NETWORK+ CERTIFICATION
STUDY GUIDE OF CH1-4 OF DEAN
____ 1. An organization that shares devices, saves ____.
a. money c. time
b. space d. All of the above.
____ 2. Networks enable multiple users to share devices and data that, collectively, are referred to as the
networks' ____.
a. devices c. data files
b. resources d. peripherals
____ 3. The peer-to-peer network is an example of a ____ network.
a. metropolitan c. local area
b. wide area d. tiny area
____ 4. Which is not true about peer-to-peer networks?
a. They do not require a special operating system.
b. One computer has more authority than the others.
c. Most computers are general-purpose personal computers that are not designed to handle
heavy processing loads.
d. None of the above.
____ 5. Which is not true about networks?
a. They increase productivity.
b. They allow you to manage hardware and software on multiple computers from one central
location.
c. They enable multiple users to share devices and data.
d. None of the above.
____ 6. Peer-to-peer networks are not ____.
a. less expensive to maintain c. flexible
b. less expensive to set up d. None of the above.
____ 7. Peer-to-peer networks are ____.
a. often used in environments where technical expertise is scarce
b. very secure
c. practical for connecting a large number of computers
d. All of the above.
____ 8. LANs involving many ____ are usually server-based.
a. computers c. peripherals
b. systems d. All of the above.
____ 9. On a server-based network, special computers known as ____, process data for and facilitate
communications between the other computers on the network.
a. primary computers c. servers
b. domains d. workstations
____ 10. Which would not qualify as a network-operating system?
a. UNIX c. Windows 98
b. Novell NetWare d. None of the above.
____ 11. The term ____ refers to a networking model in which clients use a central server to share applications,
devices, and data.
a. client/server architecture c. sharing architecture
b. master/slave design d. All of the above.
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____ 12. Which is not true?
a. Clients on a network cannot run applications from their local hard disks.
b. Typically, clients on a client/server network do not communicate directly with each other.
c. Clients on a network can save data to their local hard disks.
d. None of the above.
____ 13. The ____ is an example of a very intricate and extensive WAN that spans the globe.
a. Network Operating System c. Intranet
b. Internet d. Metropolis
____ 14. The figure above depicts a(n) ____.
a. complex network c. simple network
b. simple WAN d. intranet
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____ 15. The figure above depicts a(n) ____.
a. complex network c. simple network
b. simple WAN d. complex WAN
____ 16. The device that enables a workstation to connect to the network is called a(n) ____.
a. access card c. server
b. client d. network interface card
____ 17. Which is true?
a. A NIC that works in one workstation will work in another.
b. A workstation must be connected to a network.
c. A client can act as a server.
d. All of the above.
____ 18. The physical layout of a computer network is called the ____.
a. topology c. mapping
b. architecture d. configuration
____ 19. ____ ensure(s) that data are transferred whole, in sequence, and without error from one node on the
network to another.
a. Data packets c. Protocol
b. Addressing d. File services
____ 20. ____ are distinct units of data that are transmitted from one computer on a network to another.
a. Data packets c. Frames
b. Datagrams d. All of the above.
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____ 21. Which is not an example of transmission media?
a. wire c. radio waves
b. coaxial cable d. None of the above.
____ 22. ____ refer to the capability of a server to share data files, applications, and disk storage space.
a. File services c. Protocol
b. Transmission media d. Transmission services
____ 23. A server that provides file services is called a(n) ____.
a. file server c. network server
b. filer d. system server
____ 24. Communications servers are also referred to as ____ servers.
a. file c. print
b. access d. gateway
____ 25. ____ servers allow external users to use network resources and devices just as if they were logged in to
a workstation in the office.
a. Communications c. Remote
b. Access d. Gateway
____ 26. In Windows NT, the communications software is known as ____.
a. Network Access Server c. Remote Access Server
b. Communications Access Server d. Mail Access Server
____ 27. In NetWare, the communications software is known as ____.
a. Network Access Server c. Remote Access Server
b. Communications Access Server d. NetWare Access Server
____ 28. Mail services typically do not include ____.
a. routing capabilities c. document management
b. notification d. None of the above.
____ 29. Mail services require a significant commitment of technical support and administration resources due to
their ____.
a. instability c. heavy use
b. routing capabilities d. access ability
____ 30. Distributing processing activity evenly across a network so that no single device becomes overwhelmed,
is handled by the ____ service.
a. traffic monitoring c. hardware diagnosis
b. load balancing d. communications
____ 31. The ____ service determines when a network component fails.
a. network c. hardware diagnosis
b. load balancing d. communications
____ 32. The Computing Technology Industry Association established the ____ certification.
a. A+ c. MCSE
b. Net+ d. CNE
____ 33. If you want to become a PC technician, you should attain the ____ certification.
a. A+ c. MCSE
b. Net+ d. CNE
____ 34. If you want to specialize in Novell networking product support and administration, you should attain the
____ certification.
a. A+ c. MCSE
b. Net+ d. CNE
____ 35. Which is not true about finding a job in networking?
a. Companies in the computer industry typically do not mind receiving resumes and letters
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through e-mail.
b. When looking at an ad, you should only apply for positions for which you have all the
qualifications required.
c. Visit a college career center, even if you are not a registered university or college student.
d. None of the above.
____ 36. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model divides networking architecture into ____
layers.
a. six c. five
b. eight d. seven
____ 37. IEEE is an international society composed of ____ professionals.
a. engineering c. computer hardware
b. networking d. programming
____ 38. ____ is not involved in setting standards for ISDN communications.
a. ANSI c. EIA
b. ITU d. None of the above.
____ 39. ____'s goal is to establish international technological standards to facilitate global exchange of
information and barrier-free trade.
a. ISO c. IEEE
b. ITU d. EIA
____ 40. About ____ of ISO's nearly 12,000 standards apply to computer-related products and functions.
a. 1,000 c. 10,000
b. 500 d. 250
____ 41. The ____ regulates international telecommunications.
a. FCC c. ISO
b. ITU d. EIA
____ 42. In the ____ ISO began to work on the OSI model.
a. early 1970s c. early 1980s
b. late 1970s d. late 1980s
____ 43. The OSI model is a theoretical representation of what happens between ____ nodes on a network.
a. two c. five
b. three d. multiple
____ 44. The OSI Model ____.
a. describes how software programs interact with other software programs
b. describes how software programs interact with humans
c. prescribes the type of hardware that should support each layer
d. None of the above.
____ 45. The Physical layer does not ____.
a. set the data transmission rate c. monitor data error rates
b. provide error correction services d. None of the above.
____ 46. The primary function of the ____ layer is to divide data it receives from the Network layer into distinct
frames that can then be transmitted by the Physical layer.
a. Communication c. Data Link
b. Transform d. Transport
____ 47. Ethernet is an example of a ____ layer technology.
a. Communication c. Data Link
b. Transform d. Transport
____ 48. ____ refers to the process of decreasing the size of the data units when moving data from a network
segment that can handle larger data units to a network segment that can handle only smaller data units.
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a. Reallocation c. Reassembly
b. Segmentation d. Minimizing
____ 49. ____ is the process of reconstructing the segmented data units.
a. Sequencing c. Resegmenting
b. Rebuilding d. Reassembly
____ 50. Which is not performed in the Network layer?
a. segmentation c. sequencing
b. reassembly d. None of the above.
____ 51. The ____ layer is primarily responsible for ensuring that data are transferred from point A to point B
reliably, in the correct sequence, and without errors.
a. Network c. Transport
b. Communication d. Session
____ 52. Flow control is handled in the ____ layer.
a. Transport c. Session
b. Network d. Application
____ 53. Transport layer services break arbitrarily long packets into ____.
a. the maximum size that the type network in use can handle
b. the minimum size that the type network in use can handle
c. a standard size that is used by all protocols
d. a size smaller than standard size so it may fit all frames
____ 54. If you insert a NIC but fail to seat it deeply enough in the computer's circuit board, your computer will
experience network problems at the ____ layer.
a. Data Link c. Transport
b. Physical d. Network
____ 55. The Data Link layer accomplishes the jobs of finding out if information has been dropped and asking
for a retransmission, by the ____ process.
a. token ring c. error checking
b. protocol d. framing
____ 56. Error checking and control information ensure that a(n) ____ arrives without any problems.
a. token c. checksum
b. protocol d. frame
____ 57. The "C" in TCP stands for ____.
a. Computer c. Communication
b. Cohesion d. Control
____ 58. The Session layer is sometimes called the "____" of network communications.
a. coach c. workhorse
b. leader d. traffic cop
____ 59. The ____ layer sets the terms of communication by deciding which node will communicate first and
how long a node can communicate.
a. Data Link c. Transport
b. Session d. Network
____ 60. Which is not a function of the Session layer?
a. Data encryption.
b. Establishing and keeping alive the communications link for the duration of the session.
c. Monitoring the identification of the session participants.
d. None of the above.
____ 61. The ____ layer protocols code and decodes graphics and file format information.
a. Presentation c. Application
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b. Communication d. Session
____ 62. One of the services provided by the Application layer is ____.
a. file transfer c. segmentation
b. decoding d. sequencing
____ 63. Services for message handling for electronic mail are found in the ____ layer.
a. Network c. Session
b. Application d. Both B and C.
____ 64. If you are running Microsoft Word on a network and choose to open a file, your request for that data is
transferred from Microsoft Word to the network by the ____ layer.
a. Data Link c. Transport
b. Application d. Network
____ 65. The Transport layer passes the data blocks, one at a time, to the ____ layer.
a. Session c. Data Link
b. Network d. Presentation
____ 66. Today ____ types of Ethernet technology are used on LANs.
a. two c. four
b. three d. five
____ 67. Which is not a field that composes the Token Ring frame?
a. Start Delimiter c. Access Control
b. Frame Control d. End Delimiter
____ 68. The MAC sublayer lies within the ____ layer.
a. Data Link c. Network
b. Physical d. Transport
____ 69. The part of the MAC address that is unique to a particular vendor is called the ____.
a. Device ID c. Block ID
b. Starting Delimiter d. MAC ID
____ 70. Which is not true?
a. The Network+ certification exam includes questions about IEEE 802 specification.
b. The LLC provides a common interface and supplies reliability and flow control services.
c. The MAC appends the physical address of the destination computer onto the data frame.
d. None of the above.
____ 71. Protocols that span more than one LAN segment are ____.
a. global c. segmented
b. routable d. integrated
____ 72. A network that uses more than one protocol is called a(n) ____ network.
a. multiprotocol c. global
b. routable d. diverse
____ 73. Protocols define the standards for communication between ____.
a. network segments c. LANs
b. operating systems d. network devices
____ 74. Which is the most commonly used protocol?
a. SNA c. NetBIOS
b. TCP/IP d. IPX/SPX
____ 75. ____'s roots lie with the U.S. Department of Defense.
a. SNA c. NetBIOS
b. TCP/IP d. IPX/SPX
____ 76. Which is not true about TCP/IP?
a. It is routable.
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b. It is flexible.
c. It does not require significant configuration.
d. None of the above.
____ 77. Which is not true about TCP/IP?
a. It is expensive.
b. It can communicate between a multitude of dissimilar platforms.
c. It is the de facto standard on the Internet.
d. None of the above.
