
verb phrase "is expanding."


2.      C
The primary issue with this question is subject-verb agreement. The subject
is "consumption," which is singular (and note that "consumption" is not
underlined, so the subject will be singular in the correct answer). Any verbs
associated with this subject, therefore, also must be singular. In the original
sentence, they are both plural ("trigger" and "cause").
(A) This choice is incorrect because it repeats the original sentence.
(B) Although this sentence makes two changes from the original sentence,
neither one fixes the subject-verb agreement problem; the singular subject,
"consumption," is still paired with two plural verbs, "trigger" and "cause."
(C) CORRECT. This choice correctly pairs the singular subject,
"consumption," with two plural verbs, "triggers" and "causes."
(D) This sentence corrects the first of the two verbs ("triggers") by making it
singular to match the singular subject, "consumption," but the second verb
("cause") is still plural.
(E) This sentence corrects the second of the two verbs ("causes") by making
it singular to match the singular subject, "consumption," but the first verb
("trigger") is still plural.




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3.     E
The original sentence begins with a modifier "Responding to growing demand
for high-end vehicles," but this modifier has no logical subject within the main
clause. The subject of the sentence should be the people or organizations
that respond to this growing demand.
Moreover, the pronoun "they" is ambiguous, as it could grammatically refer
either to the interiors or to the models. We know that the intended antecedent
of "they" is the cars, so we need to find a choice that makes this intention
clear. Finally, the modifier "that are so luxurious" should be placed
immediately after "interiors," not "models"; otherwise, an alternative phrasing
without this modifier should be found.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The choice repeats the original modifier error: the subject of the modifier is
not present in the sentence.
(C) This choice repeats the original pronoun error: "they" is ambiguous and
could refer to either interiors or models. Also, the modifier "that are so
luxurious" is placed incorrectly.
(D) This choice repeats both the original modifier error and the original
pronoun error. Also, "interior" should be plural.
(E) CORRECT. This choice correctly introduces "auto makers" as the subject
of the sentence and also corrects the pronoun error by replacing "they" with
"these cars." Note that the use of the synonym "cars" avoids both the
awkward repetition of "models" and the ambiguity of the pronoun "they."
4.     A
The original sentence correctly employs parallel structure in the expression
"both x and y." The two items are logically parallel in that both "draining
resources" and "diminishing productivity" are direct ways in which spam has
hurt companies. The two items are also structurally parallel in that both
phrases begin with a gerund ("draining" and "diminishing") followed by objects
("company resources" and "employee productivity").
(A) CORRECT. This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice incorrectly places "both" after the word "draining" such that the
two elements in the expression "both x and y" are not logically parallel. The
expression "both x and y" now reads "both company resources . . . and


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diminishing employee productivity." The second element ("diminishing
employee productivity"), unlike the first element ("company resources"), is a
way in which spam has hurt companies. The "draining" of company
resources, not the "company resources" themselves, has hurt companies.
Moreover, the two items in the expression are no longer structurally parallel:
the first element is a noun phrase ("company resources") whereas the second
element is a gerund followed by an object ("diminishing employee
productivity").
(C) This choice incorrectly places "both" after the word "draining" such that the
two elements in the expression "both x and y" are not logically parallel. The
expression "both x and y" now reads "both company resources . . . and
diminishing employee productivity." The second element ("diminishing
employee productivity"), unlike the first element ("company resources"), is a
way in which spam has hurt companies. The "draining" of company
resources, not the "company resources" themselves, has hurt companies.
Moreover, the two items in the expression are no longer structurally parallel:
the first element is a noun phrase ("company resources") whereas the second
element is a gerund ("diminishing") followed by a somewhat awkward and
wordy clause ("how productive its employees are").
(D) In this choice, the two items in the expression "both x and y" are not
structurally parallel: the first element is a gerund followed by an object
("draining company resources") whereas the second element is a clause
consisting of a noun ("the productivity) and passive verb construction ("is
diminished").
(E) In this choice, the two items in the expression "both x and y" are not
structurally parallel: the first element is a gerund ("draining") followed by an
object ("company resources") whereas the second element is a gerund
("diminishing") followed by a somewhat awkward and wordy clause ("how
productive its employees are"). Additionally, the antecedent to the
pronoun "its" is unclear, as "its" structurally could refer to "the
problem" or "junk mail" as well as the more logical "company."




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5.     B
The original has an improper comparison. Comparisons must relate logically
parallel elements. This sentence compares “the Civil War” to “soldiers in
Vietnam.” It must compare “soldiers” to “soldiers” or “war” to “war.” In this
case, it would have to be war to war because the meaning is that in those
wars, Smith & Wesson equipped soldiers.
(A) This answer choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. This choice correctly compares logically parallel elements:
“the Civil War to the Vietnam war.” It contains no other errors.
(C) This choice does compare logically parallel elements: “soldiers in the Civil
War and soldiers in Vietnam.” However, this comparison undermines the
meaning because the meaning is that in those wars, Smith & Wesson
equipped soldiers. Thus, the correct comparison would compare “war” to
“war.” Furthermore, this comparison is incorrectly structured; idiomatically, it
should not employ “and soldiers” but should be structured “from soldiers in the
Civil War to soldiers in Vietnam.”
(D) This choice does compare logically parallel elements: “soldiers in the Civil
War and soldiers in Vietnam.” However, this comparison undermines the
meaning because the meaning is that in those wars, Smith & Wesson
equipped soldiers. Thus, the correct comparison would compare “war” to
“war.” Also, the ending “to” is incorrect; idiomatically that comparison must be
structured as “both the soldiers and the sailors.”
(E) This choice correctly compares logically parallel elements: “the Civil War
and the Vietnam war.” However, this comparison is incorrectly structured;
idiomatically, it should not employ “and the Vietnam war” but should be
structured “from the Civil War to the Vietnam war.”


Parallelism:
1 to 6: Correct
7.     The point is HOUSES is a verb, HAS is a verb, so to start the second
       part we need a verb to make it PARALLEL and balanced. Mumbai
       HOUSES 20 million people, IS the cultural capital of India, and HAS a
       lot of potential for a newcomer with dreams. Try to write 3 sentences



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      instead of one. Mumbai houses 20 million people. Mumbai … the
      cultural capital of India. Mumbai has a lot of potential…
8.    Non-traditional students often study long hours, get limited sleep, and
are up again with the sunrise.
9.    ……….“delivery method, production time, and hours of operation.”
10.   Symptoms of a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting may include
      dizziness, hives or rashes, swelling of the wound, difficulty in breathing,
      intense itching, and LOSS OF consciousness.
11.   The new employee will be responsible for filing paperwork, answering
      phones, and taking new orders.
12.   Doctors Without Borders is a private organization that arranges
      medical treatment in foreign lands, particularly in nations with an
      endemic outbreak of disease, in states at war, and in poverty-stricken
      countries.
13.   Air Force One, the President's main mode of cross-country travel, is
      not like any ordinary plane; it has rooms for exercising, meeting with
      staff, operating in case of medical emergency, and a place for taping
      interviews.
14.   Since the teacher introduced the classroom reward system, students
      have begun paying closer attention, completing homework, AND
      following directions, and have stopped causing disruptions during
      lessons.
15.   The diet of the ordinary Greek in classical times was largely
      vegetarian—vegetables, fresh cheese, oatmeal, and meal cakes, with
      meat as a rarity.
16-18: Correct
19 to 22: Correct Version 22: This is a clear cause and effect sequence.
      Here which / it after the comma is a problem. Which / it are pronouns
      and can refer back to a noun only. In the first two sentences, there is
      one noun stock market… but the stock-market did not cause the
      problem; the crash of the market did… the word crash is a noun but
      CRASHED is a verb… the word which / it (a pronoun) can not refer
      back to a verb. They can refer back to a noun only. So the correct
      answer should eliminate the pronoun and write The stock market


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      crashed, causing a lot of people to lose money. As far as the 3rd
      statement is concerned, if we break the statement into two proper
      sentences (imagine “Ram ate and slept” can be written as “Ram
      ate” and “Ram slept”), the two sentences become… “The stock
      market crashed” and “The stock market caused a lot of people to lose
      money”. The intended meaning is not this.


23.   The snow covered the train tracks by more than a foot, prompting the
      transit authority to shut down service temporarily, and causing
      discontent among commuters who were left stranded for hours.
24.   He said THAT the college had rusticated him and THAT his future was
      bleak.
25.   The two biggest gains from the rise of the stock markets are THAT
      companies look forward to growth and THAT investors remain upbeat
      to explore new opportunities.
26.   The coach told the players THAT they should get a lot of sleep, THAT
      they should not eat too much, and THAT they should do some warm-
      up exercises before the game.
27.   The salesman expected THAT he would present his product at the
      meeting, THAT there would be time for him to show his slide
      presentation, and THAT questions would be asked by prospective
      buyers.
28.   My objections are, first, THAT the measure is unjust; second, THAT it
      is unconstitutional.
29.   Critics of the current Bowl Championship Series feel that moving from
      a computer-ranking format to a playoff system will improve the integrity
      of the competition. Remove “creating.” (X and Y Parallel) From X to Y.
30.   Jim Thorpe, the legendary multi-sport star, enjoyed playing football
      more than he enjoyed running track and field, but it was winning the
      gold medal at the 1912 Olympic pentathlon that shot him to fame. (X
      and Y Parallel). More X than Y.
31.   A time not for words, but for action. (X and Y Parallel) Not X but Y.
32.   Ralph likes a variety of people, including those who are popular AND
      those who are not. CONNECTOR “AND”


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33.    The Department of Motor Vehicles is considering a new paging system
       that would alleviate lines for walk-in customers renewing their licenses
       and assist overwhelmed employees. CONNECTOR “AND”
34.    One LEGACY of Madison Avenue's recent campaign to appeal to
       people fifty years old and over is THE REALIZATION that as people
       age, their concerns change as well. Here X is Y… can be observed.
       Legacy… is … to realize… NOT parallel


35.    To say that I do not deserve her IS to be unfair to me. (X is Y)
36.    The experiences we have in childhood still influence our behavior in
       adulthood. (X is Y)
37.    The new toy was the father’s attempt to appease the ruffled child. X
       was Y… Here X is the toy (noun) so Y should also be noun (attempt)
       and not a verb (trying)
38.    According to the teachings of the Buddhist and Hindu religions, to
       attain nirvana is to enter a state of supreme liberation. (X is Y) OR
       According to the teachings of the Buddhist and Hindu religions,
       attaining nirvana is entering a state of supreme liberation. (X is Y)
39.    The doctors have been conducting and will continue to conduct tests
       on the sick patient.
40.    She is a believer in and a supporter of the theory of love at first sight.
41.    Formerly, science was taught by the textbook method; now it is taught
by the laboratory method.


Parallelism Mixed Bag:


1.     A
The original sentence contains a list of factors that kept the settlers from
surviving their first winter in Virginia: "inadequate food supplies, harsh
weather, and an inability to communicate with Native Americans." In lists of
examples, all the examples must be parallel (in the same form). In this case,
all the examples are nouns. This presents no error.
(A) CORRECT. This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.



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(B) This choice is incorrect because "that they were unable to communicate
with Native Americans" is a clause rather than a noun, thus violating the
parallelism.
(C) This choice is incorrect because "and because they were unable to
communicate with Native Americans" is a clause rather than a noun, thus
violating the parallelism.
(D) This choice is incorrect because "and being unable to communicate with
Native Americans" is a verb construction rather than a noun, thus violating the
parallelism.
(E) This choice is incorrect because "and lacking an ability to communicate
with Native Americans" is a verb construction rather than a noun, thus
violating the parallelism.




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2.     A


This sentence contains three parallel elements: “the unusual confluence,” “an
unpredictable backdrop,” and “the camaraderie.” Additionally, the introductory
modifying phrase “originally developed by ancient Hawaiians” correctly
modifies the noun “surfing.”
(A) CORRECT. This choice properly follows rules of parallel construction and
uses the introductory phrase to correctly modify the noun “surfing.”
(B) The introductory modifying phrase “originally developed by ancient
Hawaiians” incorrectly describes “surfing’s appeal” rather than surfing itself.
Additionally, the pronoun “its” has no clear antecedent to refer to.
(C) The introductory modifying phrase “originally developed by ancient
Hawaiians” incorrectly describes “surfing’s appeal” rather than surfing itself.
Furthermore, the third element of the sentence, “developing camaraderie
among people,” is not parallel to the other two elements.
(D) This choice lacks clarity of meaning by stating “a backdrop that is
unpredictable and that is, by turns, gracefully and serenely violent and
formidable.” The original intent of the sentence is to use the adjectives
graceful, serene, violent, and formidable to describe surfing’s “unpredictable
backdrop”; this choice improperly separates this into two distinct ideas.
Additionally, this choice incorrectly changes the adjectives “graceful” and
“serene” to adverbs “gracefully” and “serenely”; thus, the adverbs incorrectly
modify the adjectives “violent” and “formidable” rather than the noun
“backdrop.”
(E) The plural pronoun “their” incorrectly refers to the plural noun “people,”
making it seem that people, rather than surfing, contain the three parallel
elements found in the sentence.




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3.     E
E, the best choice, uses parallel phrases for the two major coordinate
members (in the rise of... and in the victory of ...) and also for the series
listed in the first of these (s in t, u in v, w in x, and y in z). E's placement of
the In... reformism phrase at the beginning of the sentence is direct and
efficient. Choices A, B, C, and D omit and before the Mahdi, the last element
in the first series; thus, they incorrectly merge the second major member (the
victory of) into the series listed under the first member (the rise of).
Furthermore, in A and B the in... reformism phrase has been awkwardly set
between the subject and verb of the sentence.


4.     To deal with the sentence successfully you first need to consider its
       meaning. The sentence lists five items, four of which support the claim
       that cats’ needs are “simple and largely inexpensive.” You know that
       the fifth item, the trips to the vet, aren’t part of this list and shouldn’t be
       parallel with it because, first, the and before shelter suggests that the
       initial list ends with shelter and, second, trips to the vet are not
       inexpensive. Therefore, the final item needs to be expressed as an
       exception. Eliminate (1). At this point, the primary problem is one of
       expression. Veterinarian visits, while shorter, is less clear and idiomatic
       than visits to the veterinarian. Out with (2). As for (4), we have a
       dangling modifier: who is occasionally visiting the vet? Eliminate.
       Finally, (5) is a passive and much wordier option than (3). (3) it is.




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5.     B
The sentence highlights a problem with parallelism in the list of four items that
are examples of speculative bubbles. According to the sentence, there were
speculative bubbles in trading rights, real estate, a stock market and an
obsession. The first three represent the items upon which the speculative
bubble was built; the fourth does not.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. This choice corrects the parallelism error by removing the
fourth item, the obsession, from the list of things that were speculative
bubbles. Now, the sentence says that "examples... include speculative
bubbles" in trading rights, real estate and the stock market and "[examples...
include] the obsession for Beanie Babies." It is not necessary to repeat the
words "examples include" in the second part of the sentence.
(C) While this choice corrects the parallelism error by removing the fourth
item, the obsession, from the list of things that were speculative bubbles, it
introduces a modifier error. The initial phrase "coined from..." is followed by
the noun "examples." However, the term "tulipomania" was coined from the
tulip craze; the examples were not coined from the craze.
(D) This choice does not correct the original parallelism error. According to the
sentence, there were speculative bubbles in trading rights, real estate, a stock
market and an obsession. The first three represent the items upon which the
speculative bubble was built; the fourth does not.
(E) This choice does not correct the original parallelism error. According to the
sentence, there were speculative bubbles in trading rights, real estate, a stock
market and an obsession. The first three represent the items upon which the
speculative bubble was built; the fourth does not. In addition, the sentence
introduces confusion because it implies that the later examples of speculative
bubbles were "included" in, or a part of, the original tulipomania.




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6.       B
The original sentence contains several errors. First, the relative pronoun
"which" cannot be used to modify the action of the preceding clause, as it
does here ("which has resulted in..."). Instead, it must be used to modify the
immediately preceding noun only. In this case, that noun is "influence," which
cannot be described as resulting in a "political climate." It is the loss of that
influence that has resulted in the "political climate" described in the sentence,
not the influence itself.
Second, "that some analysts claim to favor management" is incorrect. If
we remove "some analysts claim" from the sentence, we are left with "a
political climate that...to favor management." This is incorrect. We need
"to favor" to agree with "a political climate that."
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. This choice corrects the relative pronoun error by replacing
"which has resulted" with "resulting." Moreover, "favors" agrees with "a
political climate that..."
(C) This choice does not correct the relative pronoun error. Moreover, it does
not correct the verb error.
It replaces "to favor" with "that favors," creating the illogical sequence
"a political climate that...that favors."
(D) This choice corrects the relative pronoun error by replacing "which has
resulted" with "resulting." However, it does not correct the verb error.
It replaces "to favor" with "to be in favor of," creating the illogical
sequence "a political climate that...to be in favor of."
(E) This choice does not correct the relative pronoun error. Moreover, it does
not correct the verb error. It does not replace "to favor." Additionally, "has
been claimed by some analysts" is unnecessarily in passive voice and is
wordy.




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7.     C
When you’re dealing with long sentences and large underlined portions like
this, it’s even more important to isolate specific problems to help you weed out
choices. The sentence describes the agencies as proving two things: one,
that minority clients are discouraged, and two, that past legislation hasn’t
made the problem any better. The two things that are proven need to be in
grammatically parallel forms and, since the first isn’t underlined, the second
will have to borrow the original structure. You can eliminate (1) and (2) for
failing to do so right from the beginning. The underlined section needs to
begin with that in order to recall the initial proved that and make it clear where
this information fits into the sentence. Next, mitigated and abolished need to
be in the same tense since they’re in parallel positions, so eliminate (4).
Finally, only were mitigating in (5) is not idiomatic word order, plus were
mitigating is wordier than mitigated. (3) is the best choice.




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8.       E
The original sentence contains the construction "from X to Y," which requires
parallelism between X and Y. In this case, X is the regular noun
phrase "practical communication," but Y is the gerund "establishing". (A
gerund is an "-ing" form of a verb acting as a noun, such as in the sentence
"Swimming is fun.") We need to find a choice that puts both X and Y in the
same grammatical form. Note that the difference between "people engaged in
the same task" and "people engaging in the same task" is minimal. Both
forms are valid.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This answer choice changes X to a gerund and Y to a regular noun
phrase. X and Y are still not parallel.
(C) Adding the word "the" in front of Y here doesn't change the fact that the
regular noun phrase is not parallel to the gerund.
(D) This answer choice changes X to a gerund but Y to "hierarchy
established," which is not parallel to X.
(E) CORRECT. This choice correctly changes Y to a regular noun phrase "the
establishment of hierarchy," so that this phrase is now parallel to X, "practical
communication." It is not necessary that both phrases have the article
"the."




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9.     D
The original sentence contains two errors. First, the expression "from X to Y"
requires that X and Y be in parallel form. Here, however, "having an enigmatic
smile" and "her association with the rich and powerful families of Europe" are
not parallel. The first is a verb construction while the second is a noun
construction. Since the second construction is not underlined, the first
construction must be altered. Second, the clause "which was never
explained" incorrectly uses the simple past "was never explained." Instead, it
should be in the present perfect ("has never been explained") because the
potential for an explanation began in the past and continues to the present.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The parallelism error is not corrected here: "from having an enigmatic
smile" is the same as in the original sentence. However, the present perfect
tense ("has never been explained") is correctly used here.
(C) The parallelism error is corrected here: "her enigmatic smile" is parallel
with "her association with the rich and powerful families of Europe." However,
"for which there has never been an explanation" is wordy.
(D) CORRECT. Here, "her enigmatic smile" is parallel with "her association
with the rich and powerful families of Europe." Moreover, "which has never
been explained" is concise and properly in the present perfect tense.
(E) The parallelism error is not corrected here: "having an enigmatic smile" is
the same as in the original sentence. Moreover, "for which there has never
been an explanation" is wordy.
10.    B
The original sentence fails to correctly complete the idiomatic structure “a
result not of X, but of Y," incorrectly suggesting that sustainable weight loss is
itself a healthy lifestyle as opposed to a result of a healthy lifestyle. The
second “of” (before "a healthy lifestyle") is necessary to complete the
structure. Also, “self-deprivation” and “adopting an extreme diet” are
nonparallel; because these two items are a "result of" the same thing, they
should be structurally similar.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. This choice completes the idiom "a result not of X, but of Y"
correctly by inserting the second “of," making sustainable weight loss a result


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of a healthy lifestyle. Also, “self-deprivation” and “the adoption of an extreme
diet” are both nouns, and are treated in parallel fashion.
(C) This sentence fails to follow the idiomatic form "a result not of X, but of Y."
(D) This sentence fails to follow the idiomatic form "a result not of X, but of Y."
In addition, the expression “depriving oneself” is awkward.
(E) This sentence fails to follow the idiomatic form "a result not of X, but of
Y." In addition, the expression “depriving oneself” is awkward.
11.    The correct answer is E. The original sentence is incorrect because
the phrase "it is more closely related to the common raccoon than any
member of the bear family" is ambiguous: the author clearly means that the
panda is more closely related to the raccoon than to any bear, but the
sentence could be read to mean that the panda is more closely related to the
raccoon than any bear is related to the raccoon. This eliminates answer
choices A and C. D is incorrect because it implies that the panda is more
closely related to the raccoon than any bear is related to the raccoon. This is
not what the author intends. Also, "because of" is preferable to "due to" in this
sentence. "Due to" functions as an adjectival phrase and is used to modify a
noun (e.g., His failure was due to his laziness.). "Because of" functions as an
adverbial phrase and is used to modify a verb or verb phrase (e.g., He failed
because of his laziness.). In this case, the modified phrase is "refer to the
panda as a bear." Since this is a verb phrase, "because of" is required.
Eliminate A and B ("due to").




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12.    B
The non-underlined portion has “are increasing”, so the subject has to be
“costs”. This eliminates A and D. Also, as we have …and with…, to maintain
parallelism, we have to ensure that the phrase contains “with”. Ans. B
13.    A
The main point is: Core is "The discovery is responsible for advancing
studies of X and of Y.“ or: "Subject, verb, prepositional phrase, idiom requiring
parallelism"
A) clunky but no obvious errors; leave in for now
B) "responsible for advancing studies of HOW X and of Y" breaks parallelism
C) "The discovery ARE responsible for" subject verb mismatch
D) "The discovery ARE responsible for" subject verb mismatch
E) "responsible for advancing studies of X and of HOW Y" breaks parallelism


14.    D
The original sentence contains a lot of clauses in a confusing order. We need
to find an answer choice that rephrases the sentence in a clear and concise
manner. Also, the phrase "though now eaten in large quantities around the
world and harmless" contains two elements that are not parallel. Moreover,
"including belladonna" is incorrect left dangling. It should be "which includes
belladonna." Finally, "itself" could refer either to "tomato" or to "belladonna".
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence. (B) The
pronoun "it" is ambiguous as it could refer either to "the nightshade family" or
"belladonna" or "tomato." Additionally, the phrase "though now eaten in large
quantities around the world and harmless" contains two elements that are not
parallel. (C) The phrase "including belladonna" does not properly modify
anything. (D) CORRECT. The opening phrase contains the two parallel
elements "eaten in large quantities . . ." and "known to be harmless." The
phrase "which includes belladonna" correctly modifies the "nightshade family."
Finally, the pronoun "it" unambiguously refers to the tomato. (E) The phrase
"including belladonna" does not properly modify anything.




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15.    The correct answer is C. The first verb phrase of the sentence "can
serve as camouflage" must be parallel with what follows "or". In the original
sentence, however, "can serve as camouflage" and "to warn predators" are
not parallel. Choice A is incorrect because of faulty parallelism. Choice B is
incorrect because of faulty parallelism. Choice D is parallel because it fits the
construction "as X or as Y." However, choice D also contains the incorrect
construction "predator's warning" instead of the better "warning to predators"
(the warning is to the predators; it doesn't belong to the predators). D also
incorrectly uses "which", which should refer only to the previous noun, not to
an entire action or clause. Choice E is incorrect because of faulty parallelism.


16.    C
To tackle... is sets up a parallel; to tackle is to become embroiled. (1), (2), and
(5) don’t create the parallel so eliminate them. The only difference between
(3) and (4) is the use of between or among, respectively. Here’s another rule
to memorize: Between is the correct preposition when two options are
presented, and among is correct when there are more than two. Since there
are two sides in this dispute, between is correct. Eliminate (4) and (3)
remains.
17.    C
First of all, realizing in the original sentence is wrong because it doesn’t really
describe a result. Instead, the participle defines a process. Even though the
phrasing may sound strange, the realization is correct because, as a noun,
realization can logically describe a result. Eliminate (1) and (4). (2) introduces
its own unique error with the entirely vague they. Since we don’t know what
they refers to, the pronoun is incorrect. (3) and (5) remain. (5) sounds fine
when read on its own, but if you read it into the sentence you’ll see the
problem: concerns about crime are greater than [those about] health care.
Without those about, the sentence misuses ellipsis. (3) it is.


18.    A
The original sentence correctly contrasts "antigenic shift" and "antigenic drift"
in a parallel format. In addition, the connection punctuation, a semi-colon, is
used correctly to connect two complete sentences.


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(A) CORRECT. The sentence is correct as written.
(B) This choice uses the incorrect comparison phrase "different than"; the
correct phrase is "different from." In addition, the comparison "antigenic shift
refers to..." is not parallel to "the natural mutation of... known as antigenic
drift." Finally, the simple comma between "influenza" and "different" provides
an inadequate transition between the two parts of the sentence; the addition
of a conjunction such as "and is" (e.g., "... influenza, [and is] different ...") is
necessary here.
(C) The comparison "antigenic shift refers to..." is not parallel to "the natural
mutation of... known as antigenic drift."
(D) This choice uses the incorrect comparison phrase "different than"; the
correct phrase is "different from." In addition, the simple comma between
"influenza" and "different" provides an inadequate transition between the two
parts of the sentence; the addition of a conjunction such as "and is" (e.g., "...
influenza, [and is] different ...") is necessary here.
(E) This choice creates a sentence fragment by incorrectly using a semi-colon
when the second half of the sentence ("in contrast to antigenic drift...") is not a
complete sentence.




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Subject Verb Agreement
1.     Contestants, has
2.     books, were
3.     Are
4.     Were
5.     Is
6.     Friends, is
7.     Do… this is a confusing one… but the subject of the verb
(do/does) is “cricketers”, not “Dhoni”, so the plural DO is required.
8.     The feline leukemia virus, characterized by a loss of appetite, weight
loss, poor coat condition, and other debilitating losses, is rampant among cats
on the island.
9.     The Supreme Court’s rulings on assisted suicide, which overturned two
previous decisions by a United States Circuit Court, dictate that any health
care official involved can be held responsible.
10.    They each ARE applying for a job. Here one might think that as “each”
is singular, the correct verb should be “is”, but actually “each” is not the
subject of the sentence. Here “each” is only an intensifier (used for emphasis).
The sentence can be written without “each”. So the subject is “THEY”, so the
right verb is “ARE”.
11.    Each of the five TV channels IS going to broadcast the match.
12.    Five TV channels each are going to broadcast the match. CORRECT.


13.    Everyday, the scent of apples and cinnamon sticks permeates
throughout the cider mill, causing most visitors to purchase snacks while on
the tour.


14.    The number of car accidents involving deer, up seventeen percent from
ten years ago and continuing to rise throughout the country, has decreased in
Michigan’s upper peninsula due to the increased use of car-mounted deer
whistles by residents.




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15.   Ernest Hemingway and his contemporaries, all of whom were authors
born at the turn of the century, WERE revered for describing the sense of
aimlessness felt by their generation.


16.   Once the flight landed, neither the flight attendants nor the captain,
who even tried using a hammer, WAS able to open the emergency exit door.


17.   At the Springfield Museum of Art, each painting and sculpture, some
purchased for millions of dollars and others found discarded at garage sales,
has its history displayed on a board beside the piece.


18.   At the beginning of the play, each of King Lear’s daughters—Goner,
Regan, and Cornelia—appears to be jealous, treacherous, and immoral, but it
is soon discovered that Cornelia is virtuous and loyal.


19.   Because a hive of European honeybees produces much more honey
than the bees can consume, beekeepers harvest the excess for human
consumption.


20.   Tear gas, launched in the form of grenades or aerosol cans, is an
irritant used by police to calm rioting crowds and unruly mobs.


21.   CORRECT


22.   Bill and Lass believed that if they were coached every day and
dedicated themselves to practice, their dream of becoming professional
skaters could someday be a reality.


23.   Hospitals have always been thought of as places for the sick and dying
so many people avoid them, even for preventative medicine.


24.   The three Supreme Court Justices appointed by the current President
were judged on their trial records as attorneys and as elected judges.



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25.    Despite their cute and cuddly image, hippopotamuses—Africa's most
feared animals—account for more human deaths than any other African
creature.


26.    In South America and Southern Mexico, a colony of Driver ants, known
for their fiercely defensive behavior, has been known to kill immobile livestock,
such as tethered cows or corralled horses.


SVA Mixed Bag:
1.     A
When describing the similarities between unlike things, the idiom
“compare to” is used. When describing the differences between like
things, the idiom “compare with” is used.
In this sentence, differences between two like things, a tropical cyclone
systems and subtropical cyclone systems, are discussed. Therefore, the idiom
“in comparison with” is the correct choice.
(A) CORRECT. The sentence is correct as written.
(B) The singular verb “has” does not agree with the plural subject "systems.”
(C) The choice moves the phrase "located farther from the center" to a new
position, which alters the meaning of the sentence. The original meaning
states that the winds are located farther from the center of the storm. This
sentence states that the zone is located farther from the winds, which is
nonsensical.
(D) “In comparison to” is not the correct idiom to use when describing the
differences between like things; the correct idiom is “in comparison with.”
(E) “In comparison to” is not the correct idiom to use when describing the
differences between like things; the correct idiom is “in comparison with.”
The singular verb “has” does not agree with the plural subject "systems.”


2.     B
The original sentence contains a subject-verb agreement issue. The singular
noun "analysis" does not agree with the plural verb "provide."
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.



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(B) CORRECT. This choice correctly uses the singular verb "provides" to
agree with the singular noun "analysis."
(C) This choice contains incorrect subject-verb agreement. The singular noun
"analysis" does not agree with the plural verb "provide." In addition, the
singular noun "animal" does not agree with the plural verb "use."
(D) This choice correctly uses the singular verb "provides" to agree with the
singular noun "analysis." However, the singular noun "animal" does not agree
with the plural verb "use."
(E) This choice contains incorrect subject-verb agreement. The singular noun
"analysis" does not agree with the plural verb "provide." Moreover, the use of
the phrase "animals, like humans" sets up a comparison between animals and
humans. This nonsensically suggests that humans are not a type of animal.
Moreover, the comparison distorts the meaning of the sentence by suggesting
that all animals use a hierarchical structure of communication. In contrast, the
use of the phrase "animals other than humans" in the original sentence
implies that some animals (though not necessarily all animals), in addition to
humans, use a hierarchical structure of communication.


