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CHAPTER SEVEN Umbilical Cord

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CHAPTER SEVEN Umbilical Cord Powered By Docstoc
					6            Development Across the Lifespan

Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level

Type
A=Applied
C=Conceptual
F=Factual
Level
(1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult

LO=Learning Objective
SG=Used in Study Guide
p=page

MULTIPLE CHOICE
Issues in Studying Human Development

Learning Objectives- 7.1 What are some of the special research methods used to study development?

1. The scientific study of the changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called_________.
         a) abnormal psychology
         b) gerontology
Incorrect. Gerontology emphasizes only older adulthood.
         c) human development
Correct. Human development is the term used to refer to the changes that occur in people as they age from
conception to death.
         d) maturational studies
ANS: c, p. 250, F, LO=7.1, (1)

2. A psychologist spends her entire career studying how and why changes occur in people throughout their lives.
This psychologist is most likely working in the field of___________.
         a) abnormal psychology
         b) gerontology
Incorrect. Gerontology emphasizes only the changes that occur in older adulthood.
         c) human development
Correct. Human development studies focus on the changes that occur throughout people’s lives, from conception to
death.
         d) maturational studies
ANS: c, p. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2)




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3. In a __________design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages.
        a) cohort
        b) longitudinal
Correct. In a longitudinal design one group of participants is followed and assessed as the participants age.
        c) behavior genetics
        d) cross-sectional
Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time.
ANS: b, p. 250, F, LO=7.1, (1)

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the longitudinal design?
         a) Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another.
Incorrect. The individuals studied in a longitudinal design are all the same age.
         b) It is relatively inexpensive.
         c) It takes a shorter amount of time than a cross-sectional design.
         d) Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death.
Correct. In this design there is a risk of losing participants due to many factors.
ANS: d, p. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2)

5. Professor Sanchez is interested in studying development of motor skills. She collects data from 200 one-year-olds
and follows and assesses them for a period of five years. What type of research design is Professor Sanchez using?
        a) cohort design
        b) longitudinal design
Correct. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or a group of participants is followed and assessed as
the person or group ages.
        c) behavior genetics design
        d) cross-sectional design
Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time.
ANS: b, p. 250, A, LO=7.1, (3)

6. A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by
definition, using the ______ method.
        a) cohort design
        b) longitudinal design
Incorrect. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or group of participants is followed and assessed
as the person or group ages.
        c) behavior genetics design
        d) cross-sectional design
Correct. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time.
ANS: d, p. 250, F, LO=7.1, (1) SG

7. Which of the following is a main disadvantage of the cross-sectional design?
         a) Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another.
Correct. In a cross-sectional design, individuals of different ages are being compared.
         b) It is relatively expensive.
         c) It takes a longer amount of time than a longitudinal study.
         d) Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death.
Incorrect. The loss of participants over time is a disadvantage of longitudinal design.
ANS: a, p. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2)




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8. Professor Grant is interested in studying the development of a sense of humor. She collects data from groups of 6-
year-olds, 16-year-olds, 26-year-olds, and 46-year-olds. What type of research design is Professor Grant using?
        a) cohort design
        b) longitudinal design
Incorrect. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or group of participants is followed and assessed as
the person or group ages.
        c) behavior genetics design
        d) cross-sectional design
Correct. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time.
ANS: d, p. 250, A, LO=7.1, (2)

9. Unlike other types of research, a cross-sequential design allows researchers to_________.
         a) combine longitudinal and cross-sectional research strategies.
Correct. A cross-sequential design combines the ease of a cross-sectional design with a shorter longitudinal design.
         b) look for gender differences.
         c) reduce experimenter bias.
         d) only includes cross-sectional strategies within the design.
Incorrect. A cross-sequential design also includes longitudinal strategies.
ANS: a, p. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2)

10. Professor Rashad is interested in studying cognitive development. He collects and compares data from a group
of 6-year-olds and a group of 10-year-olds. Five years later, he compares these two groups to each other again as
well as to their own performance in the study five years ago. What type of research design is Professor Grant using?
        a) cross-sequential design
Correct. A cross-sequential design studies participants by means of a cross-sectional design, using subjects of
different ages, but also follows and assesses them over time.
        b) longitudinal design
        c) behavior genetics design
        d) cross-sectional design
Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups but only during one period of time.
ANS: a, p. 250, A, LO=7.1, (2)

Learning Objective 7.2- What is the relationship between heredity and environmental factors in determining
development?

11. ________refers to heredity and __________ refers to environmental influences.
        a) Nature; nurture
Correct. Nature refers to heredity, or genetic factors, whereas nurture
refers to environmental influences.
        b) Cognition; emotion
        c) Nurture; behavioral genetics
Incorrect. Nurture refers to environmental influences and behavioral
genetics is a field that investigates the effects of genes and environmental
influences on behavior.
        d) Cross-sectional; longitudinal
ANS: a, p. 251, C, LO=7.2, (2)




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12. Dr. Smith believes people who are very aggressive have become so because of their life experiences. Dr.
Goldberg believes people are more or less aggressive from birth because of genetic factors. Which of the following
terms best describes an issue in human development that is highlighted by their disagreement?
        a) nature versus nurture
Correct. Nature refers to genetic factors and nurture refers to environmental
influences.
        b) cognition versus emotion
Incorrect. The issue highlighted emphasizes the effects of nature (genes) and
nurture (environmental factors).
        c) classical versus operant conditioning
        d) cross-sectional studies versus longitudinal studies
ANS: a, p. 251, A, LO=7.2, (3)

13. What relatively new field investigates the influence of genes and heredity on a person’s actions?
         a) psychobiology
Incorrect. Psychobiology is the study of the biological bases of behavior.
         b) neuropsychology
         c) behavioral genetics
Correct. Behavioral genetics is a field that investigates the effects of genes
and environmental influences on behavior.
         d) psychoanalysis
ANS: c, p. 251, F, LO=7.2, (1) SG

Prenatal Development

Learning Objective 7.3- How do chromosomes, genes, and DNA determine a person’s characteristics or disorders?

14. The study of heredity is called_________.
         a) human development
         b) genetics
Correct. Genetics is the study of heredity.
         c) physiology
Incorrect. Physiology is a branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and
reproduction.
         d) gerontology
ANS: b, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1)

15. Genetics is defined as ___________.
         a) the branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction, rather
         than with structures
         b) the study of heredity
Correct. Genetics is defined as the study of heredity.
         c) the study of behavior and mental processes
         d) the study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death
Incorrect. The study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death is the definition of
human development.
ANS: b, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2)




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16. Which of the following is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism?
         a) DNA
Correct. DNA is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism.
         b) gene
         c) chromosome
Incorrect. A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure containing genes that is found in the cell nucleus.
         d) amine
ANS: a, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1) SG

17. A special molecule, __________, contains the genetic material of the organism.
         a) DNA
Correct. DNA is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism.
         b) a gene
         c) a chromosome
Incorrect. A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure containing genes that is found in the cell nucleus.
         d) an amine
ANS: a, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2)

18. A(n) ______________________ is a section of DNA containing a
sequence of amines.
         a) compound
         b) gene
Correct. A gene is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines.
         c) chromosome
Incorrect. A gene is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines and is located on chromosomes.
         d) amine
ANS: b, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1)

19. Rod-shaped structures in the cell nucleus that contain genes are referred to as____________.
         a) DNA
Incorrect. DNA is a molecule that consists of two strands that wind around each other in a spiral that contains the
genetic material of the organism.
         b) sex-linked traits
         c) chromosomes
Correct. Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures in the cell nucleus that contain genes.
         d) amines
ANS: c, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1)

20. Humans have a total of _______chromosomes.
       a) 46
Correct. Humans have 46 chromosomes.
       b) 23
Incorrect. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but a total of 46 chromosomes.
       c) 21
       d) 22
ANS: a, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2)

21. How many pairs of chromosomes are in each cell of the human body?
       a) 46
Incorrect. Humans have 46 total chromosomes in each cell, but 23 pairs of chromosomes.
       b) 23
Correct. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
       c) 21
       d) 22
ANS: b, p. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2)



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22. A gene that actively controls the expression of a trait is called a ______ gene.                           a)
recessive
Incorrect. A recessive gene influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical or less active gene
whereas a dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait.
         b) mutated
         c) recombinant
         d) dominant
Correct. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait.
ANS: d, p. 253, F, LO=7.3, (1)

23. Which of the following is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait?
         a) recessive
Incorrect. A recessive gene influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical or less active gene
whereas a dominant gene actively controls the appearance of a certain trait.
         b) mutated
         c) recombinant
         d) dominant
Correct. A dominant gene is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait.
ANS: d, p. 253, C, LO=7.3, (1)

24. A trait controlled by a dominant gene ________.
         a) will be expressed even when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different
Correct. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait even if the other half of the pair is different.
         b) will be expressed only if it is paired with two recessive genes
         c) will not be expressed if it is paired with another dominant gene
         d) will not be expressed when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different
Incorrect. Traits controlled by dominant genes will be expressed even when the corresponding gene in the other half
of the pair is different.
ANS: a, p. 253, C, LO=7.3, (2)