____ 78. The TCP/IP Application layer does not correspond to which layer of the OSI Model?
a. Transport c. Presentation
b. Application d. Session
____ 79. The TCP/IP Transport layer corresponds to which layer(s) of the OSI Model?
a. Transport c. Application
b. Transport and Network d. Session and Transport
____ 80. The TCP/IP Internet layer corresponds to which layer(s) of the OSI Model?
a. Transport and Data Link c. Network
b. Transport and Network d. Network and Session
____ 81. The TCP/IP Network Interface layer corresponds to which layer(s) of the OSI Model?
a. Data Link c. Network
b. Network and Physical d. Data Link and Physical
____ 82. The original version of the IP subprotocol is ____.
a. IPv1 c. IPv4
b. IPv2 d. IPv6
____ 83. The component of an IP datagram header that indicates the maximum time in seconds, that a datagram
can remain on the network before it is discarded is called ____.
a. time to destination c. time to be active
b. time to remain d. time to live
____ 84. If a protocol is connectionless, it does not ____.
a. have a way to connect and must rely on other components
b. guarantee delivery of data
c. function on any of the network layers
d. None of the above.
____ 85. The IP datagram contains a checksum component that verifies the integrity of the ____.
a. routing information on the IP header c. time to live information
b. data in the datagram d. protocol
____ 86. The Identification component of an IP diagram header does not ____.
a. identify the message to which a datagram belongs
b. tell IP how to process the incoming datagram by indicating the data's speed, priority, or
reliability
c. enable the receiving node to reassemble fragmented or segmented messages
d. assist in segmentation and reassembly of packets
____ 87. Which is not true about UDP?
a. It offers no assurance that packets will be received in the correct sequence.
b. Its lack of sophistication makes it less efficient than TCP.
c. Its header contains only four source fields.
d. It offers no assurance that packets will be received at all.
____ 88. Which is true about ICMP?
a. It provides error control.
b. It reports which networks are not reachable.
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c. It reports which packets' TLL has expired.
d. Both B and C.
____ 89. To make ARP more efficient, computers save recognized address mappings in a(n) ____.
a. temporary variable c. file
b. host d. cache
____ 90. In addition to core Transport and Internet layer protocols, TCP/IP encompasses several ____ layer
protocols that work over TCP or UDP and IP, translating user requests into a format the network can
read.
a. Network c. Internet
b. Application d. Network Interface
____ 91. Each IP address is a unique ____-bit number.
a. 32 c. 8
b. 16 d. 24
____ 92. An IP address contains ____ types of information.
a. three c. four
b. two d. eight
____ 93. Networks recognize ____ types of addresses.
a. five c. three
b. one d. two
____ 94. The numbers 128 through 191 in the first octet of an IP address indicate that the address is a ____.
a. Class A c. Class C
b. Class B d. Class D
____ 95. A secondary number, known as a subnet ____, is also assigned as part of the TCP/IP configuration
process.
a. segment c. mask
b. part d. identifier
____ 96. Together, the host name and domain name constitute the ____ domain name.
a. single c. global
b. fully qualified d. total
____ 97. Like TCP/IP, IPX/SPX is a routable protocol because it carries network ____ information.
a. platform c. protocol
b. addressing d. layer
____ 98. IPX/SPX was originally developed by ____.
a. Xerox c. IBM
b. Novell d. the U.S. Department of Defense
____ 99. A(n) ____ is a logical address assigned to a specific process running on a computer.
a. MAC c. dynamic address
b. node d. socket
____ 100. The NCP, SAP, and RIP subprotocols correspond to the ____ layer(s) in the OSI Model.
a. Application c. Application and Presentation
b. Presentation d. Application and Session
____ 101. The SPX subprotocol corresponds to the ____ layer in the OSI Model.
a. Session c. Transport
b. Presentation d. Network
____ 102. The IPX subprotocol corresponds to the ____ layer in the OSI Model.
a. Session c. Transport
b. Presentation d. Network
____ 103. The NetBIOS subprotocol corresponds to the ____ layer in the OSI Model.
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a. Session c. Transport
b. Presentation d. Network
____ 104. Which is true?
a. Socket addresses are appended to IPX addresses.
b. In addition to the network and node addresses, processes running on IPX-enabled
workstations are identified by socket addresses.
c. Novell has reserved socket 456h for its diagnostics process.
d. None of the above.
____ 105. NetBIOS was originally designed for ____.
a. Xerox c. IBM
b. Novell d. U.S. Department of Defense
____ 106. Which is not true about NetBEUI?
a. It requires extensive configuration. c. It provides excellent error correction.
b. It is fast and efficient. d. None of the above.
____ 107. In order to transmit data between network nodes while using NetBIOS, a network administrator must
assign a(n) ____ to each station.
a. logical address c. IP address
b. MAC d. NetBIOS name
____ 108. Information can be transmitted via one of ____ signaling method(s).
a. one c. four
b. two d. five
____ 109. ____ is a term used by networking professionals to describe the nondata information that must
accompany data in order for a signal to be properly routed and interpreted by the network.
a. Noise c. Overhead
b. Garbage d. Commenting
____ 110. Which is not true about modulation?
a. A modem modulates analog signals into digital signals at the transmitting end, then
demodulates digital signals into analog signals at the receiving end.
b. The carrier wave does not represent information.
c. Modulation may be used to issue multiple signals to the same communications channel
and prevent the signals from interfering with one another.
d. None of the above
____ 111. A football coach calling out orders to his team through a megaphone is using ____ communication.
a. half-duplex c. simplex
b. duplex d. one-directional
____ 112. An apartment's intercom system that requires you to press a "talk" button in order to allow your voice to
be transmitted over the wire uses ____ communication.
a. half-duplex c. simplex
b. duplex d. bidirectional
____ 113. Modern Ethernet networks use ____ communication.
a. half-duplex c. simplex
b. duplex d. Both A and B.
____ 114. A form of transmission that allows multiple signals to travel simultaneously over one medium is known
as ____.
a. channeling c. subchanneling
b. modulating d. multiplexing
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____ 115. The figure shown above is an example of ____ multiplexing.
a. time c. wavelength division
b. statistical d. fiber-optic
____ 116. The figure shown above is an example of ____ multiplexing.
a. time c. wavelength division
b. statistical d. fiber-optic
____ 117. ____ is a measure of the difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that a medium can
transmit.
a. throughput c. amplitude
b. wavelength d. bandwidth
____ 118. Which is not true about a baseband system?
a. It involves analog pulses.
b. Every device shares the same channel.
c. Ethernet is an example of a baseband system.
d. Both A and B.
____ 119. A device that regenerates a signal is called a(n) ____.
a. amplifier c. regenerator
b. repeater d. attenuator
____ 120. The maximum number of nodes per segment depends on the ____.
a. bandwidth c. attenuation
b. desired throughput d. regeneration ability
____ 121. Which does not help to limit the impact of noise on a network?
a. Using antinoise algorithms to protect data from being corrupted by noise.
b. Using metal conduits to protect cabling.
c. Installing cabling well away from powerful electromagnetic forces.
d. None of the above.
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____ 122. The figure shown above is an example of ____ cable.
a. coaxial c. single shielded
b. fiber-optic d. twisted-pair
____ 123. Which is not true about twisted-pair cable?
a. It is less expensive than coaxial cable.
b. It carries signals farther than coaxial cable before amplification of the signals becomes
necessary.
c. It supports higher throughput than coaxial cable.
d. None of the above.
____ 124. IEEE designates Thicknet as ____ Ethernet.
a. 10Base2 c. 10Base10
b. 10Base5 d. 10BaseT
____ 125. The figure shown above is an example of a(n) ____.
a. BNC T-connector c. AUI connector
b. N-series connector d. BNC barrel connector
____ 126. Thinnet connects the wire to network devices with ____.
a. BNC T-connectors c. BNC barrel connectors
b. AUI connectors d. N-series connectors
____ 127. IEEE designates Thinnet as ____ Ethernet.
a. 10Base2 c. 10Base10
b. 10Base5 d. 10BaseT
____ 128. ____ crosstalk can occur when signals from an adjacent cable interfere with another cable's
transmission.
a. Adjacent c. Alien
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b. Remote d. Cable
____ 129. ____ contains four wire pairs and can carry data at a rate as high as 10 Mbps, with a possible bandwidth
of 16 MHz.
a. CAT2 c. CAT5
b. CAT3 d. CAT5e
____ 130. The maximum segment length on a 10BaseT network is ____ meters.
a. 10 c. 100
b. 50 d. 1000
____ 131. A(n) ____ network is one that spans an entire organization and often services the needs of many diverse
users.
a. global c. wide-area
b. enterprise d. intra-
____ 132. Which cannot support full-duplexing?
a. 10BaseT c. 100BaseT4
b. 100BaseTX d. None of the above.
____ 133. Which is not true about fiber cable?
a. It conducts electricity.
b. It can carry signals for longer distances than can coax or twisted-pair cable.
c. It is widely accepted by the high-speed networking industry.
d. None of the above.
____ 134. Which is not a disadvantage of fiber cable?
a. It is expensive.
b. It can transmit data in only one direction at a time.
c. It is difficult to splice.
d. None of the above.
____ 135. ST and SC are popular connectors for ____ cabling.
a. Thinnet c. Thicknet
b. fiber d. twisted-pair
____ 136. The maximum segment length on a 100BaseTX network is ____ meters.
a. 50 c. 200
b. 100 d. 1000
____ 137. Structured cabling is based on a hierarchical design that divides cabling into ____ subsystems.
a. four c. eight
b. six d. ten
____ 138. Vertical connectors between floors are known as ____.
a. spans c. patches
b. lifts d. risers
____ 139. A patch cable is a section of ____ cabling.
a. twisted-pair c. coaxial
b. fiber-optic d. All of the above.
____ 140. A ____ cable is a patch cable in which the terminations at both ends are identical.
a. standard c. normal
b. straight-through d. pin-to-pin
____ 141. The area above the ceiling tile or below the subflooring is the ____.
a. riser c. plenum
b. stratum d. bend
____ 142. Which is not true?
a. Indirect infrared transmission is secure.
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b. In indirect infrared transmission signals bounce off walls, ceilings, and any other objects
in their path.
c. Infrared pathways can carry data at rates that rival fiber-optic cable's throughput.
d. None of the above.
____ 143. ____ is the best wireless solution for networks that must transmit data through or around walls, ceilings,
and other obstacles.
a. Radiofrequency c. Indirect infrared
b. Direct infrared d. Both A and C.
____ 144. The RF technology, ____, concentrates significant RF energy at a single frequency.
a. uniband c. one-band
b. single-band d. narrowband
____ 145. The RF technology, ____, uses a lower-level signal distributed over several frequencies simultaneously.
a. broadband c. spread spectrum
b. multiband d. wideband
____ 146. Which would you least like to use if the environment requires that cable bend around tight corners or
through small spaces?
a. STP c. UTP
b. fiber-optic d. None of the above.
STUDY GUIDE OF CH1-4 OF DEAN
Answers
1. D
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. B
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25. A
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. B
36. D
37. A
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. B
42. C
43. A
44. D
45. B
46. C
47. C
48. B
49. D
50. C
51. C
52. A
53. A
54. B
55. C
56. D
57. D
58. D
59. B
60. A
61. A
62. A
63. B
64. B
65. B
66. C
67. B
68. A
69. C
70. D
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71. B
72. A
73. D
74. B
75. B
76. C
77. A
78. A
79. A
80. C
81. D
82. C
83. D
84. B
85. A
86. B
87. B
88. D
89. D
90. B
91. A
92. B
93. D
94. B
95. C
96. B
97. B
98. A
99. D
100. C
101. C
102. D
103. A
104. D
105. C
106. A
107. D
108. B
109. C
110. A
111. C
112. A
113. B
114. D
115. B
116. C
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117. D
118. A
119. B
120. C
121. D
122. A
123. B
124. B
125. B
126. A
127. A
128. C
129. B
130. C
131. B
132. C
133. A
134. D
135. B
136. B
137. B
138. D
139. A
140. B
141. C
142. A
143. A
144. D
145. C
146. B
Net + Study Guide Ch5-8
____ 1. Physical topologies are not classified as which of the following?
a. bus c. star
b. ring d. daisy chain
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____ 2. The figure above depicts a ____ topology.
a. bus c. star
b. ring d. daisy chain
____ 3. Which is not true about networks based on the bus topology?
a. They are expensive to set up. c. They are difficult to
troubleshoot.
b. As you add more nodes, the network's performance d. None of the above.
degrades.