3.     C
First, the subject of the main clause is "the increase in unemployment rates,"
which is singular. Yet, the verb in the main clause is "are forcing," which is
plural. Second, "significantly increased retail prices as well as energy costs" is
both awkward and unclear. The logical inference is that the energy costs have
increased as well, but this is not clear from the grammar that "significantly
increased" modifies "energy costs" in addition to "retail prices." This phrase
could also be more elegantly expressed.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The subject of the main clause here is "the increase in rates of
unemployment," which is singular, but the verb is "have been forcing," which
is plural. However, the replacement of "as well as" with "and" is an
improvement over the original sentence because it more clearly links
"significant increases" and "energy costs."
(C) CORRECT. The subject of the main clause is "the increase in
unemployment rates" and the corresponding verb is "is forcing," which are


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both singular. The phrase "coupled with significant increases in both retail
prices and energy costs" is elegant and clearly links "significant increases" to
"energy costs" through the use of "both."
(D) The subject of the main clause is "the increase in unemployment rates"
and the corresponding verb is "is forcing," which are both singular. However,
the phrase "coupled with significantly increased retail prices as well as energy
costs" is still awkward and unclear.
(E) The subject of the main clause is "the increase in unemployment rates"
and the corresponding verb is "had been forcing," which are both singular.
However, "had been forcing" is in the past perfect tense, which requires two
past actions, one of which must occur earlier than than the other. This is not
the case here. Moreover, the correct idiom is "both X and Y" and not "both X
as well as Y."




4.     A
The original sentence is correct. The plural verb "are" agrees with the plural
subject "engravings". The idiom "of interest to" is correct.
(A) CORRECT. The original sentence is correct as written.
(B) This is incorrect because it uses "are interests...for" instead of the correct
idiom. The placement of "both" is awkward.
(C) The placement of "both" distorts the meaning of the sentence, by making
it seem as if there are only two Hogarth engravings. "Are...interesting to"
sounds casual compared to the preferred idiom.
(D) The singular verb "is" fails to agree with the plural subject "engravings".
(E) The singular verb "is" fails to agree with the plural subject "engravings".
The phrase "interesting for" is unidiomatic.


5.     E
The original sentence contains several errors. First, it is incorrect to refer to
"the amount of car accidents" because "amount of" is used only with
uncountable quantities, such as “amount of salt.” Since accidents are
countable, the correct quantity reference is "the number of car accidents."
Second, the original sentence compares “the amount of accidents” to


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“accidents caused by faulty wiring.” The correct (i.e., logically and structurally
parallel) comparison is between the number of one type of accident and the
number of another type of accident. Third, the present perfect "have been
relaxed" is incorrectly used. This action occurred exclusively in the past, so
the simple past "were relaxed" is needed.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) First, it is incorrect to refer to "the amount of car accidents" because
"amount of" is used only with uncountable quantities, such as “amount of salt.”
Since accidents are countable, the correct quantity reference is "the number
of car accidents." Second, this choice compares “the amount of accidents” to
“accidents caused by faulty wiring.” The correct (i.e., logically and structurally
parallel) comparison is between the number of one type of accident and the
number of another type of accident. Finally, the antecedent of the plural
pronoun “those” is ambiguous: it could refer to “car accidents” or “faulty
brakes.”
(C) The plural verb “have increased” does not agree with the singular subject
“the number.”
(D) This choice compares “the number of car accidents caused by faulty
brakes” to “accidents caused by faulty wiring.” The correct (i.e., logically and
structurally parallel) comparison is between “the number of car accidents
caused by faulty brakes” to “the number of car accidents caused by faulty
wiring.” Third, the past perfect "had been relaxed" can only be correctly used
to indicate that the regulations were relaxed prior to some other action in the
past. In this sentence, there is no other past action, so the use of the past
perfect tense cannot be justified and the simple past "were relaxed" should be
used instead.
(E) CORRECT. “The number” is correctly used to refer to car accidents, a
countable quantity. Also, a logically and structurally parallel comparison is
made between “the number of car accidents caused by faulty brakes” to “the
number caused by faulty wiring.” Finally, this choice uses the correct simple
past “were relaxed.”




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6.      B
The original sentence states that "a higher interest rate is only one of the
factors...that keeps..." The clause "that keeps the housing market from
spiraling out of control" is describing the word "factors." Since "factors" is
plural noun and "keeps" agrees with singular nouns, we need to find a
sentence that replaces "keeps" with "keep". Also, "like it did earlier in the
decade" is incorrect. When comparing clauses (i.e., a phrase containing a
subject and a verb), we must use "as" instead of "like." For example, "She
sings like her mother" and "She sings as her mother does" are both correct,
but "She sings like her mother does" is not.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. This choice remedies the verb agreement issue by using the
singular "keep." It also correctly changes the comparison word from "like" to
"as."
(C) This subject-verb issue with "keeps" remains.
(D) The subject-verb issue is remedied, however, the comparison is a faulty
one. "Like" is used to compare two nouns and here the second part of the
comparison is "earlier in the decade." The phrase "it did" is needed here to
logically complete the comparison, in which case, "as" must be used to draw
the comparison.
(E) The subject-verb issue is remedied, however, the word "as" should be
used instead of "like."




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7.     A
This sentence correctly matches the singular subject "Daughters of the
American Revolution" with the singular verb "admits." Note that the subject is
the organization (singular) rather than the many individual “daughters” (plural).
"Only" correctly modifies "women who can prove…," indicating that neither
men nor women without genealogical ties to an American patriot are admitted
as members of the organization.
(A) CORRECT. This sentence is correct as written.
(B) This choice incorrectly matches the singular subject "Daughters of the
American Revolution" with the plural verb "admit."
(C) In this choice, the adverb "only" has been deleted from the sentence,
changing the meaning. The sentence now implies that the organization may
admit the people mentioned (women who can prove lineal descent….) as well
as other people not mentioned. The original intent of the sentence was to
indicate the eligibility requirement for membership.
(D) This choice incorrectly matches the singular subject "Daughters of the
American Revolution" with the plural verb "admit."
(E) In this choice, the adverb "only" modifies "from a patriot of the American
Revolution,” nonsensically indicating that to be eligible for membership in the
organization, women can have no ancestors other than a single patriot.




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SET 3


VERBS


1. If I score 700+, I will apply to Harvard Business School. Don’t write: If I
      will score 700+, I will apply to Harvard Business School.


2. If I had scored 700+, I would have applied to Harvard Business School OR
      Had I scored 700+, I would have applied to Harvard Business School.
      Don’t write: If I would have scored 700+, I would have applied to Harvard
      Business School.
3 to 6: Correct
7.
He said THAT the college had rusticated him and THAT his future was dark.
8.
In 1975, Sippy produced a film that would become the biggest blockbuster
Indian Cinema has ever seen till date.
9.
He said, "I will go to New York next week." In indirect speech, the sentence
will become: He said that he WOULD go to New York …
10 to 27: All Correct
28.      Correct: I watched a movie yesterday. NOT HAD WATCHED.
29.      Correct: At a recent conference, the minister said… NOT HAD SAID.
30.      Correct: India progressed throughout the 20th century… NOT HAD
PROGRESSED.
31 to 44. Correct
45.      He asked me to give my opinion quickly.
46.      Commodity prices can cause inflation to rise suddenly.


Verbs Mixed Bag


1.       E



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The phrase propose that creates a situation in which the subjunctive must be
used. The following verb, initially will be, needs to become be in order to be
correct, so you can eliminate (1) and (4) (might be in (3) is fine to the extent
that it still uses the subjunctive). Of the remaining choices, you can eliminate
(3) for misplacing a modifier. By placing supplies at the end of the first phrase,
choice (3) illogically suggests that the administrators want the supplies to be
opened. (5) is better than (2) because to open is clearer and less wordy than
the passive to be opened. Go with (5).


2.      E
One problem with this sentence is that the first clause of an “if x, then y”
sentence should not contain the conditional verb “would”. The other problem
is that the tense of the second clause is incorrect. This is an “if x, then y”
sentence in which the first clause concerns a possible future event, and the
second clause concerns a predicted consequence of that event. The first
clause should therefore be in the present tense, and the second clause
should be in the simple future tense (“it will attract”).


(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.


(B) The first clause of this version is incorrect because: (1) it still contains
"would", and (2) there is no good reason to use the passive voice ("be
opened") here. The second clause is incorrect because it changes the
meaning of the sentence by saying that the store would merely "be able to"
attract holiday shoppers.


(C) "If it was opening" is always incorrect. For a possible future event in an "if"
clause, you should normally use the present tense and the indicative mood: "If
it opens". [If you wanted to indicate skepticism about the possibility that the
store will open, you could use the subjunctive mood. But the correct way to do
that would be to say "If it opened" or "If it were to open" or "If it were
opening".]
     The second clause of this sentence is also incorrect, as explained in (B).



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(D) "If it was to open" is always incorrect. As noted for (C), you should
normally say "If it opens". [If you wanted to change the meaning of the
sentence, which is not a good idea in sentence correction problems, you
could use the subjunctive mood. But the correct way to do that would be to
say "If it opened" or "If it were to open" or "If it were opening".]
     In the second clause, "also" is unnecessary and somewhat illogical. The
action in the second clause will happen, if it happens at all, as a later result of
what happens in the first clause. The word "also" contains a suggestion of
simultaneity that is inappropriate in this context.


(E) CORRECT. We now have a correct “if x, then y” sentence, in which the
first clause is in the present tense and the second clause is in the simple
future tense.


3.       C
The sentence makes clear that the timeframe in question is "the past several
years." Since the action began in the past but continues to the present, the
appropriate tense is the present perfect (for example, "have walked", "have
eaten", etc.)


(A) This choice incorrectly uses the conditional tense "would feel," which is
inappropriate here to indicate an actual occurrence.


(B) This choice incorrectly uses the future tense "will feel," which is
inconsistent with the past and present nature of the event.


(C) CORRECT. The present perfect "have felt" correctly indicates that that the
orchestras began to feel the pressure in the past and continue to feel the
pressure in the present.


(D) This choice incorrectly uses the simple present tense "feel," which does
not indicate that the action began in the past and continues to the present.




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(E) This choice incorrectly uses the present tense "are feeling," which does
not address the past nature of the sentence.




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4.     B
The non-underlined portion of the sentence utilizes the present perfect tense
“have . . . predicted” to indicate that the analysts have and continue to predict
the development of democratic institutions in China. In the original sentence,
the present perfect tense is also utilized in “has . . . followed” to describe the
pattern of democracy following industrial development. However, the
sentence clearly refers to the past with the phrase “throughout the 20th
century,” making the use of the present perfect tense incorrect, as the activity
cannot be continuing if it occurred in the past and ended at the end of the 20th
century.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. This choice correctly uses the simple past tense in reference
to the pattern of democracy following industrial development in the 20th
century, and is otherwise clear and concise.
(C) This choice utilizes the past perfect construction “had . . . followed.” This
is incorrect, as the past perfect tense requires that another action occurred in
the later past, as noted by the use of the simple past tense. There is no such
later past action in the original sentence.
(D) The simple present tense “follows” is incorrect in reference to a pattern
that occurred “throughout the 20th century,” which is in the past.
(E) This choice correctly uses the simple past tense form of the verb.
However, here “general” is incorrectly used to modify “industrial development”
as opposed to being used to describe the pattern of democracy following
industrial development; moreover, the meaning of “general industrial
development” is unclear.




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5.      B
The original contains a tense error. The past perfect, "Although he had
resisted" is correct because it is the earlier of two past actions, as it must have
occurred before he led the uprising. Past perfect is used to identify the
earliest past time period. All other past time periods should use the simple
past.
(A) The original has the aforementioned tense error.
(B) CORRECT. As discussed above, the earlier action uses the past perfect,
and the later past event uses the simple past.
(C) This choice incorrectly resolves the tense error, as "had led" is the later
past event and "resisted" is the earlier one. Thus, "led" and "had resisted"
should be employed.
(D) The expression "was earlier known as T. E. Lawrence" is wordy and
makes the meaning less clear. He became "known" (famous) as Lawrence of
Arabia rather than by his birth name. Also, making "was known" the main verb
of the sentence changes the meaning of the sentence, since
now the "although he had resisted" clause is nonsensically contrasted to the
main clause: "was earlier known as T. E. Lawrence."
(E) The pronoun "they" has no plural antecedent; pronouns must have a clear
reference and agree with that antecedent in number.




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6.     D
The original contains a verb mood error. “If adolescence was” is improper
subjunctive. “Was” should not be used in an “if” clause indicating a
hypothetical condition. "If adolescence were” is correct.


(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice has a verb mood error. “Was” should not be used in an “if”
clause indicating a hypothetical condition; “were” would be correct. Also, the
plural “they” can not refer to the singular “adolescence.”
(C) This choice correctly employs the subjunctive mood by stating “if
adolescence were.” However, the plural “they” can not refer to the singular
“adolescence.”
(D) CORRECT. The “if” clause properly uses the subjunctive mood, “if
adolescence were.” The singular “it” refers to the singular “adolescence.”
(E) This choice correctly employs the subjunctive mood by stating “if
adolescence were.” However, “being one” is wordy and awkward; using “it” is
preferable. “Being” is virtually always wordy and incorrect.




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7.     E
The non-underlined portion of the sentence contains the phrase "ordered
that," which requires a clause containing the subjunctive mood. However, the
original sentence uses "should be tested" instead of the subjunctive “be
tested.” In addition, it is illogical to test a lake or stream "for mercury levels":
this implies that one is testing to see whether mercury levels exist. Instead,
one would “test the mercury levels” of the lake or stream, measuring the
amount of mercury.


(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.


(B) The active construction “all lakes and streams should have their mercury
levels tested” is illogical: lakes and streams cannot do such a thing, rather a
person would have to test the mercury levels of the lakes and streams.


(C) This choice correctly uses the subjunctive “be tested.” However, the
placement of the prepositional phrase “for all lakes and streams” after “be
tested” is awkward and can be misinterpreted to mean that the testing is “for”
or “on behalf of” the lakes and streams. Instead, one would test “the mercury
levels of all lakes and streams.”


(D) The non-underlined portion of the sentence contains the phrase "ordered
that," which requires a clause containing the subjunctive mood. However, this
choice uses "should be tested" instead of the subjunctive “be tested.”


(E) CORRECT. This choice correctly uses the subjunctive “be tested,” and
correctly references the testing of “mercury levels,” replacing the incorrect
“tested for mercury levels.”


8.     D
In the original sentence, "While the stock market was bouncing back" implies
that something else was taking place simultaneously in the past, but the rest
of the sentence is in present tense ("U.S. families are still reeling"). In
addition, the phrasing "between 2001 to 2004" is incorrect; the correct idiom is


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either "between X and Y" or "from X to Y" (and, in this case, we must use
"from X to Y" since only the first word is underlined).
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) "While the stock market bounced back" implies that the next action took
place simultaneously in the past, but the next verb ("are still reeling") is in the
present tense. In addition, this is a run-on sentence; the comma after the
word "recession" should be a semi-colon.
(C) This sentence incorrectly uses "between X to Y." The correct idiom must
be "from X to Y."
(D) CORRECT. This choice remedies the mis-matched tenses by pairing the
present perfect "has bounced back," which indicates an action began in the
past and has continued into the present, with the present tense "are still
reeling." In addition, it uses the correct idiom ("from X to Y").
(E) "While the stock market bounced back" implies that the next action took
place simultaneously in the past, but the next verb ("are still reeling") is in the
present tense.




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9.      D
The phrase “recent global boom” describes something that began in the past
and is continuing into the present; hence, the present perfect tense “has led”
is more appropriate than the simple present tense “leads.” In addition, “such
as” is preferred to “like” when introducing examples.


(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.


(B) The singular subject “boom” does not agree with the plural verb “have
led.”


(C) The meaning of the sentence has changed because this choice states that
the number of “thieves” has increased rather than the number of “thefts.” In
addition, “such as” is preferred to “like” when introducing examples.


(D) CORRECT. This choice correctly uses the present perfect tense “has led”
to indicate that the boom began in the past and is continuing into the present,
and also to properly indicate that the boom started before the rise in theft. In
addition, “such as” is preferred to “like” when introducing examples.


(E) The present perfect tense “has led” is more appropriate than the present
progressive tense “is leading” because although the present progressive
indicates an action or state that is continuing, it does not properly indicate the
relative time sequence of the boom and the subsequent rise in the theft of
metal objects.




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10.    E
The expression “as though” introduces a supposition that is contrary to fact
(the pipe is not a twig). Such suppositions must be expressed in the
subjunctive mood. For example, in the phrase "I wish I were rich," the verb
"were" is in the subjunctive because the phrase expresses a desire contrary
to fact. The appropriate singular form of the verb “to be” in the subjunctive
mood is “were.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) “Like” should not be used to introduce the comparative clause “a twig
does.” The word “as” should be used instead. "Like" is used to compare
nouns only.
(C) The verb “is” is not appropriate for the subjunctive mood. The appropriate
singular form of the verb “to be” in the subjunctive mood is “were.”
(D) The verb “was” is not appropriate for the subjunctive mood. The
appropriate singular form of the verb “to be” in the subjunctive mood is “were.”
In addition, this choice changes the meaning of the sentence. While the
original sentence asserts that it is possible for rust to deteriorate a steel pipe
to the point where it will snap easily, this choice asserts only that it is possible
for rust to deteriorate the pipe to a point where it might snap, i.e., it implies a
somewhat lesser degree of possible deterioration.
(E) CORRECT. This choice correctly uses the subjunctive “were.”


11.    A
The past perfect "had believed" is correct because it is the earlier of two past
actions (the later action is "proved," which is in the simple past tense). The
main clause is correctly written in active voice. The clause "an imaginary
substance whose..." correctly modifies "phlogiston."
(A) CORRECT. This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The simple past "believed" is incorrect because it is the earlier of two past
actions and should be in the past perfect tense instead: "had believed."
Moreover, "was an imaginary substance released by combustion" is
unnecessarily in passive voice.
Finally, the construction "and its properties were not fully understood"
is incorrectly parallel with "phlogiston was released by combustion"


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rather than subordinate to it, as in the original sentence; this also
creates ambiguity around the pronoun "its" which could refer to either
combustion or phlogiston.
Here parallelism is not needed.
(C) The placement of "phlogiston" immediately after the opening clause
incorrectly implies that phlogiston had been imaginary until Lavoisier proved
otherwise. Moreover, the sentence is unnecessarily in the passive voice.
(D) This sentence is unnecessarily in the passive voice. Moreover, "was
believed" is incorrectly in the simple past tense. It should instead be in the
past perfect tense ("had been believed"), because it is the earlier of two past
actions.
(E) This sentence correctly uses the past perfect "had believed" but its
construction incorrectly implies that scientists had believed that phlogiston
was imaginary.




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12.   A
The original sentence correctly uses the passive construction "is produced,"
which is necessary because of the later construction "by the exposure of the
metal to the oxygen in the atmosphere." Changing this verb to the active voice
would create an illogical sentence: "Aerugo...produces...by the exposure of
the metal to the oxygen in the atmosphere."
(A) CORRECT. This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) "Produces" is incorrectly in the active voice, making "by the exposure of
the metal to the oxygen in the atmosphere" illogical. Moreover, "that" and
"which" are unnecessary.
(C) "Produces" is incorrectly in the active voice, making "by the exposure of
the metal to the oxygen in the atmosphere" illogical.
(D) "Produces" is incorrectly in the active voice, making "by the exposure of
the metal to the oxygen in the atmosphere" illogical. Moreover, both instances
of "that" are unnecessary.
(E) "Is produced" is correctly used in the passive voice. However, both
instances of "which" are unnecessary.




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13.    A
The original sentence is correct as written. It correctly uses the past tense
passive verb form "was backed." In this context, the simple past tense is
appropriate since there is no need to indicate any complex time sequence.
Further, the passive construction "was backed by" is required to indicate that
the currency was supported by something else: fixed assets.
(A) CORRECT. This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice incorrectly uses the past perfect tense "had been backed."
The past perfect form (indicated by the word "had") should only be used in a
sentence that contains two past actions or events; the earlier past action
takes the past perfect tense, while the later past action takes the simple past
tense. In this sentence, there is only one past event; therefore, the use of the
past perfect tense is unnecessary and incorrect.
(C) This choice incorrectly changes the passive construction "was backed by"
into the active "was backing," thereby distorting the meaning of the sentence.
The original sentence indicated that the currency was backed by the fixed
assets, not, as is suggested here ("paper currency was . . . backing"), that the
fixed assets were backed by the currency.
(D) This choice incorrectly uses the past perfect tense and the active voice in
the construction "had backed." The past perfect form (indicated by the word
"had") should only be used in a sentence that contains two past actions or
events; the earlier past action takes the past perfect tense, while the later past
action takes the simple past tense. In this sentence, there is only one past
event; therefore, the use of the past perfect tense is unnecessary and
incorrect. Moreover, the active construction "had backed" distorts the meaning
of the sentence. The original sentence indicated that the currency was backed
by the fixed assets rather than, as is suggested here ("paper currency had . . .
backed"), that the fixed assets were backed by the currency.
(E) This choice incorrectly uses the present perfect tense "has been backed."
The present perfect form (indicated by the word "has" or "have") should only
be used to indicate an action or event that started in the past and continues
into or remains true in the present. Since, according to the sentence, paper
currency is no longer backed by fixed assets, the use of the present perfect
tense is inappropriate.


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Find the Conclusion


     1.      All Facts: It is a fact set. No conclusion.
2.        Journalist: A free marketplace of ideas ensures that all ideas get a fair
          hearing. Even ideas tainted with prejudice and malice can prompt
          beneficial outcomes. In most countries, however, the government is
          responsible for over half the information released to the public through
          all media. For this reason, the power of governments over
          information needs to be curtailed. Everyone grants that
          governments should not suppress free expression, yet governments
          continue to construct near monopolies on the publication and
          dissemination of enormous amounts of information.
3.        Last month OCF, Inc., announced what it described as a unique new
          product: an adjustable computer workstation. Three days later
          ErgoTech unveiled an almost identical product. The two companies
          claim that the similarities are coincidental and occurred because the
          designers independently reached the same solution to the same
          problem. The similarities are too fundamental to be mere
          coincidence, however. The two products not only look alike, but they
          also work alike. Both are oddly shaped with identically placed control
          panels with the same types of controls. Both allow the same types of
          adjustments and the same types of optional enhancements.
4.
Conclusion: This characteristic [altering the environment] is actually quite
common
FACT: It is well known that many species adapt to their environment, but it is
usually assumed that only the most highly evolved species alter their
environment in ways that aid their own survival.
FACT: Certain species of plankton, for example, generate a gas that is
converted in the atmosphere into particles of sulfate.
FACT: These particles cause water vapor to condense, thus forming clouds.
FACT: Indeed, the formation of clouds over the ocean largely depends on the
presence of these particles.



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FACT: More cloud cover means more sunlight is reflected, and so the Earth
absorbs less heat.
SUB-CONCLUSION: Thus plankton cause the surface of the Earth to be
cooler and this benefits the plankton.


5.     C
FACT: Rain-soaked soil contains less oxygen than does drier soil.


FACT: The roots of melon plants perform less efficiently under the low-
oxygen conditions present in rain-soaked soil.


FACT: When the efficiency of melon roots is impaired, the roots do not supply
sufficient amounts of the proper nutrients for the plants to perform
photosynthesis at their usual levels.


SUB-CONCLUSION: It follows that melon plants have a lower-than-usual
rate of photosynthesis when their roots are in rain-soaked soil.


FACT: When the photosynthesis of the plants slows, sugar stored in the fruits
is drawn off to supply the plants with energy.


MAIN CONCLUSION: Therefore, ripe melons harvested after a prolonged
period of heavy rain should be less sweet than other ripe melons.


If there are 2 conclusions, there will be one main and one sub-conclusion.
Now this is a flowing argument so there is no statement that opposes any
other statement. Also, let’s analyze each choice one-by-one:
A.
The first states the conclusion of the argument as a whole; the second
provides support for that conclusion. WRONG. The conclusion is the last
statement, not the first.
B.




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The first provides support for the conclusion of the argument as a whole; the
second provides evidence that supports an objection to that conclusion. The
word objection makes it wrong.
C.
The first provides support for an intermediate conclusion that supports a
further conclusion stated in the argument; the second states that intermediate
conclusion. – CORRECT
D.
The first serves as an intermediate conclusion that supports a further
conclusion stated in the argument; the second states the position that the
argument as a whole opposes. The word “opposes” makes it wrong.
E.
The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the
second supports the conclusion of the argument. The word “opposes” makes
it wrong.


The minimum voting age for males in district X is 18 years.
A – wrong: may be there are other conditions. Nationality, citizenship, crime
record etc.
B – wrong: data only about males. Can’t generalize.
C – wrong: He may be above 18. Not 18 may be below 18 or above 18.
D – wrong: He may be above 18. Not just 18.
ANS. E – Right: Translation of the given statement


Every male above 18 is allowed to vote in county X.
A – wrong: Not 18 does not mean less than 18. May be more than 18 too.
B – wrong: above 18 allowed does not mean below 18 not allowed.
C – wrong: above 18 allowed does not mean below 18 not allowed.
D – wrong: above 18 allowed does not mean below 18 not allowed.
E – wrong: Every male above 18 is allowed to vote in county X, means males
below 18 may also be allowed; but we don’t know how the eligibility up to 18
is decided. It is possible that males below 18 may vote only under special
conditions etc. so age may not be the only criterion.



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If one plays in the rain, one gets cold. Only statement 3 is correct. So if
X→Y, the only valid conclusion is Y (not) → X (not)


Conclusion Mixed Bag


1.
The correct answer choice is (C). The last sentence contains a conclusion,
and this conclusion is the primary evidence that supports answer choice (C).
Answer choice (A): The word “often” in the first sentence is the key to this
answer choice. “Often” means frequently, but frequently is not the same as
“most.” Had the stimulus said “more often than not,” that would mean “most”
and this answer choice would be correct. Answer choice (B): We cannot
determine if readers of mystery stories solve the mystery simply by spotting
the errors of the dull companion. Answer choice (C): This is the correct
answer. The second sentence indicates that “clues are presented in the
story...the detective uses to deduce the correct solution.” Combined with the
last sentence, which states “the author’s strategy...gives readers a chance to
solve the mystery,” this answer choice is proven by facts. Answer choice (D):
Look for the facts in the stimulus—do they support this answer? Although the
dull companion diverts readers from the correct solution, we do not know if
actions of the brilliant detective rarely divert readers from the actions of the
dull companion. Answer choice (E): This is a tricky answer choice if you do
not read closely. The stimulus states that the dull companion infers a wrong
solution from clues that the brilliant detective ultimately uses to solve the
mystery. Answer choice (E) states that the dull companion uncovers
misleading clues. This is incorrect; the interpretation of the clues is
misleading, not the clues themselves.




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2.     The correct answer choice is (B). The passage tells the story of
recent physics theories: Newtonian physics was preeminent for over two
centuries, and despite widespread acknowledgment and confirmation it was
surpassed by Einsteinian physics in the early 1900s. Answer choice (A): The
two theories cited in the stimulus are not sufficient to form a pattern, which is
the basis of answer choice (A). Answer choice (B): This is the correct answer.
As shown by the case of Newtonian physics, success and substantiation is no
guarantee of dominance. Answer choice (C): This is an exaggerated answer
that takes one instance and exaggerates it into a pattern. Although Newtonian
physics was surpassed, this does not prove that every theory of physics will
be eventually surpassed. The answer goes farther than the facts of the
stimulus and fails the Fact Test. Answer choice (D): Like answer choice (C),
this answer goes too far. Although some theories of physics have been
dominant for centuries, there is no guarantee that every theory will be
dominant for that long. Answer choice (E): Even though Einsteinian physics
has enjoyed wide success in surpassing Newtonian physics, nowhere in the
stimulus is there evidence to prove that each theory must be surpassed by an
equally successful theory.




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3.     Ans. E        In CR, A → B means B NOT → A NOT. Sentence 1:
SFP—> H NOT so we must have H → SFP NOT.


4.     C
The cost of flour from the local mill is higher than the cost of the flour from the
out-of-state mill. However, when purchasing from the out-of-state mill, Barry’s
Bagels must pay shipping and handling fees that would not apply to a
purchase from the local mill. Purchasing the flour from the out-of-state mill will
only be cheaper if those shipping and handling fees are smaller than the
difference in the flour costs of the two suppliers. Also, we cannot assume any
additional information or move beyond the scope of the given premises in
order to find the conclusion.
(A) Lower production costs could explain the lower price of the flour from
Isadore’s Interstate Mill, but there may be a variety of other reasons. We
cannot state this conclusively.
(B) It is possible that the number of local flour mill jobs would be decreased,
but no evidence in the passage leads to that conclusion.
(C) CORRECT. This statement properly identifies the point that, for ordering
from an out-of-state mill to be less expensive, the shipping and handling fees
must be less than the difference in the flour costs of the two suppliers. Say,
for example, that a batch of flour costs $100 from Larry’s Local Mill. The
passage tells us that the same batch would cost $90 from Isadore’s Interstate
Mill, yet when purchasing from Isadore’s, shipping and handling fees would
apply. We are told that Isadore’s total cost is cheaper than Larry’s, so
mathematically that is: $90 + Shipping & Handling < $100, which means that
Shipping & Handling < $10 = 10% of the cost of flour from Larry’s.
(D) If shipping and handling fees were more than 10 percent, purchasing from
the out-of-state supplier would be more expensive, not less.
(E) Higher efficiency could explain the lower price of the flour from Isadore’s
Interstate Mill, but there may be a variety of other reasons. We cannot state
this conclusively.




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5.      A


The argument explains that the new “Click It or Ticket” law is generating
controversy. Under the new law, drivers can be cited for not wearing their seat
belts, even in the absence of an additional driving infraction. Any acceptable
inference must be directly supported by evidence from the text.
(A) CORRECT. The entire controversy is based on the new law that allows
motorists to be cited, even in the absence of an additional infraction. Thus, it
follows that prior to the passage of this law, an additional driving infraction
must have been necessary in order to stop and cite an individual for not
wearing a seat belt.
(B) Search and seizure laws are never mentioned in the text. This answer
choice is outside the scope of the argument.
(C) Laws in other states are never mentioned in the text. This answer choice
is outside the scope of the argument.
(D) Though the text states that the new regulation might save countless
additional lives, the effectiveness of the previous laws are never mentioned.
(E) No preference is stated between law enforcement groups and the citizens'
groups. This answer choice is simply an opinion that is unsubstantiated by the
text.


6.      E
If the defense system designers did not plan for the contingency of large
meteorite explosions, such explosions would, from the system’s perspective,
be unexpected. The system’s response to such explosions is consequently
unpredictable. E expresses this inference and is thus the best answer. A
cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the stated information that no
meteorite explosion will occur within a century. B cannot be inferred since
there is no information to suggest that meteorite explosions in the atmosphere
would destroy the system. C cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the
stated information that an appropriately designed nuclear defense system
might be able to distinguish nuclear from meteorite explosions. D cannot be
inferred since there is no information to suggest that the location of blasts
would determine the appropriateness of defense system’s response.


