Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A Government Mid-Term Study Guide Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The dominant political unit in the world today is the a. government. b. nation. c. Constitution. d. state. ____ 2. A federal government is one in which a. all power is concentrated in the central government. b. limited powers are assigned to a central agency by independent states. c. power is divided between a central government and local governments. d. powers are divided between a legislative branch and an executive branch. ____ 3. The individual 50 States lack which basic characteristic of a state? a. government b. sovereignty c. Constitution d. defined population ____ 4. The Internet seems especially suited to satisfy which of these needs in a democracy? a. to control the lives of citizens b. to be informed about the many different institutions and policies of the government c. the need for accurate, and always reliable, information on which to base decisions d. the need for an uneducated elite to run the government ____ 5. Which of the following is among the characteristics of a state? a. population b. territory c. government d. all of the above ____ 6. Which of the following statements about sovereign states is NOT true? a. Sovereign states decide their own foreign and domestic policies. b. Sovereign states can determine their own form of government. c. A county or city is considered sovereign because it is subordinate to a larger form of government. d. Sovereign states have supreme power within their own territories. ____ 7. Which of the following is among the purposes of government outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution? a. defending the nation against foreign enemies b. insuring order and domestic tranquility c. promoting the general welfare of the citizens d. all of the above ____ 8. Which idea is NOT included in the Declaration of Independence? a. People have certain natural rights. b. God gives certain people the right to govern. c. Government can exist only with the people's permission. d. The people may change or abolish the government. 13 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 9. After the Revolutionary War, the National Government a. proved too weak to deal with growing economic and political problems. b. refused to repay the war debt it owed to the States. c. permitted the States to make agreements with foreign governments. d. began imposing harsh tax policies on property owners and merchants. ____ 10. Which of the following statements about the inauguration of George Washington as the first U.S. president is NOT true? a. It followed his unanimous election in the Electoral College. b. It took place in New York City, the country's temporary capital. c. It came after the ratification of the Constitution. d. It followed Washington's appointment of James Madison as the first Vice President. ____ 11. The government set up by the Articles of Confederation had a. no legislative or judicial branch. b. only a legislative and an executive branch. c. only a legislative branch, consisting of a unicameral Congress. d. only a legislative branch, consisting of a bicameral Congress. ____ 12. Which was an achievement of the Second Continental Congress? a. preparing a Declaration of Rights b. raising an American army c. establishing a strong central government d. passing the Intolerable Acts ____ 13. Which of the following directly influenced the Framers in the development of the Constitution? a. Chinese tradition b. the Articles of Confederation c. Spanish tradition d. Virginia's royal charter ____ 14. At the Philadelphia Convention, the delegates agreed to a. make minor revisions to the Articles of Confederation. b. open their sessions to the public. c. pass proposals by unanimous vote only. d. draft a new constitution. ____ 15. The first State constitutions, adopted after independence, a. placed most authority with the State governors. b. provided for lengthy terms for elective offices. c. placed most authority with the State legislatures. d. extended voting rights to all adult State residents. ____ 16. Benjamin Franklin's attitude toward the new constitution may be summarized as a combination of a. despair and hope. b. astonishment and optimism. c. relief and anger. d. fatigue and thankfulness. ____ 17. Which best describes the event leading to the inauguration of the first President of the United States of America? a. The people elected the President and Vice President. b. The people elected the President and electors selected the Vice President. c. The States selected electors who voted to elect the President and Vice President. d. Congress elected the President and Vice President. 2 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 18. Much of the work of the Framers centered around the proposals that had been set out in a. the Virginia Plan. b. the New Jersey Plan. c. The Federalist. d. the Declaration of Independence. ____ 19. The idea that the people have the right to abolish an abusive and unresponsive government was FIRST formally expressed by Americans in the a. Constitution. b. Petition of Right. c. Declaration of Rights. d. Declaration of Independence. ____ 20. With the words, "We the People," the Constitution establishes its authority on the basis of a. popular sovereignty. b. the rule of law. c. the separation of powers. d. limited government. ____ 21. Changes to the Constitution by means other than formal amendment a. involve changing the written words of the Constitution. b. have occurred very rarely in the