____ 4. In a ____ topology, each node is connected to the two nearest nodes, and data are transmitted clockwise.
a. bus c. star
b. ring d. daisy chain
____ 5. In most ring networks, ____ cabling is used as the physical medium.
a. coaxial c. fiber-optic
b. twisted-pair d. Either B or C.
____ 6. In most bus networks, ____ cabling is used as the physical medium.
a. coaxial c. fiber-optic
b. twisted-pair d. Either A or B.
____ 7. Which of the following does not describe token passing?
a. 3-byte tokens are used.
b. The token is transmitted from one node to another around the ring.
c. The token packet is transformed to a data frame.
d. Because of the transmission control, an acknowledgement is not needed.
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____ 8. In a ____ topology, every node on the network is connected through a central device.
a. bus c. star
b. ring d. daisy chain
____ 9. In most star networks, ____ cabling is used as the physical medium.
a. coaxial c. fiber-optic
b. twisted-pair d. Either B or C.
____ 10. Which is not true about star topologies?
a. They are more fault-tolerant than bus or ring topologies.
b. They require more cabling than bus or ring topologies.
c. They require more configuration than bus or ring topologies.
d. None of the above.
____ 11. Which of the following is not an advantage gained from arranging topologies in a hierarchy?
a. The ability to segregate bandwidth among different groups.
b. Ease of adding or isolating different network groups.
c. The flexibility to interconnect different network types.
d. The use of a single protocol.
____ 12. Which is not a way that WANs differ from LANs?
a. They use enterprise-wide topologies as building blocks.
b. They typically cover a larger distance.
c. A WAN link will only carry IPX/SPX and/or TCP/IP traffic.
d. None of the above.
____ 13. A ____ WAN is often the best option for organizations with only a few sites and who have the capability
to have dedicated circuits.
a. simple c. ring
b. peer-to-peer d. star
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____ 14. The figure above depicts a ____ WAN.
a. star c. tiered
b. ring d. mesh
____ 15. The figure above depicts a ____ WAN.
a. star c. tiered
b. ring d. mesh
____ 16. Which type of WAN configuration is the most fault-tolerant?
a. star c. tiered
b. ring d. mesh
20
____ 17. The figure above depicts which WAN topology?
a. star c. tiered
b. ring d. mesh
____ 18. Because ____ switching monopolizes its piece of bandwidth while two stations remain connected, it is not
an economical technology.
a. connection c. packet
b. circuit d. message
____ 19. ____ switching establishes a connection between two devices, transfers the information to the second
device, and then breaks the connection.
a. Connection c. Packet
b. Circuit d. Message
____ 20. Examples of ____-switched networks include Ethernet and the Internet.
a. connection c. packet
b. circuit d. message
____ 21. Which is not true about demand priority?
a. No workstation except the source and destination can "see" the data.
b. Collisions occur.
c. It requires an intelligent hub.
d. None of the above.
____ 22. Which is true with traditional Ethernet LANs?
a. Bandwidth must be shared by all devices on a segment.
b. Stations can send and receive data simultaneously.
c. Stations can transmit a signal when another station on the same segment is sending or receiving
data.
d. Both A and B.
____ 23. Which is not true with switched-Ethernet?
21
a. It increases the effective bandwidth of a network segment, because fewer workstations must vie for
the same time on the wire.
b. Stations can send and receive data simultaneously over different logical network segments.
c. It is very effective when there is heavy traffic and higher speeds are needed.
d. None of the above.
____ 24. Which is not true?
a. A 1Gigabit Ethernet uses demand priority transmission.
b. 1Gigabit Ethernet is often part of a network's backbone.
c. 1Gigabit Ethernet performs better over fiber than over UTP cable.
d. None of the above.
____ 25. ____ frame is the default frame type for versions 4.x and higher of the Novell NetWare network operating
system.
a. Novell Proprietary 802.3 c. IEEE 802.3
b. Ethernet II d. IEEE 802.3 SNAP
____ 26. The ____ frame contains the Logical Link Control layer.
a. Novell Proprietary 802.3 c. IEEE 802.3
b. Ethernet II d. IEEE 802.3 SNAP
____ 27. The figure above depicts a(n) ____ frame.
a. Novell Proprietary 802.3 c. IEEE 802.3
b. Ethernet II d. IEEE 802.3 SNAP
____ 28. The figure above depicts a(n) ____ frame.
a. Novell Proprietary 802.3 c. IEEE 802.3
b. Ethernet II d. IEEE 802.3 SNAP
22
____ 29. Which is not true about Token Ring?
a. It offers high reliability. c. It offers high fault-tolerance.
b. It is fairly inexpensive to implement. d. None of the above.
____ 30. Token Ring networks ____.
a. have collisions
b. run at 16 or 100 Mbps
c. do not impose distance limitations on the length of a LAN segment
d. do not use bandwidth efficiently
____ 31. Which type of connector is not used on a Token Ring network?
a. RJ-45 c. DB-9
b. 10-T d. type 1 IBM
____ 32. Which is not included in every Token Ring frame?
a. Starting Delimiter c. Organizational ID
b. Ending Delimiter d. Access Control
____ 33. You may attach up to ____ stations on a Token Ring network running on shielded twisted-pair cabling.
a. 50 c. 255
b. 72 d. 500
____ 34. ____ is a logical topology that relies on a fixed packet size to achieve data transfer rates up to 9953 Mbps.
a. FDDI c. LAN Emulation
b. Token Ring d. ATM
____ 35. A popular implementation of ____ involves connecting LANs located in multiple buildings, such as those
on college campuses.
a. FDDI c. LAN Emulation
b. Token Ring d. ATM
____ 36. ATM relies on ____ circuits, which are connections between network nodes that, while based on
potentially disparate physical links, logically appear to be direct dedicated links between those nodes.
a. direct c. virtual
b. available d. priority
____ 37. NICs belong to the ____ layer of the OSI Model.
a. Physical c. Data Link
b. Network d. Both A and C.
____ 38. For a desktop or tower PC, the network adapter is likely to be a type of ____.
a. expansion board c. network interface board
b. bus d. extension card
____ 39. Which type of bus is 32 or 64-bits, is characterized by its shorter connector length, and offers a much faster
data transmission capability than the other types?
23
a. ISA c. EISA
b. PCI d. MCA
____ 40. The figure above depicts a ____.
a. USB network adapter c. parallel port network adapter
b. PCMCI interface d. Token Ring network adapter
____ 41. Which is used to connect multiple types of peripherals, including modems, mice, and audio players?
a. USB network adapter c. parallel port network adapter
b. PCMCI interface d. communications adapter
____ 42. Which was the first type of externally attached network adapter and was primarily designed for use on
laptops?
a. USB network adapter c. parallel port network adapter
b. PCMCI interface d. PCA adapter
____ 43. Which is the most popular type of wireless adapter?
a. USB network adapter c. parallel port network adapter
b. PC Card network adapter d. Both A and B.
____ 44. Printer network adapters can provide processing and support for ____ of the OSI Model layers.
a. 2 c. 5
b. 3 d. 7
24
____ 45. Jumpers are not used today on ____.
a. hard drive controllers c. system boards
b. modern network adapters d. None of the above.
____ 46. IRQ numbers range from ____.
a. 1 to 15 c. 0 to 8
b. 0 to 7 d. 0 to 15
____ 47. Each interrupt must have a unique ____, a number that uniquely identifies that component to the main bus.
a. IRQ name c. IRQ number
b. IRQ identifier d. IRQ label
____ 48. Which IRQ is typically reserved for a floppy disk controller?
a. 1 c. 6
b. 16 d. 4
____ 49. Which IRQ is typically reserved for LPT1?
a. 2 c. 3
b. 7 d. 9
____ 50. Which is not a problem that may occur when two devices attempt to use the same IRQ?
a. The computer may run much more slowly than usual.
b. The computer may experience intermittent data errors during transmission.
c. Video or sound card problems may occur.
d. None of the above.
____ 51. The memory range indicates, in ____ notation, the area of memory that the network adapter and CPU will
use for exchanging data.
a. integer c. decimal
b. binary d. hexadecimal
____ 52. To change a network adapter's ____, you will need a bootable floppy disk containing the configuration or
DOS install utility that shipped with the network adapter.
a. firmware c. CMOS
b. BIOS d. Either B or C.
____ 53. Which is not true?
a. When you change the firmware, you are writing to the computer's hard disk.
b. The firmware holds settings, such as whether a network adapter uses full duplexing or whether it
can detect a network's speed.
c. Network adapter configuration utilities allow you to perform diagnostics of the network adapter's
physical components and connectivity.
d. None of the above.
____ 54. Which NIC feature allows the NIC's processor to determine when to switch traffic between internal cards?
25
a. Management capabilities (SNMP) c. Load balancing
b. RAM buffering d. Dual channels
____ 55. Which NIC feature provides additional memory on the NIC?
a. Management capabilities (SNMP) c. Load balancing
b. RAM buffering d. Dual channels
____ 56. Which is not true about repeaters?
a. They contain one input port.
b. They can improve or correct a bad signal.
c. They contain one output port.
d. They are suited only to bus networks.
____ 57. In addition to connecting Macintosh and PC workstations, hubs can connect ____.
a. print servers c. fileservers
b. switches d. All of the above.
____ 58. Which is found only on Ethernet hubs?
a. Traffic LED c. Collision LED
b. Link LED d. Warning LED
____ 59. A hub that only repeats signals is known as a(n) ____ hub.
a. standalone c. passive
b. intelligent d. repeating
____ 60. A hub that serves a workgroup of computers that are isolated from the rest of the network is called a ____
hub.
a. standalone c. passive
b. remote d. repeating
____ 61. Which is not true about standalone hubs?
a. They are typically connected in hierarchical or daisy-chain fashion.
b. They are best suited to small, independent departments, home offices, or test lab environments.
c. They introduce a single point of failure to the network.
d. None of the above.
____ 62. A hub that is physically designed to be linked with other hubs in a single telecommunications closet is
called a ____ hub.
a. modular c. common
b. stackable d. linkable
____ 63. A ____ hub provides a number of interface options within one chassis.
a. modular c. stackable
b. complex d. linkable
26
____ 64. Which is the most flexible type of hub?
a. modular c. standalone
b. stackable d. linkable
____ 65. If your network cannot tolerate any downtime, consider purchasing ____.
a. a modular hub with redundant power supplies
b. a passive standalone hub
c. a hub with at least 24 ports
d. switches, rather than hubs
____ 66. In ____ bridging, a bridge begins polling a network to learn about its physical topology as soon as it is
installed.
a. automatic c. installation
b. transparent d. quick
____ 67. Which is not true about bridges?
a. They distinguish between different protocols.
b. They can move data more rapidly than traditional routers.
c. They take longer to transmit data than repeaters or hubs.
d. None of the above.
____ 68. Which is not true about bridges?
a. They can enhance network performance by filtering traffic directed to the various nodes.
b. They can detect and discard flawed data packets that may create congestion on the network.
c. They extend the maximum distance of a network beyond its previous limits.
d. None of the above.
____ 69. Switches can operate in the ____ layer of the OSI Model.
a. Data Link c. Transport
b. Network d. All of the above.