25. A gene that only influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical gene is called___________.
         a) recessive
Correct. A recessive gene only influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical gene.
         b) mutated
         c) recombinant
         d) dominant
Incorrect. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait even when not paired with another identical
gene.
ANS: a, p. 253, F, LO=7.3, (2)

26. Silvia has blond hair, even though her mother and father each have brown hair. What do we know about Sylvia’s
parents?
         a) At least one of her parents has a recessive gene for blond hair.
         b) Each of her parents must have one recessive gene for blond hair color.
Correct. The gene for blond hair is recessive; therefore, both parents must have that gene in order for Silvia to have
blond hair.
         c) Each of her parents must have one dominant gene for blond hair.
Incorrect. The gene for blond hair is recessive; therefore, both parents must have that gene in order for Silvia to
have blond hair.
         d) Neither of her parents has a gene for blond hair.
ANS: b, p. 253, A, LO=7.3, (3)




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27. In ________ syndrome, the 21st pair of chromosomes contains an
extra chromosome resulting in symptoms such as wide-set almond-shaped
eyes and mental retardation.
         a) PKU
         b) Down’s
Correct. Down’s syndrome occurs as a result of an extra chromosome on the 21 st pair.
         c) Klinefelter’s
Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs as a result of an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair.
         d) Turner’s
ANS: b, p. 254, F, LO=7.3, (1)

28. What is the cause of Down’s syndrome?
       a) an extra chromosome on the 21st pair
Correct. Down’s syndrome occurs as a result of an extra chromosome on the 21 st pair.
       b) an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair
Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs as a result of an extra X
chromosome on the 23rd pair.
       c) neurotransmitter excesses
       d) neurotransmitter deficiencies
ANS: a, p. 254, F, LO=7.3, (2)

29. Steve was born a male with an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair. As result he has reduced masculine
characteristics, enlarged breasts, and is obese and excessively tall. Which disorder is likely to be diagnosed?
         a) PKU
         b) Down
         c) Klinefelter’s
Correct. Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair and occurs in males.
         d) Turner’s
Incorrect. Turner’s syndrome occurs only in females.
ANS: c, p. 254, C, LO=7.3, (3)

30. In _________ syndrome the 23rd pair of chromosomes is missing an X, resulting in short, infertile females.
         a) PKU
         b) Down
         c) Klinefelter’s
Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs only in males.
         d) Turner’s
Correct. Turner’s syndrome produces short, infertile females.
ANS: d, p. 254, F, LO=7.3, (1)

31. Sheila was born a female with only one X chromosome on the 23rd pair. As a result she is infertile, has difficulty
learning, and did not develop breast tissue and rounded hips as her female peers. Which disorder is likely to be
diagnosed?
         a) PKU
         b) Down
         c) Klinefelter’s
Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs only in males.
         d) Turner’s
Correct. Turner’s syndrome produces the characteristics described and occurs in females.
ANS: d, p. 254, C, LO=7.3, (3)




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32. Ryan has cystic fibrosis. This means that his mother is a carrier for the cystic fibrosis gene, while his father
____________.
         a) is also a carrier
Correct. Because cystic fibrosis is a disease carried by recessive genes, a person can get it only if he or she receives
the gene from both parents.
         b) is not a carrier
Incorrect. Because cystic fibrosis is a disease carried by recessive genes, a person can get it only if he or she
receives the gene from both parents.
         c) does not have a cystic fibrosis gene
         d) has two cystic fibrosis genes
ANS: a, p. 254, A, LO=7.3, (3)

33. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited when ____________.
         a) a child inherits two recessive genes, one from each parent
Correct. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited from two recessive genes.
         b) a child inherits two dominant genes, one from each parent
         c) a child inherits a dominant gene from one parent and a recessive gene from the other parent
Incorrect. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited from two recessive genes.
         d) when the child doesn’t inherit any genes from one parent
ANS: a, p. 254, F, LO=7.3, (2)

Learning Objective 7.4- How do twins develop during pregnancy?

34. At fertilization, the chromosomes from the father’s sperm unite with the chromosomes from the mother’s egg,
creating a new cell called ______.
         a) an embryo
Incorrect. An embryo is the name for the developing organism from 2 weeks to 8 weeks after fertilization.
         b) a zygote
Correct. A fertilized egg is called a zygote.
         c) a genome
         d) blastocyst
ANS: b, p. 255, F, LO=7.4, (2)

35. Ovum is a term used to describe__________.
         a) the female sex cell or egg
Correct. Ovum is another term for the female sex cell or egg.
         b) male sex cell
Incorrect. Sperm are male sex cells; ovum is the female sex cell.
         c) the developing organism from conception to the end of the second week after fertilization
         d) the developing organism from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization
ANS: a, p. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1)

36. The union of the ovum and sperm is called________
         a) fertilization
Correct. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite.
         b) the fetal period
         c) a zygote
Incorrect. The zygote is the result of the union of the ovum and sperm.
         d) an embryo
ANS: a, p. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1)




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37. In the process of fertilization the ________ and _________ unite, resulting in a single cell.
          a) sperm; ovum
Correct. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite.
          b) zygote; sperm
Incorrect. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite; the zygote is the result of this union.
          c) embryo; zygote
          d) ovum; fetus
ANS: a, p. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1)

38. Monozygotic twins ______________.
         a) are genetically identical
Correct. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical.
         b) are genetically different
Incorrect. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical; dizygotic twins are genetically different.
         c) will be of different sexes
         d) are more likely to occur when a woman is taking fertility drugs
ANS: a, p. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2) SG

39. Ashley and Mary-Kate are twins who are genetically identical. What type of twins are they?
         a) monozygotic twins
Correct. Monozygotic twins are identical.
         b) fraternal twins
         c) dizygotic twins
Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs, which means they are genetically different.
         d) wombmates
ANS: a, p. 255, A, LO=7.4, (3)

40. Which of the following describes the way in which monozygotic twins occur?
         a) The mother’s body releases multiple eggs, two or more of which are fertilized.
Incorrect. Multiple fertilized eggs result in dizygotic twins.
         b) The mother’s body releases one egg, conceives, and then releases another egg in a later ovulation cycle.
         c) The egg is fertilized by a single sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes.
Correct. When an egg is fertilized by a sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes, the result is
monozygotic twins.
         d) The mother uses fertility drugs.
ANS: c, p. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2)

41.                          develop when two eggs each get fertilized by two
different sperm, resulting in two zygotes in the uterus at the same time.
          a) Monozygotic twins
Incorrect. Monozygotic twins develop when an egg is fertilized by a sperm and then splits completely into two
separate zygotes.
          b) Fraternal twins
          c) Dizygotic twins
Correct. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs by two different sperm.
          d) Wombmates
ANS: c, p. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1)




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42. Fraternal twins are ______ similar genetically than are other brothers and sisters.
          a) much more
Incorrect. Fraternal twins are genetically no more similar than are any other two siblings, since they develop from
different eggs and different sperm.
          b) no more
Correct. Fraternal twins develop from different eggs and different spers, just like any other set of siblings.

        c) slightly more
        d) much less
ANS: b, p. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2)

43. Mary and Juan are twins who developed from two separate fertilized ova that were fertilized by two different
sperm. What type of twins are they?
         a) monozygotic twins
Incorrect. Monozygotic twins result from one ovum fertilized by one sperm that splits in two.
         b) maternal twins
         c) dizygotic twins
Correct. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs.
         d) wombmates
ANS: c, p. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2)

44. Conjoined twins are _________.
         a) monozygotic twins
Correct. Conjoined twins are monozygotic and are the result of one fertilized egg that did not completely separate
before developing into two embryos.
         b) fraternal twins
         c) dizygotic twins
Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs and cannot become conjoined.
         d) nonidentical twins
ANS: a, p. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1)

Learning Objective 7.5- How do conjoined twins adjust to being connected to each other?

45. Abby and Britty Hensel ________.
         a) share one body from the waist down
Correct. Abby and Britty Hensel share one body from the waist down.
         b) share one upper body
Incorrect. Abby and Britty Hensel share one body from the waist down.
         c) share a heart
         d) share a stomach
ANS: a, p. 256, F, LO=7.5, (1)

46. Britty and Abby Hensel are ___________.
          a) nonidentical twins
          b) dizygotic twins
Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs; Britty and Abby Hensel are the result of one fertilized
egg.
          c) fraternal twins
          d) conjoined twins
Correct. They have two separate heads but share one body.
ANS: d, p. 18–20, C, LO=7.5, (2) SG




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Learning Objective 7.6- What happens during the germinal, embryonic, and fetal periods of pregnancy and what are
some hazards in prenatal development?

