Practice RD Exam by laurenkay20

VIEWS: 1,083 PAGES: 33

									                                       Practice RD Exam


    1. A low tyramine diet modification would avoid which of the following items?

       a. Graham crackers and milk

       b. Green beans and boiled potatoes

       c. Red wine and pita bread

       d. Salami and gouda cheese

    2. Which of the following apolipoproteins (apo) is the most atherogenic and is also affected

       by diet?

       a. Apo E

       b. Apo B-100

       c. Apo A-I

       d. Apo C

    3. Which of the following lipoproteins is considered most atherogenic in the absence of

       familial cholesterolemia?

       a. HDL

       b. Chylomicrons

       c. LDL

       d. VLDL

    4. More than 2000 additives are used today as important ingredients of processed and

       convenience foods. Which of the following additives are meat tenderizers?
   a. BHA and BHT

   b. TVP and EDTA

   c. Papain and bromelin

   d. Sugar and lecithin

5. Which of the following is a disaccharide?

   a. Glucose

   b. Lactose

   c. Fructose

   d. Galactose

6. Chlorophyll is easily destroyed by:

   a. Heat

   b. Oil

   c. Salt

   d. Water

7. The color pigment that produces white color in vegetables is:

   a. Anthoxanthin

   b. Anthocyanin

   c. Carotenoids

   d. Chlorophyllin

8. Braising and stewing tenderize tough cuts of meat by:

   a. Maintaining low cooking temperatures to reduce toughening of protein fibers while

       extending cooking times to allow collagen to convert to gelatin
   b. Tenderizing the protein fibers

   c. Maintaining a juiciness to the meat

   d. Avoiding the possibility of overcooking

9. Eggs can be held in cold storage for:

a. 6 months

b. 3 months

c. 3 weeks

d. 2 weeks

10. The chef prepared pudding for the satellite kitchen and when it was served ith ad liquid

   on the top. This is:

   a. Denaturing

   b. Maillard reaction

   c. Disulfide linkages

   d. Syneresis

11. The cook prepared French fries from potatoes stored in the refrigerator. They will brown

   unevenly due to:

   a. Retention of vitamins

   b. Decrease in preparation time

   c. Increase in sugar content

   d. Formation of solanine

12. Because some cooking oils turn cloudy when refrigerated, oils for salad dressing are

   treated by:
        a. Winterization

        b. Hydrogenation

        c. Antioxidants

        d. Saturation


     1. A 37 year old patient is admitted with chronic alcohol abuse and continues to consume

        excessive alcohol. Which of the following vitamins should be recommended?

        a. Vitamin C and vitamin E

        b. Vitamin C and folate

        c. Thiamin and folate

        d. Thiamin and zinc

     2. A 37 year old patient with chronic alcohol abuse who continues to consume excessive

        alcohol is admitted with the following labs and symptoms: elevated ammonia level,

        ascites, hyponatremia, and 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. The appropriate

        medical nutrition therapy is:

        a. Sodium restriction, increase fluids, moderate protein

        b. Sodium and fluid restriction, moderate protein

        c. Liberalize sodium, restrict fluid, high protein

        d. Sodium and fluid restriction, low protein

     3. A patient has a stage IV decubitus ulcer and a serum albumin of 2.8 mg/dl. Which of the

        following would be included in the nutrition care plan?
   a. Low kcal, high protein, multivitamin, and selenium supplements

   b. High kcal, low protein, vitamin K, and zinc supplements

   c. High kcal, moderate protein, vitamin D, and magnesium supplements

   d. High protein, multivitamin, zinc, and vitamin C supplements

4. A client with cystic fibrosis may need to be supplemented with:

   a. Potassium

   b. Cobalamin

   c. Pyridoxine

   d. Sodium

5. A young man with Type 1 diabetes is suffering with an intestinal flu and experiencing

   vomiting and diarrhea. The dietitian should instruct him to:

   a. Take insulin, consume simple CHO, restrict fluids

   b. Take insulin, liberalize diet, encourage fluids, check urine for ketones

   c. Hold insulin, liberalize diet, check urine for ketones

   d. Hold insulin, restrict po intake, check urine for ketones

6. A patient is admitted to the cardiac care unit with chronic atrial fibrillation. Initial

   nutrition screening indicates the patient is on Coumadin. Which food items should be

   monitored on the patient’s menu?