____ 70. A router with multiple slots that can hold different interface cards or other devices is called a ____ router.
a. modular c. multiple
b. complex d. dynamic
____ 71. Most modern networks use ____ routing.
a. static c. intelligent
b. passive d. dynamic
____ 72. Each time a packet passes through a router, it has made a ____.
a. trip c. hop
b. transfer d. jump
____ 73. Which is not true?
a. Routers are very flexible.
27
b. Routers are very simple devices to install.
c. Routers may filter out broadcast transmissions to alleviate network congestion.
d. Routers may monitor network traffic and report statistics to a MIB.
____ 74. Routers communicate with each other through ____.
a. routable protocols c. routing protocols
b. routing languages d. Either A or C.
____ 75. Which is the oldest routing protocol?
a. OSPF c. RIP
b. EIGRP d. BGP
____ 76. A WAN link is typically described as ____.
a. hub-to-hub c. point-to-point
b. switch-to-switch d. site-to-site
____ 77. Which is a way that LANs and WANS are similar?
a. They use the same transmissions systems.
b. They primarily carry digital data.
c. They typically use coaxial or twisted pair cabling.
d. They usually have the same topologies.
____ 78. A continuously available communication link is called a(n) ____ link.
a. dedicated c. on-line
b. dial-up d. available
____ 79. Most WANs take the form of ____.
a. simple star networks c. mesh configurations
b. ring networks d. Either B or C.
____ 80. Which is not true?
a. WANs typically traverse a wider geographical area than LANs.
b. WANs provide faster transmission than LANs.
c. LANs provide better transmission than WANs.
d. None of the above.
____ 81. The ____ is the regulatory agency that sets standards and policy for telecommunications transmission and
equipment in the United States.
a. ITU c. FCC
b. CCC d. FRC
____ 82. The most advanced PSTN modems advertise a connection speed of ____.
a. 64 Kbps c. 256 Kbps
b. 56 Kbps d. 128 Kbps
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____ 83. X.25 can support ____ throughput.
a. 2.048-Mbps c. 64-Mbps
b. 45-Mbps d. 1.544-Mbps
____ 84. Frame relay can support ____ throughput.
a. 2.048-Mbps c. 1.544-Mbps
b. 45-Mbps d. Either B or C.
____ 85. ____ was originally developed and used for communications between mainframe computers and remote
terminals.
a. frame relay c. ISDN
b. X.25 d. SONET
____ 86. Which is not true?
a. X.25 is suitable for time-sensitive applications such as audio or video.
b. X.25 ensures data reliability over long distances.
c. Frame relay supports higher bandwidth than X.25.
d. None of the above.
____ 87. Which is not an advantage to leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated service.
a. You pay for only the amount of bandwidth required.
b. It is much less expensive.
c. It follows an established worldwide standard.
d. It provides more privacy.
____ 88. How is ISDN distinguished from PSTN?
a. It uses the telephone carrier's lines.
b. It relies exclusively on digital connections.
c. It can carry data and voice simultaneously.
d. Both B and C.
____ 89. In an ISDN connection, the "B" channel refers to the ____.
a. bearer channel c. bonding channel
b. basic channel d. broadband channel
____ 90. PRI uses ____ B channels.
a. 1 c. 23
b. 10 d. 64
____ 91. Which is not true?
a. PRI and BRI connections may be interconnected on a single network.
b. PRI channels can be carried by T1 trunks.
c. BRI links require an extra termination device, called a Network Termination 2 (NT2).
d. None of the above.
29
____ 92. ____ transmission uses time division multiplexing over two wire pairs to divide a single channel into
multiple channels.
a. DSL c. Cable modem
b. T-carrier d. Both A and B.
____ 93. A ____ circuit can carry the equivalent of 672 voice or data channels, giving a maximum data throughput
of 44.736 Mbps.
a. T0 c. T3
b. T1 d. T4
____ 94. For a company that expects their traffic to grow to T1 capacity eventually, a ____ lease is a good option.
a. partial T1 c. simple T1
b. fractional T1 d. basic T1
____ 95. For T3s, ____ cabling is used.
a. fiber-optic c. microwave
b. coaxial d. All of the above.
____ 96. A ____ serves as the connection point for a T1 line at the customer's site.
a. T1 modem c. router
b. CSU/DSU d. bridge
____ 97. A ____ is a device that combines multiple voice or data channels on one line.
a. multiplexer c. router
b. CSU/DSU d. bridge
____ 98. On a typical T1-connected data network, the terminal equipment does not consist of ____.
a. multiplexers c. routers
b. bridges d. None of the above.
____ 99. Which is not true about DSL?
a. It is more expensive than a T1. c. It is a dedicated service.
b. It is easy to install. d. There are at least 8 types of DSL.
____ 100. ____ is the most popular form of DSL.
a. G.Lite c. SDSL
b. HDSL d. ADSL
____ 101. Inside the carrier's POP, a device called a DSL ____ aggregates multiple DSL subscriber lines and
connects them to a larger carrier.
a. converter c. modem
b. access multiplexer d. multiporter
____ 102. Which is not true about cable?
a. It provides a dedicated, or continuous, connection that does not require dialing up a service
provider.
30
b. Each customer has his own line to the cable company head-end; access does not have to be shared.
c. The throughput of a cable line is fixed.
d. Customers must purchase a special cable modem to transmit and receive signals over cable wiring.
____ 103. The cable company's central office is known as the ____.
a. head-end c. central point
b. controller d. network head
____ 104. What is the maximum data transfer rate of SONET?
a. 39.8 Gbps c. 64 Gbps
b. 45-Mbps d. 64 Kbps
____ 105. SONET integrates well with ____.
a. ATM c. ISDN
b. T-carriers d. All of the above.
____ 106. SONET technology is typically implemented by ____.
a. small businesses c. large global companies
b. medium-sized businesses d. Both B and C.
____ 107. Which is the most reliable?
a. SONET c. T1
b. ISDN d. DSL
____ 108. Which is not true about VPNs?
a. The security techniques used are purely software-based.
b. The software required to establish them is usually inexpensive.
c. They do not require leasing a full T1 circuit.
d. None of the above.
____ 109. Which is not true about Citrix System, Inc.'s Independent Computing Architecture?
a. It is easy to use.
b. It enables the workstation to communicate with the LAN from anywhere.
c. It can only be used with a private connection.
d. None of the above.
____ 110. SLIP and PPP are necessary to transport ____ layer traffic over serial interfaces.
a. Network c. Data Link
b. Physical d. Both B and C.
____ 111. Which is not true about PPP?
a. It encapsulates higher-layer networking protocols in their lower-layer data frames.
b. It carries many different types of packets, including AppleTalk and IPX.
31
c. It supports only asynchronous data transmission.
d. None of the above.
____ 112. Which is not one of the three most common network operating systems used today?
a. Banyan VINES c. NetWare
b. Windows NT Server d. UNIX
____ 113. The pieces of the network operating system that provide the user interface belong in the ____ layer of the
OSI Model.
a. fifth c. seventh
b. sixth d. None of the above.
____ 114. The ____ layer of the OSI Model allows you to control the transmission of data by taking your requests
and translating them into instructions.
a. fifth c. seventh
b. sixth d. None of the above.
____ 115. Which is not true about network operating systems?
a. They are hardware- and software-based.
b. They can run on a number of different hardware platforms.
c. They can run on a number of different network topologies.
d. None of the above.
____ 116. A redirector belongs to the ____ layer of the OSI Model.
a. Application c. Data
b. Presentation d. Network
____ 117. ____ is the process whereby a network operating system verifies that a client's user name and password
are valid and allows the client to log onto the network.
a. encryption c. authorization
b. verification d. validation
____ 118. ____ is software that translates requests and responses between the client and server.
a. Interface software c. Translator software
b. Middleware d. Thin client
____ 119. Middleware may be used as ____.
a. a messaging service between clients and servers
b. a universal query language for databases
c. a means of coordinating processes between multiple servers that need to work together in servicing
multiple clients
d. All of the above.
____ 120. A(n) ____ is a type of software that enables a client to accomplish functions over a network while
utilizing little of the client workstations' resources and, instead, relying on the server to carry the
processing burden.
32
a. middleware c. thin client
b. remote control software d. application program interface
____ 121. ____ form the basis for resource and account management for every type of network operating system.
a. Groups c. Schemas
b. Domains d. Objects
____ 122. If you create a Ford group within a Car group, the Ford group is said to be ____.
a. contained c. shared
b. nested d. None of the above.
____ 123. The figure above is an example of a directory ____.
a. tree c. schema
b. system d. map
____ 124. A(n) ____ is a representation of a thing or person associated with the network.
a. schema c. domain
b. account d. object
____ 125. A(n) ____ is a logical receptacle for holding like objects in an NOS directory.
a. container c. file system
b. account d. workgroup
____ 126. A(n) ____ is a list that organizes resources and associates them with their properties.
a. file system c. directory
b. schema d. tree
33
____ 127. Disks are divided into ____.
a. containers c. allocation units
b. bytes d. FATs
____ 128. Which is not an extended attribute?
a. System c. Archive
b. Hidden d. None of the above.
____ 129. Minimally, which rights do users need to the directories where the application's files are installed?
a. access c. execute, read
b. access, read d. create, access
____ 130. In Windows 2000 Server, a(n) ____ Wizard takes you through the printer creation process step by step.
a. Add Peripheral c. Add Printer
b. Add Device d. Add Object
____ 131. The minimum amount of physical memory required to run a Windows 2000 Server is ____ MB.
a. 128 c. 32
b. 256 d. 16
____ 132. In NetWare, UNIX, and Windows 2000 Server, the server actually performs one task at a time, which is
referred to as ____.
a. threaded multiprocessing c. linear multitasking
b. preemptive multitasking d. organized multitasking
____ 133. Which does not support symmetric multiprocessing?
a. NetWare 5.x c. Windows 2000 Server
b. Windows NT Server d. None of the above.
____ 134. Which was the first NOS based entirely on a GUI?
a. NetWare 5.x c. Windows 98
b. Windows NT Server d. None of the above.
____ 135. What list does Microsoft produce to assist customers in determining what kind of Windows 2000
hardware to purchase?
a. Product List c. Resource List
b. Hardware Compatibility List d. Hardware Specifications List
____ 136. NTFS stores file size information in ____ fields.
a. 16-bit c. 64-bit
b. 32-bit d. 128-bit
____ 137. Which is not true?
a. NTFS partitions can read FAT partitions.
b. You can convert a FAT drive into an NTFS drive on a Windows 2000 server.
c. You can convert an NTFS drive into a FAT drive on a Windows 2000 server.
34
d. An NTFS partition cannot be read by FAT16, unless you employ a third-party utility.
____ 138. In Active Directory, User account is an example of an object ____.
a. group c. attribute
b. class d. workgroup
____ 139. The directory containing information about objects in a domain resides on computers called ____.
a. member servers c. domain servers
b. domain controllers d. object controllers
____ 140. In Active Directory, ____ domains branch out to separate objects.
a. arm c. connecting
b. branch d. child
____ 141. The figure above shows a(n) ____ trust.
a. two-way transitive c. mutual
b. bi-directional transitive d. master
____ 142. trinketmakers.com/legal/msmith is an example of a(n) ____ name.
a. user principal name c. distinguished
b. relative distinguished d. common
____ 143. msmith@trinketmakers.com is an example of a(n) ____ name.
a. user principal name c. distinguished
b. relative distinguished d. common
____ 144. Which is not an option when installing Windows 2000?
a. Creating a new partition on a non-partitioned portion of a hard disk.
b. Installing Windows 2000 on two separate partitions.
c. Installing Windows 2000 on an existing partition.
d. Removing an existing partition and creating a new one for installation.