past 200 years. c. can occur only with the approval of the States. d. result from the daily experiences of government. ____ 22. In most cases involving judicial review, the courts have a. had their decisions overturned by Congress. b. found the governmental actions in question to be unconstitutional. c. found the governmental actions in question to be constitutional. d. had their decisions vetoed by the President. ____ 23. Which of the following best describes the concept of limited government? a. Powers are divided among three independent branches of government. b. All political power belongs to the people. c. Government must operate within certain bounds set by the people. d. The people must behave according to rules set by the government. ____ 24. Which of the following is a method of formal amendment? a. proposal by three-fourths of the House of Representatives and ratification by conventions in three-fourths of State legislatures b. proposal by two-thirds of the Senate and ratification by two-thirds of State legislatures c. proposal by two-thirds of Congress and ratification by three-fourths of State legislatures d. all of the above ____ 25. The legislative branch can check the judicial branch by its power to a. name federal judges. b. remove judges through impeachment. c. declare executive actions unconstitutional. d. override a presidential veto. ____ 26. Which of the following is the subject of a constitutional amendment? a. the prohibition of alcohol b. repeal of a previous amendment c. presidential term limits d. all of the above 3 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 27. According to Article V of the Constitution, no amendment may a. deprive a State of its equal representation in the Senate. b. abolish the protections guaranteed in the Bill of Rights. c. deny people the right to vote because of race, color, or gender. d. reestablish slavery or other forms of involuntary servitude. ____ 28. The Bill of Rights guarantees all of the following EXCEPT a. fair treatment before the law. b. the right of women to vote. c. freedom of expression. d. freedom of belief. ____ 29. When there is a separation of powers, a. power is divided between the National Government and the States. b. power is distributed among three independent branches of government. c. the people grant the States the authority to govern. d. the basic powers of government are held by a single agency. ____ 30. Which of the following is NOT true of the Constitution? a. It sets guidelines within which the government must operate. b. It is open to interpretation. c. It has not been changed in 50 years. d. It is the highest form of law in the United States. ____ 31. Each of the four methods of formal amendment a. can proceed only with the approval of the President. b. demonstrates the principle of federalism. c. involves unwritten changes in the interpretation of the Constitution. d. is undertaken jointly by the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. ____ 32. Congress can effect changes to the Constitution by a. passing basic legislation. b. adding meaning to skeletal portions of the Constitution. c. simply exercising many of its powers. d. all of the above. ____ 33. One criticism of the formal amendment process is that a. the Framers did not intend for the words of the Constitution to be changed. b. the process is too short and, therefore, too many amendments are approved. c. the judicial branch cannot propose an amendment. d. State legislatures, rather than convention delegates elected by the people, often ratify amendments. ____ 34. Which of the following was formally amended to the Constitution? a. equality of rights for women b. prohibition of alcoholic beverages c. prohibition of child labor d. balanced federal budget ____ 35. Which of the following statements about constitutional change is TRUE? a. Changes may only originate with the President, Congress, or the courts. b. Some have been proposed and ratified as formal amendments. c. Most must be approved by State legislatures or conventions. d. They cannot be made through customs. 4 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 36. Which of the following is an expressed power of the National Government? a. the power to coin money b. the power to license doctors c. the power to acquire territory d. the power to grant divorces ____ 37. Which of the following powers can the National Government legally exercise? a. expressed powers only b. expressed, implied and inherent powers c. delegated and reserved powers d. powers not granted to the States ____ 38. Which of the following is NOT among the obligations that the National Government has to the States? a. protection against foreign attack and domestic violence b. guarantee of a representative form of government c. recognition of each State's legal existence and physical boundaries d. recognition of State constitutions as the supreme law of the land ____ 39. From the States' point of view, what advantage did revenue sharing have over federal grants-in-aid programs? a. establishment of land-grant colleges b. few restrictions on how money could be spent c. federal control over policy matters d. FBI expertise and assistance ____ 40. Agreements States enter into with both foreign nations and other States with the consent of Congress are a. interstate compacts. b. acts of admission. c. extraditions. d. enabling acts. ____ 41. Which of the following is the basic characteristic of federalism? a. It divides power between a National Government and State governments. b. It gives most power to the National