   a. Eggs and bacon

   b. Spinach and broccoli

   c. Cottage cheese and peaches

   d. Turnip greens and carrots
7. A patient having undergone extensive gastrointestinal surgery is assessed by the clinical

   dietitian with the following nutrition support recommendations: TPN (25% dextrose, 5%

   amino acids) at 75cc/hour and 500cc of 10% lipids daily. How many grams of protein

   and total kcal are provided in a 24 hour period?

   a. 9 grams protein and 2440 kcal

   b. 90 grams protein and 2440 kcal

   c. 90 grams protein and 1890 kcal

   d. 16 grams protein and 1890 kcal

8. A client being counseled on the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes diet would be advised to

   make which of the following substitutions?

   a. An English muffin in place of a commercially baked biscuit

   b. Stick margarine instead of tub margarine

   c. Cheddar cheese in place of Colby cheese

   d. Reduced fat mayonnaise in place of mustard

9. The most appropriate snack for a patient on a neutropenic diet would be:

   a. Tang and graham crackers

   b. Banana and peanut butter

   c. Fresh squeezed lemonade and ginger snaps

   d. Carnation Instant Breakfast with a raw egg

10. The renal threshold, the point at which the tubules reach their tubular maximum for

   glucose, is:

   a. 180-240 mg/dl
   b. 120-180 mg/dl

   c. 160-200 mg/dl

   d. 200-260 mg/dl

11. Which one of the following tests is best used to indicate the diabetic patient’s degree of

   control of his/her diabetes?

   a. Glycosylated hemoglobin

   b. Blood glucose

   c. Urine glucose

   d. Urine ketones

12. A diabetic patient attending her quarterly clinic visit has a fasting blood glucose of

   110mg/dl. Her glycosylated hemoglobin is 8.9%. What conclusion might be drawn?

   a. The patient needs less insulin

   b. The patient’s diabetes is under good control

   c. The patient needs to increase her exercise level

   d. The patient is not consistently following her diabetic meal plan between clinic vistis

13. Deep and gasping respirations, as developed in acute diabetic ketoacidosis, are called:

   a. Dyspnea

   b. Kussmaul respirations

   c. Hyperpnea

   d. Lamaze respirations
14. A 6’1” male has bilateral below-knee amputations. What is his adjusted ideal body

   weight? (Weight estimation in amputees- foot: 2%; lower leg, below knee: 6%; lower

   leg, above knee: 9%)

   a. 78.6 kg

   b. 76.9 kg

   c. 73.6 kg

   d. 71.9 kg

15. Which of the following is the best indicator of visceral protein status in the hospitalized


   a. Total lipid profile

   b. Albumin

   c. Urine urea nitrogen

   d. Creatinine height index

16. The dietitian is asked to make enteral nutrition support recommendations for a patient

   with hepatic encephalopathy. The formula should be rich in:

   a. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

   b. Glutamine, alanine, and valine

   c. Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan

   d. Glutamine, valine, and leucine

17. An 88 year old female is admitted to the hospital with a disgnosis of weight loss,

   dehydration, and depression. The patient’s family reports the patient has been refusing
   to eat for over a week. What is the nutrition support regimen the dietitian should


   a. Total parenteral nutrition

   b. Enteral feeding via nasogastric tube

   c. Peripheral parenteral nutrition

   d. Enteral feeding vis gastrostomy tube

18. How much protein is recommended for a person receiving hemodialysis twice weekly?

   a. > 1.2-1.3 gm/kg/IBW

   b. 0.6-0.75 gm/kg/IBW

   c. > 1.2 gm/kg/IBW

   d. 0.6-0.8 gm/kg/IBW

19. The mother of a 7 year old diabetic reports that her son is experiencing frequent

   diarrhea. The possible cause is:

   a. Aspartame sweetened soda

   b. Acesulfame-K

   c. Candy containing sorbitol

   d. Sucralose

20. A 5’7” female client weighs 185 pounds. Her BMI is:

   a. 32.7

   b. 23.2

   c. 29.1

   d. 49.4
21. Why might a patient with kidney failure have a low serum bicarbonate level?

   a. The kidneys excrete extra bicarbonate because there is less acid present

   b. The supply of ketoacids exceeds the demands of the cell

   c. The accumulation of hydrogen ions leads to depletion of bicarbonate, as it tries to

       buffer the excess acid

   d. The kidneys conserve more bicarbonate due to chronic anemia

22. The energy needs of a child with PKU are:

   a. Similar to those of a healthy child

   b. Significantly less than the energy needs of a healthy child

   c. Two times greater than the needs of a healthy child

   d. Three times greater than the needs of a healthy child

23. Which of the following hospitalized patients would be most likely to have a serum

   albumin of 1.5 g/dL?