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7.     ANS. E
Since the laws are more effective in countries farther from the equator than
the United States, the laws would probably do less to prevent collisions in the
United States than they do in the countries that now have such laws—
countries that are all farther from the equator than the United States. So
choice E is the best answer. The passage does not indicate that the use of
headlights during the day is totally ineffective, so choice A is incorrect. No
information is given about the importance of daylight visibility relative to other
causes of collisions, so choice B is incorrect. The passage contains no
quantitative information for comparing the United States to countries that have
the laws, so neither C nor D is correct.




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8.     ANS. A
Farmers benefit from governmental price supports only when they produce
the same crops from year to year. Farmers who wish to receive the benefit of
these price supports will be unlikely to reduce water pollution because they
will not follow the experts’ advice regarding diversification and rotation. Thus,
A is the best answer. Since the experts’ advice is evidently their favored
solution, the notion that the sole solution is something else (choice B) is not
supported. The statements mention neither farmers’ cost and revenues nor
developments in farming techniques, and thus support no conclusions about
prospects for profits (choice C) or future farming techniques (choice D).
Because no information is given about either the amount of price support or
farmers’ debt, choice E is not supported.




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9.     ANS. B
The passage explains that the primary way hospitals have covered the cost of
unreimbursed care in the past is no longer available to them. It follows that
they have three options: finding a new way to cover that cost, reducing it by
giving less unreimbused care, or suffering a loss. This is essentially what
choice B concludes, so B is the best answer. The passage touches neither on
kinds of medical procedures administered in hospitals (choice A) nor on
revenue other than that received from patients or their insurers (choice E), so
neither choice is correct. The passage gives no hint of who the paying
patients are how do not rely on insurance, so choice C is unsupported.
Concerning choice D, the passage actually suggests that it is false.




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10.     A
A is the best answer. If applicants who are in fact dishonest claimed to be
honest, the survey results would show a smaller proportion of dishonest
applicants than actually exists. Therefore, this choice is the best answer. B is
inappropriate because generally honest applicants who claimed to be
dishonest could contribute to the overestimation, but not to the
underestimation, of dishonest applicants. D is inappropriate because
applicants who admitted their dishonesty would not contribute to an
underestimation of the proportion of dishonest applicants. C and E are
inappropriate because the argument is concerned neither with degrees of
dishonesty nor with the honesty of non-applicants.


SET 4


Pronouns


1.      Whenever a person calls, take down HIS or HER information. OR
        When the people call, take down THEIR information.


2.      Everyone here will need HIS or HER own pencil.


3.      Some people believe that the benefits of a healthy diet outweigh
        THOSE of regular exercise.


4.      If one is hungry, ONE may eat.


5.      Meg left all her class notes at school because she decided that she
        could do her homework without THEM.


6.      While the definition of Generation X is hotly debated concerning the
        age ranges of its members, culturists generally agree that IT
        DESCRIBES a group of adults that are self-focused, cynical, and
        skeptical.



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7.       With the release of ITS fifth album, Hotel California, the band explored
         the pursuit of the American dream when accompanied by the loss of
         innocence and the presence of temptations.


8.       Counting each of the nine planets and ITS many moons, there are 162
         known and accepted celestial bodies in our solar system.


9.       The bank has offered so many convenient services, such as checking
         by phone and online banking, that many of ITS customers no longer
         visit the bank.


10.      After Ben Franklin returned from his visit to the Iroquois Nation, the
         founding fathers created a constitution that resembled THAT of the
         Native Americans.


11.      During the charity auction, the organization collected over two hundred
         thousand dollars, nearly twice as much as IT expected.


12.      Jim may not be elected CEO by the board because he does not meet
         ITS standards.


13.      CORRECT


      14. Upon hearing of the chairman's illness, the committee motioned to
         postpone ITS next meeting until after THE CHAIRMAN was released
         from the hospital.
      15. I’ll position the target, and when I nod my head, shoot at the target.
      16. If the baby does not thrive on fresh milk, the milk should be boiled.
      17. Mother told Ann that Ann’s skirt is too short.
      18. At Jamboree, a great deal of practice on computer is provided.
      19. The team's poor sportsmanship made all the players look like whiners.
      20. The parents tried to explain the risks involved in hitch hiking, but the
         explanation was useless.



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21. After interviewing several nurses, I realised that nursing / interviewing
   was not the career for me.
22. Students to Business school are not accepted solely based on their
   GMAT scores; other considerations include their undergraduate grade
   point averages, extracurricular activities and work experience.
23. A manatee differs from its relative, the dugong, in both size and shape;
   the largest difference is the dugong’s tail, which is forked, unlike the
   manatee’s paddle-shaped tail.
24. Last night on the news, the newsreaders said pilot error caused the air
   show collision.
25. By adding a value menu and allowing customers to choose side orders
   such as salads and baked potatoes, Wendy’s has not only lured
   customers away from Burger King and McDonald’s, but has enticed the
   customers to choose fast-food over meals prepared by finer dining
   establishments.
26. From 1995 to 1999, the posted speed limit on Montana's highways was
   “reasonable and prudent,” meaning drivers could travel at speeds in
   excess of 80 mph when road conditions were good. Remove “their”
27. Susan has changed her major twice this semester. This change might
   mean she is unsure of her career goal.
28. When John finally proposed, he did so only … OR          John finally
   proposed only because he …
29. Because the storm …, we felt depressed. OR We felt depressed
   because the storm lasted … OR The storm’s lasting all weekend long
   made …
30. After you didn’t return any of his calls, he felt that you don’t care. OR
   Your not returning any of his calls made him feel that you don’t care.
31. While most Americans have heard of and used Microsoft products, few
   people know that the company’s name is actually short for
   “microcomputer software.”
32. During World War II, the French strategy for protection was a wall of
   staggered forts and lookout points called the Maginot Line, but its
   weakest section ultimately led to France’s invasion.
33. We like meeting people who have different interests.


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34. We test-drove a car that had engine trouble.
35. In “DO IT”, “it” refers to a noun. In “DO SO”, “so” refers to a verb. On
    the GMAT DO SO is better than DO IT or DO THIS. When your kids
    reach a certain age, you must prepare to talk to them about
    marriage, even if you’ve never done so before.
36. The company, known for its benevolence and community-involvement,
    has donated over $100,000 to charity over the last twenty years and
    will continue to do so as long as it is financially able.
37. I
38. I
39. Its
40. Me
41. Me
42. I
43. Janice and I went on a picnic together.
44. The picnic was attended by Janice and ME.
45. WHOM are you going to marry?
46. WHOM are you going to take to the movies?
47. I don’t understand why Bob and I always have to take out the garbage.
48. The manager yelled at the umpire, WHO had called the pitch a strike,
    before throwing first base into the dugout.
49. NASA has agreed to send one American astronaut to the International
    Space Station for a six month experiment, although WHOM it will send
    has yet to be determined.
50. Jane’s first novel was so well received that JANE thought of writing its
    sequel.
51. CORRECT
52. Jane’s first novel was so well received that the publisher thought of
    giving JANE an additional royalty of 10%, lending credence to the fact
    that her (correct) subsequent writings could be even more passionate.
53. Jane’s first novel was so well received that her (correct) skeptical
    husband also started appreciating her (correct) writing style.
54. Kathy’s suitcase was so stuffed that KATHY decided to pack another
    one.


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55. The students’ work improved over the course of the semester, and the
   students should be commended for it.
56. CORRECT
57. Samantha’s face looked blurry in the photo, but I could tell
   SAMANTHA wasn’t smiling.
58. Marco Polo’s travels, which took MARCO POLO over seventeen years,
   are documented in HIS book, Il Milione.
59. Although I own the band’s album, I have never seen THE BAND in
   concert.
60. Jose's room is so messy that HIS mother calls JOSE a pig.
61. We finally chose the coffee table towards the back of the store,
   because we thought it would complement our living room
   furniture.
62. At the end of the day, the chaperones, who were exhausted from
   running after the children, took the fourth graders back to school.
63. We finally returned all the books, leaving them at the library’s front
   desk.




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Pronoun Mixed Bag

1

The original sentence contains pronoun agreement inconsistencies. Both
uses of the plural “their” refer to the singular “carrier.” The pronouns must be
changed to singular because of the presence of “her family” in the non-
underlined section, since any non-underlined portions of the sentence are
correct.
(A) Incorrect, as it repeats the original sentence.

(B) CORRECT. The pronouns that refer to “carrier” are all singular -- each
“their” is now “her.” These "her's" agree with the singular “carrier” as well as
with the “her" in the non-underlined section at the end of the sentence.

(C) This choice corrects the pronoun agreement error. The pronouns that
refer to “carrier” are all singular -- each “their” is now “her.” These "her's"
agree with the singular “carrier” as well as with the “her" in the non-underlined
section at the end of the sentence. However, “which” is incorrect; “which”
relative clauses describe the noun immediately before them, but "which
secrets are hard to keep" in this case logically should not be referring to
"Bedouin world." In this sentence, "in which" would be correct usage.

(D) This choice corrects the pronoun agreement error. The pronouns that
refer to “carrier” are all singular -- each “their” is now “her."
These "her's" agree with the singular “carrier” as well as with the “her" in the
non-underlined section at the end of the sentence. However, “families” does
not agree with “family” in the non-underlined section, as it must.

(E) In this choice, “carriers” and each “their” agree, as they are all plural.
However, the plural noun and pronouns do not agree with “her family” in the
non-underlined section at the end of the sentence. Also, "which" is incorrect;
"in which" would be correct.




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2.

The original sentence has a pronoun reference error. The plural “they” is
supposed to refer to “army.” Like many collective nouns, "army” is singular.
Furthermore, “all” is unnecessary.

(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.

(B) This choice contains a pronoun reference error. The plural “they” is
supposed to refer to “army,” a singular noun.

(C) CORRECT. Here, the singular “it” correctly refers to the singular
“army.” This choice contains no other errors.

(D) This choice contains a pronoun reference error. The plural “their” cannot
refer to Stonewall Jackson, nor to the singular “army.” Also, the “all” is
unnecessary.

(E) This choice correctly employs the singular “it” to refer to the singular
“army.” However, this choice is a run-on sentence. A comma is not enough to
separate two independent clauses.




3.

The original sentence is problematic in a number of ways. First, its use of the
pronoun “they” is incorrect in the first instance. The first “they” should refer to
the federal judge, who is singular. Hence, the use of the plural pronoun “they”
is incorrect, particularly when viewed in conjunction with the second pronoun
“their” which correctly refers to the lawyers. Also, the sentence is
unnecessarily wordy, with “in order to” detracting from the sentence’s
conciseness. “Damages against their client” is unidiomatic.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This answer choice corrects the pronoun issue. However, this sentence is
even more unnecessarily wordy and awkward, replacing “economic damages”



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with “damages of an economic nature.” Also, “the client” is an awkward use of
the article “the” given that “the client” refers to the patent holder, which
appears in the sentence.
(C) The sentence incorrectly retains the first “they” pronoun error, though it
omits the use of the second “their.” Also, “the client” is an awkward use of the
article “the” given that “the client” refers to the patent holder, which appears in
the sentence.

(D) This choice’s use of “them” incorrectly suggests that the lawyers are to be
protected from economic harm rather than their client, the patent holder.
(E) CORRECT. This sentence remedies the pronoun issue, and uses “their”
correctly in the second part of the sentence. It is also clear and concise.




4.




In choice A, it, the subject of the main clause, seems to refer to baby, the
subject of the subordinate clause; thus, A seems to state that the newbom
baby, rather than its sense of vision, would be rated 20/500. Similarly, choices
B and E use awkward and ambiguous phrasing that suggests that the sense
of vision, rather than an adult with 20/500 vision, would be considered legally
blind. C incorrectly uses the semicolon, which should separate independent
clauses, to set off a verb phrase. The phrase if an adult in C is also illogical,
since it states that a baby could also be an adult. D is the best choice.




5.




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A very special construction. Which after the comma is replaced by a
NEW NOUN.




In the original sentence, the use of "which" incorrectly implies that the key
interest rate has the curious effect, when in fact it is the raising of the interest
rate that does. Also, "lowering housing prices instead of raise them" is not a
parallel construction. And it is preferable to use "rather than" with verbs,
in place of "instead of," which is better used with nouns.

(A) This choice is the same as the original sentence.

(B) CORRECT. This choice remedies the incorrect use of "which." Moreover,
it contains the parallel construction "lowering housing prices rather than
raising them." Finally, "rather than" is correctly used here in place of "instead
of."

(C) This choice corrects the parallelism issue, but it still incorrectly uses
"which" and "instead of."

(D) This choice incorrectly uses "which."

(E) This choice incorrectly uses "instead of" and contains the unparallel
construction "lowering housing prices instead of raise them."




6.




All of the choices but D contain ambiguities. In A and B the words which and
where appear to refer to sediments, and in E it is not clear what consistent
describes. In A, C, and E, there is no logical place to which there or its could
refer. In D, the best choice, the phrase sediments from the Baltic Sea tells
where the sediments originate, findings provides a noun for consistent to



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modify, and in the area clearly identifies where the industrial activity is
growing.




7.

In the underlined portion of the original sentence, you’ve got a verb (to carry)
and a participle (determining). The answer choices allow you to convert the
verb into a participle (carrying) and the participle into a verb (determined). You
may wonder why this matters. Well, the participle determining makes the final
phrase of the sentence (determining the design of the clipper ship) into a
modifier. The problem is that it’s not clear, what precisely this phrase
modifies: Did a part of this situation (perhaps the need for speed) determine
the design of the clipper ship or did the entire situation taken together? Only
(2) and (5) respond to this problem so you can eliminate all the others; which
in (3) and (4) doesn’t provide; the clarification that we need. (5), in addition to
its clumsy phrasing, is grammatically incorrect! By replacing to carry with
carrying, it breaks the parallel structure of the sentence (the best option was
to move...rather than to carry). (2) alone survives.




8. Choice B is the best answer. It is concise and idiomatic, and which has a
clear referent, the weather. In A, the insertion of was is unnecessary, and the
referent of which is not clear because regions, not weather, is the nearest
noun. In C, the adjective usual is needed in place of the adverb usually, and
the referent of which is unclear because regions, not weather, is the nearest
noun. In D and E, the verb phrases (being colder ..., having been colder . ..)
do not refer as clearly to the noun weather as the pronoun which does.
Choice D needs the adjective usual in place of the adverb usually, while
choice E fails to maintain parallelism in verb tense (having been... and
slowed).




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9.

There’s nothing overtly wrong with the original sentence so scan the options
and look for differences. Compare in recovering from, to recover from, and in
recovery of. Considered in the context of the sentence, only the first option is
fine, the second is wrong (aid earlier in the sentence needs to be followed by
in), and the third is just not idiomatic. (1), (4), and (5) remain, giving you three
different options with respect to occurring. You’ve got the original occurring in
(1), of course, having occurred in (4), and that have occurred in (5). (4) is
wrong because having should not describe an event that ended ten years
ago. (5) is better than (1) because it’s more active and avoids the back-to-
back participles that could create some confusion in (1). (5) remains.




10.




A comma is needed after Rhone in choices A and D to set off the modifying
phrase that begins Vincent...; without the comma, the phrase appears to be
part of the main clause, and it is thus unclear what noun should govern the
verb sold. Furthermore, it in A has no logical referent, and being in D is not
idiomatic. Choices B and E produce the illogical statement that the painting
was the second highest price. Choice C, the best answer, avoids this
problem by using a noun phrase in which price clearly refers to $20.2 million.
And by using a comma after Rhone to set off the phrase that modifies The
Bridge of Trinquetaille, C makes the painting the subject of was sold.




11.




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The pronoun which should be used to refer to a previously mentioned noun,
not to the idea expressed in an entire clause. In A, C, and E, which seems to
refer to a vague concept involving the detection of moons, but there is no
specific noun, such as detection, to which it can refer. Also in E, the use of the
phrasing the number... now known that orbit is ungrammatical and unclear. B
and D use the correct participial form, doubling, to modify the preceding
clause, but D, like A, uses known as orbiting rather than known to orbit, a
phrase that is more idiomatic in context. B, therefore, is the best answer.




12.

In choice A, the phrase assigned by them modifies the adjacent noun,
paychecks: the sentence implies that paychecks, rather than employees,
work at the United Nations. In C, the phrase having been assigned... Is
uncertain in reference, making the sentence unclear. By using in place of
instead of/or, j choices D and E create the unidiomatic and redundant
construction substitutes x in place of y. Moreover, D, aside from being
wordy, is unclear because the pronoun them has no unambiguous
antecedent; and in E, their employees to have been assigned by them is
wordy and awkward. Choice B, the best answer, properly uses the phrase
who have been assigned... to the United Nations to modify employees.




13.




This sentence has a pronoun agreement error. Subject and object pronouns
cannot refer back to possessive nouns; they must refer only to subject and
object nouns. The subject in this sentence is "Agatha Christie's travels," not
Agatha Christie herself. The first instance of "her" is correct because this



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pronoun is used as a possessive: "her [Agatha Christie's] archaeologist
husband." However, the second instance of "her," an object pronoun, is
incorrect: "inspired her [Agatha Christie, who is not an object in this sentence]
to write..."

(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.

(B) This choice illogically states that the travels inspired the novels
themselves, rather than inspiring Christie to write the novels.

(C) This choice introduces a false cause-effect statement. The original
meaning indicates that Christie traveled because her husband was an
archaeologist. According to this choice, however, Christie used their travels
as inspiration because her husband was an archaeologist, which is clearly
illogical.

(D) This choice seems to indicate that Christie and her husband were inspired
to write the novels together. This cannot be the case because this choice
also clearly states that they are "her mystery novels," not both of theirs.

(E) CORRECT. This choice corrects the original pronoun agreement error by
moving the second instance of "her" in front of "mystery novels," which
changes it from an object pronoun to a possessive pronoun: "Agatha
Christie's travels...her [Agatha Christie's] mystery novels..."




14.




In the original sentence, the subject pronoun he cannot refer to the
possessive noun Anders Celsius’ (note the apostrophe). Possessive nouns
such as Anders Celsius' may only be the antecedents of possessive
pronouns, such as his. Further, the use of the relative pronoun where to


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describe the scale is incorrect since the pronoun where can refer only to
physical locations.

(A) This answer choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.

(B) CORRECT. This answer choice corrects the original pronoun issue by
replacing the subject pronoun he with the possessive pronoun his, which can
legally refer to the possessive noun Anders Celsius’. Furthermore, the relative
pronoun which in the phrase in which correctly refers to the immediately
preceding noun a scale.

(C) By using the relative pronoun which in place of where, this answer choice
corrects one of the two pronoun problems in the original sentence. However,
the subject pronoun he cannot refer to the possessive noun Anders Celsius’.

(D) In this answer choice, the semicolon is used incorrectly to connect two
clauses, only one of which can stand alone. Specifically, the phrase reversing
the scale to its present form after his death in 1744 is not an independent
clause and cannot follow the semicolon.

(E) In this answer choice, the use of the relative pronoun where to describe
the scale is incorrect since this pronoun can refer only to physical locations.
Furthermore, by replacing the original passive construction was reversed with
the active form reversed, this answer choice illogically suggests that "a scale”
changed itself rather than was changed by others. While the active form is
more concise, the use of the passive construction in this case is warranted by
the original content of the sentence.




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Boldface Questions


1.    ANS. C
      Analysis: Conclusion is: it is likely that some of the fragments were at
      least large enough to have passed through Jupiter’s outer atmosphere
      without being burned up – giving indication of the size of the fragments!
      1st part is a consideration that the author is using to prove something
      so it is either C or D. 2nd part is definitely not a conclusion. Hence, C
      is better.




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2.   ANS. C


     Conclusion: “However, these environmentalists are probably wrong
     (about their assessment of Tropicorp’s intent).” It’s not one of the
     bolded phrases, so… Back to the boldfaced phrases to determine
     their relationship to the main conclusion: Boldface 1: Main conclusion
     of the argument says, essentially, that the environmentalists are wrong
     in thinking that Tropicorp’s decision not to pursue rubber tapping and,
     thereby, leave the forests intact INDICATES that Tropicorp is not
     entirely profit-motivated. In other words, the main conclusion disagrees
     with the environmentalists’ assessment of Tropicorp’s motives. So, that
     means that the first BF is reasoning that supports the position that the
     argument opposes. Boldface 2: This is the environmentalists’
     conclusion, which means that it is the conclusion which the
     argument refutes. This is the easier of the two Boldface roles to work
     with first so C is the only choice that offers this option so C is the
     answer. Return to the answer choices and consider the first BF
     description in remaining choices. Once again, C is the only choice
     that offers the option for which we are searching.




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3.   E


     The author concludes that raising the fine to $1,000 would have the
     unintended effect of increasing the amount of litter in the picnic area.
     When determining the function of the two bold statements, we must
     consider how they relate to this conclusion: the first bold portion weighs
     against the conclusion, while the second bold portion supports the
     conclusion. The correct answer will represent these relationships.


     (A) The “prediction” mentioned here refers to the author’s conclusion
     (raising the fine to $1,000 would increase the amount of litter). This
     answer choice incorrectly states that the first bold portion supports this
     conclusion. Also, this choice incorrectly states that the second bold
     statement is the prediction, or conclusion.


     (B) This choice incorrectly states that the author’s prediction, or
     conclusion, is consistent with the first bold statement when in fact it
     predicts the exact opposite outcome. Further, this answer states that
     the second bold portion weighs against the author’s conclusion when in
     fact it supports the conclusion.


     (C) The second bold portion does not come as a consequence of the
     first. In fact, the two bold portions are in complete contrast to one
     another.


     (D) The second bold portion is not the main position that the author
     defends. The main position is that raising the fine to $1,000 would
     increase the amount of litter in the picnic area.


     (E) CORRECT. This answer choice correctly identifies the first bold
     portion as a statement of causation that does not support the author’s
     claim, and the second bold statement as a line of logic that does
     support this claim.



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4.   C
     In the passage, the conclusion advocate argues for a certain position:
     …. eliminating the state requirement that legal advertisements
     must specify fees for specific services would almost certainly
     increase rather than further reduce consumers’ legal costs.
     What follows the statement is preceded by two concessions that, the
     advocate admits, tend to point in the opposite direction; what follows
     the statement of the position are the reasons the advocate has for
     holding that position. To answer the question, you must find the choice
     that correctly describes the roles played by both of the portions that are
     in boldface. Choice C is the correct answer. The first boldface portion
     does present a pattern of cause and effect, and the advocate’s
     prediction is that his time the pattern will be different. In addition, the
     second boldface portion is one of the considerations that the advocate
     uses in support of that prediction. While the description of the first
     boldface portion given in choice A is correct, that of the second is not:
     the generalization in fact tends to run counter to the prediction made in
     the second boldface portion. Therefore this choice is incorrect. Choice
     B is incorrect, since although the first boldface portion presents a
     pattern of cause and effect, the advocate’s prediction is that in this
     case that pattern will not hold. Thus the role of the first boldface portion
     is incorrectly described. Choice D is incorrect: the advocate odes not
     use the first boldface portion in support of any prediction and instead
     concedes that it runs counter to the advocate’s own prediction. While
     the role of the first boldface portion is correctly described in choice E,
     that of the second is not, since the position the advocate is defending is
     not the second boldface portion, but rather the position identified
     above. Thus this choice is incorrect.




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5.   B
     The author explains that devoted gamers traditionally dictate the
     design of video games. However, due to changes in the market, the
     author argues that this system is no longer in the best interest of the
     industry. Instead, to infuse new life into the video game market,
     manufacturers should simplify their games in order to attract non-
     gamers into the gaming fold.


     (A) The first boldface portion does relate a situation that the author
     believes to be true. The second boldface portion, however, does not
     explain this situation; instead, it offers evidence to demonstrate why
     this situation should not continue.


     (B) CORRECT. The first boldface portion is a situation that the author
     believes to be true now. Due to changes in the market, however, the
     author believes this situation should not continue. The second boldface
     portion provides evidence to support the author’s contention that the
     best way to grow the gaming market is to attract new gamers.


     (C) The first boldface portion is a statement of fact that contradicts the
     author’s position. The second boldface portion, however, provides
     evidence to support the author’s position, but it is not the position itself.


     (D) The first boldface portion is a statement of fact that contradicts the
     author’s position. The second boldface portion provides evidence to
     support the author’s position.


     (E) The first boldface portion is not a prediction; rather, it is a statement
     of fact (or description of a situation) that the author believes should not
     hold in this case. The second statement is not an assumption, nor does
     it weigh against the author's position; instead, it is a premise that
     provides evidence in support of the author’s position.




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     Assumptions


     1.       Successful models must be 5’6” or taller.
     2.       Jack is a male above 18.
     3.       This man will not be able to get any other job.
     4.       John is an inexperienced employee of company X getting a higher
              salary than is deserved by inexperienced people.
     5.       Kelly is unable to lose 40 pounds weight in 2 months in any other
              way.
     6.       Conclusion: A causes B or Age results in caution. So as per
              the first possible answer, the assumption can be: B does not
              cause A OR Increased caution does not enable antelope to live
              longer. For C does not cause B, we have to assume that there is
              nothing else that caused more caution in older antelope. Here, let’s
              say all the older (and only older) antelope were injected with a
              caution-increasing drug just a day prior to the research. So then the
              real reason will be the INJECTION, not old age. So the
              assumption will be C (in this case INJECTION) was not
              responsible for the increased caution.
     7.       There can be a lot of assumptions in this: 1. His metal detector
              is capable of detecting treasures hidden beneath the sand. 2. There
              are hidden treasures in the sand. 3. Local pawn brokers will buy
              treasures from him. If we negate any of these, the argument is
              weakened.


Assumption Mixed Bag
1.        D
“Many forgone pleasures” is a new element that appears only in the
          conclusion. Only answer choices (B), (C), and (D) contain “forgone
          pleasures,” and only answer choice (D) contains “many.” Thus, if
          forced to make a quick decision, answer choice (D) would be the best
          selection at this point in our analysis. And, fortunately, the technique is
          so powerful that this analysis does indeed yield the correct answer.



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“Should not have (been) desired in the first place” appears in both the premise
       and the conclusion. This element is not likely to appear in the correct
       answer choice.


“Justifiably regretted” appears in the premise but not the conclusion. Only
       answer choices (B) and (D) contain “justifiably regretted.”


2.     B
A quick mechanistic analysis reveals that the correct answer should contain
       “anger” and “visceral emotion.” Only answer choice (B) contains these
       two elements, and as it turns out, (B) is correct.


3.     D
The official argues that prohibiting high-level government officials from
       accepting positions as lobbyists for three years would prevent the
       officials from earning a livelihood for that period. The reasoning tacitly
       excludes the possibility of such officials earning a living through work
       other than lobbying. Therefore, D, which expresses this tacit
       assumption, is the best answer. The official’s argument does not
       depend on the assumption in A, since the argument would not be
       invalidated if some restrictions on the behavior of government officials
       were desirable. The official’s argument does not depend on the
       assumption in B, since the argument would not be invalidated if
       lobbyists were not typically former high-level government officials. The
       official’s argument does not depend on the assumption in C, since the
       argument would not be invalidated if former low-level government
       officials did often become lobbyists. The official’s argument does not
       depend on the assumption in E, since the argument would not be
       invalidated if former high-level government officials could act as
       lobbyists indefinitely.




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4.    C
On the basis of an observed correlation between arms testing and people’s
tendency to save money, the argument concludes that there is a causal
connection between a perception of threat and the tendency not to save. That
connection cannot be made unless C, linking the perception of threat to the
amount of testing being done, is assumed to be true. Therefore, C is the best
answer. The conclusion does not depend on there having been an increase in
the perceived threat over time or on how many people supported the
development of nuclear arms. Hence, neither of A and B is assumed. The
argument does not deal with those who supported arms limitations or with the
availability of consumer goods. Thus, D and E are not assumed.




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5.    C
The first sentence concludes that prohibiting private planes that are not radar-
      equipped from centrally located airports would force most private
      planes away from those airports. This conclusion cannot be true unless
      it is true that, as C says, most private planes that use these airports are
      not radar-equipped. Therefore, the first sentence’s conclusion assumes
      this choice, which is thus the best answer. The conclusion need not
      assume that outlying airfields are convenient for private planes (A),
      since the restrictions would give planes that are not radar equipped no
      choice. The conclusion concerns only how the radar requirement would
      affect the volume of private plane traffic, so B, D and E, which deal with
      commercial planes and with risk of midair collision, need not be
      assumed.




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6.    D
The argument concludes that cabinet-making is not an art because
      cabinetmakers must consider the practical utility of their products. If it is
      true that an object is not a work of art if its maker pays attention to the
      object’s practical utility, as choice D says, the conclusion is supported.
      Thus, choice D is the best answer. The argument is concerned with
      whether or not the cabinetmakers must take the practical utility of their
      products into consideration, not with either their monetary value (choice
      E) or what actually happens to them (choice A). The argument is not
      concerned with precise degree to which individual cabinetmakers take
      the practical utility of cabinets into consideration. Thus, neither B nor C
      is appropriate.


7.    E
If top managers are not the more effective decision makers, then the fact that
      they use intuition more often than lower-level managers does not
      support the conclusion that intuition is more effective. Because the
      argument must assume E, choice E is the best answer. To the extent
      that less effective methods are inappropriate, the passage does not
      assume A, but argues for it. Since the argument leaves open the
      possibility of situations in which top managers are unable to use one of
      the methods, choice B is inappropriate. Since the ease with which a
      method is implemented is not at issue, choice C is inappropriate. The
      argument is consistent with managers at all levels using intuition in the
      minority of decisions made. Thus, choice D is inappropriate.


8.    A
The last sentence contains the conclusion of the argument. ERE = Effectively
      reduce emissions, Replace = Replace the conventional diesel fuel and
      gasoline used in automobiles with cleaner-burning fuels, such as
      methanol, that create fewer emissions. ERE→Replace. According to
      the author, to effectively reduce emissions, conventional fuels must be
      replaced.



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Answer choice (A): This is the correct answer. Consider the author’s position
      that the only effective way to reduce emissions is fuel replacement.
      Wouldn’t it be more effective to simply stop using cars altogether? Use
      the Assumption Negation Technique and ask yourself if the following
      statement would undermine the argument: Reducing the use of
      automobiles would be a more effective means to reduce automobile
      emissions than the use of methanol. This answer clearly shows that
      there are other, more effective ways of reducing emissions and
      therefore the answer attacks the argument. This must be the correct
      answer.
Answer choice (B): The author is not committed to methanol because the
      stimulus clearly references “fuels such as methanol.” Accordingly, this
      answer is not an assumption of the argument.
Answer choice (C): The choices automobile owners would make are not part
      of the argument made by the author. The author simply states that the
      only effective way to achieve reduced emissions is fuel replacement.
      No assumption is made about whether automobile owners would follow
      that way. The problem with the answer can be highlighted by this
      example:


An argument is made that the best way to achieve long-lasting fame is to
      commit suicide. Does the author assume that people will or will not
      choose that path? No, because the best way does not involve an
      assumption about how people will actually act.


Answer choice (D): The author clearly believes that automobile emissions are
      a serious threat to the environment, but this does not mean that the
      author has assumed they are the most serious threat. Negate the
      answer and ask yourself, “What would the author say to the negation?”
      The author would reply that he or she never indicated that emissions
      were the most serious threat, so it is fine that they are not.