Government. c. It gives most power to local units of government. d. It encourages citizen participation in government. ____ 42. The Full Faith and Credit Clause of the Constitution provides that a. Congress may not pass laws that conflict with State laws. b. State laws must be uniform. c. State laws and court decisions must generally be honored by other States. d. agreements made between the States must first be approved by Congress. ____ 43. Funds given to a State by the National Government with special conditions attached are examples of a. block grants. b. revenue sharing. c. categorical grants. d. project grants. ____ 44. In the United States, a political party is made up of a group of people who a. disagree on how to resolve the basic issues affecting the country. b. work to get candidates elected to political offices. c. work separately to support one major program or policy. d. support split-ticket voting. 5 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 45. Which statement does NOT describe one type of minor party? a. The members of a minor party are united by a particular group of viewpoints. b. A minor party is a party that has broken away from a major party. c. The members of a minor party tend to support the platform of a major party. d. A minor party expresses discontent over the state of the economy. ____ 46. Which of the following is NOT a major function of either of the two major parties in the United States? a. To keep the general public informed about key issues. b. To monitor the conduct of its candidates in office. c. To assure the qualifications of candidates for office. d. To unite people and concentrate solely on one public policy matter. ____ 47. Over time, the ideas first developed by minor parties are often ____ by major parties. a. ignored b. borrowed c. suppressed d. attacked ____ 48. The State party organizations a. are generally loosely tied to the national committee. b. face tight control by the national committee. c. are well-disciplined groups. d. always cooperate with one another. ____ 49. Membership in either of the two major parties is a. closely regulated by federal law. b. closely regulated by State law. c. based on economic status. d. based on personal choice. ____ 50. The two-party system developed in the United States mainly because a. the Constitution established a democratic government. b. conflicts about the Constitution created opposing viewpoints. c. leaders and voters agreed on the existence of two parties. d. it was voted on and approved by both houses of Congress. ____ 51. The era of one-party domination that began in 1968 was different from past eras of one-party domination because a. the Republican party gained no new members in Congress. b. the Democratic party gained no new members in Congress. c. one party controlled Congress while the other controlled the presidency. d. minor parties interfered with the power of the Republican party. ____ 52. Minor parties have contributed MOST to United States politics by a. causing major parties to adopt their ideas. b. providing more candidates from which voters can choose. c. placing their presidential candidates on the ballot. d. establishing political precedents. ____ 53. Which factor does NOT add to the decentralization of both major parties? a. Neither party has a chain of command at national, State, and local levels. b. The government of the United States is a federal system. c. The process of nominating candidates creates party conflict. d. The President heads one of the major parties. 6 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 54. Which of the following is a sign of weakened political parties? a. split-ticket voting b. straight-ticket voting c. newly registered voters d. campaigning for party candidates ____ 55. The functions of the major parties in United States politics include a. nominating candidates for office. b. insuring the good performance of their elected candidates. c. providing a mechanism for the conduct of government. d. all of the above. ____ 56. Which of the following groups has tended to support the Democratic party in recent decades? a. the business community b. Protestants c. union members d. white males ____ 57. The two major parties have members who take all of the following roles EXCEPT a. party leaders. b. loyal party members and voters. c. party independents. d. party officeholders. ____ 58. An increasing number of Americans today a. hold political parties in high regard. b. vote a straight party line. c. favor mandatory party membership. d. identify with neither political party. ____ 59. In the past, some States limited voting rights by a. passing political socialization laws. b. charging a poll tax. c. eliminating the literacy test. d. overruling grandfather clauses. ____ 60. The phenomenon in which fewer votes are cast for offices farther down the ballot is called a. voter alienation. b. straight-ticket voting. c. split-ticket voting. d. ballot fatigue. ____ 61. The expansion of suffrage in the United States a. was outlined in the text of the Constitution. b. was accomplished outside the United States legal system. c. is the subject of all constitutional amendments made since 1810. d. has been moved forward by amendments and civil rights acts. ____ 62. Literacy tests worked to deny the right to vote to African Americans primarily because a. all white voters had higher literacy rates. b. the tests were only required in Southern States. c. African Americans were asked questions that were more difficult than those asked of prospective white voters. d. it was specifically provided for in the Constitution. 