47. The germinal period ________.
         a) occurs during the first two weeks after fertilization
Correct. The first two weeks of pregnancy are called the germinal period.
         b) occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization
Incorrect. The embryonic period occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization.
         c) occurs from approximately 8 weeks after fertilization to birth
         d) occurs from 7 to 10 weeks after fertilization
ANS: a, p. 256, F, LO=7.6, (1)

48. Marisa is at a point in her pregnancy when the zygote is moving down her uterus, and the placenta and umbilical
cord are beginning to form. Which period of prenatal development is Marisa currently experiencing?
         a) fetal
         b) embryonic
Incorrect. During the embryonic period, the organism is called an embryo, not a zygote.
         c) placental
         d) germinal
Correct. During the germinal period, the organism is called a zygote, and the placenta and umbilical cord begin to
form.
ANS: d, p. 256, C, LO=7.6, (2)

49. The placenta is ______.                                                                                 a) the
tube through which a developing baby receives nourishment
Incorrect. The placenta is not a tube; the umbilical cord, which connects the developing baby to the placenta, is a
tube.
         b) the technical name for the “belly button”
         c) a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby
Correct. The placenta is a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the
developing baby.
         d) the name for the developing organism until it is 8 weeks old
ANS c, p. 256, F, LO=7.6, (2)

50. The specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby is
called the _________.
         a) placenta
Correct. The placenta is a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the
developing baby.
         b) uterus
         c) umbilical cord
Incorrect. The umbilical cord is a tube that connects the developing baby to the placenta.
         d) embryo
ANS: a, p. 256, F, LO=7.6, (1)

51. Which of the following describes the embryonic period?
         a) the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining
Incorrect. The zygote begins to implant in the uterine lining during the germinal period.
         b) the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop
Correct. It is during the embryonic period that major organs and structures develop.
         c) the period during which the umbilical cord develops
         d) the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become
         functional
ANS: b, p. 257, C, LO=7.6, (2)




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52. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which the major organs and structures of her baby are first
developing. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing?
         a) fetal
Incorrect. The fetal period occurs after the organs have first developed and is the time during which they continue to
develop and become functional.
         b) embryonic
Correct. During the embryonic period major organs and structures first develop.
         c) placental
         d) germinal
ANS: b, p. 257, C, LO=7.6, (2)

53. Emily and her husband are thrilled as they peer into Emily’s uterus by means of an ultrasound. The physician
reports that the pregnancy appears normal, and that their baby’s fingers, toes, heart, and circulatory system are
developing as expected. The couple learns that the baby is only ¾ of an inch long. Given this information, the
current stage of prenatal development is the_________.
          a) embryonic period
Correct. It is during the embryonic period that major organs and structures first develop.
          b) germinal period
          c) zygotic period
          d) fetal stage
Incorrect. In the fetal stage, fingers, toes, and other major systems and organs would have already developed, and
the baby would be more than an inch long.
ANS: a, p. 257, A, LO=7.6, (3)

54. Times when certain internal and external influences have a major impact on development are called ______.
         a) fetal periods
Incorrect. Critical periods are times when internal and external influences have a major impact on development; the
most critical time is during the embryonic period.
         b) critical periods
Correct. Critical periods are times when internal and external influences have a major impact on development.
         c) germinal periods
         d) latency periods
ANS: b, p. 257–258, F, LO=7.6, (1)

55. Which of the following terms is used to describe any substance, such as a drug, chemical, or virus, that can bring
about a birth defect?
         a) teratogen
Correct. Teratogens are substances that can bring about a birth defect.
         b) critical period
         c) carcinogen
Incorrect. A carcinogen may cause birth defects, but the term does not encompass viruses and all of the other things
that can also cause birth defects.
         d) biohazard
ANS: a, p. 258, F, LO=7.6, (1)

56. Greta's child has facial deformities, a smaller than normal head, heart defects, mental retardation, learning
difficulties, and delayed growth. If these defects can be traced to a teratogen used by Greta when she was pregnant,
which was she most likely abusing?
          a) nicotine
Incorrect. The effects of nicotine do not include smaller than normal heads, facial deformities, and heart defects.
          b) cocaine
          c) marijuana
          d) alcohol
Correct. Greta’s child is exhibiting symptoms of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome.
ANS: d, p. 258, A, LO=7.6, (3)




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57. What are some of the common consequences to a child whose mother smoked while pregnant?
       a) increased birth weight and lethargy
       b) lower birth weight and short stature
Correct. Lower birth weight and short stature are common consequences of smoking during pregnancy.
       c) severe hearing loss and heart defects
Incorrect. Hearing loss and heart defects are consequences of rubella.
       d) severely deformed limbs and muscle spasms
ANS: b, p. 258, C, LO=7.6, (2) SG

58. Isabelle’s baby was born blind, deaf, and with heart defects. Most likely Isabelle was exposed to _________
during her pregnancy.
         a) rubella
Correct. Blindness, deafness, and heart defects are potential consequences of prenatal exposure to rubella.
         b) mercury
         c) syphilis
Incorrect. Exposure to syphilis does not cause blindness or heart defects.
         d) radiation
ANS: a, p. 258, C, LO=7.6, (3)

59. The prenatal period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become
functional is called the _______________ period.
         a) germinal
         b) embryonic
Incorrect. The embryonic period is the stage when various organs and structures first begin to form.
         c) fetal
Correct. The fetal period is the stage when tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and
become functional.
         d) gestational
ANS: c, p. 259, F, LO=7.6, (2) SG

60. Which of the following describes the fetal period?
         a) the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining
         b) the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop
Incorrect. The major organs and structures first develop during the embryonic period.
         c) the period during which the umbilical cord develops
         d) the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become
         functional
Correct. The fetal period is the stage when tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and
become functional.
ANS: d, p. 259, C, LO=7.6, (2)

61. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which she is experiencing muscle contractions and movement and
kicks. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing?
         a) fetal
Correct. During the fetal period, the developing baby first begins to move its muscles.
         b) embryonic
Incorrect. The embryonic period ends at 8 weeks, and muscle contraction does not occur until about the third
month.
         c) placental
         d) germinal
ANS: a, p. 259, C, LO=7.6, (2)




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62. The most likely time for a miscarriage is during the ________months.
         a) first three
Correct. The most likely time for a miscarriage is during the first three months.
         b) last three
Incorrect. The most likely time for miscarriage is during the first three months.
         c) middle three
         d) last six
ANS: a, p. 259, C, LO=7.6, (2)

63. The most likely cause for miscarriage during the first three months of pregnancy is_______.
         a) a genetic defect
Correct. A genetic defect is the most likely cause of miscarriage in the first three months of pregnancy.
         b) alcohol use
Incorrect. A miscarriage in the first three months of pregnancy is most likely caused by a genetic defect that will not
allow the embryo or fetus to survive.
         c) not taking prenatal vitamins
         d) lack of exercise
ANS: a, p. 259, C, LO=7.6, (3)

Infancy and Childhood Development

Learning Objective 7.7- What kind of physical changes take place in infancy and childhood?

64. Infant reflexes are______.
         a) innate involuntary behavior patterns
Correct. Reflexes help infants survive outside of the womb.
         b) voluntary behavior patterns
Incorrect. Reflexes are involuntary
         c) learned
         d) not used as a means for survival
ANS: a, p. 260, F, LO=7.7, (1)

65. Which sense is the most functional at birth?
         a) touch
Correct. Touch is the most functional sense at birth.
         b) taste
         c) smell
         d) vision
Incorrect. Cones, which assist us in seeing color and provide sharpness of vision, take about 6 months to fully
develop.
ANS: a, p. 261, F, LO=7.7, (3)

66. At what point during infancy can babies tell the difference between their own mother’s milk scent and another
woman’s milk scent?
         a) within a few days after birth
Correct. The sense of smell is highly developed at birth enabling babies to tell the difference between their own
mother’s milk scent and another woman’s milk scent.
         b) within a few weeks after birth
Incorrect. The sense of smell is highly developed at birth enabling babies to tell the difference between their own
mother’s milk scent and another woman’s milk scent.
         c) within a few months after birth
         d) within a year after birth
ANS: a, p. 261, F, LO=7.7, (2)




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67. By what age do infants develop a preference for salty tastes?
         a) within a few days after birth
         b) by four months
Correct. A preference for salty tastes occurs by four months and may come from exposure to the salty taste of their
mother’s skin.
         c) at birth
Incorrect. At birth infants show a preference for sweets; preference for salty tastes develops at about four months.
         d) within a year after birth
ANS: b, p. 261, F, LO=7.7, (2)

68. At birth, newborns seem most responsive to________.
         a) high pitches and low pitches
Correct. Newborns seem most responsive to high-pitched (female) voices and low-pitched (male) voices.
         b) hip hop music
         c) moderate voice pitches
Incorrect. Newborns seem most responsive to high-pitched (female) voices and low-pitched (male) voices.
         d) rock and roll music
ANS: a, p. 261, C, LO=7.7, (2)

69. Which sense is the LEAST functional at birth?
         a) touch
Incorrect. Touch is the most functional at birth.
         b) taste
         c) smell
         d) vision
Correct. Vision takes about 6 months to fully develop, whereas touch, taste, and smell are all present at birth.
ANS: d, p. 261, C, LO=7.7, (2)

70. Christa and Sal are anticipating the birth of their first baby. Before the baby arrives, they want to fix up the
nursery with new wallpaper. They seek the advice of a developmental psychologist. What is she likely to tell them?
       a) Newborns prefer to look at complex three-dimensional patterns rather than simple one-dimensional ones.
Correct. Newborns prefer to look at complex patterns.
       b) Newborns prefer to look at animals rather than people.
       c) Newborns do not see well enough to make any difference.
       d) Newborns prefer to look at simple one-dimensional patterns rather than complex ones.
Incorrect. Newborns prefer complex patterns, particularly those that are three dimensional.
ANS: a, p. 261, A, LO=7.7, (3)

71. Which of these physical skills typically develops LAST?
       a) rolling over
       b) standing alone
Incorrect. Standing alone develops before walking.
       c) walking
Correct. Walking develops after sucking, rolling over, and standing alone.
       d) sucking
ANS: d, p. 262, F, LO=7.7, (3)




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Learning Objective 7.8- What are the facts and the myths concerning infant immunizations?