35
____ 145. Which is not a valid Windows 2000 server name?
a. ChicagoIllinois c. Boston:Chicago
b. Boston-Chicago d. Boston/Chicago
____ 146. Which is not an option used in controlling the management of a user's password?
a. User decides when password changes c. User cannot change password
b. User must change password at next logon d. Account disabled
____ 147. A(n) ____ group is one that allows its members access to resources across multiple domains and forests.
a. wide-spread c. universal
b. global d. distinguished
Net + Study Guide Ch5-8
Answer Section
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. D
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. D
20. D
21. B
22. A
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. B
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32. C
33. C
34. D
35. A
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. B
40. B
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. D
45. B
46. D
47. A
48. C
49. B
50. D
51. D
52. A
53. A
54. C
55. B
56. B
57. D
58. C
59. C
60. A
61. A
62. B
63. B
64. A
65. A
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. D
70. A
71. D
72. C
73. B
74. C
75. C
76. C
77. B
78. A
79. C
80. C
81. C
82. B
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83. A
84. D
85. B
86. A
87. D
88. D
89. A
90. C
91. C
92. B
93. C
94. B
95. A
96. B
97. A
98. A
99. A
100. D
101. B
102. B
103. A
104. A
105. D
106. C
107. A
108. A
109. C
110. A
111. C
112. A
113. D
114. C
115. A
116. B
117. C
118. B
119. D
120. C
121. A
122. A
123. A
124. D
125. A
126. C
127. C
128. D
129. B
130. C
131. B
132. B
133. B
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134. B
135. B
136. C
137. C
138. B
139. B
140. D
141. A
142. C
143. A
144. B
145. C
146. A
147. C
Net+ Certification
Study Guide for Ch 9-11
____ 1. ____ originally developed the NetWare operating system.
a. Microsoft c. Novell
b. SUN d. Banyan
____ 2. The first version of NetWare to support intranet services such as Web server software, IP address
management, and FTP hosting was NetWare ____.
a. 3.1 c. 4.0
b. 3.2 d. 4.11
____ 3. The first version of NetWare to provide a network operating system wholly based on the IP protocol,
which is the de facto protocol of the Internet, was NetWare ____.
a. 3.2 c. 5.0
b. 4.11 d. 6.0
____ 4. Which versions of NetWare replaced the DOS commands with a graphical user interface in an attempt
to make the software more user-friendly?
a. NetWare 2.x c. NetWare 4.x
b. NetWare 3.x d. NetWare 5.x
____ 5. Which is not a method of obtaining support for Novell?
a. Novell's Web site, www.support.novell.com
b. third-party discussion groups
c. technical manuals and books
d. None of the above.
____ 6. Novell provides enhanced technical support to ____ through CDs and discounted calls to Novell's help
desk.
a. Certified NetWare Engineers c. Certified NetWare Developers
b. Certified Novell Developers d. Certified Novell Engineers
____ 7. Which is not true about NetWare 4.x and NetWare 5.x?
a. They both support integration with other network operating systems.
b. They both provide a graphical server console called ConsoleOne.
c. They both run multiple services simultaneously.
d. None of the above.
39
____ 8. Which is not true about NetWare 4.x and NetWare 5.x?
a. They both provide graphical wizards for part of the server installation.
b. Their modularity allows the network administrator to isolate some processes from others
or change the priority of critical applications.
c. They both provide encryption and other security measures to prevent intruders from
hacking into the server or its resources.
d. None of the above.
____ 9. Which does not support virtual memory?
a. NetWare 4.x c. Windows 2000 Server
b. NetWare 5.x d. Both A and B.
____ 10. When might purchasing NetWare be a good idea?
a. If your organization depends heavily on SQL Server or Internet Information Server.
b. If members of your technical staff prefer a simple, familiar graphical interface.
c. If you will be doing a lot of file and print sharing.
d. Both A and C.
____ 11. What is the minimum amount of RAM required for a NetWare 4.x server?
a. 16 MB c. 32 MB
b. 20 MB d. 64 MB
____ 12. NetWare's kernel is ____-bits.
a. 16 c. 32
b. 20 d. 64
____ 13. ____ loads the critical NLMs that the kernel needs to run the NetWare operating system.
a. AUTOEXEC.BAT c. KERNEL.BAT
b. KERNEL.EXE d. SERVER.EXE
____ 14. Which is not true?
a. NetWare 4.x employs only text-based server menus in the primary interface to a NetWare
server.
b. The primary interface to a NetWare server is the monitor console.
c. NetWare 5.x employs either a graphical menu system or text-based server menus in the
primary interface to a NetWare server.
d. None of the above.
____ 15. To view the NLMs currently running on your NetWare server, type ____ at the NetWare server console.
a. monitor c. modules
b. consoleone d. showmod
____ 16. To find out more about the NLM Monitor command, type ____ at the console prompt.
a. help monitor c. def monitor
b. monitor d. show monitor
____ 17. Which is not true?
a. The NetWare server console prompt is the same as a DOS prompt.
b. Most programmers end up writing NLMs because they are needed for additional utilities
they install.
c. To manage the file system you should log on to the server as an administrator from a
workstation connected to the network.
d. None of the above.
____ 18. Which volume is automatically created during the installation of NetWare?
a. DATA c. SYS1
b. APPS d. SYS
40
____ 19. Where would the figure above be displayed?
a. administrator terminal screen c. server console screen
b. workstation screen d. Both A and C.
____ 20. Which version(s) of NetWare support file compression?
a. all versions c. NetWare 4.x and NetWare 5.x
b. NetWare 4.11 and NetWare 5.x d. NetWare 5.x
____ 21. NetWare blocks that have been broken into smaller pieces contain ____ bytes.
a. 640 c. 456
b. 540 d. 512
____ 22. NSD was introduced in NetWare ____.
a. 4.0 c. 4.11
b. 4.1 d. 5.0
____ 23. NDS treats each networked resource as a separate ____ with distinct properties.
a. object c. container
b. block d. allocation unit
____ 24. Within the NDS tree, the root cannot be ____.
a. moved c. renamed
b. deleted d. All of the above.
____ 25. A printer is an example of a ____ NDS object.
a. tree c. leaf
b. root d. branch
____ 26. In typeful context notation, how is a user's organization designated?
41
a. CXT c. OU
b. CN d. O
____ 27. NetWare can support ____ hard disk controllers.
a. SCSI c. ESDI
b. IDE d. All of the above.
____ 28. To speed up the installation of NetWare, use the ____ installation.
a. quick c. custom
b. simple d. fast
____ 29. Which is the most popular method of installing NetWare?
a. CD c. another server on the network
b. floppy disks d. Both A and C.
____ 30. Which is not true?
a. The NWAdmin screen displays your NDS tree by default.
b. NWAdmin is a graphical interface that runs from a Windows workstation.
c. NWAdmin allows an administrator to modify objects' properties.
d. None of the above.
____ 31. If you choose to establish a user's home directory when you create the user ID, that user will have ____
rights to his or her home directory by default.
a. Read c. Read, Browse, Write
b. Read, Write d. all
____ 32. Which can you do with NWAdmin?
a. Manage Windows 2000 resources if Windows 2000 servers are integrated into your NDS
tree.
b. Manage GroupWise.
c. Search for objects, move objects from one container to another, and assign templates or
profiles to objects.
d. All of the above.
____ 33. UNIX was developed by ____.
a. AT&T Bell Laboratories c. The Open Group
b. University of California at Berkeley d. Sun Microsystems
____ 34. Which is the oldest operating system?
a. Windows NT c. UNIX
b. NetWare d. TCP/IP
____ 35. Which is considered the parent of TCP/IP networking?
a. Windows NT c. UNIX
b. NetWare d. TCP/IP
____ 36. Solaris is sold by ____.
a. IBM c. Microsoft
b. HP d. Sun
____ 37. Which is not a nonproprietary, freely distributed UNIX-like implementation?
a. Linux c. FreeBSD
b. GNU Hurd d. AIX
____ 38. BSD stands for ____.
a. Bell Software Division c. Bell Sun Division
b. Berkeley Software Distribution d. Berkeley Source Data
____ 39. Which is not an advantage of choosing a proprietary UNIX system?
a. There are resources on which to call for assistance.
b. Workstation vendors who ship these versions of UNIX invest a great deal of time in
42
ensuring that their software runs as well and as fast as possible on their hardware.
c. The customer can customize the operating system.
d. None of the above.
____ 40. Which is not true about open source software?
a. They are free of licensing fees.
b. Source code is available to anyone receiving the system.
c. They can be purchased.
d. None of the above.
____ 41. Versions of freely distributable UNIX do not run on ____-based processors.
a. Alpha c. SPARC
b. PowerPC d. None of the above.
____ 42. Which is not true about UNIX?
a. It supports non-IP protocols such as IPX/PX and AppleTalk.
b. After you have performed the installation of the UNIX operating system, you can load
add-on modules to perform operations such as routing and firewalling.
c. It supports Token Ring, FDDI, and wireless LANs.
d. None of the above.
____ 43. An open source software package that is a complete Windows NT-style file and printer sharing facility
is ____.
a. FreeShare c. Samba
b. NFS d. Apache
____ 44. The source code on which UNIX systems are based has been used and thoroughly debugged for nearly
____ years.
a. 10 c. 25
b. 15 d. 30
____ 45. Which is not true about UNIX systems?
a. A UNIX server and a UNIX workstation vary considerably.
b. The use of a GUI remains optional.
c. Hardware requirements are very similar to those for NetWare and Windows 2000 servers.
d. None of the above.
____ 46. Which is not mandatory in a UNIX server's base system unit?
a. floppy disk drive c. CD-ROM drive
b. video card d. NIC
____ 47. Recent versions of Linux (2.0 and later) include support for as many as ____ Intel processors.
a. 8 c. 20
b. 16 d. 32
____ 48. The minimum amount of RAM for a Linux server is ____ MB.
a. 32 c. 128
b. 64 d. 256
____ 49. Linux experts consider SMP to be stable in versions ____ and later.
a. 2.0 c. 2.2
b. 2.1 d. 2.4
____ 50. You can add or remove functionality by loading and unloading Linux ____.
a. NLMs c. APIs
b. kernel modules d. service extensions
____ 51. The ___ directory contains the Linux kernel.
a. /root c. /boot
b. /bin d. /dev
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____ 52. The ___ directory contains log files and print jobs waiting to be printed.
a. /var c. /sbin
b. /bin d. /dev
____ 53. The online documentation for all UNIX commands is called ____.
a. command list c. help
b. manual pages d. command interpreter
____ 54. If you don't know the name of the command you want to use, you might type ____ to search for a
command that prints files.
a. find print c. apropos print
b. help print d. man print
____ 55. To find out what the command list does, you should type ____.
a. run list c. apropos list
b. help list d. man list
____ 56. Which part of a UNIX command is like the adverbs or adjectives in a sentence?
a. the command name c. the Enter key
b. the command options d. the filename associated with the command
____ 57. To specify an option with a command, use the ____.
a. - c. :
b. / d. *
____ 58. What character serves as the connection between two commands?
a. : c. /
b. \ d. |
____ 59. Which letter does the ls command use to identify a UNIX character device file, such as a serial port?
a. b c. p
b. c d. l
____ 60. -rwxr-xr-x means that who has all rights to this file?
a. the group c. everyone else
b. the owner d. the group and the owner
____ 61. Which is not used to designate a valid file type in UNIX?
a. r c. c
b. b d. l
____ 62. Which is the fastest way to install Linux?
a. over a network using FTP c. using a CD-ROM
b. over a network using NFS d. Either B or C.