7 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 63. Which act first established a federal commission to investigate claims of individual voter discrimination? a. Civil Rights Act of 1957 b. Civil Rights Act of 1960 c. Civil Rights Act of 1964 d. Voting Rights Act of 1965 ____ 64. Today many States require that all voters a. be citizens of the United States and residents of the State. b. meet specific literacy requirements. c. be familiar with the candidates and issues before voting. d. be natural-born citizens of the United States. ____ 65. All of the following have been used to keep African Americans from voting EXCEPT a. poll taxes. b. literacy tests. c. federal court orders. d. threats and social pressures. ____ 66. The single most significant predictor of a person's partisan voting behavior is his or her a. party identification. b. educational background. c. political efficacy. d. perceptions of government. ____ 67. Which of these State suffrage laws would violate some provision in the federal Constitution? a. a law allowing voting rights to those 16 and 17 years old b. a law denying the right to vote to any person convicted of a felony c. a law setting a maximum age for voting d. a law permitting aliens to vote ____ 68. The nominating stage is important in the electoral process mostly because a. only Republicans and Democrats can take part in nominations. b. nominations set real limits to the choices voters can make in general elections. c. major party candidates exert more effort to win nominations than elections. d. in a democracy the general election is little more than a formality. ____ 69. Petitions to nominate candidates a. generally require fewer signatures for higher offices than lower ones. b. can no longer be used at State and national levels. c. are generally required by State law for nominating minor party candidates. d. are a standardized practice of federal law. ____ 70. Why are voting machines used? a. to eliminate the election process b. to increase the number of persons needed to administer elections c. to minimize vote-counting errors d. to encourage manual vote counting ____ 71. Voters are asked to complete election ballots in all of the following ways EXCEPT a. moving levers on a voting machine. b. marking a punch card. c. returning a mail-in ballot. d. raising hands at a public meeting. 8 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 72. Money is an indispensable campaign resource because a. special interest groups have more money than political parties. b. wealthy contributors win all elections. c. it allows candidates to make themselves known to the public. d. candidates might otherwise try to buy their way into office. ____ 73. Campaign contributions to a presidential candidate can a. come from any foreign country. b. be for any amount of money. c. all be made anonymously. d. be made by any American. ____ 74. A primary in which candidates are not labeled by party is known as a a. runoff primary. b. direct primary. c. nonpartisan primary. d. blanket primary. ____ 75. The purpose of poll watchers is to a. make sure that only qualified people vote. b. kept supporters of opposing candidates from voting. c. allow only their party's supporters to vote. d. allow everyone to vote. ____ 76. Which of the following statements about PACs is FALSE? a. They can raise funds only for presidential and congressional campaigns. b. They distribute money to those candidates who are sympathetic to their policy goals. c. They can give no more than $5,000 to any one federal candidate in an election. d. They can give no more than $15,000 a year to a political party. ____ 77. Which of the following is NOT legal under the current federal presidential campaign financing laws? a. A person or group can contribute unlimited funds to a political campaign. b. A person or group can contribute unlimited funds to a "voter education" campaign. c. A person or group can spend unlimited funds on an ad for a particular issue without mentioning a candidate. d. A person or group can spend unlimited funds to oppose a candidate. ____ 78. The detailed provisions of federal election laws are important a. because most U.S. elections are for federal offices. b. because they are specifically listed in the Constitution. c. to prevent State voter registration requirements. d. to maintain honest and free elections at all levels. ____ 79. Which of the following ballots tends to encourage straight-ticket voting? a. office-group ballot b. party-column ballot c. nonpartisan ballot d. "bed-sheet" ballot ____ 80. The biggest drawback of the need for large amounts of money to campaign is that a. people who cannot raise the money are denied a chance to be elected. b. getting money from PACs and temporary organizations is a very difficult process. c. candidates must use much of their own money to finance their campaigns. d. political action committees have a hard time raising needed funds. 