72. Which of the following statements concerning vaccinations is TRUE?
          a) Children who are given an immunization can get the disease from it.
          b) There is no reason to immunize one’s own child if all of the other children in school are immunized.
Incorrect. This statement is false because if one parent is thinking this way so are others, and this type of thinking
can lead to an epidemic.
          c) The side effects of vaccines are more harmful than the effects of the diseases they prevent.
          d) Vaccines are one of the most effective ways to prevent the transmission of the diseases they treat.
Correct. This statement is true because vaccines are one of the most effective ways to prevent the transmission of
diseases.
ANS: d, p. 263, F, LO=7.8, (3)

Learning Objective 7.9- What are three ways of looking at cognitive development?

73. Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of ______.
         a) cognitive development
Correct. Piaget is known for his theory of cognitive development.
         b) perceptual development
         c) language development
Incorrect. Piaget is known for his theory of cognitive development.
         d) motor development
ANS: a, p. 264, F, LO=7.9, (1)

74. Which of the following is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
         a) preoperational; concrete operations; sensorimotor; formal operations
         b) concrete operations; sensorimotor; preoperational; formal operations
         c) sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations
Correct. The order in which Piaget’s stages occur is sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal
operations.
         d) preoperational; sensorimotor; concrete operations; formal operations
Incorrect. Sensorimotor is the stage prior to the preoperational stage.
ANS: c, p. 264, C, LO=7.9, (2)

75. In Piaget's theory, the stage of development between birth and 2 years of age, in which the individual uses senses
and motor abilities to interact with objects in the environment, is called the ______ stage.
         a) concrete operations
         b) sensorimotor
Correct. The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and age 2.
         c) preoperational
Incorrect. The preoperational stage occurs between ages 2 and 7.
         d) formal operations
ANS: b, p. 264, F, LO=7.9, (2)

76. Piaget’s term for the knowledge that an object exists even when it is out of sight is ______.
         a) conservation
Incorrect. Conservation is the ability to understand that changing the appearance of an object does not change its
nature or quantity.
         b) object permanence
Correct. Understanding object permanence means understanding that an object exists even when it is out of sight.
         c) centration
         d) egocentrism
ANS: b, p. 265 F, LO=7.9, (1)




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77. Young infants cannot appreciate the carnival game in which a pea seems to disappear
from under a walnut because they have not yet developed a sense of ______.
         a) conservation
Incorrect. Conservation is a term used to describe understanding that changing the appearance of an object does
not change its nature or quantity.
         b) object permanence
Correct. Object permanence is a term used to describe understanding that an object exists even when it is out of
sight.
         c) centration
         d) egocentrism
ANS: b, p. 265, A, LO=7.9, (3)

78. Your little sister picks up objects, feels every part of them, and then puts them in her mouth. What stage of Jean
Piaget’s model of cognitive development does this behavior suggest she is in?
         a) concrete operations
         b) sensorimotor
Correct. During this stage infants interact deliberately with objects by chewing, grasping, and tasting them.
         c) preoperational
Incorrect. During the preoperational stage children no longer have to rely only on senses and motor skills. It is
during the sensorimotor stage when they chew, grasp, and taste objects.
         d) formal operations
ANS: b, p. 264, A, LO=7.9, (3) SG

79. According to Piaget, _________________________ represents the beginning of the child’s language
development and symbolic thought.
         a) egocentric thinking
Incorrect. Egocentrism is the inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes; it is not related to language.
         b) accommodation
         c) object permanence
Correct. To understand object permanence a child has knowledge that an object exists even when it is not in sight
and that one object can stand in for another. Words are symbols that stand in for things that may not be present.
         d) assimilation
ANS: c, p. 265, F, LO=7.9, (3)

80. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between 2 and 7 years of age, in which the child learns
to use language as a means of exploring the world, is the ______ stage.
          a) concrete operations
          b) sensorimotor
Incorrect. The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and age 2.
          c) preoperational
Correct. Preoperational is the name Piaget gave to the stage children are in from 2 to 7 years of age.
          d) formal operations
ANS: c, p. 265, F, LO=7.9, (1)

81. Which of the following is a limitation on the cognitive life of children in Piaget’s preoperational stage?
         a) abstract concepts
         b) object permanence
         c) hypothetical thinking
Incorrect. Hypothetical thinking is a capability of people in the formal operations stage.
         d) centration
Correct. Centration, or focusing on only one feature of something rather than taking all of its features into
consideration, is a limitation of the preoperational child.
ANS: d, p. 265, F, LO=7.9, (2)




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82. Your little brother has a big ball of clay. While he watches, you roll the ball of clay into a long snake-like shape.
He begins to cry because he thinks he has less clay now. Which of Piaget’s stages is your brother likely to be in?
       a) sensorimotor
       b) preoperational
Correct. Your little brother shows lack of conservation, or the ability to understand that altering the appearance of
something does not change its quantity; this lack of understanding is characteristic of preoperational children.
       c) formal operational
       d) concrete operational
Incorrect. By the time children are in the concrete operational stage, they have developed conservation.
ANS: b, p. 266, A, LO=7.9, (3)

83. What term is used to describe a child’s inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes except his or her
own?
       a) disparity
       b) narcissism
Incorrect. Narcissism is a term used to describe a type of adult personality characterized by excessive self-
admiration and centeredness.
       c) egocentrism
Correct. Egocentrism is the term used to describe a child’s inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes
except his or her own.
       d) autonomy
ANS: c, p. 265, F, LO=7.9, (1)

84. In Piaget’s theory, the stage of cognitive development between 7 and 11 years of age, in which an individual
becomes capable of logical thought processes but is not yet capable of abstract thinking, is the ______ stage.
         a) concrete operations
Correct. The concrete operational stage occurs between ages 7 and 11.
         b) sensorimotor
         c) preoperational
Incorrect. The preoperational stage occurs between ages 2 and 7.
         d) formal operations
ANS: c, p. 266, F, LO=7.9, (1)

85. In which of Piaget’s stages does the child develop conservation?
         a) sensorimotor
         b) preoperational
Incorrect. During the preoperational stage, children lack conservation.
         c) formal operational
         d) concrete operational
Correct. The child develops conservation during the concrete operational stage.
ANS: d, p. 266, F, LO=7.9, (2)

86. According to Piaget, the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change
the object’s nature is known as ___________.
         a) object permanence
         b) conservation
Correct. Conservation is the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change
the object’s nature.
         c) centration
Incorrect. Centration is the tendency to focus on one feature while ignoring others.
         d) reversibility
ANS: b, p. 266, F, LO=7.9, (1)




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87. Which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of
theories?
        a) sensorimotor
        b) preoperational
        c) formal operational
Correct. The stage of formal operations is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of theories.
        d) concrete operational
Incorrect. Children at the concrete operational stage are unable to deal effectively with abstract concepts.
ANS: c, p. 266, F, LO=7.9, (1)

88. A characteristic that first shows up in the formal operational stage is ______.
         a) irreversibility
         b) egocentrism
         c) abstract thinking
Correct. Abstract thinking develops during the formal operational stage.
         d) logical thinking
Incorrect. Logical thinking first reveals itself in the concrete operational stage.
ANS: c, p. 266, C, LO=7.9, (2)

89. Which type of thought does not begin until the stage of formal operational thought?
         a) thinking about what is possible
Correct. Thinking about what is possible is an aspect of hypothetical thinking, which occurs in the formal
operational stage.
         b) thinking about what is logical
Incorrect. Logical thought occurs in the concrete operational stage..
         c) thinking about whether an object exists when it is out of sight
         d) thinking about only one feature of an object rather than taking all features into consideration
ANS: a, p. 266–267, C, LO=7.9, (3)

90. Whereas Piaget saw cognitive development as a result of individual discovery and a child’s interaction with
objects, Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to________.
         a) biological changes in the brain
         b) unconscious factors
         c) completing activities in isolation
Incorrect. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurred as a result of social interactions between a child
and skilled people.
         d) interaction between a child and skilled people
Correct. Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to interaction between a child and skilled people.
ANS: d, p. 267, C, LO=7.9, (3)

91. According to Vygotsky, which of these is a key factor in a child’s cognitive development?
       a) balanced diet
       b) social interactions
Correct. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurred as a result of social interactions.
       c) genetic endowment
       d) successful resolution of psychosocial crises
Incorrect. Psychosocial crises refer to the theories of psychosocial development, not to Vygotsky’s theories.
ANS: b, p. 267, C, LO=7.9, (3)




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92. Which of the following illustrates Vygotsky’s concept of scaffolding?
        a) Several children work together to overcome an obstacle they could not conquer individually.
Incorrect. Scaffolding emphasizes one-on-one learning.
        b) A teacher works one-on-one with a student and then begins to withdraw help as the student becomes more
        skilled.
Correct. Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to interactions between a child and skilled people.
        c) Learning in one area, such as language, tends to reinforce learning that occurs in other areas, such as
        mathematics.
        d) Physical interaction with the environment is a key to learning, so teachers require students to run and play
a great deal.
ANS: b, p. 267, A, LO=7.9, (3)