Answer choice (E): We know that both urban air and the global atmosphere
      are contaminated by cars, but the author does not indicate that there is


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a direct correlation between the two. This answer, when negated, has
no effect on the argument (and must therefore be incorrect). In an
Assumption question, there can be only one answer that will hurt the
argument when negated. If you negate the answers and think that two
or more hurt the argument, you have made a mistake.




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9.    A
The basic structure of this argument is fact that “mold is almost always found
      in places where there is substantial moisture,” so therefore, to avoid
      mold and the resultant mold poisoning, then people should take steps
      to prevent wet areas. This argument assumes that wet areas occur
      first, causing mold to grow. Conversely, this assumption requires that
      the mold growth itself does not occur first, creating wet areas as a
      result.
(A) CORRECT. The argument depends on the assumption that the reason
      mold and wetness are observed together is that wet areas cause mold
      growth. If the reverse causation (mold causes wetness) were true, then
      keeping all plumbing in good condition to prevent leakage would do
      little to prevent the growth of mold. This choice eliminates the alternate
      causation.
(B) If most homeowners know enough about plumbing to determine whether
      theirs is in good condition, then the recommendation made in this
      argument would be more useful. However, this is not an assumption on
      which the argument depends.
(C) Even if mold could grow in dry areas, the fact that mold is almost always
      found in wet areas is still valid. This is the fact upon which the
      argument is based, so the argument does not depend on the
      unnecessarily absolute assertion that mold cannot grow in dry areas.
(D) Even if some varieties of mold are harmless, the conclusion of this
      argument, that “one should make sure to keep all internal plumbing in
      good condition to prevent leakage” and minimize mold growth, could
      still be valid. Therefore, this argument does not depend on the
      unnecessarily absolute assertion that no varieties of mold are
      harmless.
(E) Whether mold spores can be filtered from the air may be relevant to a
      conclusion about the health effects of mold in the home, but it is not
      directly relevant to this conclusion, that “one should make sure to keep
      all internal plumbing in good condition to prevent leakage” and
      minimize mold growth.



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10.   B
Although the premises of this argument suggest only a correlation between
      smoking and anxiety or nervousness, the argument has a causal
      conclusion: it concludes that smoking causes individuals to be anxious
      and nervous (i.e., that A causes B). Any assumption in a causal
      argument must support the causal “direction” of the conclusion, that A
      causes B as opposed to some other explanation. Often, assumptions
      support a causal conclusion either by eliminating an alternate cause for
      the conclusion (that C did not cause B) or by demonstrating that the
      causation, if one exists, is in the proper direction (that B did not cause
      A).
(A) The argument concludes that smoking causes anxiety and nervousness.
      Whether these maladies lead to more serious health problems is not
      relevant to the conclusion.
(B) CORRECT. For smoking to be the cause of anxiety and nervousness
      (i.e., that A caused B) it must be true that these individuals were not
      more likely to be anxious and nervous before they started smoking. If
      smokers had these preconditions, which contributed to their decision to
      begin smoking (i.e., that B caused A), our conclusion – that smoking
      causes these maladies – would be incorrect.
(C) The argument concludes that smoking causes anxiety and nervousness.
      The number of survey respondents is not relevant to the conclusion.
(D) The argument concludes that smoking causes anxiety and nervousness.
      The awareness of the health problems related to smoking is not
      relevant to the conclusion.
(E) The argument is not based on the immediate impact that smoking has on
      anxiety and nervousness. Moreover, the argument never compares
      some smokers to other smokers.




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11.   D
The researcher concludes from the association of low immune-system activity
      with low mental-health sores that, in effect, immune system activity can
      inhibit mental illness. If, contrary to D, mental illness can depress
      immune-system activity, the association mentioned does not support
      the researcher’s conclusion. So D must be assumed. Normal immune-
      system activity could protect against mental illness without high-
      immune system activity offering increased protection or prevention,
      contrary to what A and C state, so neither of A and C is assumed. The
      conclusion does not depend on there being a similarity between mental
      and physical illness or a difference in treatments, so B and E are not
      assumed.




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12.
If choice E were not assumed, the costs of the services of the famous singers
      of well-known renditions of songs would not be said to affect
      advertising costs. Since advertising costs are, however, projected to
      rise because of the relatively high cost of famous singers’ services,
      choice E is assumed and is the best answer. Choice A is irrelevant to
      the argument, since famous singers’ service cost more than imitators’
      anyway. The argument addresses commercials’ cost, not their
      effectiveness, so choice B is not assumed. The argument assumes that
      some well-known renditions of songs are available, but does not
      require that any versions be unavailable (choice C). Since the
      argument states that advertising firms will stop using imitators, choice
      D is not assumed.




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13.   A
The argument concludes that rising sea levels caused by global warming will
      destroy major coastal population centers and displace millions of
      people. Any assumption in support of this conclusion would have to
      corroborate that these events will definitively take place.
(A) CORRECT. If new technological developments in the next century allow
      people to divert rising seas from the world’s cities (i.e., population
      centers), cities will not be destroyed and millions of people will not be
      displaced. Thus, a necessary assumption is that these technologies will
      not be developed.
(B) A simple awareness of the steps to reduce emissions in no way
      undermines the argument’s conclusion, as this answer choice does not
      describe any action being taken by individuals. Additionally,
      greenhouse gases are never mentioned as the primary by-product of
      human activity that causes global warming, and are therefore not
      sufficient to address the argument.
(C) The argument never suggests that all coastal population centers are
      similarly affected; this choice is too extreme and overreaching for the
      argument’s conclusion.
(D) This might be true, but it is not an assumption on which the conclusion
      rests. Instead, this answer choice is simply an inference that might be
      drawn from the premises.
(E) The idea that human activity is the sole cause of global warming is neither
      suggested nor assumed by the argument. In addition, the wording "sole
      cause" is too extreme.




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14.   C
The conclusion of the argument is that the media are wrong in saying that the
      economy is entering a phase of growth and prosperity. The basis for
      that claim is that the number of people filing for bankruptcy has
      increased every month for the last six months and that bankruptcy
      lawyers are busier than they have been in years. In order for this
      argument to be valid, however, the author has to assume that the
      increase in the number of bankruptcies is a result of the state of the
      economy and not the result of something unrelated.
(A) This statement does not have to be true for the claim that the media are
      wrong about the economy to hold. Even if unemployment rates are
      useful indicators of growth and prosperity, the media could still be
      wrong about the economy (e.g., if there are other indicators that show
      problems in other areas).
(B) This does not have to be true for the conclusion to hold. Productivity
      could be a good measure of economic growth, but the media could still
      be wrong about the economy (e.g., if there are other indicators that
      show problems in other areas).
(C) CORRECT. This has to be true for the conclusion to hold. If legislation
      has recently been passed that makes it easier to obtain bankruptcy,
      then the evidence cited would be less relevant. The increased number
      of bankruptcies could have been the result of the easier process rather
      than of a poor economy.
(D) This does not have to be true for the conclusion to hold. An increase in the
      number of bankruptcy lawyers would not explain the increase in the
      number of bankruptcy filings.
(E) This does not have to be true for the claim that the media are wrong about
      the economy to hold. Even if the media did not often misrepresent the
      current state of economic affairs, the argument that the media are
      wrong might still hold.




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15.    D
The doctor concludes that federal legislation prohibiting the sale of video
       games to minors would help reduce the incidence of carpal tunnel
       syndrome. This conclusion hinges on the assumption that the only way
       for adolescents to access video games is to purchase the games
       themeslves.
(A) Majority consensus in the legislature has no bearing on whether the
       recommended legislation would actually help to curb carpal tunnel
       syndrome.
(B) This argument states that "adolescents who play video games on a
       regular basis are three times as likely to develop carpal tunnel
       syndrome." Thus, the argument directly indicates that carpal tunnel
       syndrome does not affect all adolescents who play video games.
       Rather than an assumption, this answer choice is simply an inference
       drawn from the text.
(C) The fact that adolescents can develop carpal tunnel syndrome by means
       other than playing video games has no bearing on whether the
       recommended legislation would help to curb carpal tunnel syndrome.
(D) CORRECT. In order for the doctor's recommended legislation to reduce
       the incidence of carpal tunnel syndrome among adolescents, the
       prohibition from the purchase of video games must result in the actual
       possession of fewer video games. Thus, it must be assumed that
       parents will not simply purchase video games for their children.
(E) The fact that video games can benefit adolescents in other ways has no
       bearing on whether the recommended legislation would help to curb
       carpal tunnel syndrome.




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Passage 1
1.     B
The correct answer to this question will be a claim that must follow from text
contained in the passage. This question does not provide any clues as to
where the justifying text will be found.
(A) The first paragraph mentions that the the Javan rhino is the most
endangered species of large mammal. However, it does not have to be true
that it is one of the most endangered animals, a category that is far broader
than mammals.
(B) CORRECT. The first paragraph states that very little is known about the
life of the Javan rhino. The passage does indicate, however, that scientists
have been able to extract information on the species’ DNA from gathered
dung. The paragraph also suggests that very little information about female
Javan rhinos has been gained, given that scientists only recently discovered
whether or not females of the species even have horns. Thus, one can infer
that more is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than its mating
patterns.
(C) The second paragraph indicates that hunters slaughtered many rhinos,
but it does not mention where. Furthermore, it does not have to be true that
more rhinos were killed in Vietnam simply because fewer rhinos remain there.
(D) The passage only discusses the Javan rhino; therefore, a generalization
about the extinction of "most animals" is not supported by the passage.
(E) The passage does not mention other survival factors for a species or rank
them; therefore, this inference is not supported by the passage.




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2.      D
In the second paragraph, after citing human actions as the cause of the Javan
rhino’s plight, the author goes on to mention that the population in Vietnam is
probably not viable and that human efforts in Indonesia, such as the
protection of the rhino on the Ujung Kulun peninsula, have had mixed results.
The passage ends with the thought that human benevolence is not helping
the rhinos much more than past maltreatment. Thus, the correct answer will
note the problems with current human efforts.
(A) The author is certainly not optimistic, as the passage mentions that in
Vietnam the outlook is doubtful and in Indonesia, problems plague the effort. It
is possible, although not certain, that the author considers the effort
worthwhile.
(B) The author gives no indication that he or she believes the effort is
pointless. Furthermore, especially in Indonesia, the passage does not indicate
a certainty that it will fail.
(C) The passage does not at all discuss the profitability of the effort. It is
possible, although not certain, that the author considers the effort idealistic.
(D) CORRECT. The discussion of the mixed results and poor prognosis for
the population in Vietnam justifies “problematic.” The last sentence of the
passage, observing that benevolence has proved little better than
maltreatment justifies “ironic.” Also, the author references the ironic quality of
human protection of the Javan rhino in the 8th sentence in the 2nd paragraph,
“Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows mature forests to
replace the shrubby vegetation the animals prefer.”
(E) The passage indicates that the efforts have been much less than entirely
successful but does not indicate any confusion related to the current efforts. It
is possible for efforts to be less than fully successful without being confused.
Furthermore, it does not at all address the idea that any particular heroism is
involved.




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3.     D
The author mentions the number of horns in the first paragraph in the course
of describing the Javan rhino. The correct answer must follow from this text.
(A) Although the Javan rhino is described as rare, the discussion of extinction
is in the second paragraph,. Furthermore, the vitality of the African rhino is not
mentioned.
(B) The passage contrasts the number of horns of the Javan rhino to that of
the African and Sumatran rhinos. However, the author makes a parallel
comparison to the Indian rhino because both species have one horn.
(C) The passage only discusses the Javan rhino’s evolution into a separate
subspecies in the second paragraph in a completely different context,; no
direct link is drawn between this evolution and the Javan rhino’s single horn.
(D) CORRECT. The author mentions the Javan rhino’s single horn in
conjunction with a general description of the Javan rhino. The passage then
goes on to discuss its habitat and the scientific knowledge to date. Thus, the
author included this detail to add depth to his or her description.
(E) The passage only states that until recently scientists were unsure if
females had horns, and no definitive answer is given. Furthermore, this point
is mentioned in a different context, after the passage has finished describing
the Javan rhino.




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4.       C
The first paragraph describes the Javan rhino and indicates how little is
known about it. This should be reflected in the answer. It is the second
paragraph that relates the effects of human activity on the rhinos and their
chances for survival.
(A) This choice is too broad, as the paragraph focuses on the Javan rhino and
only mentions its differences from some other rhinos to distinguish the
species from others.
(B) This answer choice describes the topic of the second paragraph, not the
first.
(C) CORRECT. The first paragraph provides the known facts about the Javan
rhino and indicates that much remains unknown.
(D) The steps taken to save the Javan rhino are only mentioned in the second
paragraph; they do not appear in the first paragraph.
(E) The first paragraph only indicates the respective number of rhinos in
Indonesia and Vietnam in passing, and does not mention the differences
between the two groups. The fact that the two have evolved into separate
sub-species is mentioned only in the second paragraph.




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5.     A
The passage mentions the Ujung Kulon peninsula in the second paragraph.
Immediately before that, the passage states that Indonesian Javan rhinos
cannot supplement those in because they have evolved into separate sub-
species. The correct answer choice will rely upon this fact.
(A) CORRECT. This choice rephrases the information in the second
paragraph which states that the Indonesian Javan rhinos have evolved into a
separate sub-species.
(B) The passage does not mention the aquatic abilities of the Javan rhino nor
can it be assumed that they would have to get there without human
assistance.
(C) The passage does not discuss the funds available in either country;
therefore this choice is incorrect.
(D) The passage does not mention the difficulty involved in capturing a rhino;
therefore this choice is incorrect.
(E) The passage does not mention terrorist activity at all; therefore, this choice
is incorrect.




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6.     E
In the second paragraph, the passage states that the “near extinction of the
Javan rhino is the direct result of human actions.” The correct answer must be
justified by that statement.
(A) Rhino deaths at the hands of farmers are mentioned as a detail and as
just one of the human actions responsible. It does not single farmers out as
the primary cause of the Javan rhino’s near extinction.
(B) The passage mentions the separation of from the mainland to explain why
the Javan rhino population in Vietnam cannot be supplemented by rhinos from
Ujung Kulon. It is not discussed as a reason for the near extinction of the
Javan rhino.
(C) Rhino deaths at the hands of hunters are mentioned as a detail and as
just one of the human actions responsible. It does not single hunters out as
the primary cause of the Javan rhino’s near extinction.
(D) The passage does not say that current human efforts are at all
responsible for the near extinction of the Javan rhino. Instead, it indicates that
current benevolent human efforts may not prove sufficient to save them.
(E) CORRECT. The beginning of the second paragraph clearly states that
human actions, taken as a whole, have directly caused the near extinction of
the Javan rhino.


Passage 2


1.     A
The best way to answer a question that asks for information NOT indicated in
the passage is to quickly skim through the passage and eliminate any answer
choice that IS indicated in the passage.
(A) CORRECT. The passage states several times that Mexico’s population
growth is diminishing due to the country’s declining birth rate. However, the
passage never suggests that Mexico’s population itself is diminishing.
(B) The third paragraph states that, on average, a Mexican woman had just
fewer than seven children in 1968. Today the average number of children
born to a Mexican woman is slightly more than two, or approximately one-third
of the 1968 figure.


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(C) The first paragraph states that U.S. employers are still counting on a
steady flow of labor from Mexico. To reinforce this contention, the final
sentence of the first paragraph says this flow might “one day” diminish,
indicating that at present it is continuing.
(D) The final paragraph states that Mexico’s population is aging. This aging of
the population naturally results from the declining number of babies born in
Mexico. As fewer babies are born, the average age of the population
gradually increases.
(E) The third and final paragraphs indicate that a healthy middle class in
Mexico is a hope and a goal but that it is far from a foregone conclusion.




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2.    B
The correct answer to an inference question must be directly supported by
evidence from the text. The passage states that U.S. employers of Mexican
immigrants often provide low-skilled, low-paying jobs to individuals who "are
often more than willing to work for wages well below both the U.S. minimum
wage and the poverty line."
(A) No information is provided concerning the amount of money paid to
American citizens. It is possible that there are many Americans who also
work for wages well below both the U.S. minimum wage and the poverty line.
(B) CORRECT. If some of these immigrant workers are accepting wages “well
below the U.S. minimum wage,” their American employers must be violating
wage laws (i.e. paying wages below what the U.S. minimum wage requires).
(C) Nothing in the passage suggests the particular industry of these
employers. This answer is outside the scope of the argument, and assumes
knowledge from sources other than the passage.
(D) The passage does not suggest that, without labor from Mexico, these
employers will be forced to close. This answer is both too predictive and
outside the scope of the argument.
(E) The passage suggests nothing about how these employers either regard
or treat their workers. Moreover, indication that these employers show “no
concern” is too extreme to be inferred from the passage.




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3.     E
A keen understanding of the main idea of the passage, in combination with a
well developed sketch of the passage to help you quickly access the pertinent
information, will help you to accurately eliminate incorrect answer choices.
(A) In both the first and fourth paragraphs the author indicates that the supply
of Mexican labor to the United States might diminish over time if certain
conditions in Mexico continue to change. The author does not believe this to
be a foregone conclusion. Moreover, the author never hints that this
hypothetical labor vacuum will have to be filled by other immigrant groups.
(B) The author speaks only of Mexico and its challenges. It is beyond the
scope of the passage to assume what the author might believe, in general,
about countries with large populations. Additionally, the passage never
quantifies the definition of a “large population.”
(C) In the first paragraph, the author says Mexican immigrants are “more than
willing to work for wages well below both the U.S. minimum wage and the
poverty line.” Thus, the workers themselves seem not to feel taken advantage
of.
(D) Similar to answer choice B, this answer choice asks about the author’s
attitude toward countries other than Mexico. The passage, however,
discusses only Mexico and its policies and challenges.
(E) CORRECT. In the final paragraph, the author indicates that "the growth of
a healthy middle class is far from a foregone conclusion. The critical challenge
for Mexico is what it does with the next 20 years.” Then, the author indicates
the steps that Mexico must take. Thus, the author obviously believes that
Mexico does not currently have the infrastructure to develop a healthy middle
class. The key, for the author, is whether Mexico is willing and able to build
this infrastructure.




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4.        C
The final paragraph primarily explains why the development of a healthy
middle class, an important factor in limiting the desire of many Mexicans to
migrate to the United States, is not a foregone conclusion.
(A) The final paragraph actually explains why a dramatic reduction of Mexican
immigration to the United States is still an uncertainty.
(B) Mexico’s family planning campaign was not mentioned in the final
paragraph.
(C) CORRECT. The final paragraph explains that Mexico must take specific
actions to foster the development of a healthy middle class. Without a healthy
middle class, the author believes that large numbers of Mexicans will continue
to seek work in the United States.
(D) Though the author does mention that Mexico must invest in infrastructure,
no mention is made of the types of infrastructure this investment should
benefit.
(E) Though the final paragraph reinforces that Mexican immigration to the
United States and thus Mexican labor might one day dramatically decline, this
answer choice goes too far by stating that this "will" definitely happen. Further,
is too great a leap to assume that the purpose of the paragraph is to explicitly
put American employers on notice. Nothing in the paragraph, or the passage,
suggests this intention.


SET 5


1.        The damage done by the flood was worse than that by the fire. OR
The damage done by the flood was worse than the damage done by the fire.


2.        The girl's teeth were prettier than the boy's. OR The girl's teeth were
prettier than the boy's teeth.
3.        Education Hall is older than any other building on campus.
4.        Like birds, some mammals have evolved wings.
5.        Spence’s desk, like most desks at work, is laden with pictures of his
family.



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6.      Like a woman I once met on the bus, the hostess was dressed
somewhat flamboyantly.
7.      While the company insists that its starting salary for a man working in
the executive branch of the organization be the same as that for a woman in
equal capacity, the watchdog group found a significant gender wage gap.
8.      The sixth Harry Potter book, by British author J.K. Rowling, sold a
record 8.9 million copies in the first 24 hours it was on sale—more than those
by any other author till date.


9.      Frank, like his brother, has a broad and muscular build. OR Frank's
build, like that of his brother, is extremely broad and muscular.
10.     The blue dress looks more flattering on you than the red one does.
11.     Three times more students attended the prom this year than did last
year.
12.     Covering the floors with tiles costs twice as much as covering them
with linoleum.
13.     The tycoon contributed more to the candidate’s campaign than did
anyone else in the industry.
14.     Sam was away on vacation longer than his friends were.
15.     Mary is the wealthiest of the three musicians.
16.     In many respects, George Bush and George W. Bush had the same
political agenda, but the younger Bush, who was able to pass more
legislation, had the more cooperative Congress.
17.     Completed sometime between 480 and 450 B.C., the play Oedipus
Rex by Sophocles is much more foreboding than the sixteenth century plays
by William Shakespeare.
18.     Just as swimming is good exercise, skiing is a great way to burn
calories.
19.     It seems as if the St. Louis Cardinals are going to lose again.
20. WRONG: Like I said earlier… Right: As I said earlier…
21. WRONG: Bella and June, AS their mother Stacy, are extremely smart.
Right: Bella and June, like their mother Stacy, are extremely smart.
22. RIGHT: Speak like an American. ALSO RIGHT: Speak as an American
does.


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23. Wrong: Speak like an American does. WRONG: Speak as an American.
24.       I look LIKE my brother.
25.       LIKE a detective, Andrea solved the puzzle.
26.       The fountain sounds LIKE a bubbling brook.
27.       AS I mentioned earlier, the test date has been moved up.
28.       My dog is very skittish, AS you might expect a rescued animal to be.
29.       The sliding roof closes LIKE a dome.
30.       LIKE other children in her neighborhood who were home-schooled,
Joan sometimes missed being in a classroom with her peers.
31.       CORRECT
32.       CORRECT
33.       CORRECT
34.       Owning a car is still Dan’s goal, AS it was of his parents when they
were his age.
      •   Like is used to highlight. The particular noun is essential.
35. Animals like lions and zebras live on the Plain.
      •   Such as is used to give examples. The particular noun is replaceable.
36. Animals such as lions and zebras live on the Plain.
37.       According to a survey conducted by the school administration,
incoming seniors planning to attend college prefer not only rigorous courses,
such as honors and advanced placement courses, to those that require less
work, but also science and math courses to those in the humanities.


The original sentence incorrectly uses “like” to introduce examples of rigorous
courses. “Such as” is the correct phrase to introduce examples. “Like” should
not be used to begin a list of examples, but rather to make a comparison
between nouns.


38.       It was not long after the 1930s commenced that such baritone
singers as Bing Crosby and Russ Columbo contributed to the popularization
of a type of romantic, soothing singing that came to be called “crooning.”




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The original sentence incorrectly uses the unidiomatic “like” to refer to specific
baritone singers. On the GMAT, “like” means “similar to,” while “such as”
refers to specific examples.


Comparison Mixed Bag:


1.     E
This sentence has four errors. First, the subordinate clause “whose funeral
was sparsely attended being buried in an unmarked communal grave” is
awkward grammatically and ambiguous in meaning; the clause could be
interpreted to mean that the funeral was sparsely attended at the time Mozart
was being buried, or it could be interpreted to mean that the funeral was
sparsely attended because Mozart was buried in an unmarked grave. Second,
it is not clear whether the possessive “Beethoven’s” refers to “funeral” or to
“grave.” Third, the sentence makes an illogical comparison between Mozart
and either Beethoven’s funeral or Beethoven's grave. Finally, the prepositional
phrase “near the graves of Schubert and Brahms” is a misplaced modifier.
Since it immediately follows “cemetery,” it appears to describe the location of
the cemetery rather than that of the grave.
(A) This choice is incorrect since it repeats the original sentence.
(B) First, the subordinate clause “whose funeral was sparsely attended being
buried in an unmarked communal grave” is grammatically awkward and
ambiguous in meaning. Second, while the introduction of “funeral” makes the
possessive “Beethoven’s” unambiguous, the sentence still illogically
compares “Mozart” to “Beethoven’s funeral.” Finally, the past tense is used
illogically in the clause “his final resting place was ….” Since this clause
discusses Beethoven’s final resting place, it describes a state of being that is
still true today; hence, the use of the present tense is appropriate to describe
where Beethoven’s body currently lies.
(C) “Mozart” is followed by two clauses, “whose funeral was sparsely
attended” and “he was buried in an unmarked communal grave.” The second
of these clauses is incorrect because: 1) it should be a subordinate clause
modifying Mozart, and should therefore start with "who was buried", and 2) it
should be parallel to the first clause, and should therefore start with "who was


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buried", and 3) it should not make the illogical assertion that “Unlike Mozart,
he [Mozart] was buried….”.
(D) This choice makes an illogical comparison between "Mozart" and
"Beethoven’s funeral." In addition, the prepositional phrase “near the graves
of Schubert and Brahms” is a misplaced modifier. Since it immediately follows
“cemetery,” it appears to describe the location of the cemetery rather than that
of the grave.
(E) CORRECT. “Mozart” is now modified by two subordinate clauses, “whose
funeral was attended….” and “who was buried ….,” each properly introduced
by the relative pronouns “whose” and “who” respectively. In addition, “Mozart”
is now logically compared to “Beethoven.” Finally, the phrase “near the graves
of …” unambiguously modifies “lies buried.”




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2.     E
The original sentence contains a faulty comparison. “Nonfiction books” is
either illogically compared to “the public’s appetite,” or improperly used to
suggest that "nonfiction books" are examples of “documentary films.” The
proper comparison should be between the public's "appetite" for x and its
"appetite" for y.


(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.


(B) In this choice, "nonfiction books" is illogically compared to the public's
"appetite." The proper comparison should be between the public's "appetite"
for x and its "appetite" for y. Moreover, the use of the comparison word "as" is
incorrect. "As" is used to compare verb phrases, not nouns; in this case, two
nouns ("appetite" and "interest") are compared so the comparison word "like"
should be used instead.


(C) This choice logically compares the public's "appetite" for documentary
films to its "interest" in nonfiction books. However, the use of the comparison
word "as" is incorrect. "As" is used to compare verb phrases, not nouns; in
this case, two nouns ("appetite" and "interest") are compared so the
comparison word "like" should be used instead.


(D) This choice logically compares the public's "appetite" for documentary
films to its "interest" in nonfiction books. However, this choice incorrectly uses
the plural pronoun "their" to refer to the singular noun "the public."


(E) CORRECT. This choice logically compares the public's "appetite" for
documentary films to its "interest" in nonfiction books.




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3.     B
Choice B, the best answer, correctly and idiomatically uses the preposition
like to introduce a comparison that is expressed, in a prepositional phrase. In
A, as is used unidiomatically; in comparison, as is properly employed as a
conjunction introducing a subordinate clause. Choices C, D, and E are all
faulty because the verb do suggests that the migrating pearls are presented
as a real phenomenon, not as a figurative illustration. Also, in D, like is used
ungrammatically to introduce a subordinate clause (pearls do ...); and in E,
the phrase some other one, substituted for another, is awkward and wordy.




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4.     E
Again we are presented with the need to choose the correct pronouns in order
to allow for a parallel sentence structure. Here, the pronoun that tries to stand
in for the entire phrase ingesting lead in drinking water was a significant
health hazard, but it fails. That tries to do too much; a single pronoun can only
refer to a noun, not a noun and a verb. A correct option needs a pronoun that
refers back to the subject of the phrase (“ingesting lead”) and a verb to recall
was. Take out (1) and (2). You can eliminate (3) and (4) as well because do,
like that in (1) and (2), doesn’t refer accurately to the first part of the sentence;
nobody was doing anything to begin with. (5) is right because it refers to
ingesting lead and is refers to was a significant health hazard, creating a
grammatically correct parallel.




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5.
The original sentence incorrectly uses “Like” to compare two clauses: “Like
many of his contemporaries did, Bob Dylan wrote songs.” “Like” can be used
to compare nouns, but not phrases containing verbs (clauses).
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) As used in this sentence, “like” seems to compare the noun “songs” with
the noun “contemporaries,” implying that Bob Dylan’s “songs” were similar to
his “contemporaries.” This comparison is illogical, as songs cannot be
compared with people.
(C) CORRECT. “As” is correctly used to compare two phrases containing
verbs.
(D) The modifying phrase “Like the songs of his contemporaries” incorrectly
modifies the adjacent noun “Bob Dylan,” implying that Bob Dylan is similar to
the songs of his contemporaries. Songs cannot be logically compared with
people.
(E) While “as” is correctly used to compare two phrases containing verbs, the
subject pronoun “he” incorrectly refers back to the possessive noun “Bob
Dylan’s.” Only possessive pronouns can be used to refer to possessive
nouns.




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6.    C
A correct sentence must maintain parallel structure. In choice A, the three-part
series (to diagnose ..., deciding,... or other purposes ...) lacks parallelism.
C, the best choice, replaces A's third element with/or such purposes as; this
phrase functions as a stem for the other two elements, which are recast as
two parallel phrases--diagnosing ... or deciding .... Thus, choice C not only
manages the parallel structure but avoids the less effective other purposes
such as these at the end of choice A. Choice E uses faulty parallel structure
(to be used..., deciding ..., or the like). In B and D, which and the use of
which introduce sentence elements that lack antecedents or reference. In
addition, D is wordy.




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7.     E
The original sentence draws an illogical comparison between “the population
of ancient Rome” and “any city in the Roman Empire.” First of all, a
population of one city can only be compared to the population of another city.
Also, the second term of the comparison must refer to "any other city," since
Rome was obviously also a city in the Roman Empire.
The underlined portion of the sentence begins with a relative clause that
describes "Emperor Claudius," a person. The relative pronoun "which" is
incorrect, since "which" only introduces phrases that modify things.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice draws an illogical comparison between the “the population of
ancient Rome” and “no other city” and introduces the wordy passive
construction “was exceeded.”
(C) This answer choice states that the “population of ancient Rome” was
greater than “that of any city,” rather than “that of any other city,” thus
illogically implying that the population of Rome was greater than even the
population of Rome.
(D) This answer choice states that “ancient Rome” was greater than “any city
in the Roman Empire,” rather than “any other city in the Roman Empire,” thus
illogically implying that the city exceeded itself. Also, by failing to mention the
population as the parameter of comparison, this answer choice introduces
ambiguity and fails to retain the intended meaning of the original sentence.
(E) CORRECT. This answer choice draws a logical comparison between “the
population of ancient Rome” and “that of any other city," uses active voice,
drops the wordy and incorrect construction “which was,” and retains the
intended meaning of the original sentence.




8.     E
There are three problems in the original sentence. First, the comparison
is highlighting a difference in the effect of television on children, as
measured by test scores. The original sentence uses the idiom
“compared to,” but the correct idiom for highlighting differences is
"compared with."