9 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 81. The convention system at first seemed more representative of the party as a whole than the caucus because a. all party members could vote for delegates to send to county conventions. b. all party members voted directly for presidential candidates. c. the convention did not allow for control by powerful party members. d. delegates could vote any way they wished at State and national conventions. ____ 82. All of the following are loopholes in the current federal election laws EXCEPT a. the use of soft money for "party building" activities. b. money spent by an independent person or group on behalf of a candidate. c. the prominent use of issue ads. d. unlimited contributions by PACs to any one federal candidate. ____ 83. On which ballot are candidates listed together under the title of the position they seek? a. party-column ballot b. office-group ballot c. sample ballot d. "bed-sheet" ballot ____ 84. The most expensive item in a typical campaign budget is a. travel. b. print advertisements. c. television advertisements. d. professional campaign managers. ____ 85. Which of the following statements about voting machines is TRUE? a. They do away with the need for manual vote counting. b. They increase the number of people needed to administer elections. c. They slow down the voting process. d. They increase the risk of counting errors. ____ 86. Which of the following is NOT a federal law governing political campaign financing? a. A person can give no more than $25,000 a year to a federal candidate. b. No PAC can give more than $5,000 to any one federal candidate in an election. c. A person can spend no more than $1,000 in an election on behalf of a candidate without that candidate's permission. d. A PAC can give up to $15,000 to a political party in an election. ____ 87. Which form of government does Cuba, Costa Rica, and France have in common? a. parliamentary b. democratic c. unitary d. dictatorial ____ 88. Which characteristic do the United States and Botswana have in common? a. Both countries are democratic. b. Both countries have a presidential form of government. c. Both countries have a unitary form of government. d. Both countries have parliamentary governments. ____ 89. All of the following countries are democracies EXCEPT a. France. b. India. c. Syria. d. Brazil. 10 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 90. According to the social contract theory, the contract is a. a document describing the territory of the state. b. impossible without the king’s consent. c. the purpose of government. d. a constitution. ____ 91. The decision to raise taxes is an example of a. the force theory. b. presidential powers. c. public policy. d. democracy. ____ 92. Politics is a(n) ____, while government is a(n) ____. a. process, institution b. policy, institution c. institution, process d. negative, positive ____ 93. “Promote the general welfare” really means that a. the government is a servant to its citizens. b. the government controls the economy. c. the state promotes private industry. d. the Constitution establishes the meaning of “welfare.” ____ 94. Where does sovereignty rest in a dictatorship? a. with a small group or a single person b. with the people c. with the legislature d. all of the above ____ 95. The United States does not have a unitary form of government because a. the British would not allow it. b. the States have powers reserved to them in the Constitution. c. the executive and legislative branches are separate. d. the States hold more power than does the Federal Government. ____ 96. In a democracy, each minority has a right to a. determine public policy. b. criticize the majority. c. be heard. d. both b and c. ____ 97. Democracy’s belief in the worth of the individual is indirectly reflected in the a. Internet. b. law of supply and demand. c. free enterprise system. d. necessity of compromise. ____ 98. For what reason might the ruler(s) in a dictatorship feel threatened by the existence of the Internet? a. The Internet might not be accessible to everyone. b. The Internet might provide a forum through which people could unite and rebel. c. The Internet can be unreliable. d. The Internet can inform, but only when citizens make the effort to utilize its resources. 11 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 99. Which of the following basic concepts of government did the Magna Carta reflect? a. worth of the individual b. limited government c. ordered government d. representative government ____ 100. What characteristic of a state did the English colonies NOT possess? a. territory b. population c. sovereignty d. government ____ 101. The first State constitutions focused mainly on a. outlining the causes of the Revolution. b. limiting governmental power. c. establishing a unitary system of government. d. abolishing restrictions on the legislature. ____ 102. The powers granted to the central government under the Second Continental Congress compared with those granted under the Articles of Confederation were a. dramatically different. b. much weaker. c. basically the same. d. none of the above. ____ 103. The relationship among the States during the Critical Period can be BEST compared to a. a choir singing in unison. b. a traffic jam. c. children squabbling at a playground. d. a baseball team at the playoffs. ____ 104. When crafting the new Constitution, the Framers drew from their experiences with which of the following? a. the governments of ancient Greece and Rome b. the writings of Rousseau and Locke c. their own State governments d. all of the above ____ 105. Why was it ironic that Virginia was one of the last States to ratify the Constitution? a. It was one of the largest States. b. The new government could not succeed without Virginia’s support. c. Virginia’s leading voices supported a strong central government. d. Virginia delegate James Madison contributed more to the document than any other delegate. ____ 106. The Federalist can be called a “campaign document” because it a. was written to draw people’s attention to the need to defeat the British. b. contained the best political writings in the English