93. Which of the following is the term that refers to the difference between what a child can do alone and what that
         child can do with the help of a teacher?
         a) scaffolding
Incorrect. Scaffolding occurs when a more skilled person helps a less skilled learner.
         b) conservation
         c) hypothetical thinking.
         d) zone of proximal development
Correct. The zone of proximal development is a term used to refer to the
difference between what a child can do alone and what that child can do
with the help of a teacher.
ANS: d, p. 267, F, LO=7.9, (2)

94. A theory that looks at the way people deal with the information that comes in through the senses is
called__________.
         a) information-processing theory
Correct. Information-processing theory looks at the way in which people deal with information that comes in
through the senses.
         b) sensorimotor intelligence
         c) habituation
         d) metamemory
Incorrect. Metamemory is one’s knowledge about the workings of memory; information-processing theory looks at
the way in which people deal with information.
ANS: a, p. 268, F, LO=7.9, (1) SG

95. When one stops responding to a stimulus that is repeated and unchanging this is referred to as___________.
         a) habituation
Correct. Habituation occurs when one stops responding to a stimulus that is repeated and unchanging.
         b) control strategies
         c) metamemory
Incorrect. Metamemory is one’s knowledge about the workings of memory. Habituation is when one stops
responding to a stimulus that is repeated and unchanging.
         d) metacognition
ANS: a, p. 268, F, LO=7.9, (1)




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96. An infant is exposed to a light reflecting on the wall near his crib repeatedly. Although at first he is attentive,
over time he stops attending to the light and ignores it. This is an example of ___________.
         a) habituation
Correct. Since the child is no longer attentive to the light, habituation is occurring.
         b) control strategies
         c) metamemory
Incorrect. Metamemory is one’s knowledge about the workings of memory and memory strategies. In this example
the child is exhibiting habituation.
         d) metacognition
ANS: a, p. 268, A, LO=7.9, (3)

Learning Objective 7.10- How does language develop?

97. Psychologists studying language development have found that_________.
         a) at 12 months of age, babies begin to recognize their own names
         b) the process begins when babies recognize the sound structure of their native language
Incorrect. Babies first respond to pitch rather than language structure.
         c) the process begins in the first months, with crying and cooing
Correct. Language development begins during the first months of life.
         d) at 6 months of age, babies begin to respond to the pitch and sound of language
ANS: c, p. 269, C, LO=7.10, (2)

98. Infants typically begin to make vowel-like sounds at around the age of ________.
         a) 6 weeks
         b) 2 months
Correct. At 2 months infants typically make vowel-like sounds, called cooing.
         c) 6 months
Incorrect. At 6 months of age, infants have already been cooing for several months and begin adding consonant
sounds to their vowels.
         d) 7 months
ANS: b, p. 269, F, LO=7.10, (2)

99. A baby’s language that consists of repetition of consonant-vowel combinations is called ______.
         a) cooing
Incorrect. Cooing involves vowel sounds only.
         b) holophrasing
         c) telegraphic speech
         d) babbling
Correct. Babbling consists of repetition of consonant–vowel combinations.
ANS: d, p. 269, F, LO=7.10, (1)

100. By about 12 months, most infants ______.
         a) begin to use intonation in their language
         b) build a vocabulary of one-word phrases
Correct. By about 12 months most infants build a vocabulary of one-word phrases.
         c) begin to distinguish, in their language, between themselves and others
         d) begin to form two- and three-word sentences
Incorrect. Two- and three-word sentences do not typically occur until approximately age 18 months to 2 years.
ANS: b, p. 269, C, LO=7.10, (2) SG




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Learning Objective 7.11- How do infants and children develop personalities and form relationships with others?

101. Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of temperament described by Thomas and Chess?
         a) active
Correct. Thomas and Chess used the terms easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up.
         b) slow-to-warm-up
         c) difficult
         d) easy
Incorrect. Easy is a temperament type described by Thomas and Chess.
ANS: a, p. 270, F, LO=7.11, (1)

102. Shelby is very adaptable to change. She is on a regular sleeping, eating, and waking schedule. Thomas and
Chess would describe Shelby as being a(n) _________child.
         a) easy
Correct. Easy children are described as being adaptable to change and on regular schedules.
         b) difficult
         c) slow-to-warm-up
         d) undemanding
Incorrect. Thomas and Chess use the term easy to describe children on regular schedules.
ANS: a, p. 270, A, LO=7.11, (2)

103. According to Thomas and Chess, a child that is very irregular in sleeping and eating, resists change, and tends
to be loud is labeled a(n)_____________ child.
         a) easy
         b) difficult
Correct. Difficult children tend to resist change.
         c) slow-to-warm-up
         d) negative
Incorrect. Thomas and Chess used the term difficult for children who tend to resist change.
ANS: b, p. 270, F, LO=7.11, (1)

104. Chester is irritable, loud, and negative most of the time. He doesn’t like it when new people pick him up, and
he has irregular sleeping, eating, and waking schedules. What temperament does he exhibit?
          a) active
Incorrect. Babies who are irritable and irregular are considered difficult.
          b) slow-to-warm-up
          c) difficult
Correct. Difficult babies tend to be irritable, are not comfortable with change, and have irregular schedules.
          d) easy
ANS: c, p. 270, A, LO=7.11, (3) SG

105. Egbert is a quiet child who is very slow to adapt to change. However, if he is introduced gradually to new
people or situations, then eventually he will accept them without too much distress. Thomas and Chess would say
his temperament is ______.
         a) active
         b) slow-to-warm-up
Correct. Slow-to-warm-up babies tend be quieter and slow to adapt to change.                        c) difficult
Incorrect. Difficult babies tend to be loud, are not comfortable with change, and have irregular schedules. Slow-to-
warm-up babies tend be quieter and slow to adapt to change.
         d) easy
ANS: b, p. 270, A, LO=7.11, (3)




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106. Research on the stability of temperament indicates that it is ______.
         a) unstable and subject to wide variations over the course of a lifetime
         b) unstable during childhood but stabilizes during adolescence and remains stable throughout a person’s
         adult life
         c) relatively stable through the first three to four years of life but begins to vary dramatically once a child
         reaches school age
Incorrect. Temperament is considered stable well into adulthood.
         d) relatively stable well into adulthood
Correct. Temperament is considered stable well into adulthood.
ANS: d, p. 270, F, LO=7.11, (3)

107. The emotional bond that forms between an infant and a primary caregiver is called_________.
         a) temperament
         b) attachment
Correct. Attachment is an emotional bond that forms between an infant and primary caregiver.
         c) trust
Incorrect. Trust is an element of attachment, but the term used for the bond itself is attachment.
         d) habituation
ANS: b, p. 270, F, LO=7.11, (1)

108. Attachment usually takes place within the __________of life.
         a) first year
         b) first month
Incorrect. Attachment takes place within the first six months of life.
         c) first six months
Correct. Attachment takes place within the first six months of life.
         d) first four months.
ANS: c, p. 270, F, LO=7.11, (2)

109. What was Mary Ainsworth trying to determine when she devised
an experimental method called the Strange Situation?
         a) the nature of gestural communication between mothers and babies
         b) aspects of purposeful exploration as the baby investigates a strange environment
         c) parental discipline styles in the first year of life
Incorrect. She sought to study the nature of attachment.
         d) the nature of attachment between caretakers and babies
Correct. She sought to understand the nature of attachment between caregivers and babies.
ANS: d, p. 270, C, LO=7.11, (3)

110. Mary Ainsworth observed that securely attached infants__________.
         a) do not seem to care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out on her return
Incorrect. Ainsworth’s term for infants who do not care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out
when she returns is avoidant.
         b) protest loudly when the mother leaves but resist contact with her when she returns
         c) cry if the mother leaves the room, are easily soothed, and welcome her back when she returns
Correct. Securely attached infants are easily soothed when they cry and welcome their mother back upon return.
         d) are not concerned upon separation but cry to be picked up and held on her return
ANS: c, p. 271, F, LO=7.11, (2)




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111. Mothers who were unresponsive, insensitive, and coldly rejecting
were associated with ___________attached infants.
         a) securely
         b) avoidant
Correct. Mothers of avoidant attached infants were unresponsive, insensitive, and coldly rejecting.
         c) ambivalent
         d) disorganized/disoriented
Incorrect. Mothers of disorganized/disoriented infants were worse than cold; they were abusive or neglectful in
interactions with the infant.
ANS: b, p. 271, C, LO=7.11, (2)

112. ____________babies in Ainsworth’s study were clinging and unwilling to explore, very upset by the stranger
regardless of the mother’s presence, protested mightily when the mother left, were hard to soothe, and had mixed
reactions upon mother’s return.
          a) Secure
          b) Avoidant
Incorrect. Avoidant infants’ main reaction was anger; they did not respond upon the mother’s return; and they
failed to make eye contact with her.
          c) Ambivalent
Correct. Ambivalent attached infants were clinging, unwilling to explore, and protested when the mother left.
          d) Disorganized/disoriented
ANS: c, p. 271, F, LO=7.11, (2)

Learning Objective 7.12- What happens in Erikson’s first four stages of psychosocial development?