   a. Young male with ulcerative colitis, 2 days following surgery for a perforated bowel

   b. Patient with exacerbation of symptoms of multiple sclerosis

   c. Elderly nursing home resident with a Stage 1 decubitis on the right heel

   d. Type 2 diabetic with peripheral nephropathy

24. Cardiac cachexia is characterized by:

   a. Increased adipose tissue stores

   b. Significant loss of lean body mass

   c. Decrease in BMR

   d. No significant changes on protein or fat stores
25. The JCAHO Nutrition Care Process requires which of the following?

   a. Assessment of all patients with diabetes

   b. Screening to be performed by a qualified dietetics professional

   c. Assessment of all patients identified to be at nutrition risk

   d. Prescribing of enteral nutrition to be done by a physician

26. The carbohydrate group contributes how many grams of carbohydrate for one exchange

   each of starch, fruit, vegetable, and milk, respectively?

   a. 12, 15, 5, and 15

   b. 15, 12, 5, and 12

   c. 15, 15, 5, and 12

   d. 15, 15, 5, and 15

27. An elderly female patient in long-term care is on enteral feeding. The nursing staff

   reports the patient is febrile with a present temperature of 102.6˚F. How much should

   the R.D. adjust the kilocalorie requirements?

   a. 28%

   b. 7%

   c. 25%

   d. 52%

28. An isotonic enteral feeding solution has a known osmolality of:

   a. 500 mOsm/L

   b. 600 mOsm/L

   c. 300 mOsm/L
   d. 200mOsm/L

29. Which of the following statements would be placed in the Intervention section of a PGIE

   charting note?

   a. Unintentional weight loss related to prolonged nausea and emesis

   b. Lab results show hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia

   c. Client following prescribed meal plan; no follow-up visit needed

   d. Client will eat lunch 5 days a week in the senior center to improve socialization and


30. Mrs. J is a 56 year old woman with kidney disease. She has been on hemodialysis for

   three months. After reviewing her bloodwork, the nephrologist tell her that she needs

   vitamin D. What is the appropriate form of the vitamin for this patient?

   a. Calcitriol

   b. Calciferol

   c. Cholecalciferol

   d. Calcidiol

31. A pregnant woman presents in the emergency room with hyperemesis gravidarum. It is

   determined that she has metabolic alkalosis. The lungs will respond to this condition by:

   a. Synthesizing additional arachidonic acid

   b. Exchanging sodium ions for hydrogen ions

   c. Hyperventilating to excrete more CO2

   d. Slowing respirations to retain more CO2

32. Select the best lunch menu for a patient taking lasix (furosemide)
   a. Ham sandwich, pretzels, apple slices, and lemonade

   b. Chicken noodle soup, soda crackers, blueberries, and cola

   c. Baked potato topped with cheese and bacon, cantaloupe, and milkshake

   d. Hamburger, onion rings, purple grapes, and iced tea

33. A 60-kg female intensive care patient requires ventilator support and total parenteral

   nutrition support. Calculate the glucose utilization rate of the following nutrition

   support regimen: TPN (35% dextrose, 3.5% aminosyn) at 125 cc/hour.

   a. 72.9 mg/kg/min

   b. 12.1 mg/kg/min

   c. 10.01 mg/kg/min

   d. 0.2 mg/kg/min

34. An elderly patient is suspected of having cobalamin deficiency. What would you expect

   to see when reviewing her lab results?

   a. Low hemoglobin, high MCV, normal or slightly low MCHC

   b. Normal hemoglobin, high MCV, low MCHC

   c. Low hemoglobin, low MCV, low MCHC

   d. Normal hematocrit, normal MCV, high MCHC

35. A patient with COPD is hospitalized with acute respiratory failure and is on a ventilator.

   The optimal route of nutrition support is:

   a. TPN, to prevent pulmonary aspiration of feeding tube formula

   b. Continuous-drip tube feeding via a nasoduodenal tube

   c. Continuous-drip feeding via a PEG
   d. Bolus tube feeding via a nasoduodenal tube