language. c. was written to convince voters to support the new Constitution. d. was written by an anonymous author. ____ 107. The government is held accountable for its actions under which of the following principles of government? a. judicial review b. checks and balances c. federalism d. the rule of law 12 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 108. The concept of separation of powers is a means to what end? a. checks and balances b. federalism c. limited government d. judicial review ____ 109. The power of judicial review applies to actions by a. the Federal Government only. b. both the Federal Government and the States. c. the States only. d. the executive branch only. ____ 110. Which branch of the Federal Government plays the largest role in the formal amendment process? a. the executive branch b. the judicial branch c. the legislative branch d. all of the above ____ 111. The Constitution requires proposed amendments to have greater State support for _____ than _____. a. proposal/ratification b. ratification/proposal c. conventions/ratification d. proposal/conventions ____ 112. The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution to meet the demands of the a. Federalists. b. Anti-Federalists. c. Congress. d. Patriots. ____ 113. To which branch of government fell the task of “adding flesh to the bones” of the Constitution? a. the legislature b. the judiciary c. the executive d. the courts ____ 114. Without the expressed powers of the National Government, there would be no a. division of power. b. reserved powers. c. implied powers. d. inherent powers. ____ 115. Which of the following statements about the powers of the National Government is TRUE? a. It is a government of delegated powers. b. The Elastic Clause limits those powers. c. Each of the inherent powers must be traceable to some expressed power. d. Only the Congress exercises the expressed powers. ____ 116. Through which of the following are the States denied powers? a. the Constitution of the United States b. inherently, through the existence of the federal system c. the individual State constitutions d. all of the above 13 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 117. Judging by the actions of Congress after the Civil War, a “republican form of government” must allow a. a State to leave the Union. b. a federal system. c. equal rights to all citizens. d. formal amendments to the Constitution. ____ 118. The obligation of the National Government to protect the States against invasion indirectly arose because the new Constitution a. established a federal system. b. required the States to give up their war-making powers. c. forbid State militias. d. denied all powers to the States. ____ 119. States gain needed resources through grants-in-aid, while the National Government gains a. needed funds. b. statistical data. c. influence over State and local affairs. d. assistance with public works. ____ 120. Since the Reagan administration converted many categorical grants into block grants, which of the following statements about that administration is most likely to be true? a. The Reagan administration tried to reduce the role played by the Federal Government in State and local matters. b. The Reagan administration tried to reduce the federal budget. c. The Reagan administration tried to increase the role played by the Federal Government in State and local matters. d. The Reagan administration wanted grant monies to be earmarked for specific projects. ____ 121. In certain situations, States can give preferential treatment to _____ over ______. a. nonresidents/residents b. residents/nonresidents c. fugitives/divorcees d. civil matters/criminal matters ____ 122. Which party was in power during the period of 1961–1969? a. Progressive b. Democratic c. Southern Democratic d. Republican ____ 123. If the main term associated with the Supreme Court is “Constitution,” then the main term associated with political parties is a. “Congress.” b. “federalism.” c. “elections.” d. “Constitution.” ____ 124. Which of the following do political parties and the news media have in common? a. Both try to inform, inspire, and activate the people with regard to public affairs. b. Both play a major role in deciding the constitutionality of acts of Congress. c. Neither play a role in nominating candidates for public office. d. Neither serve to foster democratic ideals. 14 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 125. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the United States has a two-party system? a. Because that is the way it has always been. b. Because the two-party system is established in the Constitution. c. Because American election law is written to discourage minor parties. d. Because Americans share many of the same ideals and principles. ____ 126. The major difference between a one-party system in a dictatorship and the modified one-party system found in many States is that a. Political parties in a dictatorship offer voters more choices than do those in the States. b. Choice is non-existent in the former, but alive and well in the latter. c. Unlike the States, a dictatorship usually starts with a multiparty system then narrows the choices to one party. d. None of the above. ____ 127. Which of the following did NOT contribute to a shift in power from the Democrats to the Republicans over the course of the nation’s history? a. a war b. an economic depression c. divided government d. a constitutional amendment ____ 128. A major party might support a minor party candidate for President if a. the major party