113. Like any 4-month-old, Amy depends on her parents to feed her and to change her diapers. When Amy cries, her
devoted parents quickly respond to her needs. According to Erikson, Amy is developing a sense of ___________.
       a) trust
Correct. Infants whose needs are consistently met come to trust their caregivers, and this trust helps promote
attachment.
       b) mistrust
       c) autonomy
Incorrect. Autonomy does not develop until around 18 months of
age.
       d) initiative
ANS: a, p. 273, A, LO=7.12, (2)

114. Which of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial crises revolves around the child’s learning to direct his or her own
behavior?
       a) trust versus mistrust
       b) initiative versus guilt
Incorrect. Initiative versus guilt revolves around the challenge to control one’s own behavior.
       c) industry versus inferiority
       d) autonomy versus shame and doubt
Correct. Autonomy versus shame and doubt revolves around the child’s
learning to direct his or her own behavior.
ANS: d, p. 273, C, LO=7.12, (2)




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115. Erikson’s theory of social development viewed the period from ages 3 to 6, his third stage, as characterized by
the major challenge of ______.
         a) identity versus role diffusion
         b) industry versus inferiority
Incorrect. Industry versus inferiority takes place between ages 6 and 12.
         c) initiative versus guilt
Correct. Initiative versus guilt takes place between ages 3 and 6.
         d) autonomy versus shame and doubt
ANS: c, p. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2) SG

116. In Erikson’s __________stage of psychosocial development, preschoolers are challenged to control their own
behavior.
         a) trust versus mistrust
         b) autonomy versus shame and doubt
Incorrect. Autonomy versus shame and doubt takes place during the toddler years and focuses on directing rather
than controlling one’s own behavior.
         c) initiative versus guilt
Correct. During the stage of initiative versus guilt, preschoolers are challenged to control their own behavior.
         d) industry versus inferiority
ANS: c, p. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2)

117. Between the ages of 5 and 12 children strive to develop a sense of competence arising from their work and
effort. Erikson refers to this stage of life as ___________.
          a) trust versus mistrust
          b) autonomy versus shame and doubt
Incorrect. A toddler in the stage called autonomy versus shame and doubt strives for independence.
          c) initiative versus guilt
Correct. A child in the stage of initiative versus guilt strives to develop a sense of competence as a result of his or
her work and effort.
          d) industry versus inferiority
ANS: c, p. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2)

118. According to Erikson, if an elementary school child fails to succeed in learning new skills and knowledge, the
result may be the development of a sense of _________.
         a) stagnation
         b) inferiority
Correct. Failure to learn new skills and knowledge may result in a sense of inferiority.
         c) shame and doubt
Incorrect. Shame and doubt are associated with an earlier stage of development that emphasizes independence.
         d) role confusion
ANS: b, p. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2)

Adolescence

Learning Objective 7.13- What are the changes that occur in puberty?

119. The period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties, during which a young person is no longer physically
a child but is not yet an independent, self-supporting adult, is called ________.
         a) adolescence
Correct. Adolescence is the period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties.
         b) tweens
         c) young adulthood
         d) puberty
Incorrect. Puberty is the word for the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its
peak.
ANS: a, p. 274, F, LO=7.13, (1)


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120. Puberty is defined as _________.
         a) the production of hormones in the reproductive glands stimulated by the pituitary gland
Incorrect. The production of hormones in the reproductive glands is only one of the physical changes that occur in
the body during puberty.
         b) the stage of identity versus role confusion
         c) the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak
Correct. Puberty is defined as the period during which physical changes occur in the body as sexual development
reaches its peak.
         d) the time when a child becomes a teenager
ANS: c, p. 274, F, LO=7.13, (1)

121. The growth spurt for boys typically begins at age______.
         a) 9
         b) 12
Correct. The growth spurt for boys typically begins at age 12.
         c) 10
Incorrect. Girls typically experience a growth spurt earlier, around age 10.
         d) 15
ANS: b, p. 275, F, LO=7.13, (1) SG

122. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at what age?
         a) 9
         b) 12
Incorrect. Girls typically experience a growth spurt earlier, at age 10.
         c) 10
Correct. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at age 10.
         d) 15
ANS: c, p. 275, F, LO=7.13, (1)

123.     Which of the following is NOT evidence of puberty in boys?
         a) the growth of the testes and penis
         b) the appearance of pubic hair
         c) higher pitch of the voice
Correct. Boys’ voices do not get higher; they get deeper.
         d) the appearance of a beard
Incorrect. The appearance of a beard is a sign of puberty in males.
ANS: c, p. 275, F, LO=7.13, (2)

Learning Objective 7.14- How do adolescents develop formal operations and moral thinking?

124. Most young adolescents, especially those who receive a formal high school education, are at the level of
thinking that Piaget described as ______.
         a) formal operational
Correct. Most adolescents who receive a formal high school education are at the formal operations level of thinking.

         b) preoperational
         c) preconventional
         d) identity versus role confusion
Incorrect. Identity versus role confusion is the stage of adolescence in Erikson’s theory.
ANS: a, p. 275, F, LO=7.14, (2)




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125. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to ______.
         a) extroverted behavior
Incorrect. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to introspection and egocentrism.
         b) a lessening of self-analysis compared to preoperational thought
         c) introspection and egocentrism
Correct. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to introspection and egocentrism.
         d) thinking in terms of concrete things
ANS: c, p. 276, C, LO=7.14, (3)

126. The tendency of teenagers to feel that they are always “on stage” and that they are the center of everyone else’s
world, just as they are the center of their own, is a phenomenon known as ___________.
         a) formal operations
         b) the imaginary audience
Correct. Imaginary audience refers to the feeling that everyone is watching you closely; it causes teenagers to feel
extremely self-conscious.
         c) the personal fable
Incorrect. The term personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected.
         d) puberty
ANS: b, p. 276, F, LO=7.14, (1)

127. Mary is an adolescent who currently has a small pimple on her cheek that is causing her to be overly self-
conscious. She is convinced that everyone she meets stares at and talks about at her pimple. Mary’s behavior
exhibits____________.
         a) a sense of idealism
         b) imaginary audience
Correct. Imaginary audience refers to the feeling that everyone is watching you closely; it makes teenagers feel
extremely self-conscious.
         c) personal fable
Incorrect. The term personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected.
         d) puberty
ANS: b, p. 276, A, LO=7.14, (2)

128. Fifteen-year-old Todd is writing an impassioned novel about growing up in America. In his novel he describes
his experiences in a way that portrays them as unique, such that no one has ever thought such deep thoughts or
experienced such ecstasy before. Todd’s writings most clearly reflect ______.
         a) his sense of autonomy
Incorrect. Todd’s portrayal of being unique is indicative of the personal fable.
         b) the personal fable
Correct. The personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected.
         c) the period of rebellion common to all adolescents
         d) his developing sense of conscience
ANS: b, p. 276, A, LO=7.14, (2) SG

129. The reckless risk taking found among many adolescents is most likely due to the effects of ____________.
         a) their sense of autonomy
         b) the personal fable
Correct. The personal fable convinces adolescents that they are special and protected and, thus, nothing bad can
happen to them.
         c) the period of rebellion common to all adolescents
Incorrect. Recklessness is due to the personal fable, which somehow makes adolescents feel they are protected from
the dangers of the world, and, as a result, they do not take precautions.
         d) their developing sense of conscience
ANS: b, p. 276, C, LO=7.14, (2)




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130. Obedience to rules because of the fear of punishment is a characteristic of__________.
         a) conventional morality
Incorrect. In conventional morality behavior is governed by the norms of society.
         b) preconventional morality
Correct. In preconventional morality, behavior is governed by the consequences of an action.
         c) principled morality
         d) postconventional morality
ANS: b, p. 277, C, LO=7.14, (2)

131. Brad is in an electronics store with his parents. He looks at the CDs and thinks for a moment that he could grab
one and put it beneath his coat. As he considers this possibility, he decides not to do it because he might get caught
and his parents would punish him. What stage of moral development does Brad’s decision represent?
        a) preoperational
Incorrect. Preoperational is a term used in Piaget’s theory of human
development; it is not a term related to moral choices.
        b) preconventional
Correct. At the preconventional level one determines right and wrong based
on what consequences would likely result from an action.
        c) autonomous moral principles
        d) conventional role conformity
ANS: b, p. 277, A, LO=7.14, (3)

132. According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the _________ level of morality.
       a) preconventional
Incorrect. Most adolescents are beyond the preconventional level, which is for young children and juvenile
delinquents.
       b) conventional
Correct. According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the conventional level.
       c) postconventional
       d) preliminary
ANS: b, p. 277, C, LO=7.14, (2)

133. At what stage of moral development is moral thought guided by principles that have been decided upon by the
individual and may be in disagreement with accepted social norms?
       a) preoperational
       b) preconventional
Incorrect. At the preconventional level a person determines right and wrong
 based on the expected consequences of an action.
       c) postconventional
Correct. At the postconventional level morality is driven by an individual’s self-determined moral principles.
       d) conventional role conformity
ANS: c, p. 277, F, LO=7.14, (2)

134. When faced with a conflict between law and conscience, Liz follows her conscience despite the personal risk.
This would be characteristic of__________.
         a) conventional morality
         b) preconventional morality
Incorrect. At the preconventional level a person determines right and wrong based on the expected consequences of
an action.
         c) postconventional morality
Correct. At the postconventional level right and wrongare determined by the individual, which may be in
disagreement with accepted social norms.
         d) unconventional morality
ANS: c, p. 277, A, LO=7.14, (2)



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135. What is the sequence of stages of moral development as identified by Lawrence Kohlberg?
       a) preconventional, conventional, postconventional
Correct. The sequence of the stages of moral development is
preconventional, conventional, postconventional.
       b) preoperational, postoperational, world view
       c) preconventional, postconventional, conventional
Incorrect. Postconventional follows conventional.
       d) concrete operational, formal operational, autonomous
ANS: a, p. 277, C, LO=7.14, (1)

Learning Objective 7.15- What happens during the adolescent’s search for identity?