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To highlight differences between similar things, use compare with
To highlight similarities between different things, use compare to
Second, comparisons must compare logically parallel things, but this
sentence compares "children whose parents speak English as a second
language" with "those (children, presumably) who are native English
speakers” themselves. Logic tells us that a child can both in both of these
categories: a child who is a native English speaker can have parents who
speak English as a second language. Thus, these are not parallel categories.
Finally, the antecedent of the pronoun "those" is ambiguous; "those" could
refer to "children" or "parents."
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) Although this choice uses the correct idiom ("compared with") to compare
differences between the two groups and resolves the pronoun issue by
replacing "those" with "children," it continues to compare "children whose
parents speak English as a second language" with "children who are native
English speakers."
(C) This choice uses the correct idiom ("compared with") to compare
differences between the two groups but incorrectly compares “children whose
parents speak English as a second language” with all “native English
speakers.”
(D) Although this choice makes a clear comparison between two similar or
parallel things (children of two different groups of parents), the comparison is
highlighting a difference, so the correct idiom is "compared with" rather than
"compared to." Moreover, it does not resolve the pronoun issue because it
retains the ambiguous "those."
(E) CORRECT. This choice uses the correct idiom "compared with" and
correctly compares “children whose parents speak English as a second
language” with the logically parallel “children whose parents are native
English speakers." Moreover, it resolves the pronoun issue by replacing
"those" with "children."




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9.     A
Choices B and C present faulty comparisons: in B, Jackie Robinson's courage
is compared to Rosa Parks herself, not to her courage, and in C it is
compared to both Rosa Parks and her refusal. Choice D does not make clear
whether it was Jackie Robinson or Rosa Parks who showed courage in
refusing to move to the back of the bus; in fact, saying for refusing rather than
who refused makes it sound as if courage moved to the back of the bus.
Choice E incorrectly uses as rather than like to compare two noun phrases.
Choice A is best.


10.    E
Only E, the best choice, clearly states that teratomas consist of tissues such
as tooth and bone, and that such tissues are not normally found in the organ
with the teratoma. Clear statement of this fact requires the repetition of
tissues to establish the appositive--tissues normally found.... Without such
repetition, A and B imprecisely state that the tooth and bone, as opposed to
the tissues, are not normally found in the affected organ. Choices B and C
alter the meaning with the use of like', that is, they suggest that the tissues
are not tooth and bone, but only like them. The confused syntax of D states
that their composition, not the tissues, is found in the organ....




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11.   B
The phrase As business grows more complex introduces an ongoing
condition that is leading to consequences described in the rest of the
sentence. Those consequences should, like the causal condition, be
expressed with simple present-tense or present progressive verb forms. Only
choice B, the best answer, consistently employs these forms: who major...
and... are becoming. In A and D, the use of like rather than such as is
incorrect: like makes a comparison; such as introduces examples. In A, C,
and D, those of is unnecessary verbiage, and being in C and E is less
precise than becoming for describing a pattern of events that is unfolding.




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Modifier:


1.     Using the latest technology, the engineer identified…
2.     Upon leaving the counter, the customer was given…
3.     The owner of the coins, which were locked in a vault for 50 years,
decided to sell them.
4.     Sailing up the river, we saw the Taj Mahal.
5.     Walking back from the village, I lost my wallet.
6.     My father let me drive his car when I was twenty.
7.     Unskilled in complex math, Bill had poor grades on the entrance exam.
8.     The police reported that two cars were stolen yesterday.
9.     Do not sit in the chair without it being fully assembled.
10.    The patient with several emotional problems was referred to a
psychologist.
11.    The store sold children’s inflatable toys.
12.    We provide ladies’ restrooms that are clean and comfortable.
13.    I lost my hat while I was running down the street.


Modifier Mixed Bag:


1.     D
The modifying phrase “although covered in about 11 inches of snow” at the
beginning of this sentence should be followed by the noun the modifier refers
to, “the runway.” The original sentence illogically suggests that “aviation
officials” were covered in about 11 inches of snow. Additionally, the plural
subject "conditions" does not agree with the singular verb "was acceptable."
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifying phrase “although covered in about 11 inches of snow” at
the beginning of this sentence should be followed by the noun the modifier
refers to, “the runway.” Note that in the noun phrase "the runway conditions,"
the word "runway" acts as an adjective modifying the noun "conditions."
(C) This choice incorrectly uses the redundant phrase “during the time of”
instead of “during.” Further, the placement of "according to aviation officials"
makes it unclear whether the officials stated that the runway was "covered in


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about 11 inches of snow" or that "the runway was in acceptable condition."
(D) CORRECT. The modifying phrase “although covered in about 11 inches of
snow” is correctly followed by the noun the modifier refers to, “the runway.”
Additionally, the phrase "according to aviation officials" is placed at the end of
the sentence, unambiguously referring to the main clause ("the runway was in
acceptable condition").
(E) The modifying phrase “although covered in about 11 inches of snow” at
the beginning of this sentence should be followed by the noun the modifier
refers to, “the runway.”




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2.     E
The original sentence contains a misplaced modifier. The modifying phrase
“Discouraged by new data that show increases in toxic emissions from
domestic factories” is meant to modify the noun “shareholders.” Therefore,
“shareholders” should be placed directly after “factories.” Instead, it seems
that the “searches” are “Discouraged by new data,” which is not logical.
Additionally, the passive construction “are being conducted by” is
unnecessarily wordy.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifying phrase “Discouraged by new data that show increases in
toxic emissions from domestic factories” is meant to modify the noun
“shareholders.” Therefore, “shareholders” should be placed directly after
“factories.” Instead, it seems that the “searches” are “Discouraged by new
data,” which is not logical. Also, the passive construction “are being
conducted by” is unnecessarily wordy. Finally, the placement of “who are
looking for alternative investment opportunities” after “companies” makes it
seem that the “companies” are “searching for alternative investment
opportunities.” According to the original sentence, the “shareholders” are
looking for these “opportunities,” not the “companies.”
(C) While the misplaced modifier issue is corrected by placing “shareholders”
adjacent to the modifying phrase, the past perfect form of the verb, “had
begun,’’ is used unnecessarily. In fact, the use of “had begun” implies that the
“shareholders” had begun searching for new investment opportunities before
the discouraging data were released. This is not the intended meaning of the
sentence. Also, “investment opportunities outside of the manufacturing
industry” is wordy when compared with “alternative investment opportunities.”
(D) The placement of “the nation’s leading manufacturing companies”
adjacent to the modifying phrase makes it seem that these companies are
“Discouraged by new data,” which changes the meaning of the sentence. The
original meaning is further compromised by “companies are searching.” The
“shareholders” are searching for new opportunities, not the companies.
(E) CORRECT. The misplaced modifier issue is corrected by placing
“shareholders” adjacent to the modifying phrase. It is clear that the
“shareholders” are “searching,” and not the companies. The active voice "are


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searching" replaces the wordy passive construction "searches. . . are being
conducted by." Finally, the phrase “alternative investment opportunities” is
clear and concise.


3.     A
This original sentence is correct as written. The word "fossils" is correctly
placed as the subject of the opening modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the
science of evolution." Also, the plural noun "fossils" agrees with the plural
verb "provide."
(A) CORRECT. This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) In this choice, "a large scaly creature" is incorrectly placed as the subject
of the opening modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution."
The fossils of the creature – not the creature itself – were discovered.
Moreover, the phrase "a large scaly creature . . . provides fossils that are a
possible link" distorts the meaning of the sentence by nonsensically
suggesting that the creature "provides" its fossils; in fact the fossils were
simply discovered by scientists.
(C) In this choice, "a large scaly creature" is incorrectly placed as the subject
of the opening modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution."
The fossils of the creature – not the creature itself – were discovered.
(D) This choice correctly places the word "fossils" as the subject of the
opening modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution."
However, this choice incorrectly employs the singular verb "provides," which
does not agree with the plural noun "fossils."
(E) This choice subtly changes the meaning of the original sentence. The use
of the word "and" in the phrase "the fossils resemble . . . and provide" creates
two distinct points: first, that the fossils resemble x, and, second, that the
fossils provide y. In contrast, in the original phrase "the fossils of a large scaly
creature resembling both a fish and a land-animal provide evidence of . . .,"
the focus is clearly on how the fossils provide evidence. The modifying phrase
"resembling both a fish and a land-animal" demonstrates how the fossils
provide that evidence – it is not intended as a separate, unrelated point.




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4.     B
This sentence begins with a modifier, yet leaves absent who will be applying
optimization techniques (This is termed a "dangling" modifier.) Also, the
sentence is unnecessarily wordy in its use of the phrases “ought to” and “in
both the short and long terms.”
(A) This choice incorrectly repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. The sentence correctly places “a company’s managers”
adjacent to the modifier such that the meaning is clear, and the sentence is
otherwise concise.
(C) This answer does not correct the original modifier error. It also weakens
the sentence by replacing the active voice with the passive voice in its use of
“can be determined by company managers.” The sentence’s concluding use
of “goals, both short and long term” is awkward.
(D) This answer does not correct the original modifier error. In this choice, the
phrase “may be possible” is unnecessary and weakens the sentence. This
choice also incorrectly uses the word “these,” as the products have not been
referenced earlier in the sentence.
(E) This sentence resolves the modifier issue, but incorrectly uses the word
“these,” as the products have not been referenced earlier in the sentence.
This choice is also wordy in its use of “ought to” and “in both the short and
long term.”




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5.     D
The sentence begins with the modifier “In order to properly evaluate a
patient’s state of mind and gain informed consent prior to surgery.” This
modifier logically should apply to the modified noun “the operating physician,”
as it is the operating physician who must evaluate a patient’s state of mind
and gain informed consent. In other words, "in order to do X" most properly
expresses the intention of the subject of the sentence, and so the subject
should be "the operating physician." The original sentence is incorrect, as the
modifier is incorrectly followed by “a substantial period of time” as opposed to
“the operating physician.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) In this sentence, the modifier is followed by the compound subject “the
operating physician and the patient.” This choice incorrectly suggests that it is
both the operating physician and the patient that must evaluate the patient’s
state of mind and gain informed consent, as opposed to the physician
alone. Also, the final phrase in the sentence, "thus ensuring full awareness..."
does not clarify exactly whose full awareness is ensured (the awareness must
clearly be the patient's).
(C) This choice places “the patient” immediately after the initial modifier,
illogically and incorrectly suggesting that the patient him or herself will
evaluate the patient’s state of mind. In addition, the pronouns "he or she" are
ambiguous; they could refer to the patient or to the physician.
(D) CORRECT. This choice places the proper subject, “the operating
physician,” adjacent to the opening modifier. Additionally, it is 100% clear that
the patient is to be made fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing the
surgical procedure.
(E) This choice correctly uses “the operating physician” as the subject of the
sentence, resolving the modifier issue. However, the pronouns “he or
she” incorrectly refer to “the operating physician,” suggesting that it is the
physician, rather than the patient, who must be made fully aware of the pros
and cons of undergoing the surgical procedure.




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7.     E
In choice A, the introductory clause beginning Based on modifies scholars,
the noun that immediately follows it: in other words, A says that scholars
were based on the accounts of various ancient writers. Choice B is
awkward and imprecise in that the referent for the pronoun it is not
immediately clear. C and D are also wordy and awkward, and in D By the
accounts... they used is an unidiomatic and roundabout way of saying that
scholars used me accounts. E, the best choice, is clear and concise; it
correctly uses a present participle (or "-ing" verb) to introduce the modifier
describing how the scholars worked.


7.     C
A, B, and D illogically suggest that the palace and temple clusters were
architects and stonemasons. For the modification to be logical. Architects and
stonemasons must immediately precede the Maya, the noun phrase it is
meant to modify. A, B, and D also use the passive verb form were built, which
produces unnecessary awkwardness and wordiness. E is awkwardly phrased
and produces a sentence fragment, because the appositive noun phrase
Architects and stonemasons cannot serve as the subject of were the Maya. C,
the best answer, places the Maya immediately after its modifier and uses the
active verb form built.


8.     E
The original sentence suggests that Feynman’s introduction covered "physics
designed for undergraduate students." This is nonsensical; rather the course
is designed for undergraduate students and covers the general topic of
physics.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) Beginning the sentence with “for undergraduate students” is awkward and
unclear. The verb phrase “being a comprehensive introduction…” following
the comma seems illogically to modify “the physicist Richard Feynman.” With
the use of the unnecessary “being,” this creates the awkward suggestion that
“the physicist” was “a comprehensive introduction.” (Remember that "being" is
almost always wrong on the GMAT.)


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(C) The sentence’s meaning is unclear due to the use of many prepositional
phrases with no punctuation: “In a two-year course” followed by “by the
physicist Richard Feynman” and later, “to undergraduate students” and “to
modern physics.” Also, the subject of this passive sentence is “a
comprehensive introduction.” It would make more sense for Feynman to be
the subject, since he was actively doing something: “presenting.” Finally, the
use of "presenting" with the passive construction introduces a verb
tense error; Feynman is not currently "presenting" the course, rather, the
course was presented by Feynman.
(D) The use of both “introduction” and “introduced” is redundant: it suggests
that Feynman “introduced a comprehensive introduction.”
(E) CORRECT. The placement of the prepositional phrase “in a two-year
course designed for undergraduate students” at the beginning of the sentence
clarifies the meaning: a physics course was designed for the students. The
construction of the rest of the sentence is straightforward: the subject (the
person doing the action) “the physicist Richard Feynman,” the verb (what he
actually did) “presented,” and the object (what he presented) “a
comprehensive introduction to modern physics.”




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Weaken Questions:


1.       Example: As the Indian cricket team performed badly in the last
         World Cup, it should not be sent for the next World Cup.
            –   FACT: the Indian cricket team performed badly in the last
                World Cup
            –   Conclusion: it should not be sent for the next World Cup.
     •   How to weaken it?


There can be many answers:
The team composition has changed.
The team has been on a winning streak since then.
Playing conditions (pitch etc.), will suit the team this time whereas last time
they were unsuitable.
The Coach has changed.
Learning, not winning, is the objective of the team.
The World Cup has a history that the winner of the World Cup in a particular
season essentially performed badly in the previous World Cup ETC.




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2.       Over the last 2 months, a police station has started receiving many
more calls about crime in the adjoining areas. This is a clear indication of the
fact that crime is on the rise in the adjoining areas.
            –   FACT: Over the last 2 month, a police station has started
                receiving many more calls about crime in the adjoining areas.
            –   Conclusion: crime is on the rise in the adjoining areas.
     •   How to weaken it?
     •   This is A causes B… i.e., more calls about crime     more crime…
     •   We can not question facts but only the reason…


There were only 5 public telephone booths and just 2 months back,
more than 100 free telephone booths have been put up in the adjoining
areas.




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Weaken Mixed Bag:


1.      D
The correct answer choice is (D) The classic error of assuming that because
two events occur simultaneously that one must cause the other. D = anti-
collision device, SD = sudden disappearance of key information, D→SD.


Answer choice (A): This answer presents another effect of the cause, but this
additional effect does not weaken the argument. To analogize this answer to
the argument, imagine a scenario where a speaker concludes that playing
football makes a person more prone to sustaining a leg injury. Would
suggesting that playing football makes a person more prone to a head injury
(another effect) undermine the first statement? No.


Answer choice (B): This is an Opposite answer that supports the conclusion.
By showing that the key information did not disappear prior to the appearance
of the anti-collision device, the argument is strengthened because the
likelihood that the device is at fault is increased.


Answer choice (C): This information has no effect on determining if the device
causes the information to disappear from the screen because it references an
event that has yet to occur.


Answer choice (D): “Show that although the effect exists, the cause did not
occur.” In this instance, the effect of information disappearing from the screen
occurred prior to the creation of the supposed causal agent, the anti-collision
device.


Answer choice (E): This answer choice has no impact on the argument. We
cannot make a judgment based on the size of the airport because the
argument did not mention airport size or anything directly related to airport
size.



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2.     C is the best answer.
This choice suggests that a significant proportion of Hawaii’s population is
genetically predisposed to be long lived. Since Louisianans are not
necessarily so predisposed, and since the Louisianans’ children will acquire
their genetic characteristics from their parents, not from their birthplace, this
choice presents a reason to doubt that Hawaiian born children of native
Louisianans will have an increased life expectancy. Therefore, this choice is
the best answer. Because the conclusion concerns people born in Hawaii, not
the average Louisianan, A does not weaken the conclusion. Because the
governor’s allegation is false, it cannot affect the conclusion. D fails to weaken
the conclusion because it is consistent with the information given and the
conclusion about life expectancy. By suggesting that Hawaii’s environment is
in one respect particularly healthy, E supports the conclusion.




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3.     B
The passage recommends that parents participate in a tuition prepayment
program as a means of decreasing the cost of their children’s future college
education. If B is true, placing the funds in an interest bearing account would
be more cost-effective than participating in the prepayment program.
Therefore, B would be a reason for NOT participating and is the best answer.
A is not clearly relevant to deciding whether to participate since the program
applies to whatever public college the child might attend. C and D, by stating
that tuition will increase, provide support for participating in the program. E is
not clearly relevant to deciding whether to participate, since the expenses
mentioned fall outside the scope of the program.




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4.     B
The speed with which the ice on the windshield melted is attributed to the air
blowing full force from the defrosting vent onto the front windshield. This
explanation of B is undermined if, as B states, no attempt was made to defrost
the back window and the ice on the back window melted as quickly as did the
ice on the windshield. Therefore, B is the best answer. In the absence of other
information, the lack of ice condensation on the side windows that is
mentioned in A is irrelevant to the validity of the explanation. C might support
the explanation, since the air from the defrosting vent was warm. Neither of D
and E gives a reason to doubt that air from the vent caused the ice’s melting,
and thus neither jeopardizes the explanation’s validity.




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5.     D
The group’s contention suggests that animals that are shy and active at night
are feared and persecute for that reason. D establishes that raccoons and
owls are shy and active at night, but that they are neither feared nor
persecuted. Therefore, D is the best answer. Although an increasing
prevalence of bats might explain the importance of addressing people’s fear
of bats, A does not address the original causes of that fear. B and E, while
relevant to the rationality of people’s fear of bats, do not affect the
assessment of the accuracy of the group’s contention. That bats are feared
outside the United States, as C states, does not conflict with the group’s
explanation for fear of bats in the United States.


6.     B
The conclusion of this argument is the final sentence, which contains the
conclusion indicator “therefore,” and the conclusion contains a qualification
that the threat of suffocation will be eliminated after the switchover is
complete. The premises supporting this conclusion are that the new plastic
rings will be used by all companies and that the rings disintegrate after three
days’ exposure to sunlight.


Personalize this argument and ask yourself—are there any holes in this
argument?


Yes, there are several. The most obvious is, “What if an animal becomes
entangled in the new rings before they can disintegrate?”


Answer choice (A): This answer does not hurt the argument because the
author qualified the conclusion to account for the date of the switchover,
thereby inoculating against this avenue of attack. From a personalizing
standpoint, imagine what would happen if you raised this issue to the
beverage company representative—he or she would simply say, “Yes, that
may be the case, but I noted in my conclusion that the program would be
effective once the switchover is complete.” This is an attractive answer
because it raises a point that would be a difficult public relations issue to


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address. Regardless, this does not hurt the argument given by the beverage
company representative, and that is the task at hand.


Answer choice (B): This is the correct answer. Most people select answer
choice (E), but as you will see, (E) is incorrect. This answer undermines the
representative’s conclusion by showing that even after the switchover is
complete, the threat to animals from plastic rings will persist. Note the
carefully worded nature of the conclusion—the representative does not say
the threat from new plastic rings will be eliminated, but rather the threat from
plastic rings, which includes both old and new rings.


Answer choice (C): This out-of-scope answer addresses an issue that is
irrelevant to the representative’s argument.


Answer choice (D): While this is nice information from a customer service
standpoint (you do not want your six-pack of beer falling apart as you walk out
of the store), this answer does not affect the conclusion because it does not
address the threat of suffocation to animals.


Answer choice (E): The conclusion is about wild animals, whereas this
choice mentions aquatic animals. The conclusion is specifically about
suffocation, and answer choice (E) does not address suffocation.


This is the most commonly chosen answer. In this case, the answer preys
upon test takers who fail to heed the advice: “Read closely and know
precisely what the author said. Do not generalize!” Many test takers read the
conclusion and think, “So when they start using these new rings, it will make
things better for the animals.” When these test takers get to answer choice
(E), the answer looks extremely attractive because it indicates that the
implementation of the new rings will also have a harmful effect. With this
thinking in mind, many test takers select answer choice (E) thinking it
undermines the conclusion and they are certain they have nailed the question.
However, the conclusion is specifically about suffocation, and answer
choice (E) does not address suffocation.


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Instead, answer choice (E) attacks a conclusion that is similar but
different from the actual conclusion. Remember, one of the rules for
weakening arguments is to focus on the conclusion, and knowing the details
of the conclusion is part of that focus.




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7.     B
The principle that people are entitled to risk injury provided they do not
thereby harm others fails to justify the individual’s right to decide not to wear
seat belts if it can be shown, as B shows, that that decision does harm others.
Therefore, B is the best answer. A suggests that the law may be irrelevant in
some cases, but it does not address the issue of the law’s legitimacy. C cites
a requirement analogous to the one at issue, but its existence alone does not
bear on the legitimacy of the one at issue. The argument implicitly concedes
that individuals take risks by not wearing seat belts; therefore, D and E, which
simply confirm this concession, do not weaken the conclusion.




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8.     D
Concluding from the similar numbers of deaths in two groups that the relative
danger of death was similar for both groups is absurd if, as here, one group
was far smaller. D exposes this absurdity by pointing out the need to compare
death rates of the two groups, which would reveal the higher death rate for the
smaller group. Therefore, D is the best answer. Since the conclusion
acknowledges the difference between the number of civilian and armed forces
deaths, expressing this difference as a percentage, as suggested by B, is
beside the point. A is inappropriate because it simply adds a third group to the
two being compared. Because cause of death in not at issue, C and E are
irrelevant.




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9.     A
The conclusion of the argument is that "there must be fewer new residents
moving to City X than there were previously." Why? Because of several
observed factors (e.g., developers not buying land, contractors without work,
banks issuing fewer mortgages) that the author assumes result from the fewer
people trying to buy new homes. We are asked to find a flaw in the reasoning
of this argument.


(A) CORRECT. This suggests that there might be another reason for the
decline in home construction: the supply of available housing has been
increased through the release of many previously built homes. Therefore, the
reasoning in the argument is flawed.


(B) The size of homes, by itself, does not point to any flaw in the argument.


(C) The argument centers on new homes, so re-sales of condominiums are
not directly related.


(D) If materials cost less, it seems more likely that any decrease in new home
construction could be attributed to the stated causes.


(E) Sales of cars and boats are not related to construction of new homes.




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10.    D
Last year, firms in the manufacturing sector that offered employees employer
sponsored insurance (ESI) plans found that their worker absentee rates were
significantly lower than at firms that did not offer ESI. What could have caused
the decrease? The argument is made that the existence of the ESI plan
caused the decrease in worker absenteeism, but that conclusion would be
weakened if another cause were identified.
(A) Similar findings in other sectors of the economy strengthen rather than
weaken the argument.
(B) If workers have access to preventative health care as a result of the ESI
plan, they might be healthier and would miss fewer days of work due to
illness. This point supports the argument.
(C) The difficulty of initiating an ESI plan is irrelevant to a conclusion about
what happens after the plan is established.
(D) CORRECT. If there are fewer on-the-job injuries, then workers will miss
fewer days of work. This is an alternate explanation for the decrease in
absenteeism, and thus weakens the argument that the decrease in
absenteeism must have been due to the availability of ESI.
(E) The higher productivity of workers covered by ESI plans is consistent with
the fact that they miss fewer days of work. This statement does not weaken
the argument.




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STRENGTHEN
     •   Example: As the Indian cricket team performed badly in the last World
         Cup, it should not be sent for the next World Cup.
             –   FACT: the Indian cricket team performed badly in the last World
                 Cup
             –   Conclusion: it should not be sent for the next World Cup.
     •   How to strengthen it?


There can be many answers:
The same team is slated to play in next WC.
The team has been on a losing streak since then.
Playing conditions (pitch etc.), will remain the same.
The Coach has not changed.


         Navigation systems found in most aircraft are made with low-power
circuitry, which is susceptible to interference. Recently, one plane veered off
course during landing, when a passenger turned on a laptop computer.
Clearly, aircraft navigation systems are being put at risk by the electronic
devices that passengers carry on board, such as cassette players and laptop
computers.


Find at least 2 ways to strengthen it…


After the laptop computer was turned off, the plane regained course.


No problems with navigational equipment have been reported on flights with
no passenger-owned electronic devices on board.


Strengthen Mixed Bag:


1.       B
Following is the structure of the medical doctor’s argument: Premise: Sleep
deprivation is the cause of many social ills, ranging from irritability to
potentially dangerous instances of impaired decision making. Premise: Most


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people today suffer from sleep deprivation to some degree. Conclusion:
Therefore we should restructure the workday to allow people flexibility in
scheduling their work hours. The first premise contains a causal assertion (not
a causal conclusion), and the second premise indicates that most people
suffer from the stated cause. This combination would lead to the conclusion
that most people have a social ill (which could be irritability or impaired
decision making, or something in between). However, the conclusion in the
argument leaps over this idea to conclude that the workday should be
restructured. The missing link—or assumption—in the argument is that
restructuring the workday would alleviate the sleep deprivation. As always,
whenever you see a gap in the argument, you can strengthen the argument
by eliminating that gap. By relating sleep to work, answer choice (B) closes
the gap in the argument. Answer choice (A): This is a tricky answer, and the
key word is “overwork.” While the author clearly believes that work schedules
affect sleep, this does not mean that employees are being overworked. For
example, a person may be sleep deprived because they have to come into
work at 8 A.M. Perhaps they have children so they must get up very early to
take care of their family. The person might then work a normal eight hour day
and be sleep deprived not because of overwork but because of rising early.
Answer choice (B): This is the correct answer. By indicating that employees
would avoid sleep deprivation with a revised workday, this answer affirms that
the leap (or gap) made in the argument is not an unreasonable one. Answer
choice (C): This answer may hurt the argument by suggesting that some
individuals cannot be helped by the restructuring of the workday. At best, this
answer has no impact on the argument because we already know that most
people suffer from sleep deprivation to some degree. Answer choice (D): This
answer addresses the fact that the number of hours worked per week has
decreased. But the argument is not about the average number of hours
worked, but rather the way that those hours affect sleep. Thus, this answer
does not help the conclusion that people should be allowed flexibility in
scheduling. Answer choice (E): The argument does not suggest that the
workday will be shortened, only that the day will be structured so that people
have more flexibility in scheduling their hours. Thus, knowing that the extent



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of sleep deprivation is proportional to the length of one’s workday does not
strengthen the argument.




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2.     ANS. D
Conclusion: Galanin causes CRAVING for FATTY FOODS (G→CFF). In this
instance, the author simply assumes that galanin is the cause. Why can’t the
fatty foods lead to higher concentrations of galanin? Answer choice (A): If
anything, this answer choice may hurt the argument by showing that the
cravings do not always lead to choosing fatty foods. But, since the author
uses the phrase “consistently chose” to describe the choices of the rats, an
answer stating that rats did not “invariably” choose fatty foods has no effect on
the argument. Answer choice (B): This is a Shell Game answer because the
test makers try to get you to fall for an answer that addresses the wrong
issue. The argument discusses the concentration of galanin in the brains of
rats; no mention is made of the fat content of the brains of rats. This answer,
which focuses on the fat content in the brains of rats, therefore offers no
support to the argument. Even though the brain might not contain more fat, a
rat could still consistently choose and eat foods with a higher fat content.
Answer choice (C): The argument is that galanin in the brain causes rats to
crave fatty foods. The fact that galanin is in the food does not help that
assertion and may actually hurt the argument. Answer choice (D): This is
the correct answer. The answer strengthens the argument by eliminating the
possibility that the stated causal relationship is reversed: if the rats had higher
concentrations of galanin prior to eating the fatty foods, then the fatty foods
cannot be the cause of the higher concentration of galanin. As discussed
earlier in the chapter, this approach strengthens the argument by making it
more likely that the author had the original relationship correct. Answer choice
(E): This answer choice hurts the argument by suggesting that the causal
relationship in the conclusion is reversed. Remember that in Strengthen
questions you can expect to see Opposite answers, and this is one.




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3.     B
The conclusion is that a developer who wishes to make a large profit would be
wise to buy urban waterfront lots and erect residential buildings on them. The
basis for that claim is that people pay large sums for beach front homes. We
are asked to strengthen this argument.
(A) This choice states that people have more buying power today than in
previous centuries. This does not strengthen the claim that a developer will
make money on urban waterfront properties.
(B) CORRECT. This choice states that homeowners will be willing to spend
large sums of money on residential properties in traditionally industrial or
commercial districts. Since we know from the argument that urban waterfronts
have traditionally been industrial, this fact strengthens the claim that a
developer can make a profit on urban waterfront properties.
(C) This choice states that many urban waterfront lots are available for
purchase. This does not suggest, however, that a developer will be able to
sell them after he or she builds on them.
(D) This choice states that many coastal cities are giving tax breaks to
developers who rehabilitate the waterfront. But this does not suggest that
anyone will buy the developed properties.
(E) This choice states that properties in the interior of cities are more
expensive than those on the waterfront. Although waterfront properties are
therefore cheaper to acquire, this does not necessarily mean that a developer
can make a profit after buying such properties.




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5.     Answer: B A difficult CR question, to be sure. Here's the logic: The
Vargonian government has guaranteed the availability of a free education in
government-funded schools to ALL Vargonian children and set the
requirement that the current student-teacher ratio must be maintained. So,
from this alone, we can see that an increase in the number of students
dictates the hiring of additional teachers. In B, we find that one-quarter of
Vargonian children are enrolled in private, non-government-funded, schools
(because the economy is so good and everyone is so rich). Even though
these children are not currently enrolled in one of the government-funded
schools, they retain the legal right, according to the argument, to a free
education in one of these schools on-demand. One can infer that in an
economic recession, many of the "rich" families might not be quite so "rich"
any longer. Thus, some percentage of those students currently attending
private schools might return to public (government-funded) school, under
times of economic difficulty. And, as we found earlier, under the new law,
more students means more teachers must be hired (to preserve the current
ratio), which makes this the choice that most strengthens this argument.




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6.     B
If B is true, the greater abundance of longevity-promoting environmental
factors it mentions is probably at least partly responsible for the higher life
expectancy in Hawaii. Children born in Hawaii benefit from these factors from
birth, and thus Louisianans who have children in Hawaii increase their
children’s chances of living longer. Therefore, B is the best answer. If life
expectancy in Hawaii is likely to be falling, as A says, the argument is
weakened rather than strengthened. C and E, in the absence of other relevant
information, have no bearing on the conclusion; thus, they are inappropriate.
D is irrelevant, because the information it mentions about rates would already
have been incorporated into the statistics cited in the passage.




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7.     B
The plan proposes that high-speed ground transportation would be a less
expensive solution to airport congestion than would airport expansion. B
indicates that between the cities to be served by the plan there is substantial
air travel to which ground transportation would represent an alternative.
Therefore, B is the best answer. No other choice could be cited appropriately.
A and D both provide some evidence against the plan. A by emphasizing the
likely costs of providing high-speed ground transportation is not by itself a
solution to airport congestion. D by indicating that such an alternative is not by
itself a solution to airport congestion. C and E say that there are many
travelers for whom the proposed system would actually provide no alternative.