holds a narrow lead in the polls. b. the minor party candidate is likely to draw votes from the opposition. c. the election is too close to call. d. they can borrow from the minor party’s platform. ____ 129. The only time both parties have a strong leader at the same time is a. between national conventions. b. during the nominating process. c. when the party’s presidential candidate has been chosen but before the election takes place. d. after the election but before the new President takes office. ____ 130. It can be argued that political parties are at their weakest a. when they cannot agree on who to nominate as their candidate. b. during the national convention. c. when their candidate is elected President. d. all of the above ____ 131. Recent laws regulating how political parties fund campaigns have contributed to a. a modified one-party system. b. the weakening of the party system. c. the growth of minor parties. d. the increased importance of the national committee. ____ 132. The expansion of suffrage to African Americans took place in two stages, one that granted suffrage in ____ and one that accomplished suffrage in _____. a. the North/the South b. State elections/federal elections c. response to petitions/response to Supreme Court rulings d. theory/fact 15 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 133. The States can set any qualifications they choose for voting, so long as those qualifications a. do not violate any restriction or provision set out in the Constitution. b. do not mislead voters as to their intentions. c. are clearly set out in the State constitution. d. are not repetitive of federal voting guidelines. ____ 134. Voter turnout among 18-year-olds a. has been consistently among the highest in the nation. b. was higher immediately after passage of the 26th Amendment, but then dropped significantly. c. was low at first, but gradually rose. d. demonstrates that this age group is more politically involved than are older Americans. ____ 135. Why did Congress require States to allow voter registration by mail? a. to make it easier to register to vote b. to lighten the work load of State employees c. to sell more stamps d. to ensure that those who register really intend to vote ____ 136. Literacy requirements were usually aimed at a. young voters. b. minority groups. c. poor whites. d. all of the above ____ 137. One step that helped clear the way for African American suffrage was the Supreme Court’s ruling that at least some functions of political parties are a. outside the requirements of the 15th Amendment. b. illegal. c. preferable to others. d. public, not private. ____ 138. Based on voter turnout statistics, it is clear that many people a. believe voting is too time consuming. b. have never voted. c. find voting for President more important than voting for members of Congress. d. tend to vote in off-year elections if the ballot is not too long. ____ 139. When a contest between two candidates is very close, people are a. more likely to vote. b. less likely to vote. c. unlikely to notice.` d. more likely to join a political party. ____ 140. The differences in voting patterns between men and women have been shown to be a. too small to measure. b. income-related. c. issue-oriented. d. a recent phenomenon. ____ 141. In which of the following locations would voters show the most support for a Democratic candidate for President? a. rural Nebraska b. Boston, Massachusetts c. Maine d. suburban New Jersey 16 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 142. The LEAST democratic method for nominating candidates is the a. caucus. b. convention. c. direct primary. d. petition. ____ 143. Compared with the caucus and convention methods, the number of people who can participate in choosing candidates through the direct primary is a. about the same. b. very small. c. much greater. d. much less. ____ 144. The Supreme Court’s 2000 ruling on California’s blanket primary found this form of primary to violate the rights of a. the voters. b. political parties. c. State election boards. d. candidates. ____ 145. People who tend to vote a straight ticket should be sure to vote in the primary election because a. the outcome of that election will dictate whom they will vote for in the general election. b. they need to show their loyalty to their party. c. otherwise independent voters will have too much impact on the primary process. d. it is best to avoid a runoff primary. ____ 146. If a Republican candidate for governor is proving to be especially popular, which of the following is MOST likely to benefit? a. the voters b. other Republican candidates c. minor party candidates d. Democratic candidates ____ 147. Just as the methods for nominating candidates became gradually more ______, so too did the methods for casting ballots. a. biased b. democratic c. corrupt d. reliable ____ 148. Suppose legislation prohibiting the sale of tobacco products is pending in Congress. Before the next congressional election, why might informed voters wish to access the campaign finance information gathered by the FEC? a. In order to find out how each candidate voted on similar legislation. b. In order to determine which candidates own stock in tobacco companies. c. In order to be sure which political party supports the legislation. d. In order to learn which candidates have accepted campaign contributions from tobacco companies. ____ 149. In 2000, George W. Bush could legally spend more than the FEC limit of $40.5 million in the preconvention period because a. his father was a former President. b. his opponent, Al Gore, agreed to the higher limit. c. he did not accept FEC money during that period. d. a minor party candidate had entered the race, thus voiding this FEC limit. 