136. Jeremy is 17 years old. According to Erikson, his chief task will be acquiring a sense of ______.
         a) identity
Correct. According to Erikson, adolescents must begin to develop a sense of self.
         b) intimacy
Incorrect. According to Erikson, developing intimacy begins in early adulthood.
         c) generativity
         d) autonomy
ANS: a, p. 278, F, LO=7.15, (1) SG

137. Brad is 18 and is looking into career options. He is currently deciding whether he wants to become a gourmet
chef or a race car driver. Brad is at what stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial development?
        a) integrity versus despair
        b) intimacy versus isolation
        c) generativity versus stagnation
Incorrect. Brad is too young to enter the generativity versus stagnation stage.
        d) identity versus role confusion
Correct. In the identity versus role confusion stage the individual is
searching for a consistent sense of self, and one part of this process is
choosing a career.
ANS: d, p. 278, A, LO=7.15, (2)

138. Conflicts between adolescents and their parents tend to be over ______.
         a) trivial things
Correct. Most arguments are about trivial things.
         b) moral issues
         c) political issues
         d) major things
Incorrect. Most arguments are over trivial things such as hair, clothing, and taste in music.
ANS: a, p. 278, C, LO=7.15, (3)

139. On big moral issues, parents and teens tend to __________.
         a) completely disagree
         b) be in agreement
Correct. On big moral issues parents and teens tend to be in agreement.
         c) are not familiar with each other’s position
         d) have intense arguments
Incorrect. Most intense arguments are over trivial things such as hair, clothing, and taste in music.
ANS: b, p. 278, C, LO=7.15, (3)




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Adulthood

Learning Objective 7.16- What are the physical and cognitive changes that occur during adulthood and aging?

140. The twenties is a time of___________.
         a) peak physical health
Correct. This is a time when health is at its peak.
         b) decline in senses
         c) immature cognitive abilities
Incorrect. The twenties is a time when health is at its peak.
         d) illness
ANS: a, p. 279, F, LO=7.16, (2)

141. Megan just turned 32. She is keenly aware of biological changes that occur as she gets older. What’s more, she
measures the sensitivity of her senses and other physical characteristics by using sophisticated testing equipment. In
which of the following areas is she likely to find some decline?
       a) vision and hearing
Correct. Although these changes may not be noticeable, they are beginning in many adults in their thirties.
       b) sensitivity to odors and temperatures
       c) sensitivity to taste, muscular strength, and hearing
       d) sensitivity to taste, vision, and muscular strength
Incorrect. Taste sensitivity occurs later in adulthood; vision and hearing begin to decline in the thirties.
ANS: a, p. 279, A, LO=7.16, (3)

142. Around age 40, adults ___________.
         a) see a decline in sexual functioning
Incorrect. Any decline in sexual functioning is more typically due to a decrease in opportunity rather than ability.
         b) may need to wear bifocal lenses
Correct. The lens of the eye begins to harden and has difficulty changing shape to focus.
         c) experience a sharpening of the senses
         d) do not experience any physical changes
ANS: b, p. 279, C, LO=7.16, (2)

143. The period of five to ten years during which a woman’s reproductive system begins to decline is
called_______.
         a) climacteric
         b) perimenopause
Correct. Perimenopause is the term for the decline in the female reproductive system.
         c) menopause
Incorrect. Menopause is the term used to describe the cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation.
         d) postmenopause
ANS: b, p. 279, F, LO=7.16, (2)

144. Sarah is in her forties. Her menstrual cycle is irregular and she is experiencing “hot flashes” that are keeping
her awake at night. The changes Sarah is experiencing are called _____________.
         a) the climacteric
Correct. The climacteric is the term for the physical changes, such as those that Sarah is experiencing, that occur
during perimenopause.
         b) perimenopause
Incorrect. Perimenopause is the term for the period of time during which the climacteric, or decline in the female
reproductive system, occurs; it is not the term for the changes themselves.
         c) menopause
         d) andropause
ANS: a, p. 279, A, LO=7.16, (3)




                                                                                                                   253
145. The cessation of menstruation and ovulation is called ______.
         a) the climacteric
         b) perimenopause
Incorrect. Perimenopause is the term for the period of five to ten years during which a woman’s reproductive system
begins to decline.
         c) menopause
Correct. Menopause is the term for the cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation.
         d) andropause
ANS: c, p. 279, F, LO=7.16, (1) SG

146. The average age of menopause is__________.
         a) 43
Incorrect. At 43 the average woman may be experiencing the physical changes of the climacteric but is still about
eight years away from menopause.
         b) 34
         c) 51
Correct. Fifty-one is the average age for women to cease ovulation.
         d) 55
ANS: c, p. 279, F, LO=7.16, (2)

147. The gradual decline in the sexual reproductive system of males is called____________.
         a) menopause
         b) andropause
Correct. Andropause is the term for the gradual decline in the reproductive system of males.
         c) male menopause
Incorrect. The appropriate term for the gradual decline of the male reproductive system is andropause.
         d) change of life
ANS: b, p. 280, F, LO=7.16, (2)

148. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in middle adulthood?
         a) suicide
         b) homicide
         c) heart disease
Correct. Heart disease is the most common cause of death in middle adulthood.
         d) stroke
Incorrect. Stroke is the third most common cause of death in middle adulthood, whereas heart disease is the most
common.
ANS: c, p. 280, F, LO=7.16, (1)

149. Which of the following abilities decline during adulthood?
         a) intellectual abilities
         b) speed of processing
Correct. Speed of processing declines during adulthood.
         c) wisdom
         d) verbal ability
Incorrect. Verbal ability tends to increase during adulthood.
ANS: b, p. 280, C, LO=7.16, (2)




                                                                                                               254
150. All of the following are reasons that middle-aged adults experience changes in memory EXCEPT _______.
         a) stress
Incorrect. Stress can trigger memory challenges.
         b) having more information to remember
         c) having more information stored in memory
         d) hardening of the arteries
Correct. Hardening of the arteries is an example of physical decline, which is unrelated to memory changes during
middle age.
ANS: d, p. 280, C, LO=7.16, (2)

Learning Objective 7.17- How do adults deal with the issues of work, relationships, parenting, and death?

151. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as that of ______.
         a) intimacy versus isolation
Correct. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as intimacy versus isolation.
         b) generativity versus stagnation
         c) identity versus role confusion
Incorrect. Erikson identified identity versus role confusion as the major task in adolescence.
         d) integrity versus despair
ANS: a, p. 281, F, LO=7.17, (1)

152. According to Erikson, an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and
care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self, is called________
         a) bonding
         b) intimacy
Correct. Erikson defined intimacy as an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust,
share, and care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self.
         c) attachment
Incorrect. Attachment refers to the bond that is formed between an infant and primary caregiver.
         d) attraction
ANS: b, p. 281, F, LO=7.17, (2)

153. Erik Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as that of ______.                             a)
intimacy versus isolation
         b) identity versus role diffusion
         c) integrity versus despair
Incorrect. Erikson saw integrity versus despair as a stage beginning in older adulthood.
         d) generativity versus stagnation
Correct. Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as generativity versus stagnation.
ANS: d, p. 282, F, LO=7.17, (2)

154. Aaron is a middle-aged physician. He gives back to the community by acting as a mentor to teenagers
interested in entering the medical profession. Erikson would say that Aaron is experiencing _________.
         a) intimacy
         b) identity
         c) generativity
Correct. According to Erikson, mentoring is a kind of generativity.
         d) integrity
Incorrect. According to Erikson, sense of integrity is usually established in older adulthood.
ANS: c, p. 282, A, LO=7.17, (3)




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155. According to Erikson, if a middle-aged person is unable to focus outward and is still dealing with issues of
intimacy or even identity, that person is experiencing __________.
         a) generativity
         b) stagnation
Correct. Erikson used the term stagnation to refer to a situation in which someone in middle adulthood is still
dealing with issues of intimacy and identity.
         c) ego integrity
         d) despair
Incorrect. Erikson used the term despair to refer to a sense of deep regret over things that will never be
accomplished because time has run out.
ANS: b, p. 282, F, LO=7.17, (2)

156. Psychologists say that an elderly person who is looking back over his or her life and coming to terms with the
actions of that life is engaging in ___________.
         a) despair
         b) a sense of identity
         c) ego integrity
Incorrect. Ego integrity is the best possible outcome of a life review, but it is not the term used for the process itself.
         d) a life review
Correct. A life review occurs when an older adult looks back and evaluates the life he or she has lived.
ANS: d, p. 282, F, LO=7.17, (1)

157. Hector is 70 years old and has just retired from a career as a lawyer. He is now spending time looking back on
his life and is recognizing, as well as coming to terms with, mistakes, regrets, and unfinished business. Hector is
engaging in a process called___________.
          a) despair
          b) sense of identity
          c) ego integrity
Incorrect. Ego integrity is the best possible outcome of a life review, but it is not the term used for the process itself.
          d) life review
Correct. A life review occurs when an older adult looks back on and evaluates the life he or she has lived.
ANS: d, p. 282, A, LO=7.17, (2)

158. Older adults who look back on their lives with regrets, wishing they could relive their lives, have not
successfully resolved Erikson’s psychosocial crisis of______________.
       a) integrity versus despair
Correct. Integrity versus despair occurs during late adulthood.
       b) intimacy versus isolation
       c) generativity versus stagnation
Incorrect. Generativity versus stagnation occurs during middle adulthood.
       d) identity versus identity confusion
ANS: a, p. 282, F, LO=7.17, (2)

Learning Objective 7.18- What are the theories of why aging occurs?