____ 63. Which is not true?
a. Network administrators usually configure workstations to obtain an IP address
automatically when they start up.
b. The Linux setup process attempts to detect the video card and will install the correct driver
if possible.
c. The Linux setup process attempts to determine what kind of monitor is being used, and the
installer must verify that the manufacturer's name is correct.
d. None of the above.
____ 64. The command useradd -g programs -G management joyce specifies the initial group as ____.
a. programs c. management joyce
b. management d. useradd
____ 65. Which is not true when you use the proper command to add a new group to a Linux system?
a. It does not assign users to the new group.
b. It assigns a unique identification number to each group.
44
c. It assigns basic rights to the group.
d. None of the above.
____ 66. Which is not true when you use the proper command to add a new user to a Linux system?
a. It does not assign the new user to any groups.
b. It creates a new user ID.
c. It does not assign a password to the new user.
d. None of the above.
____ 67. ____ is an open source application that implements a Win32 programming subsystem for UNIX
including support for running Windows programs.
a. X3270 c. VMWare
b. WINE d. Win32
____ 68. ____ is a commercial application that emulates a complete Intel-based computer.
a. X3270 c. VMWare
b. WINE d. Win32
____ 69. A network node's physical address belongs to the ____ layer of the OSI model.
a. Network c. Transport
b. Data Link d. Session
____ 70. An IP address has ____ bits.
a. 8 c. 32
b. 16 d. 64
____ 71. What represents the host in the IP address 208.145.56.19?
a. .19 c. 145.56.19
b. 56.19 d. 208.145.56
____ 72. An IP address whose first octet is 200 belongs to a Class ____ network.
a. A c. C
b. B d. D
____ 73. Which is not true?
a. Before subnetting, each segment on a network required its own Class A, B, or C network
number.
b. A subnetted address includes network, subnet, and host information.
c. Subnetting was implemented throughout the Internet in the mid-1980s.
d. Subnetting adds a 4th type of octet to the standard IP address.
____ 74. Subnet masks are composed of ____ octet(s).
a. one c. three
b. two d. four
____ 75. You might not want to use subnetting if ____.
a. you have a very small network
b. you never want to connect to the Internet and therefore do not have to follow IP
addressing standards
c. your organization has more IP address than it can ever conceivably use
d. All of the above.
____ 76. The default submask for a Class B network is ____.
a. 255.255.0.0 c. 0.255.0.0
b. 255.0.0.0 d. 0.0.255.255
____ 77. Which is not true?
a. Routers connect different network segments via their physical interfaces.
b. Each subnet corresponds to a different interface on the router.
c. Each interface on the router is associated with a default gateway address.
d. None of the above.
45
____ 78. The gateway that first interprets its outbound requests to other subnets and then interprets its inbound
requests from other subnets is called the ____ gateway.
a. primary c. core
b. head d. default
____ 79. The gateways that make up the Internet backbone are called ____ gateways.
a. Internet c. core
b. head d. default
____ 80. Which is not true?
a. A default gateway is always a separate device.
b. A gateway is analogous to your local post office.
c. If your network includes only one segment and you do not connect to the Internet, your
devices would not need a default gateway.
d. None of the above.
____ 81. Which is not true?
a. The Internet Network Operations Center operates default gateways.
b. Default gateways may connect multiple internal networks.
c. Each gateway on the Internet handles only a relatively small amount of addressing
information, which it uses to forward data to another gateway that knows more about the
data's destination.
d. None of the above.
____ 82. Which is not included in a socket's address?
a. host computer's IP address c. port number associated with a process
b. subnet mask d. None of the above.
____ 83. Port numbers in the range of 0 to 1023 are called ____ ports.
a. common c. primary
b. well-known d. registered
____ 84. The port number for Telnet is ____.
a. 25 c. 21
b. 23 d. 80
____ 85. The port number for FTP is ____.
a. 25 c. 21
b. 23 d. 80
____ 86. The port number for SMTP is ____.
a. 25 c. 21
b. 23 d. 80
____ 87. Which type of organization would use the ORG top-level domain suffix?
a. noncommercial groups c. commercial groups
b. government d. U.S. military organizations
____ 88. When the Internet was called ARPAnet, the file known as a host file was ____.
a. HOSTS.TXT c. HOSTFILE.INI
b. HOSTS.DEF d. HOST.TXT
____ 89. Typically, the first line of a host file begins with a(n) ____.
a. 1 or a 0 c. number
b. # d. /
____ 90. On a UNIX-based computer, a host file is called hosts and resides in the ____ directory.
a. /boot c. /sbin
b. /bin d. /etc
____ 91. ____ developed a hierarchical way of tracking domain names and their addresses in the mid-1980s.
46
a. ICANN c. INOC
b. NIC d. IETF
____ 92. The DNS component that contains databases of names and their associated IP addresses is/are _____.
a. resolvers c. name space
b. name servers d. Both A and B.
____ 93. A ____ record is a single record that describes one piece of information in the DNS database.
a. data c. name
b. resource d. domain
____ 94. ____ uses a central list of IP addresses and their associated devices' MAC addresses to dynamically
assign IP addresses to clients.
a. BSP Protocol c. DHCP
b. BOOTP d. ARP
____ 95. The term used when a DHCP-generated IP address is no longer needed is ____.
a. release c. erase
b. terminate d. remove
____ 96. Which is not a type of IPv6 address?
a. unicast c. bicast
b. anycast d. multicast
____ 97. Which does not rely on SMTP?
a. POP2 c. IMPA
b. HTTP d. POP3
____ 98. ____ is a protocol that provides centralized storage for e-mail messages.
a. SMTP c. IMAP
b. POP d. NTP
____ 99. ____ allows users to store messages on the mail server, rather than always having to download them to a
local machine.
a. SMTP c. IMAP
b. POP d. NTP
____ 100. The ____ utility displays TCP/IP statistics and the state of current TCP/IP components and connections.
a. PING c. nbstat
b. netstat d. nslookup
____ 101. Nbtstat is useful on ____-based networks.
a. Novell c. UNIX
b. Windows d. All of the above.
____ 102. ____ is useful for troubleshooting DNS resolution problems.
a. PING c. traceroute
b. netstat d. nslookup
____ 103. ____ is useful for determining router or connectivity problems.
a. traceroute c. nbstat
b. netstat d. nslookup
Study Guide for Ch 9-11
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
47
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. D
25. C
26. D
27. D
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. D
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. D
42. B
43. C
44. D
45. A
46. B
48
47. B
48. A
49. C
50. B
51. C
52. A
53. B
54. C
55. D
56. B
57. A
58. D
59. B
60. B
61. A
62. C
63. C
64. A
65. C
66. A
67. B
68. C
69. B
70. C
71. A
72. C
73. D
74. D
75. D
76. A
77. D
78. D
79. C
80. A
81. A
82. B
83. B
84. B
85. C
86. A
87. A
88. A
89. B
90. D
91. B
92. B
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93. B
94. B
95. A
96. C
97. B
98. B
99. C
100. B
101. B
102. D
103. A
Net+ Certification
Study Guide ch 12-16
____ 1. Which is typically the first step performed when troubleshooting a network problem?
a. Consider recent changes to the network.
b. Ensure that the problem can be recreated accurately.
c. Identify the specific symptoms of the problem.
d. Verify the logical integrity of the network connection.
____ 2. Asking questions such as "How many users or network segments are affected?" or "When did the
problem begin?" will help ____.
a. identify the symptoms of the problem c. verify user competency
b. determine the scope of the problem d. recreate the problem
____ 3. If a network problem affects an entire department or floor of the organization, the troubleshooter should
investigate ____.
a. the WAN link
b. the cabling between the backbone and the switch
c. an individual workstation's NIC and cabling
d. the network segment's router interface
____ 4. If a network problem affects users at remote locations, the troubleshooter should investigate ____.
a. the WAN link
b. the cabling between the backbone and the switch
c. an individual workstation's NIC and cabling
d. the network segment's router interface
____ 5. If a user says he and his two neighbors have not been able to access email for the past 10 minutes, and a
network technician has just installed a graphics problem on his machine, you should probably check
____.
a. the WAN link
b. the cabling between the backbone and the switch
c. the individual workstation's NIC and cabling
d. the network segment that the three users are on
____ 6. Which question would be asked to identify the chronological scope of the problem?
a. Did the symptoms appear in the last hour or day?
b. Is the problem universal?
c. Were the workstations configured similarly, at the same time, or by the same person?
d. All of the above.
50
____ 7. If a user cannot access email, and the troubleshooter, when logged in as the user, cannot access email
but can access email as an administrator (or equivalent), the problem probably lies with ____.
a. the user's workstation c. the network segment that the user is on
b. the user's access rights to email d. the WAN link
____ 8. If a single user cannot log in to the network and is typing the password correctly, the troubleshooter
should first ____.
a. verify that the router is properly connected to the backbone
b. replace the workstation
c. verify that the workstation's network cable is properly connected to its NIC and the wall
jack
d. reboot the network
____ 9. Physical connectivity problems do not typically ____.
a. manifest as a continuous or intermittent inability to connect to the network
b. result in application anomalies
c. result in poor network performance
d. Either B or C.
____ 10. What usually indicates that a NIC cannot make a network connection?
a. a rapidly blinking red light c. a blinking green light
b. a steady blinking amber light d. a steady amber light
____ 11. Which does not fall into the category of logical connectivity?
a. firmware configurations c. NIC IRQ settings
b. software configurations d. None of the above.
____ 12. Which is not true when testing the solution to your network problem?
a. Having the user test the solution gives an objective assessment of the results.
b. It ensures that the device is left in a state that is familiar to the user.
c. It ensures that the original problem has been solved.
d. All of the above.
____ 13. Which is not an example of a call tracking system?
a. Remedy c. Netmeeting
b. Vantive d. Track-It!
____ 14. A basic cable checker costs ____.
a. less than $100 c. between $300 and $1000
b. between $100 and $300 d. over $1000
____ 15. A good cable checker will ____.
a. measure the distance to a cable fault c. verify that the wires are paired correctly
b. ensure that the cable is not too long d. All of the above.
____ 16. Which is not true?
a. The result of crosstalk is interference.
b. You should test for crosstalk before you install the cable.
c. You should perform the crosstalk test at both ends of the wire.
d. None of the above.
____ 17. A(n) ____ can indicate whether terminators are properly installed and functional and indicate the
distance between nodes and segments.
a. TDR c. cable tester
b. cable checker d. multimeter
____ 18. A TDR made for fiber-optic networks is called a(n) ____ TDR.
a. fiber c. electric
b. light d. optic
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____ 19. Which is true about network monitors?
a. They are more expensive than network analyzers.
b. They are often included in the network operating system software.
c. They can capture passwords going over the network if their transmission is not encrypted.
d. NetXray is a network monitor.
____ 20. Which is not true about a jabber?
a. It usually results from a line without enough throughput.
b. It effectively brings the network to a halt.
c. It is a device that handles electrical signals improperly.
d. A network analyzer will detect a jabber as a device that is always retransmitting.
____ 21. The minimum Ethernet packet size is ____ bytes.
a. 8 c. 32
b. 16 d. 64
____ 22. The maximum Ethernet packet size is ____ bytes.
a. 2056 c. 3200
b. 1518 d. 1012
____ 23. Collisions that take place outside the window of time in which they would normally be detected by the
network and redressed are called ____ collisions.
a. late c. outside
b. remote d. negative
____ 24. NetMon's most useful capability is ____.
a. detecting other running copies of NetMon on the network
b. capturing data as it travels across the network
c. generating statistics about network activity
d. initially discovering all network nodes on segment
____ 25. A single jump in a measure of network performance, such as utilization, is called a(n) ____.
a. aberration c. jabber
b. spike d. giant
____ 26. With which system does LANalyzer work?
a. UNIX c. Linux
b. Windows 2000 d. All of the above.