17 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 150. A large percentage of the money spent on political campaigns during the 1980s and 1990s came from a. unregulated soft money. b. regulated soft money. c. unregulated hard money. d. preconvention funds. 18 ID: A Government Mid-Term Study Guide Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: D REF: 5 2. ANS: C REF: 14 3. ANS: B REF: 6 4. ANS: B REF: 22 5. ANS: D REF: 5 6. ANS: C REF: 6 7. ANS: D REF: 8 8. ANS: B REF: 38 9. ANS: A REF: 37 10. ANS: D REF: 59 11. ANS: C REF: 44 12. ANS: B REF: 37 13. ANS: B REF: 44 14. ANS: D REF: 48 15. ANS: C REF: 39 16. ANS: B REF: 49 17. ANS: C REF: 59 18. ANS: A REF: 51 19. ANS: D REF: 38 20. ANS: A REF: 73 21. ANS: D REF: 79 22. ANS: C REF: 69 23. ANS: C REF: 65 24. ANS: C REF: 72 25. ANS: B REF: 67 26. ANS: D REF: 72 27. ANS: A REF: 74 28. ANS: B REF: 76 29. ANS: B REF: 66 30. ANS: C REF: 65 31. ANS: B REF: 72 32. ANS: D REF: 79 33. ANS: D REF: 72 34. ANS: B REF: 72 35. ANS: B REF: 79 36. ANS: A REF: 89 37. ANS: B REF: 89 | 90 | 91 38. ANS: D REF: 88 39. ANS: B REF: 103 40. ANS: A REF: 105 1 ID: A 41. ANS: A REF: 88 42. ANS: C REF: 106 43. ANS: C REF: 103 44. ANS: B REF: 116 45. ANS: C REF: 132 46. ANS: D REF: 116 47. ANS: B REF: 132 48. ANS: A REF: 116 49. ANS: D REF: 116 50. ANS: B REF: 119 51. ANS: C REF: 126 52. ANS: A REF: 132 53. ANS: D REF: 116 54. ANS: A REF: 141 55. ANS: D REF: 116 56. ANS: C REF: 116 57. ANS: C REF: 116 58. ANS: D REF: 116 59. ANS: B REF: 157 60. ANS: D REF: 165 61. ANS: D REF: 148 62. ANS: C REF: 156 63. ANS: A REF: 160 64. ANS: A REF: 152 65. ANS: C REF: 160 66. ANS: A REF: 171 67. ANS: C REF: 152 68. ANS: B REF: 178 69. ANS: C REF: 178 70. ANS: C REF: 192 71. ANS: D REF: 190 72. ANS: C REF: 196 73. ANS: D REF: 196 74. ANS: C REF: 184 75. ANS: A REF: 190 76. ANS: A REF: 197 77. ANS: A REF: 196 78. ANS: D REF: 198 79. ANS: B REF: 192 80. ANS: A REF: 200 81. ANS: A REF: 181 82. ANS: D REF: 197 83. ANS: B REF: 191 84. ANS: C REF: 196 85. ANS: A REF: 192 86. ANS: C REF: 197 2 ID: A 87. ANS: C REF: 14 88. ANS: A REF: 5 89. ANS: C REF: 5 90. ANS: D REF: 8 91. ANS: C REF: 4 92. ANS: A REF: 4-5 93. ANS: A REF: 10 94. ANS: A REF: 13 95. ANS: B REF: 14 96. ANS: D REF: 19 97. ANS: C REF: 18 | 20 98. ANS: B REF: 22 99. ANS: B REF: 29-30 100. ANS: C REF: 30-32 101. ANS: B REF: 39 102. ANS: C REF: 44-45 103. ANS: C REF: 45 104. ANS: D REF: 53 105. ANS: D REF: 57 106. ANS: C REF: 58 107. ANS: D REF: 65-66 108. ANS: C REF: 66 109. ANS: B REF: 69 110. ANS: C REF: 73 111. ANS: B REF: 73 112. ANS: B REF: 76 113. ANS: A REF: 79 114. ANS: C REF: 90 115. ANS: A REF: 89 116. ANS: D REF: 92 117. ANS: C REF: 98 118. ANS: B REF: 98 119. ANS: C REF: 102 120. ANS: A REF: 103 121. ANS: B REF: 108 122. ANS: B REF: 126 123. ANS: C REF: 116 124. ANS: A REF: 117 125. ANS: B REF: 119-120 126. ANS: B REF: 123 127. ANS: C REF: 128-130 128. ANS: B REF: 134 129. ANS: C REF: 137-139 130. ANS: A REF: 138 131. ANS: B REF: 141 132. ANS: D REF: 149 3 ID: A 133. ANS: A REF: 150 134. ANS: B REF: 154 135. ANS: A REF: 155 136. ANS: B REF: 156 137. ANS: D REF: 160 138. ANS: C REF: 164-165 139. ANS: A REF: 167 140. ANS: C REF: 169 141. ANS: B REF: 170 142. ANS: A REF: 180 143. ANS: C REF: 182 144. ANS: B REF: 183 145. ANS: A REF: 183 146. ANS: B REF: 190 147. ANS: B REF: 190 148. ANS: D REF: 198-199 149. ANS: C REF: 200 150. ANS: A REF: 202 4 Government Mid-Term Study Guide [Answer Strip] ID: A A _____ 9. A _____ 18. A _____ 27. A _____ 36. D _____ 10. D _____ 19. B _____ 28. B _____ 37. D _____ 1. B _____ 29. D _____ 38. C _____ 2. C _____ 11. A _____ 20. C _____ 30. B _____ 39. B _____ 3. B _____ 12. D _____ 21. B _____ 31. A _____ 40. B _____ 4. B _____ 13. C _____ 22. D _____ 32. A _____ 41. D _____ 5. D _____ 14. C _____ 23. D _____ 33. C _____ 42. C _____ 6. C _____ 15. C _____ 24. C _____ 43. B _____ 16. B _____ 34. D _____ 7. B _____ 25. B _____ 44. C _____ 17. B _____ 35. B _____ 8. D _____ 26. Government Mid-Term Study Guide [Answer Strip] ID: A C _____ 45. A _____ 54. A _____ 63. C _____ 72. A _____ 81. D _____ 46. D _____ 55. A _____ 64. D _____ 73. D _____ 82. B _____ 47. C _____ 56. C _____ 65. C _____ 74. B _____ 83. A _____ 48. C _____ 57. A _____ 66. A _____ 75. C _____ 84. D _____ 49. D _____ 58. C _____ 67. A _____ 76. A _____ 85. B _____ 50. B _____ 59. B _____ 68. A _____ 77. C _____ 86. C _____ 51. D _____ 60. C _____ 69. D _____ 78. C _____ 87. D _____ 61. C _____ 70. A _____ 52. B _____ 79. A _____ 88. C _____ 62. D _____ 71. D _____ 53. A _____ 80. C _____ 89. Government Mid-Term Study Guide [Answer Strip] ID: A D _____ 90. B _____ 99. C _____108. C _____117. B _____125. C _____ 91. C _____100. B _____109. B _____118. B _____126. A _____ 92. B _____101. C _____110. C _____119. C _____127. A _____ 93. C _____102. B _____111. A _____120. B _____128. A _____ 94. B _____112. C _____103. C _____129. B _____121. B _____ 95. A _____113. D _____104. B _____122. A _____130. D _____ 96. C _____114. D _____105. C _____123. B _____131. C _____ 97. A _____115. C _____106. D _____132. B _____ 98. D _____116. A _____124. D _____107. Government Mid-Term Study Guide [Answer Strip] ID: A A _____133. A _____142. A _____150. B _____134. C _____143. A _____135. B _____144. B _____136. A _____145. D _____137. B _____146. C _____138. B _____147. A _____139. D _____148. C _____140. B _____141. C _____149.
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