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8.        C
According to the passage, satellite mishaps caused a surge in insurance
claims, which, in turn, caused increased insurance premiums. Higher
premiums made the satellites more costly, resulting in increased performance
demands. If C is true, the greater demands on performance will lead to further
increases in costs by increasing the number of mishaps, and thus pushing
insurance premiums still higher. Thus, C is the best answer. A, D and E all
describe factors relevant to costs, but there is no reason to think that the
situation described in the passage will cause the costs resulting from these
factors to increase. Similarly, the impossibility of pinpointing the cause of
failure, mentioned in B, is consistent with the cost of satellites remaining
stable.




SET 6




Idioms


1.        The botanist was pleased to see that MANY of the recently planted and
heavily fertilized flowers were in bloom.


2.        Although the area had little traffic and FEW pedestrians, the
developers were convinced that the restaurant should be opened in the
district; it was only a matter of time before urban sprawl would bring residents
and visitors alike.


3.        The volume of the aquarium, when made with glass is not as MUCH as
the volume of the plastic aquarium.
4.        A large percentage of New York City residents are NATIVES OF other
countries.




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5.     During the Civil War, a fierce disagreement in Kentucky took place
BETWEEN those residents who supported the election of Abraham Lincoln
AND those who wanted to secede with Jefferson Davis.


6.     The number of volunteers at the Relay for Life MORE THAN
DOUBLED from 2002 to 2005.


7.     The newly enacted term limits prohibited the popular city council
chairperson FROM RUNNING for office during the next election.


Idiom Mixed Bag:


1.     D
The key idiom in the sentence is dispute; the sentence asks you to determine
which is the correct preposition that should follow it. Skimming through the
answer choices, you see that you have several options. Excerpt the idiom and
ask yourself, assuming that one has to discuss such things, does one talk
about a dispute “over” an issue, “about” an issue, or “concerning” an issue?
The first is the correct idiom, so eliminate (2), (3), and (5). The only difference
between (1) and (4) is the use of if or whether. Memorize this fact if you don’t
know it already: whether is the correct choice when the sentence describes
alternatives; if is correct when it describes a hypothetical situation (whether to
participate versus if he participated, he would...). Since this sentence presents
two alternative options (first or last recourse), whether is correct. That leaves
(4).


2.     E
Before moving to the question of expression, start with grammar. The answer
choices provide you with some different idioms so let’s start there. The verb
distinguished needs to be followed by from unless it’s followed by between, so
eliminate (2) and (3). Between appears in (4) and (5) and, as you know from
earlier examples, between must always be followed by and. Eliminate (4) for
pairing between and from. Finally on the question of expression, (5) is
superior to (1) because (1) contains an unnecessary their. (5) is the winner.


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3.     A
Scanning for differences among the choices, you can see that (1) and (5)
contain acknowledge each other while the others use acknowledge another.
Another in this instance is incorrect because it is unclear: Does it refer to a
third party that neither acknowledges? If it does refer to the other national
movement, then it uses the wrong idiom; the other or-each other are the only
viable options. Eliminate (2), (3), and (4). Choice (5) misuses the idiom
closer...than by altering it to closer...as. The original sentence, (1), presents
the best option.


4.     E
We’re told that this highly suspicious company-requires its potential
employees to have drug tests and the first decision that the answer choices
ask you to make is whether being considered or considered is the better
option. The being is unnecessary so eliminate (1) and (3). Next, should the
underlined portion contain if or whether? Since the sentence is describing
options rather than a hypothetical situation, whether is correct. Eliminate (2).
Finally, (4) makes no sense in context. (5) is correct.


5.     D
First of all, the correct idiom is exposing. ..to. Eliminate (1), (2), and (3). (5)
deeply distorts the original meaning of the sentence. It illogically suggests that
the campers fail to lock their cars by exposing the cars and campers to
danger, that the exposure creates the unlocked cars. If that makes no sense
to you, that’s okay because it makes no sense. Eliminate (5). (4) uses the
correct idiom and creates a clear parallel structure between who fail and who
expose. (4) it is.


6.     B
Whenever you see few underlined, look to see if it’s used correctly.
Remember that few is the correct adjective for things that can be counted.
Species can be counted, so few is right in the first instance. Nevertheless, few
is made to perform double duty, describing both species and, through ellipsis,


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vegetation. Vegetation cannot be counted so few is the wrong adjective for it,
meaning you’ll need a separate adjective for vegetation. Eliminate (1), and (3)
and (5) as well, because little is an incorrect adjective for species, suggesting
as it does more about size than number. The new comparative structure of (4)
sidesteps the “few/less” issue, but in doing so it unnecessarily alters the
meaning of the sentence. Eliminate it and (2) remains. (By the way, in which
is slightly better than where because it’s more formal, but there’s nothing
inherently wrong with where. Some differences aren’t all that important.)


7.     C
First off, the correct idiom for refuse is for (He refused one for the other). No,
this isn’t a common idiom, nor is it a particularly eloquent one, and that’s why
this question is hard. Eliminate (2), (4), and (5). Choices (1) and (3) ask you to
choose between derived by and derived from. Derived from is the correct
idiom. (3) is right. Unfortunately, idioms just need to be memorized since they
follow no general rules, but you’ll have an intuitive sense of most of them.
You’ll have the best shot of choosing the correct idiom if you isolate it or
consider it in terms of a simple sentence, as we did with He refused one for
the other above.




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8.     C
There are a few problems in the sentence. First of all, as much as a hundred
is incorrect; the idiom as many as should be used to describe a number of
objects (as many as 10 speakers but as much as the debt of...). Eliminate (1)
and (2). (4) changes the phrasing but is still wrong because much more
distorts the meaning of the original sentence.-Finally, (3) is better than (5)
because had no health insurance whatsoever makes more sense and is more
idiomatic than did not have health insurance whatsoever. Notice that both (3)
and (5) also simplify the structure of the original at least as much as a
hundred and more others by replacing it with more than a hundred others.
The change is acceptable because it does not alter the meaning of the
original, excessively wordy expression. If there were more than a hundred
people, then it’s unnecessary to also say that there were at least one hundred
people; that’s obvious. (3) it is.


9.     D
First of all, numbers in the original sentence should be changed to the
singular number. The only time that the plural numbers should be used is
when one wants to discuss actual numbers, as in the numbers 4 and 12.
Eliminate (1) and (3). Your remaining options ask you to choose between
greater than 10 percent and more than 10 percent. As we said earlier, greater
than is correct only when it is used to describe numbers alone (greater than
10). Since this sentence measures a percent rather than solely a number, the
correct option is more than. Only (4) remains.


10.    D
First of all, population is not a quantity that can be counted, so as many as
needs to be changed to as much as. Eliminate (1) and (5). Answer choice (3)
survives this particular comparison because it changes the subject from
population to the countable people and therefore uses as many as correctly.
As for the second quantity in the underlined portion, work force is, like
population, not countable and therefore less than rather than fewer than is
correct. Eliminate (2). (3) is wrong because less than that remained distorts



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the meaning of the sentence and is unclear in its own right. What exactly is
that? Half of those who died? Who survived? (4) remains.


11.    B
The initial sentence is certainly wordy, but look for specific problems that you
can fix. Let’s start with the terms describing the number. You’re given several
options: the number... is equivalent to, as many female as male students, the
number... is as many as, as great as the number..., and the students are
enrolled in equal numbers. Options (3) and (4) are grammatically incorrect
because each uses the wrong idiom to describe the number, none of the
remaining choices is grammatically incorrect, so focus on their expression.
Answer choice (2) is clearly the most succinct option, and since it is still
faithful to the original meaning of the sentence, it is the correct choice as well.


Adjective / Adverb


1.     The main tourist attraction in Dorchester-on-Thames, a rather tiny
village west of London, is the SURPRISINGLY large abbey; built 10 the
seventh century, it remains of one of the largest churches in Oxford.


2.     Studies have shown that first-born children learn speech faster, but
speak MORE QUIETLY, than children born later to the same parents.


3.     Patrons reported that they would visit the restaurant more
FREQUENTLY than they currently do, provided the management hired an
efficient wait-staff and offered more nightly specials.


4.     Many celebrities, such as Britney Spears, Tom Cruise, and Jessica
Simpson, have secretly vacationed on Turtle Island in Fiji an EXCLUSIVE
tropical resort known for its privacy and beauty.


Adjective / Adverb Mixed Bag


1.     B


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Choices A, C, and E do not state the comparison logically. The expression as
old as indicates equality of age, but the sentence indicates that the Brittany
monuments predate the Mediterranean monuments by 2,000 years. In B, the
best choice, older than makes this point of comparison clear. B also correctly
uses the adjective supposed, rather than the adverb supposedly used in D
and E, to modify the noun phrase Mediterranean predecessors.


2.     E
Choices A, B, and C incorrectly use the adjective form seeming to modify the
participial adjective unlimited. B also uses the unidiomatic preposition to
instead of the correct at after targeted, while C violates sense by having all
the antibodies specifically targeted at an, that is, one, invading microbe or
substance. Choice D correctly uses seemingly, but it repeats B's incorrect
use of targeted to and C's illogical all... specifically. Only E, the best choice,
correctly uses the form seemingly to modify unlimited, the correct
preposition, at, with targeted, and the logically correct each, which links the
specific antibodies to specific microbes or substances.




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Wordiness:
1.    The value of the stock rose by 10%.


2.    The three prices sum to $11.56.


3.    Excited about her upcoming graduation, Kelsey could barely focus on
her final exams.


4.    Jane tried not to idealize her new job.


5.    Experience reveals that cancer patients rarely exhibit the same
symptoms.


6.    Tom and his boss differ over how the company should make
investments.




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Wordiness Mixed Bag:


1.     C
This is an example of a Sentence Correction question that explicitly and
almost exclusively tests expression. As a result of having is not grammatically
offensive, and it works fine with the rest of the sentence, but it is rather wordy
and indirect. (2), (4), and (5) share the same basic structure with the
imprecise of having expression. An active sentence or phrase starts with the
subject (they) and then moves to the verb (have) and object (nostrils). Active
expression is generally the most effective expression on the GMAT; always
choose it when presented with a grammatically correct option as well. (3) is
the best option because it is the most active and the most clear.


2.     A
This question doesn’t give you a viable opportunity to correct the rather
clumsy phrase at the beginning of the sentence. The original sentence is,
perhaps surprisingly, grammatically correct because this is a special type of
construction. The entire underlined portion of the sentence operates as the
singular subject for led. Since you would never want to choose this option
without carefully reviewing the remaining choices, you would probably arrive
at the answer by eliminating the others. (2) is a wordier version of (1), so
eliminate it. They were anomalies in (3) is just not idiomatic. (4) and (5) seem
promising at the start since they seem to provide active alternatives, but being
anomalous is ugly enough to disqualify (4) and the subject and verb don’t
agree in (5). Go with (1).


3.     E
From the outset, you can focus on fixing the human body’s trying, an
unattractive phrase on all counts. Eliminate (1), and you can take out (2) as
well for making the phrase no better. Focusing on the final verb, you have that
is harming or that harm. Since the subject is singular, eliminate (3) for
containing the plural harm. When comparing (4) and (5), you can see that (4)
adds an extra verb. The addition of to attempt is wordy and redundant; there’s



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nothing expressed by to attempt that isn’t already expressed by to try. That
leaves (5).


4.     D
There’s no doubt about it: This is an ugly sentence and a very difficult
question. Nevertheless, find some differences among the choices that will
help you to tackle it. You can start with the verbs. We begin with After the
company recalled and then move to it would be forced, but since the sentence
is talking about something that already happened, the second verb should be
it was forced. Eliminate (1) and (3). You can also eliminate (5) for offering the
strange variation a one billion dollar loss it was forced to accept: (2) is wrong
because it creates a sentence fragment. Make sure you know this fact: a
semicolon is correct only when it joins two pieces that could stand as
independent and complete sentences. In other words, you can use a
semicolon only if you could use a period at the same place and still have
complete sentences. (2) doesn’t do that, so (4) remains.


Punctuation:
1 to 3: correct
4.     The night before the GMAT, Ken stayed up until midnight; he
suspected this was the reason he did so poorly on the test.


5.     The worst pandemic in history, the bubonic plague swept through
Eurasia during the 1300s and killed over 200 million; nearly one in three
people DIED.


6.     Despite the fact that it has a duck-shaped bill and lays eggs, the
platypus is not a bird, BUT rather the most unique mammal in Australia and
quite possible the world. (bird, but rather)


7.     Barbara Steisand, whose career spans four decades, has received ten
Grammy awards, including three for best Female Playback Singer, winning in
1964, 1965, and 1966.



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Meaning Clarity


     1. ONLY those passengers carrying an Identification will be allowed to
        board the plane. – Right Meaning
        Passengers carrying ONLY an Identification will be allowed to board
        the plane. – Wrong Meaning


2.      The Battle of Gettysburg, considered the turning point of the Civil War,
saw one-third of its participants killed OR injured.


3.      In The Matrix, Neo can choose either the blue pill, which will allow him
to forget all that he has learned and return to life as he knew it, OR the red
pill, which will keep him in reality.
4.      Edgar Allan Poe attended the University of Virginia and West Point
Military Academy BUT was expelled from both of them; he incurred gambling
debts at Virginia and intentionally neglected his duties at West Point.


5.      WHILE global warming has already made the Hudson River a seeming
fragile ecosystem, the introduction of invasive species has the potential to
destroy nearly all of the aquatic plants and animals that inhabit the river.


Meaning Clarity Mixed Bag:


1.      Ans. E.
Verb Tense tells us 2 events in order so HAD BEEN is better. This leaves
D/E. Also, singed / incinerated are similar so OR is better than AND. Ans. E




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2.     C
You may notice a problem with this Sentence right off the bat: It doesn’t make
sense for the officials to have given the dogs to pet sanctuaries and to have
exterminated them as part of the same gesture. A sanctuary doesn’t kill dogs,
at least not if it really deserves to be called a sanctuary, so the sentence
needs to describe the two actions (distributing the dogs to shelters and killing
them) as alternatives. Choices (3) and (4) make that correction by substituting
the original and with the much more logical or. Try reading the remaining
options into the sentence and you’ll see that (4) makes no sense in context;
made collected is not anyone’s idea of correct grammar. (3) remains.




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3.     E
What makes this backpack so apparently wonderful is its surprising
combination of qualities: it can carry all this stuff without becoming too heavy
and unwieldy to use. The original sentence does not express the contrast that
creates the beauty of this object because it connects information about the
backpack’s abilities and its ergonomics with the word and. Choices (4) and (5)
provide better options by including yet, a word that describes a contrast. (5) is
better than (4) since being is unnecessary. Go with (5).


4.     D
The original problem, at least as far as meaning is concerned, comes in the
“expense of the requirements.” It’s not the requirements that are expensive
but the training. Eliminate (1) and (2). (3) contains the same error because,
even though it adds training before requirements, the object is still
requirements (training only modifies it). (4) and (5) both offer training as the
object and to that extent are both correct, but (5) isn’t parallel with the service
required later in the sentence. So (4) it is.


5.     C
The sentence describes the misdiagnosis by doctors who thought that one
condition (simple - menstrual cramps) was really a more serious condition
(endometriosis). Since the correct idiom should be mistook ... for, (3) is the
answer.


CR: Evaluate


1.     As we can see in this argument, the argument is inadequate (mind you
inadequate, not faulty). In order for the claim to be convincing or not, we might
need to know more. Here, the best thing that one can ask for is “What are the
results of the testing?”


Now take the results to two extremes: Extreme one: Very good: then the claim
is strengthened.



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Extreme two: BAD, HORRIBLE QUALITY: then the claim is weakened. So the
correct answer will read something like this: “What are the results of the
testing?”




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2.
The best question will be: Have the prices of other ingredients in chocolate
decreased recently?


The conclusion of the argument is that the price of chocolate will increase
within six months. The basis for that claim is that the wholesale price of cocoa
has increased. However, if the price of other ingredients in the chocolate has
dropped, the decrease could offset the higher price of cocoa and render the
argument invalid.


3.
Whether the newborns in both nurseries were equally healthy and happy at
the start of the experiment….


Evaluate Mixed Bag:


1.     D
Profits for a particular product have been going down and the CFO has
determined that this is because, on the one hand, the cost to make the
product has increased and, on the other, consumers won't pay more than the
current price (recall that Profit = Revenues – Costs). The CEO only wants
Company X to sell products with increasing profit margins; as a result, the
CFO decides the solution is to stop making this product. This decision would
make sense only if we can be assured that there is no way to have an
increasing profit margin for the product in question.
(A) Whether there are new, profitable products does not address the issue of
whether there is a way to achieve increasing profit margins for the flagship
product.
(B) Whether the management team agrees with the CFO's recommendation
does not address the issue of whether there is a way to achieve increasing
profit margins for the flagship product.
(C) This may increase the revenues earned by the product, but this choice
does not address the additional cost associated with new features, so we still
do not know whether we can achieve increasing profit margins for the product.


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We may be able to, but we may not: the features may cost more than the
increased price that consumers would be willing to pay.
(D) CORRECT. If the costs for the existing product can be reduced, then the
profit margin will increase (again, recall that Profits = Revenues – Costs). If
the costs cannot be reduced, then the profit margins will not increase.
(E) The flagship product's revenues as a percentage of total revenues does
not address the issue of whether there is a way to achieve increasing profit
margins for the flagship product (although it does highlight why the company
might find itself with a big problem if it follows the CEO's advice!).




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2.     B
The correct answer is B. The conclusion of the argument is that "eating whole
grains can have an appreciable effect on cholesterol levels." This assertion is
based on the fact that some people who ate three servings of whole grains
every day for six months had lower cholesterol than did people who did not,
even though their cholesterol levels were the same before the study began.
The argument does not take into account, however, other factors, such as
exercise, that may have contributed to the difference in cholesterol levels.
Choice B asks whether there is indeed another factor – exercise – that should
be taken into account.




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3.    E
The hypothesis has two parts: first, that intense use does not bring material
changes that cause the string to go dead and, second, that dirt and oil do
cause the phenomenon. The experiment suggested in choice E directly tests
this hypothesis by contaminating strings that are known to have their original
material properties. Thus, E is best answer. Because factors associated with
style of play (choice B) and brand of guitar (Choice C) might affect how the
strings become contaminated, no result of the investigations in B and C will
allow clear evaluation of the hypothesis. Information about the strings’
material (choice A) will need considerable supplementation before its bearing
on the hypothesis is clear. The passage already gives the information
promised by investigation D.




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4.     E
The argument concludes that the prosecution of a small number of people
who download music illegally will have a minimal impact on the overall
number of people who engage in illegal downloading. The correct answer
must relate specifically to this issue and provide additional insight as to
whether it seems reasonable.
(A) One premise of the argument states that the recording industry does not
have the resources to prosecute all individuals who download music illegally,
while a second premise states the number of people who will be charged with
a crime is limited. These statements indicate that the legal resources of the
recording industry are too limited to have a major impact on the overall
number of people who engage in illegal downloading, no matter how these
lawyers dedicate their time.
(B) If a small minority of individuals were responsible for the majority of illegal
song downloads, the actions of the recording industry could have a significant
impact on the number of downloaded songs. The conclusion of the argument,
however, was about the number of people who download songs illegally; this
number would remain unaffected.
(C) Whether songs are downloaded illegally and then shared with other
Internet users is not relevant to the conclusion.
(D) Similar to answer choice A, this choice is limited by the premises of the
argument. If new Internet security technology permits the recording industry to
more quickly and easily identify individuals who illegally download music, then
the recording industry will know who is breaking the law. However, the lack of
industry resources still restricts the industry’s ability to prosecute a large
number of people, even if they are identified as individuals who illegally
download music.
(E) CORRECT. The argument concludes that the prosecution of a small
number of people who download music illegally will have a minimal impact on
the overall number of people who engage in illegal downloading. However, if
the threat of prosecution were enough to “alter the behavior” of others (i.e.,
deter them from illegally downloading music), the actions of the recording
industry could have a significant impact on the number of people who illegally
download music.


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5.     B
The correct answer choice is (B). The conclusion of the argument is the first
sentence: “George Orwell’s book 1984 has exercised much influence on a
great number of this newspaper’s readers.” The basis for this conclusion is
that 1984 was the second most named book in a survey about influential
books. The argument contains a serious error: just because 1984 came in
second in the survey does not mean that “a great number” of readers selected
it as influential. To illustrate this proposition, consider the following example:
Number of people surveyed = 1000, Number of people naming the Bible as
the most influential book = 999, Number of people naming 1984 as the most
influential book = 1, In this example, 1984 has come in second, but no one
would say this second place finish supports a conclusion that “1984 has
exercised much influence on a great number of this newspaper’s readers.”
You can expect the correct answer to address this issue. Answer choice (A):
The survey in the argument asks readers to name the one book with the most
influence in their lives; the number of books read does not affect this answer.
To apply the Variance Test, try opposite answers of “1” and a large number,
say “10,000.” These numbers will not alter the evaluation of the argument,
and thus this answer is incorrect. Answer choice (B): This is the correct
answer, but it can be difficult since the wording is a bit unusual. The question
is intended to reveal how many people selected 1984 relative to the other
choices, and this addresses the issue raised in the analysis of the stimulus.
Consider how the variance test works for this answer choice: First try the
response, “999.” In this case, only one person selected 1984 as the most
influential book, and the argument is greatly weakened. Next try the response,
“501.” In this instance, 499 people selected 1984 as the most influential book
and the conclusion is strengthened (the other 501 people would have selected
the Bible). Note that you cannot try a number larger than 501 because that
would mean that the Bible was not named most often. Because the varied
responses produce different evaluations of the argument, this answer is
correct. Answer choice (C): This answer is not relevant to the columnist’s
argument. Apply the Variance Test to disprove this answer by using opposite
answers of “0” and a very large number, such as “1 million.” Answer choice
(D): Because the argument is about Orwell’s 1984, other Orwell books chosen


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by the readers have no impact on the argument. Apply the Variance Test,
using opposite answers of “0” and a small number such as “10” (Orwell wrote
dozens of essays, but not dozens of books). Answer choice (E): The survey in
the argument addresses influence, not the actual reading of the book. A
person might be influenced by a book like the Bible through church teachings,
etc. without actually having read the book. To apply the Variance Test, try
opposite answers of “0” and “1000.”




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6.     D
The argument presents a substantial increase in the proportion of women
between twenty and twenty-one who were enrolled in college as evidence that
there was an increase in the proportion of higher education students who
were women. This evidence would lack force if a similar increase in college
enrollment had occurred among men. Choice D is therefore the best answer.
Since percentages of men graduating from high school do not indicate the
percentages enrolling in college that year, choice E is incorrect. Choices A, B,
and C are incorrect because the information they refer to, being about women
only, does not facilitate a comparison of women’s enrollment to men’s
enrollment in higher education programs.


Paradox:


1.     Explanation: The device is placed on highly desirable cars that are
prone to being stolen, and the device actually lessens the rate at which they
are stolen.


2.     Explanation: The surgeon operates on the most complex and
challenging cases.


3.     Explanation: Most of the electricity generated in Country X is sold to
other countries.
4.
Many residents of these communities must provide for the needs of visiting
grandchildren several weeks a year.




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Paradox Mixed Bag:


1.     B
The paradox in this problem is that alcohol drinkers who surpass the threshold
for calorie intake should gain weight, but they do not. Most people, upon
reading the stimulus, prephrase an answer involving exercise or some other
way to work off the expected weight gain. Unfortunately, a perfect match to
this prephrase does not appear, and instead students are faced with a tricky
answer that preys upon this general idea while at the same time it fails to
meet the circumstances in the stimulus. Answer choice (A): Read closely! The
stimulus specifies that people who regularly drink two or three alcoholic
beverages a day thereby exceed the necessary caloric intake. This answer,
which discusses individuals who avoid exceeding the caloric intake
necessary, therefore, addresses a different group of people from that in the
stimulus. Since information about a different group of people does not explain
the situation, this answer is incorrect. This answer is attractive because it
uses the idea of getting rid of or avoiding calories, but it violates one of the
precepts of the stimulus. Out of scope! Remember, you must look very
closely at the circumstances in the stimulus and make sure that the answer
you select matches those circumstances. Answer choice (B): This is the
correct answer. If the excess calories are dissipated as heat, then there would
be no weight gain. Hence, alcohol drinkers can consume excess calories and
still not gain weight. Some students object to this answer because the
situation seems unrealistic. Can heat dissipation actually work off dozens if
not hundreds of calories? According to the question stem, yes! Remember,
the question stem tells you that each answer choice should be taken as true.
Since this answer choice clearly states that the excess calories tend to be
dissipated, you must accept that as true and then analyze what effect that
would have. Answer choice (C): The stimulus discusses “people who regularly
drink two or three alcoholic beverages a day and thereby exceed the caloric
intake necessary.” This answer choice addresses a different group of people
than those discussed in the stimulus. Out of scope! Answer choice (D): The
first flaw in this answer is that it simply states that individuals consuming
alcohol do not gain weight but it offers no explanation for why these people


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have no weight gain. The second flaw in the problem is that it addresses the
wrong group of people. The stimulus discusses people who drink two or three
alcoholic beverages a day; this answer addresses people who drink more
than three alcoholic beverages a day. Out of scope! Answer choice (E):
Again, this answer discusses a different group of people than those in the
stimulus. The stimulus discusses people who exceed the necessary caloric
intake; this answer addresses people who do not meet the necessary caloric
intake. Out of scope!




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2.     C
If C is true, the rapid increase in productivity among Asian palm trees after
1980 probably depleted nutrients needed for the development of fruit-
producing flowers. Thus, C explains why the palms’ productivity could
subsequently decline, and is the best answer. A relates a drop in the price of
palm fruit to a rise in production and a fall in demand, but it does not explain
the subsequent drop in the trees’ productivity. B gives no reason for the
decrease in productivity of the trees introduced to Asia. D does not explain the
decrease in productivity, since the stability of the weevil population described
would support stability of palm fruit productivity between 1980 and 1984 rather
than a decrease. Because E describes the pollination of the trees prior to
1980, it cannot explain a change occurring in 1984.




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3.     C
The paradox in the argument is that the provinces and states that have more
stringent safety requirements also have higher average rates of accidents.
Even so, experts agree that the more stringent requirements actually are
effective. This type of “surprisingly low/high rate of success” scenario has
appeared in a number of Resolve the Paradox questions, including the
following: An anti-theft device is known to reduce theft, but cars using the anti-
theft device are stolen at a higher rate than cars without the device.
Explanation: The device is placed on highly desirable cars that are prone to
being stolen, and the device actually lessens the rate at which they are stolen.
A surgeon has a low success rate while operating, but the director of the
hospital claims the surgeon is the best on the staff. Explanation: The
surgeon operates on the most complex and challenging cases. A bill collector
has the lowest rate of success in collecting bills, but his manager claims he is
the best in the field. Explanation: The bill collector is assigned the toughest
cases to handle. These scenarios underscore the issue present in the
question: other factors in the situation make it more difficult to be successful.
With the car safety requirements, you should look for an answer that shows
that there is a situation with the roads that affects the accident rates. A
second possible explanation is that the seat belts are not actually used by a
majority of drivers and the safety inspections are not made or are rubber-
stamp certifications. This answer is less likely to appear because it is fairly
obvious. Answer choice (A): The stimulus specifies that annual safety
inspections— regardless of what is examined—are already in place.
Therefore, this answer does not explain why the average rate of accidents is
higher in those states. Answer choice (B): Assuming that overconfidence
leads to accidents, the answer could support the assertion that states with
more stringent requirements have higher accident rates. But, this answer
would also suggest that the experts are wrong in saying that more stringent
standards reduce accident rates, so this answer cannot be correct. Answer
choice (C): This is the correct answer, and the answer conforms to the
discussion above. If the roads are generally more dangerous, then the
stringent requirements could reduce the accident rate while at the same time
the accident rate could remain relatively high. Since this scenario allows all


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sides of the situation to be correct and it explains how the situation could
occur, this is the correct answer. Answer choice (D): This answer supports
only one side of the paradox. The answer confirms that the experts are
correct, but it does not explain why these provinces have higher accident
rates. Thus, it does not resolve the paradox. Answer choice (E): This answer
appears attractive at first, but the number of miles of roadway in the provinces
is irrelevant because the stimulus specifically references “accidents per
kilometer driven.” Since the accident rate is calculated as per-miles-driven,
the actual number of miles of roadway is irrelevant.




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4.     B
The correct answer choice is (B). The paradox in the stimulus is: for
manufacturers who improved job safety training during the 1980s there was
an increase in the number of on-the-job accidents. Answer choice (A): This
answer does not provide an explanation for the paradox in the stimulus. Some
students eliminate this answer because it addresses the transportation
industry, but information about the transportation industry could be used to
analogically explain the issue in the manufacturing industry (but, to be correct
the answer would have to offer some further relevant parallel between the two
industries). Answer choice (B): This is the correct answer. If the workforce is
increasing, more accidents would be expected. Thus, safety training could
improve the safety of the work environment (as measured by average number
of accidents per worker, for example) while at the same time the number of
total accidents could increase. Because this answer allows both sides to be
true and it explains the circumstance in the stimulus, this answer is correct. In
Chapter Fifteen we will discuss average versus total numbers, and that will
further explain the construction of this question. Answer choice (C): This
would explain an increase in accidents before job safety training, but the issue
in the stimulus is an increase after the safety training. Answer choice (D): This
answer further confuses the issue. If the fluctuation was random, that could
explain how an increase in accidents could follow safety training. By stating
that the increase was not random, a possible cause of the scenario is
eliminated. Answer choice (E): This answer shows that the level of safety was
at least minimal prior to the safety training, but this does not help explain why
an increase in accidents followed the training.




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5.     A
The correct answer choice is (A). In rough terms, the paradox in the stimulus
is that smokers of one pack of low-nicotine cigarettes have an identical
nicotine level at the end of the day as smokers of one pack of high-nicotine
cigarettes. This similarity must be explained by a similarity, not a difference.
Answer choice (A): This is the correct answer. The answer choice indicates
that there is a similarity in the blood such that the maximum amount of
nicotine absorbed is identical for everyone. Because the maximum amount of
nicotine absorbed per day is equal to the nicotine in a pack of low-nicotine
cigarettes, each person absorbs the amount of nicotine equal to the low-
nicotine pack regardless of the type of cigarette smoked. Additional nicotine is
not absorbed into the blood of smokers of the high-nicotine brand. Since this
answer explains the paradox, this is the correct answer. Answer choice (B):
Read closely! The stimulus is specifically about smokers who “smoke one
pack of cigarettes per day.” This answer discusses smoking different numbers
of cigarettes and thus it fails to meet the circumstances in the stimulus.
Answer choice (C): This answer confuses the issue because it indicates that
most nicotine is absorbed into the system. From this fact one would expect
that those smoking high-nicotine cigarettes would have higher nicotine levels
than low-nicotine cigarette smokers. Answer choice (D): The stimulus does
not address the level of tar in cigarettes, nor can we make any judgment
about how tar affects nicotine levels. Answer choice (E): This would apply to
any smoker, and as this addresses an effect that occurs after smoking is
stopped, it does not help us understand why the nicotine rose to identical
levels regardless of the kind of cigarette smoked.