____ 27. Sniffer Portable is manufactured by ____.
a. Novell c. Network Associates
b. Microsoft d. SUN
____ 28. Which is not true about sniffers?
a. They usually resemble regular laptops but are equipped with a special network adapter and
network analysis software.
b. They depend on the Windows operating system.
c. They can capture information such as runt packets.
d. They are tailored to a particular type of network.
____ 29. If your network is fully ____, your network analyzer can capture only broadcast packets and packets
destined for the node on which you're running the software.
a. optimized c. utilized
b. switched d. broadcasted
____ 30. By some estimates, more than ____ of all network problems occur at the Physical layer of the OSI
model.
a. 10% c. 50%
b. 25% d. 75%
____ 31. Logical addressing and routing occur in the ____ layer of the OSI Model.
52
a. Physical c. Network
b. Data Link d. Transport
____ 32. An excessive number of late collisions usually indicates ____.
a. signal noise c. segment problems
b. cable damage d. connector flaws
____ 33. An excessive number of packet errors such as runts and giants, but no evidence of excessive collisions,
usually indicates ____.
a. signal noise c. segment problems
b. cable damage d. connector flaws
____ 34. An excessive number of normal collisions or packet errors, such as giants and runts, usually indicates
____.
a. signal noise c. segment problems
b. cable damage d. All of the above.
____ 35. If you think you have a connector flaw, you can ____.
a. use a simple PING test to determine the location of the fault
b. use a protocol analyzer to indicate which node is experiencing excessive numbers of
packet errors
c. use a network monitor to indicate where traffic bottlenecks are occurring
d. All of the above.
____ 36. Baselining would not be used to ____.
a. predict the impact of a significant network change
b. know if a network change helped the level of service
c. verify how many NICs of a certain brand exist on the network
d. determine which groups generate the most network traffic
____ 37. If a group of users complains about slow response time over the WAN, you should ____.
a. compare current network segment utilization rates to previous ones
b. compare current segment response time rates to previous ones
c. compare current WAN link statistics to previous ones
d. All of the above.
____ 38. Which is not true about baselining tools and practices?
a. For baselining a small network, an inexpensive tool may suffice.
b. All baselining tools measure the same statistics.
c. Select a tool that enables easy setting of measurement parameters.
d. Regularly repeat baseline measurements.
____ 39. Which is a baselining tool?
a. NetMon c. Baseline+
b. WG Wizard d. Statcount
____ 40. Which is not a benefit from an asset management system?
a. Notification that an equipment lease will expire.
b. Assessing whether an upgrade has increased network performance
c. Determining how many routers are installed on a network
d. Automatically discovering all devices on a network.
____ 41. An asset management system should be updated ____.
a. daily
b. weekly
c. monthly
d. whenever changes are made to network hardware or software
____ 42. Which is not a type of software change associated with network maintenance?
a. installation c. patch
53
b. revision d. upgrade
____ 43. The first step in asset management is to ____.
a. take an inventory of every node on a network
b. see if any software licenses have expired
c. develop a plan for regular updates to your hardware and software
d. None of the above.
____ 44. Asset management does not ____.
a. simplify maintaining and upgrading of the network
b. provide network administrators with information about the costs and benefits of certain
types of hardware or software
c. provide information about the length of equipment leases
d. None of the above.
____ 45. Which is the first step in a software change?
a. Research the purpose of the change and its potential effects on other programs.
b. Determine whether the change should apply to some or all users.
c. Determine whether the change will be distributed centrally or machine-by-machine.
d. Determine whether the change is necessary.
____ 46. Which is not true about patches?
a. They are often distributed at no charge by software vendors.
b. They are an attempt to fix a bug in code or an attempt to add slightly more functionality in
the code.
c. They typically replace the entire package.
d. None of the above.
____ 47. Software abbreviated as S1 and S2 is manufactured by ____.
a. SUN c. Novell
b. Microsoft d. Network Associates
____ 48. Which is not true about patches?
a. Since vendors thoroughly test patches before they release them, they should work
flawlessly on your system.
b. Patch installations are no more difficult than installations of new software programs.
c. You should back up the system before installing a patch.
d. None of the above.
____ 49. To stay appraised of patches, ____.
a. regularly check the vendor's technical support Web site
b. read trade magazines
c. subscribe to a mailing list that will alert you about releases
d. All of the above.
____ 50. Which is not true about client upgrades?
a. They should be transparent to the user.
b. They typically overwrite some system files (such as .dll files) on the workstation.
c. They should be tested on a single workstation before they are distributed to all users.
d. None of the above.
____ 51. Application upgrades ____.
a. always represent modification to an entire program
b. can be performed while users are using the software
c. will affect all users at once
d. Both A and B.
____ 52. ____ upgrades are not usually designed to fix problems in the software, but rather to enhance the
program's functionality.
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a. Application c. System software
b. Client d. None of the above.
____ 53. Which is the most critical type of software upgrade?
a. An upgrade to NetWare 5.0.
b. An upgrade to WordPerfect 7.0.
c. An upgrade to Windows 95 Dial-Up Networking client.
d. An upgrade to Microsoft's Systems Management Server software.
____ 54. Which should not happen during the evaluation phase of a network operating system upgrade?
a. Any new features of the upgrade should be tested.
b. The upgrade should be thoroughly tested on the production server.
c. During testing, notes should be kept on how the upgrade meets the requirements specified
in the proposal.
d. Response time of the upgrade should be tested.
____ 55. The ____ phase of a network operating system upgrade includes the review of the short- and long-term
benefits of the upgrade.
a. research c. testing
b. implementation d. proposal
____ 56. In the ____ phase of a network operating system upgrade, a review of the support calls generated by the
upgrade is performed.
a. implementation c. research
b. post-implementation d. review
____ 57. In the ____ phase of a network operating system upgrade, networking staff should remove any
unnecessary applications or services they have installed on the server.
a. implementation c. pre-implementation
b. post-implementation d. review
____ 58. Which is not true about reversing an upgrade?
a. You should follow the hard and fast rules in place in the industry for reversing the
upgrade.
b. The reversing process will vary depending on the type of upgrade and the network
environment involved.
c. If you must reverse a network operating system upgrade, you should also consult with
experienced professionals about the best approach for your network environment.
d. None of the above.
____ 59. You should uninstall a(n) ____ upgrade only as a last resort.
a. application c. client software
b. operating system d. All of the above.
____ 60. Which does not typically have an automatic uninstall utility?
a. operating system patch c. application upgrade
b. client software upgrade d. None of the above.
____ 61. Which is usually not a requirement for performing a hardware or physical plant change?
a. To improve network performance.
b. To increase capacity on the network.
c. To replace a failing or malfunctioning network component.
d. To add functionality to the network.
____ 62. Which type of upgrade does not typically cause network downtime?
a. a server upgrade c. a network printer upgrade
b. a hub upgrade d. a switch upgrade
____ 63. Which is the most complex addition or change to a network design?
a. a networked printer c. a server
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b. a hub d. a switch or router
____ 64. You do not have to notify affected users if you are ____ a hub.
a. adding c. swapping out
b. upgrading d. None of the above.
____ 65. For the most part, only organizations that ____ upgrade or install their own network cabling.
a. run very small networks c. have simple cabling layouts
b. have a very small budget d. All of the above.
____ 66. Migrating from Token Ring to Ethernet is an example of a(n) ____ upgrade.
a. operating system c. backbone
b. cable segment d. router
____ 67. Which is the first step in a backbone upgrade?
a. Create an RFP.
b. Determine which kind of backbone design to implement.
c. Develop a project plan.
d. Justify the upgrade.
____ 68. Which is the second step in a backbone upgrade?
a. Create an RFP.
b. Determine which kind of backbone design to implement.
c. Develop a project plan.
d. Justify the upgrade.
____ 69. The term ____ refers to a situation in which more than one component is installed and ready for use
storing, processing, or transporting data.
a. availability c. redundancy
b. alternative planning d. duplicity
____ 70. ____ is the practice of monitoring the network for unauthorized access to devices such as routers or
switches.
a. Intrusion detection c. Intrusion alerting
b. Incorrect accessing d. Unauthorization
____ 71. Which is not true about viruses?
a. They are programs that replicate themselves so as to infect more computers.
b. All viruses are designed to cause harm.
c. A virus may damage files or systems or annoy users by flashing messages or pictures.
d. None of the above.
____ 72. The best way to guard against a ____ is to refrain from downloading an executable file whose origins
you can't confirm.
a. Trojan horse c. network virus
b. worm d. All of the above.
____ 73. Most virus-scanning software searches files for a recognizable string of characters that identify the
virus. If the virus is ____, it will thwart the antivirus program's attempts to detect it.
a. encoded c. encrypted
b. polymorphized d. hidden
____ 74. ____ viruses disguise themselves as legitimate programs or replace part of a legitimate program's code
with their destructive code.
a. Stealth c. Polymorphic
b. Trojan horse d. Encrypted
____ 75. ____ viruses are considered to be the most sophisticated and potentially dangerous type of virus.
a. Stealth c. Polymorphic
b. Trojan horse d. Encrypted
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____ 76. An antivirus program should compare current characteristics of files and disks against an archived
version of the characteristics to discover any changes. This is called ____.
a. integrity checking c. signature scanning
b. heuristic scanning d. hoaxing
____ 77. A scanning technique that attempts to identify viruses by discovering "virus-like" behavior is known as
____.
a. integrity checking c. signature scanning
b. heuristic scanning d. hoaxing
____ 78. Which is not something that should be included in an antivirus policy?
a. Each computer in an organization should be equipped with virus detection and cleaning
software that regularly scans for viruses.
b. Each user should install his own antivirus software and know how to use it.
c. Organizations should impose penalties on users who do not follow the antivirus policy.
d. Each organization should have an antivirus team that focuses on maintaining the antivirus
measures in place.
____ 79. ____ is a system's capacity to continue performing despite an unexpected hardware or software
malfunction.
a. Redundancy c. Fail-over
b. Duplicity d. Fault tolerance
____ 80. The process of one component immediately assuming the duties of an identical component is known as
automatic ____.
a. redundancy c. fail-over
b. duplicity d. fault tolerance
____ 81. The "R" in RAID stands for ____.
a. Reactive c. Regular
b. Redundant d. Rules
____ 82. The figure above shows a(n) ____ UPS.
a. online c. redundant
b. available d. standby
____ 83. Which is not true about offline UPSs?
a. They are more expensive than online UPSs.
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b. They provide continuous voltage to a device by switching virtually instantaneously to the
battery when it detects a loss of power from the wall outlet.
c. They require a brief service outage when they detect that A/C power has stopped.
d. None of the above.
____ 84. Electrical power is measured in ____.
a. amps c. volts
b. volt-amps d. All of the above.
____ 85. Most UPSs are rated to support a device for ____.
a. 1-3 minutes c. 15-20 minutes
b. 5-10 minutes d. 25-30 minutes
____ 86. The figure shown above is an example of a ____ network.
a. mesh c. ring
b. star d. hybrid
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____ 87. The network in figure shown above has ____ redundant connection(s).
a. no c. two
b. one d. three
____ 88. The figure shown above is an example of a ____ SONET ring.
a. hot swappable c. self-healing
b. heuristic d. fully-meshed
____ 89. Which is not true about mirroring?
a. The servers involved must be identical machines using identical components.
b. The servers must be side by side.
c. There must be software running on both servers that allows them to synchronize their
actions continually.
d. None of the above.