36. The recommended range for the glucose utilization rate of a parenteral solution is:

   a. 2-6 mg/kg/min

   b. 6-8 mg/kg/min

   c. 8-10 mg/kg/min

   d. 4-6 mg/kg/min

37. Using the Mifflin-St. Jeor equation, calculate the REE for the following outpatient: Ht:

   5’10”, Wt: 185 lbs, Age: 67, Sex: Male

   a. 1616 kcal

   b. 1621 kcal

   c. 2281 kcal

   d. 2000 kcal

38. A critical care patient is placed on an elemental formula. A nasogastric tube is placed

   and the tube feeding is initiated at one-half strength at 35 cc/hour. The product has 1.0

   kcal/cc and 0.045 grams protein/cc. How many kcal and grams protein are provided

   per24 hours?

   a. 840 kcal and 19 grams protein

   b. 420 kcal and 19 grams protein

   c. 840 kcal and 38 grams protein

   d. 420 kcal and 38 grams protein

39. A 48 year old male has a history of CHD. He has been advised to follow a Step 1 diet. A

   review of his diet shows: 200 kcal, 4 grams sodium, 265 mg cholesterol, 60 grams total
         fat, 25 grams MUFA, 25 grams SFA, and 10 grams PUFA. Which part of his diet is not

         meeting the Step 1 guidelines?

         a. Total fat

         b. SFA

         c. Cholesterol

         d. MUFA

      40. What feeding method would you recommend for a patient who had a previously good

         diet history who had undergone extensive bowel surgery and has an ileus and fever

         eight days postoperatively?

         a. Full liquids

         b. Half strength tube feeding

         c. Peripheral IV infusion

         d. TPN


      1. POMR is an acronym for:

          a. Planning Objective Medical Record

          b. Problem Objective Medical Record

          c. Problem Oriented Medical Record

          d. Purpose Oriented Medical Record
2. A quantitative measure that can be used as a guide to monitor and evaluate the quality

   of patient care is the definition of:

   a. Quality improvement

   b. Clinical indicator

   c. Quantity control

   d. Threshold

3. Based on the Nutrition Care Process and Model, nutrition counseling:

   a. Is provided when there has been no previous exposure to the nutrition information


   b. Is a formal process to instruct or train a patient in a skill or to impart knowledge to

       help the patient manage or modify food choices

   c. Is characterized by a collaborative counselor-patient relationship to create an

       individualized action plan that fosters responsibility for self-care to treat an existing

       condition and promote health

   d. Involves the transfer of knowledge tailored to the specific knowledge deficit

       identified in the PES statement

4. According to Bloom’s taxonomy, what type of learning is involved when a client

   demonstrates how to cook a meal unassisted?

   a. Affective

   b. Cognitive

   c. Psychomotor

   d. Physical
5. A study is done to determine how the use of different types of fat in a pie crust will

   affect the crust’s flakiness. The dependent variable is:

   a. Length of baking time

   b. Oven temperature

   c. Flakiness of the crust

   d. Type of fat used

6. An example of ordinal data is:

   a. Test scores

   b. Fahrenheit degrees

   c. Gender

   d. Marital status

7. The following are programs of the DHHS that address childcare issues:

   a. Community Health Center programs

   b. WIC

   c. Medicare

   d. EPSDT

8. In a normal distribution, what proportion of data lies either one standard deviation

   above or below the mean?

   a. 99.7%

   b. 95%

   c. 68%

   d. 34%
     9. Skills in the psychomotor domain are best learned by using which educational method?

         a. Small group discussion

         b. Demonstration with return demonstration

         c. Demonstration

         d. Computer assisted

     10. Theory Z is based on the following premise:

         a. Self-direction and control are natural qualities in humans

         b. Workers accept responsibility when they understand the big picture

         c. Task, structure, and authority motivate people to increase productivity

         d. Mutual worker-employee loyalty will provide a healthful work environment


     1. A class C fire includes:

        a. Wood, paper, cloth

        b. Grease, liquid shortening, flammable liquids

        c. Electrical equipment, motors, switches

        d. Chemicals

     2. In the kitchen, hot food in steam-table pans is placed into insulated carriers and cold

        foods are placed in coolers and transported by cart to galleys on nursing units. What

        type of meal assembly is being used?
   a. Assembly serve

   b. Decentralized

   c. Centralized

   d. Ready prepared

3. A seven-day-a-week foodservice operation schedules 2 FT cooks, 4 FT salad/dessert

   preps, 20 hours in the dishroom, and 6 hours clerical support daily. How many FTE’s are


   a. 7

   b. 6.4

   c. 12.95

   d. 9

4. Lack of proper handwashing is commonly associated with:

   a. Botulism

   b. Campylobacter

   c. E. coli

   d. Shigella

5. The production system that requires the least amount of labor is:

   a. Readily prepared

   b. Commissary

   c. Conventional

   d. Assembly serve
6. The cook needs moist heat to prepare tonight’s entrée. Which piece of equipment

   would he choose?