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6.    A
If the number of men beginning to smoke and the number of women quitting
smoking during the year are equal, A would result in an increase, not a
decrease, in the number of adults who smoke. Hence, A does NOT explain
the facts cited and is the best answer. Given the decrease in the number of
adults who smoke, the increase in tobacco sales could be explained by a
proportionally greater increase in the non-adults who smoke or the
nonsmokers who use tobacco. An increase in total tobacco use by smokers or
in the sales in the United States tobacco abroad would also explain the facts
cited. Thus, because B, C, D and E could explain the facts cited, none of them
can be the best answer.




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Set 7


Answer-key:

   1. B
   2. C
   3. A
   4. D
   5. E
   6. C
   7. D
   8. B
   9. C
   10. C
   11. A
   12. A
   13. C
   14. E
   15. C
   16. B
   17. A
   18. B
   19. A
   20. C
   21. E
   22. E
   23. B
   24. A
   25. D
   26. B
   27. A
   28. B
   29. E
   30. D
   31. D
   32. E
   33. C
   34. C
   35. B
   36. E
   37. C
   38. C
   39. E
   40. E
   41. B




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Explanations
1. B; A-misplaced modifier--opening clause should modify "Barbara Jordan"
not her participation in impeachment hearings; C-same as A, except here the
opening clause modifies "it;" D & E-"then also" is redundant and in D, the
modifier problem remains

2.   C; if reclamation technology has not improved (read, its cost hasn't
dropped), yet average reclamation cost has dropped, then the coal operators
must have stopped mining in areas that have a higher relative cost to reclaim.

3. A; B-opening modifier incorrectly modifies "the world" rather than "world
consumption of oil); C-similar modifier problem; D-similar; E-illogical modifier
error, plus, passive construction.

4.   D; A-opening clause incorrectly modifies "in 1909" rather than "Selma
Lagerlof; B-changes the emphasis of the sentence and it's a run-on sentence;
C- another run-on sentence, plus, incorrect use of "winning" rather than the
infinitive form "to win;" E-"that won" is incorrect here--should be "to win." Also,
the construction is awkward and the intent of the sentence has been changed.

5. E; doesn't compare development of hypotheses, suggest revisions to a
theory, evaluate usefulness of any evidence, or challenge any theories.

6.   C; the question concerns the discrepancy between the dating of the
Archaeopteryx lithographica (150 million years ago) and that of the nonavian
maniraptor theropods (115 million years ago). The "unconvinced scientists"
argued that since no fossil record of the existence of theropods in the
discrepant years had been discovered, that theropods definitely did not exist
during this time period.

7. D; line 18, "Sceptics also argue that the fused clavicles (the 'wishbone') of
birds differ from the unfused clavicles of theropods."

8.    B; line 31, "Such experiments cannot, however, reveal...," read
"deficiency."




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9.   C; line 26, "Clayton's birds switched their preference from crickets to
peanuts once the food had been stored for a certain length of time, showing
that they retain information about the what, the where, and the when."

10. C; line 26, "Clayton's birds switched their preference from crickets to
peanuts once the food had been stored for a certain length of time, showing
that they retain information about the what, the where, and the when."

11. A; line 6, "...as distinct from the capacity simply to use information
acquired through past experiences," and line 34, "Clayton acknowledged this
by using the term 'episodic-like' memory."

12. A; B-"...providing them...and milked..." is not parallel;" C-parallelism,
again; D-"them" is plural, "the Holstein cow" is singular--pronoun number
error; E-"will produce" implies that that any farmer who has followed these
suggestions may still be waiting for his cows to "produce..." in some future
year. That leaves A, which is a horrible sentence, even on its best day. It
should read something like, "For the farmer who takes care to keep them cool,
provides them with high-energy feed, and milks them regularly, Holstein cows
produce an average of 2,275 gallons of milk each per year." Even so, it's still
a lousy sentence. So, the reference answer, E, does not appear to be the best
choice.

13. C; clearly, if the caterpillars aren't eating the poisonous pollen, then the
pollen doesn't pose a danger to the Monarch butterfly (within the scope of this
argument, at any rate).

14. E; A-D are irrelevant. However, if the injected chemical independently
inhibits appetite, then the argument fails.

15. C; If a significant percentage of items returned as damaged were
damaged before they were packed, then improving the packing material isn't
going to effect the return rate of that percentage.

16. B; A-incorrect use of "like"--should be "such as," and "having been taken"
should be "were taken;" C-"some protective measures..." can only correctly
modify a noun, but "...establishing..." is a verb, plus, the verb error noted in A;
D-"with" does not logically connect the two parts of the sentence, plus,



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modifier error noted in C; E-"with" as noted in D, plus, verb error noted in A
and C.

17. A; B-"had not invented" is incorrect usage of past perfect tense, plus, "of
such" should be "that such" and "having been made" incorrectly uses the
present perfect tense instead of the past perfect "had been made;" C-wordy,
plus, "had not invented" is still wrong usage; D-confusing and awkward
construction that is inferior to A; E-same problems as D, but worse, plus,
"being" is unnecessary.

18. B; A-needs "that," plus, "for distinguishing" should be "to distinguish," and
"the result is, to make" makes no sense; C-"the result of this" is wordy and
awkward and "they are unable..." creates a redundant, run-on sentence; D-
final   clause   makes    no   sense     with    preceding   construction;   E-"for
distinguishing" as noted in A, "resulting in being unable to make" is wordy and
makes no sense, plus, "as to hamper" in incorrect usage of "as" since it
should be used to compare actions (verbs), not nouns.

19. A; The first BF is an objection ("Critics protest...") against Aroca City's
plan. The second is the conclusion of the argument, which is the end-point of
the argument, not a supporting premise or evidence. A is the only choice that
fits. The reference answer, D, is incorrect.

20. C; A-"leaking" and "while causing" incorrectly implies that the oil leak and
the pollution of the beaches continues, even now; B-run-on sentence, thanks
to "it;" D-"while" incorrectly implies that the barge ran aground and "leaked its
cargo...and caused the pollution of..." all at the same time; E-"so" suggests
that the barge ran aground, or was run aground, intentionally, plus, "they"
incorrectly and illogically refers to "750,000 gallons" rather than the "its cargo"
and "were polluting" is incorrect use of past progressive tense.

21. E; if OLEX found that closing the Grenville refinery would result in
enormous costs for clean-up, and the company's decision not to close the
Grenville refinery could very well be due to financial rather than social
concerns.

22. E; A-incorrectly compares "American businesses" with "the failure rate;" B-
error similar to that of A; C-similar problem; D-awkward construction.


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23. B; A-"and" illogically restricts the dimensions, given the construction of the
remainder of the sentence, "it" is unnecessary, and "ran" incorrectly implies
that the Erie Canal no longer exists; C-"and" and "ran" as noted in A, "but" is
incorrectly placed and "connecting" is incorrect usage of the progressive
tense, in this instance; D-"was" and "ran" implies the canal no longer exists
and "which" incorrectly refers to "upstate New York," in addition to being
unnecessary; E-"and" as noted in A and B, "but" is incorrectly placed, and
"connecting" is incorrectly used, as in C.

24. A; line 12, "But labor costs and labor rates are not in fact the same...," line
25, "Because labor rates are highly visible, managers can easily compare
their company’s rates with those of competitors."

25. D; line 35, "The myth that labor rates and labor costs are equivalent is
supported by business journalists..."

26. B; line 14, "...one company could pay its workers considerably more than
another and yet have lower labor costs..."

27. A; line 63, "Finally, to the extent that changes in compensation create new
problems..." read failure to bring about the intended changes...

28. B; if alcohol consumption away from home is lower in the under-21 age
group now compared to 1990, then the implication is that drinking at home
means that they aren't driving while, or after having been, drinking.

29. E; A-B-"the chambers" were not closed "due to moisture," but because
"salt...was crystallizing and fungus was growing on the walls," due to the
moisture; C-"the chambers" were not closed "because tourists were exhaling
moisture," but, again, because "salt...was crystallizing and fungus was
growing..." due to the moisture; D-they weren't closed because of moisture,
either; E correctly notes, in correct order, that "the chambers...were
closed......because moisture (exhaled by tourists) had raised the humidity...to
such levels that salt...was crystallizing and fungus was growing on the walls."

30. D; A-"which" incorrectly refers to "spacecraft" only and incorrectly
compares "short flights" with "space station;" B-"sufficient enough" is
redundant; C-same problems as A; E-incorrectly compares "flights" to "space
station" and "shortness" is poor usage.


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31. D; A-"almost expected" is illogical, given the apparent intent of the
sentence and "which" incorrectly refers to "the end of the year" rather than
"production (of electrical power by windmills)"; B-"almost expected" remains
problematic, "that it will double" is wordy--"to double" is better; C-"that it will" is
wordy and awkward and "that" has no clear, logical referent, plus, the infinitive
form "to provide" is incorrect in this construction, the progressive "providing"
would probably be better; E-"which" incorrectly refers to "end of the year" and
in this construction, "be providing,"--"be" is unnecessary, and "providing"
should be simply "provide." That leaves A--a fairly lousy sentence, which
would be better written as two sentences--something like this, "The amount of
electrical power produced nationwide by windmills is currently about 2,500
megawatts. However, production is expected nearly to double by the end of
the year and thus to provide enough electricity for 1.3 million households."

32. E; The conclusion of this argument is "Yes, it can be concluded that, for a
given level of output, Delta's operation now causes less fossil fuel to be
consumed than it did formerly." The first and second BF are each supporting
premises of this conclusion.

33. C; A-"their" has no clear referent and is unnecessary, "a variety of
approaches" is plural (similar to "a majority of voters" is plural), but "includes"
is singular; B-subject-verb agreement problem noted in A, plus, "to be more
efficient in pumping oil" is wordy and better said as "to pump oil more
efficiently;" D-parallelism--"...and finding innovative ways..." dictates that
construction must be "which include reducing...using...; E-parallelism problem
similar to D ("including" superficially suggests a parallel construction, but it is
insufficient), "their" is ambiguous and unnecessary and "to be more efficient at
pumping oil" is wordy and awkward.

34. C; if the Kravonian workforce has very few people with college degrees
and this is the reason for the discrepancy in average salaries noted in the
argument, then a dramatic increase in the percentage of the workforce with
college degrees may not translate into a significant increase in the absolute
number of people with college degrees. For instance, if there are two people
in the country with college degrees this year, and four more graduate and




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enter the workforce next year, then the percentage has increased by 200
percent, but there are only six people with college degrees in the workforce.

35. B; this passage introduces several different groups that weighed in on a
single labor-women's rights issue in late-nineteenth century Britain. A one or
two line summary of the basic position of each group is given, enough to
serve as a rough basis of comparison. A, C, and D are clearly out. Between B
and E, E goes too far. The passage doesn't even present arguments, so it
can't very well evaluate them. It merely introduces each group's position and
gives a brief statement of reasoning for these positions--B.

36. E; line 14, "...(WIDC), formed in 1892 in response to earlier legislative
attempts to restrict women's labor..." and line 43, "...(WTUL), which had
ceased in the late 1880's to oppose restrictions on women's labor..."

37. C; line 20, "...viewing it as yet another instance of limiting women's work
opportunities."

38. C; A, B, and D are irrelevant and, therefore, gone. Now, consider the
stem. If voters understand the petition in circulation as supporting a statewide
extension of the current local ordinances, what would make the petition
misleading? If the local ordinances are strict and the proposed state law were
to be less strict, though applicable statewide, then that would be misleading to
voters. In other words, the local ordinances would not be extended statewide.
That's what C says. The reference answer, E, is irrelevant and incorrect.

39. E; A-says "Five hundred million different species of living creatures have
appeared on Earth..." which implies that this is the total number of species
having appeared on Earth, so, A states the relationship of total species to
those which have vanished (setting the guide for the meaning of the
sentence) but, construction of the final clause is awkward and unacceptable--
"...nearly 99 percent of which have vanished." would work; B-"Nearly 99
percent of five hundred million different species..." implies that more than five
hundred million species may have appeared on Earth, which is not the same
as the implication of the stem, at all. Also, "...that appeared...have vanished,"
illogically implies that one of two occurrences, each of which happened
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firmly in the past; C-awkward, passive construction; D-similar problem as B--
"Of five hundred million different species..." implies the possibility of additional
species which have not been included, for some illogical reason. That is the
reason why this choice is wrong, not the "of them" construction later in the
sentence; E-not a great sentence, but there's nothing technically wrong with it.
The numerical reference problem of B and D is corrected by the construction
"Of the five hundred million..." The independent clause is "Nearly 99 percent
have vanished." The opening phrase clearly and correctly refers to and
modifies the subject of the independent clause, "nearly 99 percent." "...of
them" (from Choice D) is not necessary in this construction.

40. E; A-D are simply irrelevant. Only E deals with an issue at hand in the
argument--money's in the last two sentences.

41. B; "so cold and...so reflective..." is the idiomatically correct parallel
structure. B is the only choice that has it.


SET 8: No answers for this as it contains only AWA


Set 9:


Passage 1


1.       E
"Except" questions require us to test the five answer choices to determine the
"odd one out." It is beneficial to use the True / False technique: label each
answer choice with a T or an F and look for the odd one out (which, in this
case, we should expect to be an F).
(A) True. The third sentence of the second paragraph characterizes changing
weather patterns due to global warming as a subtle effect of human activities.
(B) True. The first two sentences of the second paragraph classify both toads
and frogs as amphibians. Later in the second paragraph, the passage
explains that amphibians have permeable skin.
(C) True. The third sentence of the second paragraph states explicitly that
scientists “hypothesize” that human activity is responsible for the global


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decline of amphibious populations. Since a hypothesis is an educated guess
rather than a fact, it is true that human activity may not be responsible for the
decline.
(D) True. The second sentence of the first paragraph states that money was
raised in the United States to establish the Monteverde Cloud Forest
Preserve.
(E) CORRECT. False. The passage offers no information about the number of
salamander species in Costa Rica that have disappeared since the late
1980s. We cannot assume that this omission indicates a lesser number than
either toad or frog species.




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2.    B
The correct answer to an inference question on the GMAT must be supported
by evidence from the text without need for external information.
(A) The passage states that twenty of the fifty species of frogs and toads
known to once inhabit a 30-square-kilometer area near Monteverde have
disappeared. Nothing is implied about the areas of Costa Rica farther from
Monteverde.
(B) CORRECT. The passage suggests that amphibians are able to offer
humans early notification of the deterioration of the environment because of
the amphibians’ permeable skin. Thus, permeable skin must be a
characteristic that humans do not possess.
(C) No causal relationship between the build-up of pollutants in the
atmosphere and a decrease in atmospheric ozone is suggested in the
passage.
(D) The author states that humans would be wise to heed the warning offered
by the decline of amphibious populations, but nothing suggests that humans
normally do not take signals of environmental deterioration seriously.
(E) The passage does not compare Costa Rica’s environmental problems to
those of other countries.




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3.     B
In the second paragraph, the author mentions “the more subtle effects of
human activity on the world's ecosystems,” and then lists three of these
effects: the build-up of pollutants, the decrease in atmospheric ozone, and
changing weather patterns due to global warming, all of which, scientists
hypothesize, “are beginning to take their toll.” The key to answering this
question correctly is to recognize, in context, what these effects have in
common.
(A) Nowhere does the passage suggest or imply that these changes are not
easily recognized by sophisticated testing equipment.
(B) CORRECT. All of these effects happen on a global scale, so their
immediate consequences on specific ecosystems are difficult to recognize.
Furthermore, the passage states these effects are “beginning to take their
toll,” indicating that the effects happen over time.
(C) Scientists hypothesize that these effects do affect amphibians, but nothing
in the passage indicates that only small animal species such as amphibians
are affected. In fact, the final sentence of the passage indicates that humans
too might be affected by these environmental changes.
(D) The passage states that scientists hypothesize about the consequences
of these subtle effects; this indicates that scientists do in fact discuss these
effects.
(E) The passage indicates that the consequences of these effects are global,
causing disruptions in amphibious populations “the world over.”




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4.     A
This question is really just a disguised inference question. The correct answer
to an inference question must be directly supported by evidence from the text.
(A) CORRECT. The first sentence of the passage states that the beauty of
Costa Rica’s golden toad was one factor that generated interest from a public
normally unconcerned with amphibians. Thus, many amphibians must not be
considered beautiful.
(B) The passage indicates that habitat preservation in isolation - no matter the
size of the habitat - was not enough to save the golden toad. Instead,
scientists theorize that broader ecological issues are harming the world’s
amphibious populations.
(C) The second paragraph tells us that amphibian populations have been
declining around the world.
(D) This is a misinterpretation of the analogy used in the second paragraph.
The author is implying that amphibians may provide humans an early warning
for detrimental changes to the environment, just as canaries provide humans
an indication of detrimental conditions in coal mines.
(E) The final sentence of the passage indicates that humans would be wise to
recognize the potential environmental deterioration signified by declining
amphibious population, but it is too extreme to infer that no humans consider
this decline a threat to humans. In fact, the author of the passage seems to
consider it a threat!




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5.     D
The first paragraph of the passage discusses a specific case in which a
particular amphibian mysteriously disappeared from its habitat and suggests
that humans may have been in some way responsible for its demise. The
second paragraph explains that declining amphibious populations are actually
a global trend and hypothesizes that a variety of human activities are harming
these environmentally sensitive animals.
(A) The example of the golden toad is too narrow and specific to be the
primary purpose of the passage. Instead, the golden toad is used as an
example of a much larger trend.
(B) Though this answer choice is on the right track, it is too extreme to say
that human activity is “undoubtedly” to blame for the global decline of
amphibian populations. Instead the passage indicates that scientists
“hypothesize” that human activity is responsible.
(C) An attempt to convince humans to minimize the output of pollutants is
never mentioned in the passage.
(D) CORRECT. The passage discusses the mysterious disappearance of
amphibious populations worldwide and hypothesizes that subtle effects on
ecosystems resulting from human activity may be responsible for these
disappearances.
(E) The final sentence of the passage does urge humans to pay attention to
declining amphibian populations, but this is not the primary purpose of the
passage. Moreover, the passage specifically discusses amphibians, while this
answer choice broadly mentions “important environmental changes” rather
than focusing on amphibians.


Passage 2




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1.     C
The first paragraph of the passage introduces the reasons that the Egyptian
government undertook to build the Aswan Dam and also lists the main
benefits of the completed dam. The second paragraph begins with an
example of a positive result, but then offers a significant and unexpected
negative consequence. It ends by stating that "it is difficult to draw...
conclusions" when there are strong positive and negative effects, "but it would
be untenable" to say that the dam shouldn't have been built. The first half of
this last sentence indicates the author's acknowledgment that this is a
complex topic without any one right opinion or answer. The second half,
though, states that the author disagrees with those who believe the dam
should not have been built.
(A) The answer is too extreme; the author discusses only one example in the
passage and does not make any sweeping conclusions. He does not imply
that anything that achieves its goals should be carried out.
(B) Although this may be a reasonable stance in the real world, it is out of
scope. The author does not discuss what planners should or should not
expect anywhere in the passage.
(C) CORRECT. The passage essentially states that, despite mixed
consequences, we cannot defend the position that the dam should not have
been built, as the last sentence indicates that "it would be untenable to assert
that the Egyptian government should never have built the Aswan Dam." This
mirrors the idea that "unpredictable" or mixed results do not necessarily lead
to "condemning the entire endeavor."
(D) Although this may be a reasonable stance in the real world, it is out of
scope. Nowhere in the passage does the author discuss what actions should
be taken before starting sizable projects.
(E) Although this may be a reasonable stance in the real world, it is out of
scope. The author does not discuss what criteria to use in order to decide
whether to denounce a project. In fact, the author states that it is "difficult to
draw definite conclusions" even though the positive and negative outcomes
are known in this circumstance.




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2.      D
The passage is fairly balanced but turns positive at the end. The author first
states the intended positive consequences and acknowledges the unintended
negative effects of the dam before stating, in the last sentence, that the dam
was ultimately successful. The author concludes this last sentence by giving
the opinion (very mildly stated) that the dam should have been built.
(A) While the author does show mild support for the project, there is no sign of
inconsistency in the author's support. The author does not switch viewpoints
regarding the merits of the Aswan Dam, even while weighing the pros and
cons.
(B) While most of the passage maintains a fairly neutral tone, the final
sentence states the author's opinion that the dam should have been built.
This undermines a position of "strict" neutrality.
(C) While the author does ultimately show support for the project, it is very
mild. "Keen enthusiasm" is much too optimistic a phrase to describe this
passage.
(D) CORRECT. The author examines both sides of the issue before asserting
that the dam should have been built; this reflects a mild endorsement.
(E) Though the author mentions some negative effects of the dam, he
ultimately concludes it should have been built; this cannot be categorized as
"opposition" to the project.




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3.      C
Inference questions require us to draw a conclusion based only upon the
information presented in the passage.
(A) The passage states that "before the dam” was built, blocking the flow of
silt, “the Nile floodplain was famously productive." However, this choice goes
too far by stating that crops “cannot” grow without silt. In fact, the passage
indicates that farmers still grow crops on the land, despite the lack of silt in the
soil.
(B) While it is reasonable to suppose that some farmers feel this way, the
passage does not provide any information about the farmers' approval or
disapproval of the dam.
(C) CORRECT. In the second paragraph, the passage states "before the
dam, the Nile floodplain was famously productive" and goes on to say that
farmers now have to use artificial fertilizers. This implies that the land is not
as fertile as it was before the dam was built.
(D) This idea was presented in paragraph one as a reason for the government
to build the dam, but the rest of the passage does not address whether the
government succeeded in this goal.
(E) This choice contradicts the last sentence of the passage, in which the
author disagrees with those who think the dam should not have been built.




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4.     B
The question asks for the significance of the author’s statement about the
quantity of electricity produced by the dam, not just for the significance of the
fact that the dam generated electricity at all. The correct answer will have
something to do with the author's desire to highlight the magnitude of this
particular benefit of the dam.
(A) The passage does not comment on Egypt's other electricity needs (and, in
fact, the passage tells us that the dam provided only half of the country's
output, so Egypt did have other sources of electricity).
(B) CORRECT. The author quantified the output in order to demonstrate the
magnitude of this particular benefit.
(C) Although the author concludes the passage by mildly indicating that the
positive effects outweighed the negative, the only positive effect he mentions
there is the lack of flooding. Moreover, he does not argue that any one effect
of the dam is more “important” than any other effect.
(D) The passage did not provide or imply any expectations for the magnitude
of the electricity output.
(E) The sentence in question does not mention anything about negative
effects, nor does it contrast the positive and negative effects. Although the
second paragraph as a whole might be considered a contrast of the positive
and negative effects of the dam, the author would not need to quantify the
electricity output in order to make such a contrast.




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5.     A
In the first paragraph, the passage introduces a problem (flooding) and a
solution (the Aswan Dam). In the second, the passage notes that the dam
had both the intended positive effects and some unexpected negative
consequences. The author concludes by noting that, despite the negative
effects, the dam did accomplish its primary intended goal; the author also
explicitly rejects the idea that the dam should not have been built.
(A) CORRECT. The passage discusses the "varied effects" (positive and
negative consequences) that resulted from a plan that generally succeeded.
(B) The conclusion of the passage supports the idea that the author thinks the
advantages outweighed the disadvantages, not vice versa. In addition, the
adverb "usually" raises a red flag; the author presents only one example and
makes no attempt to draw a universal conclusion.
(C) This choice contradicts the last sentence of the passage ("it would be
untenable..."); the author does not agree with those who think the dam should
not have been built.
(D) The passage discussed a problem (flooding), a solution (the Aswan Dam),
and some positive and negative effects of the project. The passage did not
focus on the implementation of the project, i.e., the construction of the dam.
(E) The main idea encompasses both positive and negative effects, not just
the negative ones. In addition, the author makes no comment or claim about
poor planning.




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6.     E
Specific detail EXCEPT questions require us to search the passage for four
details which are mentioned in the passage; the fifth is not mentioned and is,
therefore, the right answer. One helpful technique is to label each answer
choice with a T (for "true") if you find it in the passage and an F (for "false") if
you cannot.
(A) True. The last sentence of the first paragraph says the dam will "supply a
steady source of water for residents and agricultural activities."
(B) True. The first sentence of the second paragraph says "the dam provided
approximately half of Egypt's entire electricity output."
(C) True. The second sentence of the first paragraph says that the dam
would "enable the country's economic development to be on a par with that of
Western nations," and it is clear from the passage that the actual completion
of the dam served to move Egypt toward this goal.
(D) True. The last sentence of the first paragraph says the dam "would
prevent the annual flooding" and the last sentence of the second paragraph
confirms that the dam succeeded in this goal.
(E) CORRECT. False. In fact, the opposite is true; the dam led farmers to
use fertilizers which caused pollution and harmed the animal and plant life in
the area.




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Passage 3


1.     D
This question asks which is most analogous to the process through which an
LCD display presents different colors. The fifth and sixth sentences of the
second paragraph read, “LCDs that are capable of producing color images,
such as in televisions and computers, reproduce colors through a process of
subtraction, blocking out particular color wavelengths from the spectrum of
white light until only the desired color remains. It is the variation of the
intensity of light permitted to pass through the matrix of liquid crystals that
enables LCD displays to present images full of gradations of different colors.”
This process of subtraction consists of taking a large number of elements, in
this case wavelengths of light, and carefully blocking out certain of them while
allowing only certain others to get through. We should look for an answer that
mirrors this precise process of subtraction.
(A) This answer choice describes a process that does not result in only certain
elements passing through. Each grain of sand is equally capable of falling
through the hourglass; in fact, all of it will eventually pass through, although it
will happen at a slower rate than it might because it the opening is partially
blocked.
(B) A series of filters that separate out all of the elements of a mixture is not
analogous to filtering out only certain elements and letting others "pass
through" to together create the end result.
(C) A soundproofed recording studio blcoks all sound, not only certain
elements of it. Hence, this is very different from the process described
regarding an LCD display.
(D) CORRECT. A piece of construction paper with outlines of characters cut
out would allow certain spaces of light to pass while blocking others, resulting
in a refined mixture that has a certain meaning (e.g. the word, “Apple”). This is
closely analogous to the process of subtraction through which LCD displays
different colors.
(E) An air vent that expels warm air does not carefully select remaining
elements, and all of the elements that pass through are indistinguishable from
each other.


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2.     E
The third and fourth sentences of the second paragraph of the passage
indicate that, in LCD displays, electricity is used to untwist liquid crystals in
order to filter white light from a lamp. Also the second sentence of the third
paragraph reads that “the amount of power required to untwist the crystals to
display images, even dark ones, is much lower than that required for
analogous processes . . . “ As a result, it can be inferred that LCDs require
more electricity to produce dark images as opposed to lighter images. The
correct answer choice will involve a set of images that have a high degree of
darkness, and thus a high level of electricity use.
(A) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to
display computer-generated special effects than any other images, or that
these special effects are dark images.
(B) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to
display video game graphics than any other images, or that these graphics
are dark images.
(C) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to
display video game graphics than any other images; further, a "bright" image
cannot also be dark.
(D) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to
display photorealistic images than any other images, or that these images are
dark images.
(E) CORRECT. A filmed scene set inside a cave with minimal lighting would
certainly be classified as a dark image, which we can infer will use more
electricity than a lighter image.




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3.       E
This is a specific question that asks us which answer choice is not indicated in
the passage as an advantage of LCD displays relative to other display
technologies. In order to answer this question, one must examine each
answer choice and determine if it is mentioned in the passage.
(A) The second sentence of the third paragraph reads, “The amount of power
required to untwist the crystals to display images, even dark ones, is much
lower than that required for analogous processes using other technologies,
such as plasma.” The passage indicates that LCD displays consume less
power than other display technologies.
(B) The fourth sentence of the third paragraph reads, “Moreover, the number
of pixels per square inch on an LCD display is typically higher than that for
other display technologies, so LCD monitors are particularly good at
displaying large amounts of data with exceptional clarity and precision.” The
passage indicates that LCD displays generally have more pixels per square
inch.
(C) The third sentence of the third paragraph reads, “The dense array of
crystals displays images from computer or other video graphics sources
extremely well, with full color detail, no flicker, and no screen burn-in.” The
passage indicates that LCD displays can present video graphics images with
no flicker or interruption.
(D) The second sentence of the first paragraph reads, “The dominant
technology currently used in most consumer product displays is the active
matrix liquid crystal diode display (LCD).” The passage indicates that the
technology is a widely adopted standard, which would logically have certain
advantages (e.g. the technology has been widely tested and is known to
work).
(E) CORRECT. While the passage indicates that LCDs are the result of rapid
technological progress in the past decade and the dominant technology
currently used, the passage does not indicate that LCDs are the most
advanced technology. There may be a more cutting edge technology (e.g.
LEDs, or Light Emitting Diodes) available for certain applications. Also, the
passage does not cite any specific functional advantage to being the latest
and most advanced.


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4.     C
This is a general question that asks about the tone of the passage. In order to
answer this question, it is useful to briefly examine and summarize the
respective paragraphs.
Paragraph 1: LCDs have become the dominant display technology in the past
decade.
Paragraph 2: LCDs function by channeling electricity to untwist crystals to
block light in order to form colors.
Paragraph 3: LCDs present advantages relative to other display technologies,
particularly for certain uses.
The correct answer will effectively identify the tone adopted in these
paragraphs.
(A) It is too strong to categorize the author's tone as "advocacy," as the first
two paragraphs are purely explanatory. The third paragraph, though listing
advantages of LCD displays, does not advocate their use.
(B) Although the first paragraph does mention the time frame and context of
the development of LCD displays, neither the second nor third paragraph
could be classified as part of a historical discussion, and no contrast is drawn.
Thus, it would be inaccurate to characterize the tone of the passage as that of
a historical discussion.
(C) CORRECT. The passage objectively explains the background,
functioning, and advantages of LCD displays.
(D) The passage does not indicate any questioning, skepticism, or exploration
in its text, and is more technical than intellectual in tone.
(E) Although one could argue that the passage implicitly approves of the
development of this new technology, the passage does not advocate for a
particular point of view, and there is no evidence of any qualification in its
explanation of the functioning and advantages of LCD displays.




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Passage 4


1.     D
This is a specific question that can be answered by examining the information
given in the second paragraph.
(A) According the second paragraph, “high levels of alpha-synuclein disrupt
the flow of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum…to the Golgi apparatus,”
not low levels of dopamine.
(B) While a missing or malfunctioning gene may explain why levels of alpha-
synuclein have risen to toxic levels in the cell, it does not explain why these
high levels cause the cell to die.
(C) The effectiveness or ineffectiveness of drug therapy in yeast cells does
not explain why high levels of alpha-synuclein would kill the cell. Furthermore,
the fourth paragraph suggests that drug therapy actually has been effective in
yeast cells, not to mention in fruitflies, roundworms, and cultures of rat
neurons.
(D) CORRECT. The second paragraph states that high levels of alpha-
synuclein “disrupt the flow of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum…to the
Golgi apparatus.” According to the passage, the Golgi apparatus is
responsible for distributing proteins within the cell. It also states that "when the
smooth transfer of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi
apparatus is interrupted, the cell dies."
(E) The passage gives no indication that alpha-synuclein is “by nature” a toxic
substance. Rather, the passage states that high levels of alpha-synuclein are
toxic to the cell.