159. The theory in which aging is attributed to our bodies’ organs and cell tissues simply wearing out with repeated
use and abuse is called_________.
         a) activity theory
         b) wear-and-tear theory
Correct. Wear and tear theory attributes aging to the body wearing out with repeated use.
         c) disengagement theory
         d) cellular clock theory
Incorrect. Cellular clock theory attributes aging to the limited amount of times a cell can reproduce to repair
damage.
ANS: b, p. 283, F, LO=7.18, (1)



                                                                                                                       256
160. Which of the following theories sees aging as a process whereby cells are assumed to have a limitation on the
number of times they can reproduce to repair damage?
         a) wear-and-tear theory
         b) cellular clock theory
Correct. Cellular clock theory assumes that there is a limitation on the number of times a cell can reproduce to
repair damage.
         c) activity theory
         d) free radical theory
Incorrect. The free radical theory explains damage to the body as arising from free radicals, or oxygen molecules
that damage structures inside the cell.
ANS: b, p. 282, F, LO=7.18, (2)

161. The _______theory of aging suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells,
increasing with age.
         a) wear-and-tear theory
         b) cellular clock theory
Incorrect. Cellular clock theory sees aging as a process whereby cells are assumed to have a limitation on the
number of times they can reproduce to repair damage.
         c) disengagement theory
         d) free radical theory
Correct. Free radical theory suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells.
ANS: d, p. 283, F, LO=7.18, (2) SG

162. The theory of adjustment to aging that assumes older people are happier if they remain active in some way,
such as volunteering or developing a hobby, is called_________.
         a) activity theory
Correct. Activity theory assumes older people are happier if they remain active.
         b) wear-and-tear theory
Incorrect. Wear-and-tear theory attributes aging to the body wearing out with repeated use.
         c) disengagement theory
         d) cellular clock theory
ANS: a, p. 283, F, LO=7.18, (2)

Learning Objective 7.19- What are the stages of death and dying?

163. The correct sequence of the five stages of death and dying postulated by Kübler-Ross is ______.
         a) denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance
Correct. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance are the correct sequences of the five stages of death
and dying.
         b) denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance, and depression
         c) anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, and depression
Incorrect. In the five stages of death and dying, denial occurs before anger.
         d) anger, denial, bargaining, depression, and acceptance
ANS: a, p. 283–284, C, LO=7.19, (1)




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164. Mr. Beluga has just been told that he has a rare form of cancer. He insists that there has been a mistake and asks
his physician to retake his medical tests. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, Mr. Beluga is most likely in the
_________stage of dying.
         a) anger
Incorrect. Mr. Beluga is not showing any signs of anger, probably because he is refusing to believe that the
diagnosis is real.
         b) bargaining
         c) denial
Correct. By refusing to believe that the diagnosis is correct, Mr. Beluga is denying the reality of his situation.
         d) reactive
ANS: c, p. 283, A, LO=7.19, (2)

165. Leticia has just learned that she is terminally ill. She is now always irritable, often throws things on the floor,
and yells at members of her family and the nurses who care for her. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, Leticia is
most likely in the _________stage of dying.
         a) anger
Correct. By lashing out, Leticia is showing signs of anger, the first stage of dying, according to Kübler-Ross.
         b) bargaining
         c) denial
Incorrect. Leticia’s actions are more indicative of anger than of denial, which is the second stage of dying,
according to Kulber-Ross.
         d) reactive
ANS: a, p. 284, A, LO=7.19, (2)

166. Several weeks of diagnostic tests have revealed that cancer has spread throughout Barry’s body. His physician
suggested that he “take care of important matters.” Barry realizes his family’s home needs repairs, so he arranges to
have that done right away. To relieve his family of the agony of planning his funeral, he has made all the
arrangements. Barry tells his minister he has had a good life and just wants to make sure he provides for his family
after his death. This description fits the stage Kübler-Ross called_________.
        a) denial
        b) acceptance
Correct. Barry exhibits acceptance of his impending death by making his own funeral arrangements and wanting to
provide for his family.
        c) bargaining
        d) depression
Incorrect. By making his own funeral arrangements and wanting to provide for his family, Barry has begun to break
ties with the living with preparation for his death and entered the acceptance stage.
ANS: b, p. 284, A, LO=7.19, (3) SG

Applying Psychology to Everyday Life: ADHD—Not Just for Children

Learning Objective 7.20- How does attention deficit hyperactivity disorder affect adults?

167. Which of the following are symptoms of adult ADHD?
         a) obsessiveness, delusions, hallucinations
         b) hopelessness, losing things, fatigue
         c) impatience, obsessiveness, fatigue
Incorrect. Obsessiveness and fatigue are not symptoms of ADHD.
         d) restlessness, impulsiveness, losing things
Correct. Restlessness, impulsiveness, and losing things are symptoms of adult ADHD.
ANS: d, p. 285, F, LO=7.20, (2)




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TRUE OR FALSE

168. The scientific study of changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called gerontology.
ANS: F, p. 250, LO=7.1

169. A researcher who studies different age groups, or cohorts, at one time is using the cross-sectional design.
ANS: T, p. 250, LO=7.1

170. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosome disorder resulting from an XXY pattern of the 23 rd chromosomes,
causing reduced male characteristics and obesity.
ANS: T, p. 254, LO=7.3

171. Dizygotic twins develop when a fertilized egg divides into two parts that develop into separate embryos.
ANS: F, p. 255, LO=7.4

172. The germinal period begins at conception and ends when the organism firmly attaches to the wall of the uterus.
ANS: T, p. 256, LO=7.6

173. Reflexes help infants to survive until they are capable of learning more complex means of interaction.
ANS: T, p. 260, LO=7.7

174. By the time a child enters the concrete operational stage of cognitive development he or she is capable of
grasping the concept of conservation.
ANS: T, p. 266, LO=7.9

175. Gender is the physical characteristic of being male or female.
ANS: F, p. 274, LO=7.12

176. Menopause is cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation.
ANS: T, p. 279, LO=7.16

177. Most people’s vision and hearing remain at peak functioning until around age 50.
ANS: F, p. 279, LO=7.16

178. According to Erikson, developing a consistent sense of identity is key to forming intimate relationships.
ANS: T, p. 281, LO=7.17

179. According to Erikson, middle adulthood is the time when individuals sturggle with generativity versus
stagnation.
ANS: T, p. 281, LO=7.17

180. Cellular clock theory of aging suggests that cells have an unlimited number of times they can reproduce and
repair damage.
ANS: F, p. 282–283, LO=7.18

181. The wear-and-tear theory of aging suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of
cells, increasing with age.
ANS: F, p. 283, LO=7.18

182. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross identified exactly three stages of dying: anger, depression, and acceptance.
ANS: F, p. 283–284, LO=7.19




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SHORT ANSWER

183. Discuss the terms nature and nurture as they pertain to human development.
p. 251, LO=7.2

184. What causes Down’s syndrome and what are its effects?
p. 254, LO=7.3

185. List and define the three stages of prenatal development.
p. 255–259, LO=7.4

186. Describe two reflexes that are present at birth.
p. 260, LO=7.7

187. Define and explain Piaget’s sensorimotor stage and the milestones of this stage.
p. 264–265, LO=7.9

188. List and explain the three types of temperament described by Chess and Thomas.
p. 270, LO=7.11

189. Explain the terms gender and gender identity.
p. 274, LO=7.12

190. Explain the adolescent concepts of the personal fable and imaginary audience.
p. 276, LO=7.14

191. Explain the terms climacteric, perimenopause, and menopause.
p. 279, LO=7.16

192. Explain the wear-and-tear theory of aging.
p. 283, LO=7.18




                                                                                        260
ESSAY

193. Distinguish the major research methods used in the field of human development and provide examples of each.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?
p. 250–251, LO=7.1

194. What is the critical period? What are teratogens? List four common teratogens and discuss their effects on
development.
p. 257–258, LO=7.11

195. Summarize Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development and the major milestones accomplished and
limitations at each stage.
p. 264–267, LO=7.14

196. Summarize Erkson’s eight stages of psychosocial development. Provide an example for each stage that
describes successful resolution of each stage.
p. 273, LO=7.12

197. Summarize Kübler-Ross’s five stages of death and dying. How are they experienced?
p. 283–284, LO=7.19




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Description: CHAPTER SEVEN Umbilical Cord