   a. Convection oven

   b. Steam jacketed kettle

   c. Broiler

   d. Pressure-less convection steamer

7. Historical data tells you that when chicken and roast beef are on the menu together,

   65% will order chicken and 35% will order roast beef. How many portions need to be

   prepared for 425 people?

   a. 276 chicken, 149 beef

   b. 149 chicken, 276 beef

   c. 280 chicken, 160 beef

   d. 225 chicken, 200 beef

8. The high school has a very small kitchen. Which menu would be the most taxing for


   a. Baked chicken, mashed potatoes, green beans

   b. Meatloaf, baked potato, mixed vegetables

   c. Beef stew, biscuits

   d. Grilled cheese, tomato soup

9. If a physical inventory is not taken on a monthly basis, how can food costs be calculated

   for the operational budget statement, which is reviewed monthly?

   a. Assume food cost was the same as last month
   b. Total all invoices for the month

   c. Calculate the cost of direct issues and requisitioned supplies for the month

   d. It is not possible to determine food cost without a physical inventory

10. Sneeze guards are placed on salad bars to protect the food from which of the following?

   a. Campylobacter jejuni

   b. Escherichia coli

   c. Salmonella

   d. Staphylococcus aureus

11. Refrigerated ready-to-eat foods are a potential source of:

   a. Yersinia

   b. Listeria

   c. Staphylococcus

   d. Salmonella

12. What agency would publish a report comparing the incidence of foodborne illnesses in

   restaurants and homes?

   a. CDC

   b. FDA

   c. USDA

   d. NRS

13. The Food Additives Amendment requires all of the following except:

   a. Manufacturers to test additives for safety

   b. GRAS listed additives to be used without testing
   c. FDA to provide chronic tests

   d. FDA approval before use in food products

14. A recipe calls for 22 pounds, 11 ounces of sliced carrots. If fresh carrots have a 12% loss,

   how many pounds of fresh carrots are needed to prepare the recipe?

   a. 26 pounds

   b. 25 pounds, 13 ounces

   c. 25 pounds, 8 ounces

   d. 25 pounds

15. A simple inventory costing practice that is also fast is the:

   a. LIFO

   b. Weighted average

   c. Actual purchase price

   d. Latest purchase price

16. Food service personnel are becoming concerned about an intoxication that can result in

   diarrhea or vomiting. It is found in foods considered to be safe, such as dry food mixes,

   spices, rice, etc. Contamination occurs from the soil in most cases. This is:

   a. Listeria

   b. Bacillus cereus

   c. Shigella

   d. E. coli

17. Many food producers have their own brand names and define their own quality. To

   ensure the desired quality is purchased, you should:
       a. Set up a can cutting

       b. Buy only “fancy” grades

       c. Write specification on all food products

       d. Purchase different brands and determine the one that most meets your standards


    1. If there are 87 covers with $372.40 total sales, what is the guest check average?

       a. $3.75

       b. $3.92

       c. $4.17

       d. $4.28

    2. The manager is looking at staffing issues. Which would he be least concerned with?

       a. Number of labor hours in the budget

       b. Number of personnel

       c. Employees’ days off

       d. Skill of personnel

    3. A manager that has a straight-line cafeteria is needing to provide quicker service. He

       should consider:

       a. Increasing the number of sandwich choices

       b. Adding a cashier

       c. A scramble system

       d. Self-service beverages
4. What is the cost of goods sold if a meal equivalent is 4.27 and 30957 meq were served?

   a. $132186.39

   b. $132876.39

   c. 7249.88

   d. 7250.00

5. Span of control can be increased without losing effectiveness by all of the following


   a. Having clearly defined policies

   b. Work simplification principles decreasing the complexity of the job

   c. Having a well-trained staff

   d. Trusting the staff more

6. What is the food cost of a hamburger if FC% is 23 and the selling price is $2.39?

   a. $10.39

   b. $0.55

   c. $1.18

   d. 0.65

7. The contingency approach to leadership states:

   a. Leadership style must change to fit the situation

   b. A good leader must always have more than one plan

   c. Leadership must plan for the unexpected

   d. Employees will feel secure if there is consistency in leadership style

8. Theory Y of management is reflected in which term?
   a. Task management

   b. Autocratic

   c. Authorization

   d. Democratic

9. Due to budget cutbacks, major changes are needed in the services currently provided by

   the clinical staff that you manage. To determine which changes should be made, you:

   a. Discuss the options with your boss and let her decide

   b. Analyze the data available to you and make the least painful decisions

   c. Cut services that are under utilized

   d. Form a group representing all impacted areas (nursing, out-patient clinics, etc) and

       allow them to come to a joint decision

10. Thorough background checks:

   a. Are required by law

   b. Must be in writing

   c. Can reduce turnover rate, corporate crime, and theft

   d. Are recommended, but not required

11. You have been instructed by the hospital administrator to manage the cafeteria as a

   break-even operation. Administration will no longer subsidize the budget. You should:

   a. Increase prices to reflect the new philosophy

   b. Consider branding

   c. Develop a market for HMR

   d. Consider branding and HMR
12. Your hospital has recently become involved in a cooperative program between local

   businesses and the public schools to reduce the drop-out rate. As the Production

   Manager, you have been told to provide hands-on training for three at-risk students.

   The students are 16 or 17 years old. You:

   a. Schedule them for new employee training and orientation

   b. Contact HR and review the FLSA for restrictions that may apply due to their ages

   c. Allow the students to observe employees

   d. Inform upper management that your department can not participate in this project

       because of child labor laws not allowing children to operate hazardous equipment

13. The four management functions are:

   a. Planning, marketing, promoting, analyzing

   b. Planning organizing, leading, controlling

   c. Promotion, plan, price, place

   d. Promoting, analyzing, planning, controlling

14. A business pays 4% of its income for rent ($1,200), 70% towards labor and food costs,

   and $2,500 towards other expenses monthly. How much profit does the business make

   in a month?

   a. $7,200

   b. $5,300

   c. $4,200

   d. $6,000

15. Span of control refers to the number of:
   a. Part-time employees

   b. Employees under the direction of one individual

   c. Supervisors on duty at one time

   d. Staff positions with flexible work hours

16. The process of attempting to locate and encourage potential applicants to apply for job

   openings is called:

   a. Recruiting

   b. Headhunting

   c. Advertising

   d. Drafting

17. You manage the foodservice department at an LTC facility with a stable census of 350.

   You notice that over the past few weeks there has been an increase in overtime paid.

   Which is not a possible cause?

   a. Supervisors not planning properly

   b. The schedule was written wrong

   c. Employees are creating the overtime to get extra money

   d. Realistic work schedules

18. Which of the following methods of buying is characterized by contacting various

   vendors to obtain price quotes and placing orders?

   a. Contract

   b. Formal

   c. Informal
   d. Prime vendor

19. An employee consistently calls in sick the day before a scheduled weekend off. The

   supervising dietitian should first:

   a. Complain to other staff members

   b. Call the employee to verify the illness

   c. Schedule a counseling session with the employee

   d. File a letter of understanding with the HR department

20. Based on an 8 hour day, the number of hours worked in a hospital foodservice

   department was 55,267/year, and the total number of hours paid was 59,995/year. The

   actual number of productive FTE’s was:

   a. 2.27

   b. 18.90

   c. 26.60

   d. 28.80

21. Cost-effectiveness analysis is used to:

   a. Compare two or more alternatives to achieve the same objective

   b. Evaluate direct, indirect, intangible, and anticipated costs

   c. Place a dollar amount on the outcomes of the procedure

   d. Calculate a profit margin
             Answer Sheet


     1. D

     2. B

     3. C

     4. C

     5. B

     6. A

     7. A

     8. A

     9. A

     10. D

     11. C

     12. A


     1. C

     2. B

     3. D

     4. D

     5. B

     6. B
7. B

8. A

9. A

10. C

11. A

12. D

13. B

14. C

15. B

16. A

17. B

18. C

19. C

20. C

21. C

22. A

23. A

24. B

25. C

26. C

27. A

28. C
      29. D

      30. A

      31. D

      32. C

      33. B

      34. A

      35. B

      36. D

      37. B

      38. B

      39. B

      40. C


      1. C

      2. B

      3. C

      4. C

      5. C

      6. A

      7. D

      8. D
     9. B

     10. B


     1. C

     2. B

     3. C

     4. D

     5. D

     6. D

     7. A

     8. B

     9. C

     10. D

     11. B

     12. B

     13. C

     14. B

     15. D

     16. B

     17. A

1. D

2. C

3. C

4. A

5. D

6. B

7. A

8. D

9. D

10. C

11. D

12. B

13. B

14. B

15. B

16. A

17. D

18. C

19. C

20. C

21. A

To top