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2.     E
This is a general question asking about the function of the third paragraph. To
answer this question, it is helpful to examine the general role that each
paragraph in the passage plays. The first paragraph introduces the problem:
researchers have not known enough about neurons to effectively treat the
symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease. The second paragraph introduces new
research in yeast cells. The third paragraph makes the connection between
this research and neurons affected by Parkinson’s disease. In other words,
the third paragraph serves to transition from the technical detail of the yeast
cell research in paragraph two to the implications of this research on
Parkinson’s treatment.
(A) While the third paragraph mentions genetic counterparts in yeast cells and
mammalian nerve cells, its role is not to highlight similarities between the
cells. In fact, no additional similarities are mentioned.
(B) The third paragraph does not get into the details of genetic screening
methods.
(C) The third paragraph does not explain the roles of various cellular
components. The second paragraph does discuss the roles of the
endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus, but this discussion is not
continued in the third paragraph.
(D) The third paragraph does not actually identify, or name, any genes.
Rather, it explains that researchers were able to identify a specific gene in
yeast cells and its counterpart in mammalian nerve cells.
(E) CORRECT. The third paragraph relates the genetic testing in yeast cells
to the broader issue of Parkinson’s treatment: “Researchers discovered that
such a gene does in fact exist [in yeast cells], and have located the genetic
counterpart in mammalian nerve cells, or neurons. This discovery has led to
new hopes that drug therapy could potentially activate this gene, thereby
suppressing the toxicity of alpha-synuclein in dopamine-producing neurons.”




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3.     C
This is a specific question. We can use the key phrase “current treatments of
Parkinson’s Disease” from the question to help us locate the relevant portion
of the passage. The first paragraph discusses current treatments.
(A) Current treatments do not repair damaged cells. Rather, they “are
primarily reactionary, aiming to replenish dopamine levels after dopamine-
producing neurons in the brain have died.”
(B) The passage does not discuss the effectiveness of current treatments.
(C) CORRECT. The first paragraph states that current treatments “replenish
dopamine levels after dopamine-producing neurons in the brain have died.” It
goes on to say that “without a more detailed understanding of the behavior of
dopamine-producing neurons, it has been impossible to develop treatments
that would prevent the destruction of these neurons in Parkinson’s patients.”
We can therefore conclude that current treatments are based on an
incomplete understanding of the dopamine-producing neuron.
(D) While the passage gives hope that new drug therapy will be effective, the
fourth paragraph introduces the possibility that such treatments won’t be
transferable to humans: “researchers are hesitant to conclude that such
therapies will prove successful on human patients.” Thus, the claim that
current treatments will inevitably be replaced by new drug therapy is
unsupported by the passage.
(E) There is no information in the passage on the methods used to develop
current treatments. It is very possible that yeast cells were used in
researching current treatments.




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4.     A
The second paragraph states that “high levels of alpha-synuclein disrupt the
flow of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum, the site of protein production
in the cell, to the Golgi apparatus, the component of the cell that modifies and
sorts the proteins before sending them to their final destinations within the
cell.” This implies that proteins in healthy cells are produced in the
endoplasmic reticulum, sent to the Golgi apparatus where they are modified,
and then shipped to the rest of the cell.
(A) CORRECT. This chronology is supported by the information given in the
second paragraph.
(B) Proteins are created in the endoplasmic reticulum, not the Golgi
apparatus. Further, there is no evidence to show that proteins in healthy cells
are decomposed by alpha-synuclein.
(C) There is no evidence to show that proteins in healthy cells are
decomposed by alpha-synuclein.
(D) Proteins are created in the endoplasmic reticulum, not the Golgi
apparatus.
(E) Proteins are created in the endoplasmic reticulum, not by alpha-synuclein.




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Passage 5
1.     E
The question asks us to infer something about dendritic cells from the
information contained in the passage. The correct answer must be based only
on the information contained in the passage. If any additional information is
required to justify an answer choice, that choice cannot be the correct answer.
(A) The passage states only that dendritic cells are involved with the
lymphatic system. No information is given as to the location of the cells'
production.
(B) The passage states only that dendritic cells are common in the digestive
tract. No information is given as to where the cells are most numerous.
(C) The passage states only that Toxoplasma infects dendritic cells. No
information is given as to the proportion of the cells that are affected when a
person is infected with Toxoplasma.
(D) The passage states only that dendritic cells are capable of being infected
with Toxoplasma. No information is given regarding any other types of cell.
(E) CORRECT. The passage states that Toxoplasma is capable of
penetrating the barriers protecting the brain. The passage also states that
Toxoplasma uses dendritic cells as transport around the human body. Thus,
we can infer that the Toxoplasma uses the dendritic cells to penetrate the
barriers around the brain.




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2.       D
We are asked to determine which one of the five choices is NOT true of
Toxoplasma, according to the passage. In other words, four of the five
choices are stated in the passage and one choice is not. The choice that is
not stated is the correct answer.
(A) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma can contaminate soil and
water.
(B) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma enters the human body
through contaminated food.
(C) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma alters the behavior of
human dendritic cells.
(D) CORRECT. The word "incapable" in this answer choice is too strong; the
passage does not state that the human body cannot detect Toxoplasma.
Rather, it merely indicates that Toxoplasma does not trigger the body's
immune system in the same way as other parasites. We have no information
about the human body's ability to detect free-floating Toxoplasma cells.
(E) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma can breed in a host cat
only.




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3.      C
The second paragraph contains information describing the mechanism by
which Toxoplasma is able to infiltrate the human body and remain undetected
by the body's immune system. We need to find an answer choice that reflects
this.
(A) The paragraph does not summarize research that remains to be done.
Instead, it discusses what has already been discovered.
(B) The paragraph does not present any recommendations.
(C) CORRECT. This matches our description of the paragraph.
(D) The paragraph does not introduce information about the role of
Toxoplasma in human development. If anything, it introduces information
about the role of humans in the development of Toxoplasma.
(E) The paragraph does not mention any outdated scientific models.




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4.     C
The question asks us to infer something about Toxoplasma from the
information given in the passage. When answering questions of this type,
remember that GMAT inferences are typically very close to the original text,
although they never repeat information verbatim. Make sure to select an
answer that is not stated explicitly but can be inferred without making any
additional assumptions.
(A) The passage does not suggest that the immune system will destroy
Toxoplasma cells.
(B) The passage does not suggest that Toxoplasma collects in the lymphatic
system.
(C) CORRECT. The passage states that Toxoplasma can reproduce only in a
host cat. Therefore, any Toxoplasma cells that remain in the human body are
not likely to reproduce.
(D) The passage does not suggest that Toxoplasma will be detected after
several weeks.
(E) The passage does not suggest that Toxoplasma will be destroyed by
pathogens in the bloodstream.




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5.    A
The question asks us why the author mentions "pigs and chickens" in the final
paragraph of the passage. The author mentions these animals in the context
of explaining how Toxoplasma enters the human body. Specifically,
Toxoplasma enters the human body when humans ingest the meat of infected
animals, "such as pigs and chickens." So the author uses pigs and chickens
as specific examples of animals that can carry the parasite.
(A) CORRECT. This matches our assessment of the passage exactly.
(B) The author mentions only "small rodents" as examples of animals that are
eaten by cats.
(C) The author does not mention the dendritic cells of any animals other than
humans.
(D) The passage states that cats are Toxoplasma's "sole breeding ground."
Thus, the author could not mention the pigs and chickens as examples of
animals in which the parasite can breed.
(E) The author does not mention any animals at all that are immune to
Toxoplasma.




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SC Revision


1.     Ans. A;


B-"because of"--idiom; C-"...capability of the respiratory system in dealing
with..."--idiom; D & E-"a specially" is not the same as "an especially" and
changes the meaning.




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2.    ANS. D


A-parallelism--should be "not produced by...but by...;" B-same principle as A;
C-same; E-same; D has the correct parallel structure noted above.




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3.     Ans. A (critique… vision PARALLEL).. No other option is parallel.
B-"...and also his envisioning of..." is awkward and stylistically poor
construction; C-"...and envisioning as well..." awkward, plus, style; D-the
"Essay" didn't critique "also a vision of a new chemistry" that had not yet been
founded; E-same problem as D, plus the problems of B. That leaves A.




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4.    Ans. A
B-awkward and wordy, plus, construction calls for subjunctive mood; C-lacks
subjunctive; D & E-lack subjunctive and are awkward and stylistically poor,
too. A is a good example of the grammatically correct and appropriate use of
the subjunctive mood.




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5.        Ans. D


A-"the forming of" should "the formation of" to be stylistically correct, but that
still doesn't work because "to build" requires the construction to be "to form" in
order to maintain parallelism; B-same principle as A; C-same principle; E-
same principle.


6.        Ans. E


A-"evidence for" is unidiomatic--should be "evidence of" or 'evidence that,"
plus, "were arising" is passive and incorrectly uses progressive form--should
be "arose;" B-"were arising" is still incorrect and, "but also" generally follows
"not only," which is absent in this sentence; C-"having been cut" should be
"that were cut" in this construction, plus, "were arising;" D-"yields" is incorrect
usage of the present tense when present perfect is necessary in this
construction, "arising" is incorrect usage of progressive, and "but also" doesn't
work.


7.        Ans. D
A-subject-verb agreement, incorrect usage of singular form "comes," plus,
"compounds [that are] also found" omits the bracketed relative pronoun and
verb; B-same as A, except "that are" has been added, plus, "they" is
unnecessary; C-missing "that are;" E-needs "that are" and needs to lose
"they."


8.        Ans. A
B-"thinking of" is inconsistent with the later phrasing "...now understand...,"
needs to be the simple past tense, plus, "and" makes the sentence
incomplete, as written; C-incorrect usage of past perfect tense "had thought,"
plus, the "and" problem of B; D & E- "Native American literatures" cannot
"...now understand..." anything.




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9.     Ans. C


A-incorrect use of "like" when "as...so..." is necessary; B-the "who"
construction doesn't work with the remainder of the sentence, plus, "as"
should be "as...so...;" D-incorrect use of "like," "who" is problematic; E-
awkward, wordy, and lacking parallel construction.


10.    Ans. E
A-"because of" is poor usage in this construction; B-"because of," plus, the
whole construction is awkward and confusing; C-"is" doesn't work with this
construction, "...can be..." would work; D-"have been" is awkward, confusing,
unnecessary, and makes the sentence incomplete.


11.    Ans. E


A-inclusion of "was" after "Columbus" requires structural changes later in the
sentence such as, "...Columbus was the Incan highway, which was over 2500
miles long and extended from...;" B-needs construction similar to that noted in
A; C-relocation of the verb "was" makes "which" problematic; D-"being," as
usual, is unnecessary, plus, "was extended" changes the original meaning.


12.    Ans. C
A-incorrect usage of "like" when "such as" is called for, plus, subject-verb
disagreement, as "market" is singular and "remain" is plural; B-"like" is
problematic, plus, "those" is unnecessary and "are remaining" is incorrect
usage of the progressive tense when simple present will do; D-commas are
unnecessary, plus, the subject-verb agreement problem noted in A; E-"like" is
problematic, plus, "the commodities" is redundant.




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13.   ANSWER: E
A and C make illogical comparisons of "the Dutch economy" to the countries,
"Britain, France...Germany" and D implies that "Britain, France...Germany"
have a single "economy." B gets the comparison right, but "have" is plural and
"the Dutch economy" is singular--subject-verb disagreement.




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14.      ANSWER: C
C Corrects the comparison error noted in A, without introducing additional
grammatical or idiomatic problems.
A     Remember, a semi-colon is not a period. This sentence illogically states
what "Marconi's conception of the radio" was (as a substitute...a tool...) and
what "Marconi's conception of the radio" is (...precisely the opposite, a tool...).
Marconi's conception probably hasn't changed much since Marconi died.
B     "...but which..." is an illogical connector.
D     "...conceived of the radio to be..." should be "...conceived of the radio
as..." and "which has become" illogically connects the two clauses.
E     "...to be..." remains problematic and "other than what it is" is wordy and
awkward.




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15.     ANSWER: D
A "because of" doesn't work here, plus, "being" is unnecessary and "so bad
as that" is terrible style and idiom.
B     "because of" is problematic, plus, "having been" is incorrect usage of
present perfect tense where past perfect is appropriate and "as bad as
because" is confusing and stylistically poor.
C     "because of" and "being."
E     "...as bad as that shoppers..." makes no sense.


16.     ANSWER: A Clear, concise, and without errors.
B     "as high as that of" is confusing, awkward, and stylistically poor.
C     "them" is unnecessary and has no clear referent.
D     "was" is unnecessary, given the construction, and "as high as" is wordy
and awkward.
E     "was" is unnecessary and "as high as that of" is wordy, awkward, and
stylistically poor.


17.     ANSWER: C
A     "which" is not used to refer to people.
B     "an overwhelming proportion" is plural, but "works" is singular.
D     Incorrect usage of "like" when "as" is appropriate, "works" should be
"work," and "and many are" is wordy and awkward, and creates a run-on
sentence.
E     "like" is problematic, plus, it's a run-on sentence.


18.     ANSWER: E
A     "Such that" is awkward and is better said as simply "that." The sentence
incorrectly states that "Mormons were...75 percent of the population..." when,
in fact, they represented this percentage of the population. "...are now
accounting for..." incorrectly uses the present perfect when simple present is
better and "of it" is unnecessary.
B     Incorrect placement of "so," needs "that" immediately before "Mormons"
and "who were" immediately after it, and "are now accounting for" remains
problematic. Also, the reference problem of A remains.


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C   "That" illogically precedes "many people," plus, the emphatic "so" should
preced "many people." "Such that" before "the Mormons" is illogical and "are
now accounting" is still a problem. And, the reference issue of A and B
remains.
D   Lacks the emphatic "so," "such that" remains illogical.
ANSWER: E Not a great sentence, but this is best of the five.




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19.     ANSWER: A
B     "...have the capability of..." is wordy and idiomatically incorrect, and "to
help" breaks parallel construction.
C     The construction is confusing, awkward, and violates parallelism.
D     "Helping" is not parallel with "propel," and the meaning has been
changed.
E     "...have the capability to...," though idiomatically correct, is still wordy,
plus, the meaning has been subtley shifted.
ANSWER: A: A fairly decent sentence, as written.


20.     ANSWER: C
A     Opening clause should modify "the coyote" rather than its "amazing
ability."
B     Idiom--"ability of adapting to" should be "ability to adapt to." Subject-verb
disagreement--"the coyote" is singular, but "have" is plural. And, "their" should
be "its."
D     Modifier error similar to A, subject-verb disagreement noted in B, and
"the" should be "its."
E     Modifier error similar to A and D, and "the" should be "its."
ANSWER: C Decent sentence.




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CR REVISION:


1.        Ans. E
If the farmers who tried modified seed had had to use very large quantities of
insecticide, then even slightly lower amounts of insecticide used per acre as a
result of the marginal advantage of planting modified cotton seed could
translate into significant savings, perhaps, beyond the difference in expense
of the modified seed over regular seed.


2.        Ans. E


If Newtown's public schools received more applications for teaching positions
than there were teaching positions to fill, clearly no teacher shortage need
result.


3.        Ans. E


If the new antibiotic requires only a three-day course of treatment, and it takes
three days for most patients to feel fully recovered, regardless of which
antibiotic the patient is taking, then most patients who have been prescribed
the new antibiotic should complete the full course of the drug before they feel
better and, hence, before they are likely to discontinue the drug.




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4.     Ans. E


The argument deals purely with hazardous waste output per production
worker. If the amount of waste per worker decreased, either the total
production of waste decreased, or the number of workers increased (or a
combination of both). E correctly notes the underlying assumption.


5.     .A       If the blackbirds are the first birds to show up in the spring, then
they could (theoretically) be poisoned without effecting the later arrival of the
rare species.


B-clearly, the ultimate effect is the same--this is no justification for approving
the permits


C-the argument concerns migratory species, not local species
D-irrelevant
E-totally irrelevant.


6.     ANSWER: E If the Finnish polio vaccine was never contaminated with
SV40 and none of the Finnish mesothelioma samples have SV40, then that
strenthens the hypothesis that contaminated vaccine was the source of the
virus found in mesotheliomas decades later.




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7.     ANSWER: C If gluten is necessary for yeast to leaven bread dough,
and if toasting (heating) wheat destroys its gluten, then the fact that a variety
of wheat which did not require toasting in order to remove the kernel was
discovered at about the same time as leavened bread was discovered
suggests that the two were causally linked.


Both yeast and bread dough had been around for thousands of years before
the discovery of leavened bread. All that would have been necessary for the
yeast to leaven the bread dough was that the yeast be accidentally mixed into
the bread dough. The argument claims this must have happened frequently,
yet, for some reason, the bread dough never leavened. Why? Well, if all
previous varieties of wheat had required heating in order to remove the kernel
from the husk, and if heating the wheat destroys its gluten, which is crucial to
the leavening process, then no matter how much yeast gets mixed into the
bread dough, no leavening is going to take place. However, if a new variety of
wheat appeared and it did not require heating in order to remove the kernel
from the husk, then the gluten was, presumably, intact when the bread dough
was mixed. And then, if yeast fell into the dough during the mixing process,
leavening could occur. All of this implies a causal connection between the
appearance of the new variety of wheat and the discovery of leavened bread.




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8.     ANSWER: A


If the fund-raisers had average success in securing donations from donors
who had never supported Smithtown previously, and that rate of success for
that population of donors is generally not so good (which the argument
implies), then the 80% figure must be largely comprised of previous donors,
which supports the contention of the argument.


Here is the argument, re-written with A included as a premise. It bolsters one
of the arguments assumptions and clearly strengthens the argument:
--Smithtown University's fund-raisers succeeded in getting donations from 80
percent of the potential donors they contacted. Since the people most likely to
donate are those who have donated in the past, good fund-raisers constantly
try less-likely prospects in an effort to expand the donor base. However,
recent information reveals that Smithtown’s fund-raisers had merely average
success in receiving donations from contacts with potential donors who had
never donated before. Therefore, this exceptionally high relative success rate
actually indicates that they were doing an average job, at best, and reflects
insufficient canvassing effort.


B Clearly weakens the argument.


C If most of the donations by previous donors were unsolicited, then the 80%
figure in the argument must be largely comprised of first-time donors. If that is
the case, then the fundraisers did, in fact, do a good job (relative to other
university fund-raisers), which refutes the argument.
D Weakens.
E Weakens




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9.    Ans. E; If cashew farmers can't make a living farming, and they move
to the cities en masse, then these unemployed newly urban residents will add
to urban unemployment.




A & B-irrelevant
C-provides a basis for weakening the argument, but doesn't go far enough


D-supports the argument.




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10.    Ans. D; if, for the year following the tax increase, the pre-tax price of
cigarettes was more than eight cents lower than it had been the previous
year, and the volume of cigarettes still fell by ten percent, then there must be
some other reason than the after tax price.




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11.    Ans. E; if people are using computers more at work, then they still have
plenty of time to waste watching TV at home. A-D are simply irrelevant.


12.    Ans. C; if the Kravonian workforce has very few people with college
degrees and this is the reason for the discrepancy in average salaries noted
in the argument, then a dramatic increase in the percentage of the workforce
with college degrees may not translate into a significant increase in the
absolute number of people with college degrees. For instance, if there are two
people in the country with college degrees this year, and four more graduate
and enter the workforce next year, then the percentage has increased by 200
percent, but there are only six people with college degrees in the workforce.


13.    Ans. B; if peat bogs build at the rate of one foot per 1000 years, and
the Highlands' peat bogs are 4 feet deep (Second BF-evidence against
agriculture as the cause), then whatever caused them must have be at least
4000 years old. But, agriculture is only 2000 years old (First BF-evidence
which, in light of Second BF, serves as grounds for rejecting agriculture as the
cause). Therefore, something other than agriculture must have caused the
peat bogs.


14.    Ans. A


if 80% of people polled are in favor of this commuter rail system because they
expect to experience less congestion during their highway commute, then,
obviously, none of them are planning on taking the train. If no one takes the
train, then everyone keeps driving, and congestion remains a problem. None
of the other choices make much sense.


15.    Ans. D. The conclusion says that a serious stroke on the left side of the
brain equals linguistic impairment, or the language centers must be on the
right half of the brain. So, every serious stroke involving the left brain must
effect left brain speech centers, or the argument fails.


A-irrelevant;


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B-the argument concerns strokes and the resulting damage to speech
centers. Statement B may be true, however, the argument does not concern
those cases where linguistic capabilities are not impaired, but only those in
which they are impaired, making this choice tempting, but incorrect;


C-irrelevant;


E-irrelevant.




SET 10


Answerkey:

   1. D
   2. A
   3. D
   4. A
   5. C
   6. D
   7. C
   8. E
   9. B
   10. E
   11. A
   12. A
   13. C
   14. A
   15. E
   16. E
   17. D
   18. C
   19. B
   20. B
   21. E
   22. D
   23. C
   24. D
   25. D
   26. C
   27. E
   28. E
   29. E
   30. A


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   31. D
   32. D
   33. A
   34. D
   35. E
   36. E
   37. D
   38. D
   39. C
   40. D
   41. C

Explanations
1. D; A-misplaced modifier; B-wordy/awkward/"being"; C-"being"; E-idiom,
"convinced of" and "being."


2. A; B-E are gone because no verb is needed or acceptable in the
underlined part of the sentence.


3. D; A-clause needs a verb (was) and a relative pronoun (that); B-"and"
turns the sentence into one long subject with no predicate; C-run-on
sentence; E-"destroying" is incorrect tense, also, "..considered as..." is
idiomatically incorrect.


4. A; B-no definition of housework was rejected; C-concurrent 40-year time
period studied by each; D-no underestimation is mentioned--in fact, constancy
at 52-54 hours per week is stated; E-passage suggested that technology
would reduce time required, not effort required.


5. C; basically, the passage is not even remotely concerned with any of the
other choices.


6. D; A-passage has nothing to do with servants and helpers; B-passage
states that the standard WAS raised by technology; C-did not decrease TIME,
but may have decreased effort (independent of time); E-expenditures as
function of technology was never addressed.


7. C; again, basically, none of the other choices even come close.


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8. E; the advice is the result of "numerous studies...that compare Japanese
production and supply practices with those of the rest of the world." E restates
this sentence.


9. B; "The link between the success of a certain well-known Japanese
automaker and its effective management of its suppliers, for example, has led
to an unquestioning belief within Western management circles in the value of
strategic partnerships." B restates this assertion.


10. E; The final sentence of the passage refers to "market-exchange"
relationships, which essentially amounts to having no definitive loyalty to any
particular partnership, "strategic" or otherwise. E illustrates the concept of
buying "whatever is on sale."


11. A; there are two possible explanations for the drop in the legal lobster
harvest yield--either, the outlaw fishing boats are taking the difference or the
total lobster population has decreased markedly. In order for the outlaw
fishing boats to take the difference, the total population must remain constant.
That's the assumption, and it is stated in Choice A. If the illegal lobster
harvests prior to 1996 were so extensive that the total lobster population in
Belukian waters suffered a marked decline, then there is no reason to expect
that the 9000 ton discrepancy in the legal harvest in 1996 is the result of
anything other than fewer total lobsters available for harvest.


12. A; there's nothing wrong with A, so, even if any of the other choices were
grammatically correct (which they aren't), we're obligated to take the original.


13. C; A-argument has nothing to do with the presence or absence of
adverse consequences to ticks, resulting from the Lyme bacterium; B-
irrelevant--disease transmitted through ticks--transmission from mice is never
discussed (nor is it possible); D-tends to strengthen the argument, but not as
much as C; E-irrelevant--argument only concerns the Lyme bacterium.



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14. A-nothing wrong here; NOTE: "Not one..." is not equivalent to "None...;"
B-"offer for..." idiomatically incorrect; C-"...agreement be signed..." incorrect
attempt at the subjunctive (I can't think of an instance where "be," alone, not
preceded by "to" would be correct); D-incorrect plural tense "are," and idiom,
"offer for...;" E-incorrect plural tense "are" and "to be making" is wordy and
awkward---"...expected to make..." is better.


15. E; A-obviously irrelevant; B-strengthens the argument; C-doesn't really
effect the argument; D-irrelevant--argument deals with deterioration due to
tourism, not weather.


16. E; A-"...not, like more recently..." is incorrect style and usage; B-"being" is
unnecessary, "instead of" is better said as "rather than", plus, the structure of
the sentence does not properly set the stage for the clause that follows the
colon; C-"like they were more recently" introduces a pronoun reference
problem as "the push for greater precision" is singular, but "they" is plural; D-
structure does not correctly set-up the terminal dependent clause. E gets it
right.


17. D; A-the practice noted in first BF is questioned by the second BF--
argument does not attempt to support or justify anything; B-the only thing this
argument seeks to explain is why the practice noted in the first BF is
unnecessary; C-second BF suggests policy noted in first BF should be
discontinued, not that it cannot meet its objective; E-first BF is not a
consideration supporting a policy, it IS the policy.


18. C; A-wordy, awkward & confusing, and "...estimated as..." is idiomatically
incorrect; B-pronoun number error "they" is plural, refers incorrectly to singular
"population;" D-second clause needs a subject to work with the latter part of
the sentence; E-same problem as D.


19. B; A-"The fact..." is almost always wrong, also "...resembling...and others
looking..." is incorrect use of the progressive tense; C-"it" has no clear
referent, plus the construction is awkward; D-combines the problems of A, C,


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and D; E-awkward and confusing, plus final dependent clause needs relative
pronoun with this construction, "...namely that they vary..."


20. B; A-"...taking him seven years..." is incorrect use of the progressive
tense, plus it's awkward and confusing; C-incorrect use of the past perfect
tense "...a work that had taken seven years..." and "...pronounced it as..." is
idiomatically incorrect; D-"...took seven years until completion..." is
idiomatically incorrect and "...pronounced it as..." is redundant and awkward;
E-same problems as C and D.


21. E is the best choice. If the farmers who tried modified seed had had to
use very large quantities of insecticide, then even slightly lower amounts of
insecticide used per acre as a result of the marginal advantage of planting
modified cotton seed could translate into significant savings, perhaps, beyond
the difference in expense of the modified seed over regular seed.


22. D; What if the rate of violent crime in Meadowbrook prior to four years
ago was, say, 1 (per 1000 residents) and the rate of violent crime in Parkdale
was 100 (per 1000 residents). The respective percentage increases would not
support the conclusion which the argument makes. D represents this
possibility.


23. C; The last sentence in the passage says that a company may be able to
accurately predict aggregate demand without having the ability to accurately
predict the demand for specific items within the aggregate. This is a statement
about the companies' ability to forecast demand---C.


24. E; The final sentence, once again, makes this assertion. The other
statements are not made in the passage.


25. D; The answer can be found in the first paragraph, "...since flexible
manufacturing has enabled companies to produce, cost-effectively, small
quantities of goods. This type of manufacturing has greatly increased the
number of new products introduced annually in the United States."


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26. C; A-tourists' awareness of tax rate is irrelevant; B-prices in other cities
are irrelevant; D-this is in line with the conclusion of the argument, but it is not
an assumption of the argument; E-spending on meals is irrelevant. If the
average length of tourists' stays in Midville hotels was longer last year than
the year before, then the revenue from hotel taxes might, conceivably, remain
constant or even increase, even if FEWER tourists visited Midville. C points
out this possibility--an assumption upon which the argument depends.


27. E; A-subject-verb agreement error, "...the number of wild salmon have...,"
is incorrect. "The number..." is singular and require the singular form of the
verb, "has;" B-verb tense error, "...is reduced..." should be "...has been
reduced...;" C-"...numbers of..." is always wrong; D-verb tense error,
"...numbers are reduced..." should be "...have been reduced...," as found in E.


28. E; A-problem of parallelism---needs the bolded addition to work "...either
from the spotted sandstone of Mathura or from Gandharan grey schist;" B-
problem of A, but reversed---this construction would need to lose the second
"from"---"...fashioned from either the spotted sandstone of Mathura or
Gandharan grey schist;" C-changes the original meaning and needs the
second "from" to remain parallel; D-the addition of "and" requires the auxiliary
verb "...were fashioned...," which is what we find in E.


29. E; A-"...because of..." doesn't work and "...within reach for..." is
idiomatically incorrect; B-"...because of..." still doesn't work plus "...and putting
gold..." is incorrect usage of the progressive tense; C-"...owing to..." is better
phrased as "since" and "...volcanic activity that had thrust..." is incorrect usage
of past perfect tense, plus "...and putting gold..." continues to be incorrect; D-
"...putting gold...within reach for..." incorrect tense and idiom.


30. A; B-clearly, the ultimate effect is the same--this is no justification for
approving the permits; C-the argument concerns migratory species, not local
species; D-irrelevant; E-totally irrelevant. If the blackbirds are the first birds to



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show up in the spring, then they could (theoretically) be poisoned without
effecting the later arrival of the rare species.


31. D; A-passive phrasing and "them" is confusing; B-"...evidence of their
being inoculated..." is wordy and awkward and "being" is almost always
wrong; C-"evidence of being" again, "...evidence of inoculation..." is better and
we find it in D; E-wordy, awkward, redundant.


32. D; Obviously, if the nearly all of the forest fires in the area are the result of
lightning strikes, then banning outdoor fires probably won't do much to reduce
the annual number of forest fires (although it might be useful in preventing an
increase).


33. A; Otariids--"...the rest of the lactation period...lasts from 4 months to 3
years...." Phocids--"...the entire lactation period, which lasts from 4 to 50
days...."


34. D; "Until recently, zoologists believed...Zoologists had
assumed...However, recent studies...found that..."---unexpected behavior
explained.


35. E; "Zoologists had assumed that females of the phocid species, by
contrast, use a fasting strategy...," which means that they must wait to
replenish their fat store until after lactation has ended.


36. E; "In addition, there is already some evidence suggesting that the ringed
seal, a phocid species that is similar in size to the harbor seal, may also use a
maternal foraging strategy."


37. D; A-incorrect comparison--should be "...unlike those in department
stores...," plus the construction is awkward and confusing; B-incorrect
comparison, again, plus "...shop impulsively very little..." is awkward; C-
corrects the comparison problem, but creates a run-on sentence; E-problems
similar to A and B.


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38. D; There is no support for any of these statements in this argument with
the exception of D.


39. C; A-awkward comparison between plants and fungi as a result of the
placement of "at acquiring carbon;" B-still awkward; D-no verb; E-construction
does not work with the latter, non-underlined, part of the sentence.


40. D; We need something which points out that other dietary changes
besides an increase in salt intake, occurring as a result of moving to the city,
could explain the increased incidence of high blood pressure. D gives it to us.
A-genetic factors could still prevail despite changes in diet; B-irrelevant, as the
argument addresses people native to isolated rain-forest communities; C-
irrelevant, as the argument addresses potential dietary CAUSES of high blood
pressure; E-true, but the argument has nothing to do with the consequences
of failing to replenish salt.


41. C; A-"...is known...” is incorrect in terms of tense, plus the construction is
awkward; B-tense and construction; D-"...known to be making..." is incorrect
usage of the progressive tense and implies that humans continue to make
stone tools; E-incorrectly implies that all humans who make stone tool were of
the same vintage.




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