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____ 90. Server ____ links multiple servers together to act as a single server.
a. clustering c. banding
b. grouping d. binding
____ 91. Which is a disadvantage of linking multiple servers together to act as a single server?
a. They must be geographically close.
b. It is more expensive than data mirroring.
c. There is a period of delay while the other servers take over for a failed server.
d. None of the above.
____ 92. Which incorporates options for grouping multiple servers together to act as a single server?
a. UNIX c. Windows 2000 DataCenter Server
b. NetWare 5.0 d. All of the above.
____ 93. Disk striping is also known as RAID Level ____.
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 5
____ 94. RAID Level ____ provides redundancy through disk mirroring.
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 5
____ 95. Which is not an advantage of RAID Level 1?
a. It is inexpensive. c. It provides automatic data redundancy.
b. It provides complete data redundancy. d. None of the above.
____ 96. RAID Level ____ provides disk striping with parity error correction code.
a. 3 c. 2
b. 1 d. 5
____ 97. The figure shown above is an example of RAID Level ____.
a. 3 c. 2
b. 1 d. 5
____ 98. ____ is a specialized storage device or group of storage devices that provides centralized fault-tolerant
data storage for a network and maintains its own interface to the LAN.
a. RAID c. SAN
b. NAS d. Both A and B.
____ 99. Which is not true about NAS?
a. It can be easily expanded without interrupting service.
b. It is appropriate for small- or medium-sized companies that require not only fault
tolerance, but also fast access for their data.
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c. It can communicate directly with clients on the network.
d. None of the above.
____ 100. ____ are distinct networks of storage devices that communicate directly with each other and with other
networks.
a. RAIDs c. SANs
b. NASs d. Both A and B.
____ 101. The type of architecture in a SAN is similar to the ____ topology in WANs.
a. mesh c. ring
b. star d. hybrid
____ 102. Which is not true about SANs?
a. They are highly scalable.
b. They free the client/server network from the traffic-intensive duties of backing up and
restoring data.
c. They are expensive.
d. They are limited to the speed of the client/server network for which they provide data
storage.
____ 103. Currently the most popular method of backing up network systems is ____.
a. Internet backups c. floppy disk backups
b. online backups d. tape backups
____ 104. Which is not true?
a. Every organization should have a disaster recovery plan and a disaster recovery team.
b. Disaster recovery must take into account the possible extremes, rather than relatively
minor outages, failures, security breaches, or data corruption.
c. A disaster recovery plan should outline multiple contingencies, in case your best options
don't pan out.
d. None of the above.
____ 105. In general, ____ refers to a highly privileged user ID that has all rights to create, delete, modify, move,
read, write, or execute files on a system.
a. administrator c. super
b. superuser d. root
____ 106. A ____ uses his knowledge of operating systems and utilities to intentionally damage or destroy data or
systems.
a. cracker c. hacker
b. debugger d. host
____ 107. ____ is the process of verifying a user's validity and authority on a system.
a. Authentication c. Verification
b. Validation d. Error checking
____ 108. Preferably, an organization should assess its security risks ____.
a. monthly c. annually
b. quarterly d. biannually
____ 109. By some estimates, human errors, ignorance, or omissions cause more than ____ percent of security
breaches sustained by networks.
a. 10 c. 50
b. 25 d. 75
____ 110. Which is not a risk associated with people?
a. An unused workstation being left logged into the network.
b. Network administrators overlooking security flaws in the operating system or application
configuration.
c. A network that uses leased lines.
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d. Discarded disks left in public waste containers.
____ 111. Risks associated with hardware and network design are inherent in (roughly) which OSI Layers?
a. Physical and Application c. Presentation and Session
b. Transport and Data Link d. Physical and Data Link
____ 112. Networks that use leased public lines are vulnerable to ____.
a. eavesdropping c. interception
b. sniffing d. backdooring
____ 113. Which cannot be intercepted?
a. wireless transmissions c. spread-spectrum wireless transmissions
b. wire-based transmissions d. None of the above.
____ 114. Network hubs broadcast traffic over the entire segment, thus making transmissions more widely
vulnerable to ____.
a. eavesdropping c. interception
b. sniffing d. backdooring
____ 115. Which is the least risky when selecting your network hardware and design?
a. Having unused server ports that are enabled.
b. Having remote users access dial-in servers.
c. Computers hosting sensitive data coexisting on the same subnet with computers open to
the general public.
d. Using switches.
____ 116. Risks inherent to networked software typically do not occur in the ____ layer of the OSI Model.
a. Transport c. Data Link
b. Presentation d. Session
____ 117. Which is not true about TCP/IP?
a. IP addresses can be falsified easily. c. Checksums can be thwarted.
b. UDP requires weak authentication. d. None of the above.
____ 118. Which is true about a denial-of-service attack?
a. It is relatively complex to launch.
b. The easiest resolution is to turn off the affected server.
c. It may result from malfunctioning software.
d. None of the above.
____ 119. The first step in securing your network is to implement ____.
a. hardware security measures c. a security policy
b. software security measures d. operating system security measures
____ 120. Which is not true about a security policy?
a. It may include content that does not pertain to computers or networks.
b. It specifies which software will be used to ensure security.
c. It prevents intentional damage to hardware or software.
d. None of the above.
____ 121. Which is not true about a security response team?
a. Each member should be assigned a role and responsibilities related to the security policy.
b. It should regularly rehearse its defense in a security threat drill.
c. It should be composed of members of the network group with highly technical skills.
d. The leader of the team is often called a security coordinator.
____ 122. Which is true about passwords?
a. The shorter the better.
b. Use something that is easy to remember, such as your pet's or child's name.
c. Even if allowed, do not use special characters, such as exclamation marks, because they
are easy to mistype.
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d. Do not write them down, even if it is in safe place.
____ 123. It is recommended to change a password at least every ____.
a. day c. 30 days
b. week d. 90 days
____ 124. Which areas should be physically secured?
a. computer rooms
b. wiring closet with hubs or switches
c. telecommunications closet with leased line to the Internet
d. All of the above.
____ 125. Using color patterns in an eye's iris or whorls in a fingerprint to establish identity are examples of ____.
a. scanning access c. bio-recognition access
b. physical characteristic access d. electronic access
____ 126. Which is the most expensive type of security?
a. electronic badge system
b. bio-recognition device
c. locks that have numeric codes which must be punched
d. key lock
____ 127. A firewall ____.
a. may reside between two interconnected private networks
b. typically involves only hardware
c. uses only TCP protocol
d. usually is a server
____ 128. A router acting as a firewall operates at the ____ layers of the OSI Model.
a. Data Link and Transport c. Physical and Data Link
b. Network and Transport d. Transport and Session
____ 129. Which is not important when considering a firewall?
a. Does it support user authentication?
b. Does it prevent "punching a hole"?
c. Does it allow you to manage it centrally and through a standard interface?
d. Does is protect the identity of your internal LANs addresses from the outside world?
____ 130. Proxy servers manage security at the ____ layer of the OSI Model.
a. Data Link c. Application
b. Network d. Session
____ 131. ____ is a remote control software program.
a. pcAnywhere c. See All
b. Xanadu d. Attach and Look
____ 132. Which is not true about RADIUS?
a. It is highly scalable.
b. It is more secure than using a simple remote access solution.
c. It may run on UNIX, Windows 2000, or NetWare networks.
d. None of the above.
____ 133. Creating ____ simplifies the process of granting rights to users.
a. containers c. groups
b. trees d. levels
____ 134. ____ is the last means of defense against data theft.
a. Physical security c. Network security
b. Hardware security d. Encryption
____ 135. In encryption, the scrambled data block is known as ____.
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a. cipher text c. a key
b. a cipher block d. key text
____ 136. In private key encryption, ____.
a. data are encrypted using a single key that only the sender and the receiver know
b. data are encrypted using a single key that only the sender knows
c. data are encrypted using two keys; both are known to the sender; one is known to the
receiver
d. data are encrypted using two keys; both are known to the sender and to the receiver
____ 137. In public key encryption, ____.
a. data are encrypted using a single key that only the sender and the receiver know
b. data are encrypted using a single key that only the sender knows
c. data are encrypted using two keys; one is known only to the user; the other is a public key
associated with the user
d. data are encrypted using two keys; both are known to the sender and to the receiver
____ 138. When Web page URLs begin with the prefix HTTPS, they are requiring that their data be transferred
from server to client and vice versa using ____ encryption.
a. PGP c. HTTP
b. SSL d. IPSec
____ 139. When using IPSec, key ____ refers to the way in which two nodes agree on common parameters for the
keys they will use.
a. management c. encryption
b. exchange d. usage
____ 140. The process of encapsulating one protocol to make it appear as another type of protocol is known as
____.
a. polymorphism c. deceiving
b. tunneling d. encrypting
____ 141. PPTP does not support ____.
a. encryption c. LAN access services provided by RAS
b. authentication d. None of the above.
____ 142. ____ developed L2F.
a. Microsoft c. A number of industry consortia
b. Cisco Systems d. Novell
____ 143. Which is not true about L2TP?
a. It requires costly hardware upgrades to implement.
b. It was developed by a number of industry consortia.
c. It supports multiple protocols.
d. None of the above.
____ 144. Every project begins with identifying ____.
a. a plan c. a need
b. participants d. funding options
____ 145. Which is not a software package that facilitates project planning?
a. Microsoft Project c. Project Plus
b. PlanView d. PrimaVera Project Planner
____ 146. A project ____ is the way in which details of a managed project are organized.
a. chart c. spreadsheet
b. plan d. folder
____ 147. Which is not an element common to all projects?
a. task priority c. dependencies
b. subtasks d. None of the above.
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____ 148. Which is not an element common to all projects?
a. task successors c. milestones
b. timelines d. None of the above.
____ 149. Dividing a project into specific tasks is called task ____.
a. breakdown c. distribution
b. division d. planning
____ 150. When planning a project with seemingly impossible deadlines, one technique to try is to ____.
a. add more milestones
b. determine the order in which tasks must be accomplished
c. work backwards to create the timeline
d. All of the above.
____ 151. Which is not true about the task owner?
a. The task owner is the one who should perform the task.
b. The task owner must ensure that the task is completed on time.
c. The task owner must ensure that the task is completed within budgetary guidelines.
d. None of the above.
____ 152. Which is not true?
a. Large project tasks should be accomplished by teams.
b. Project managers should supervise everyone involved in the project.
c. Some project participants may belong to more than one team.
d. None of the above.
____ 153. Sponsors most likely will ____.
a. participate in project tasks c. assist with negotiating vendor contracts
b. supervise the project manager d. All of the above.
____ 154. A sponsor may ____.
a. lobby for budget increases necessary to complete the project
b. appeal to a group of managers to extend a project's deadline
c. be the one who originated the idea for the project
d. All of the above.
____ 155. Which is not true?
a. A project manager should have full control over the project's budget after it is established.
b. It is always preferable to complete a project under budget than to continually appeal for
more funding.
c. A project budget is usually set at the beginning of a project.
d. None of the above.
____ 156. At the beginning of a project, the ____ should take responsibility for establishing the methods of
communication.
a. users c. sponsors
b. stakeholders d. project manager
____ 157. Planning for and handling the steps needed to accomplish a goal in a systematic way is ____
management.
a. problem c. goal
b. resource d. process
____ 158. Which process would not be followed during a project's implementation?
a. change c. problem resolution
b. network d. training
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____ 159. If a new network administrator is hired to shoulder some of the responsibilities previously assigned to
an existing network administrator, part of the ____ process would be to ask the existing network
administrator to identify recently completed tasks or to identify other employees who can act as
resources for the new employee in different subject areas.
a. change c. training
b. research d. delegation
____ 160. Which would be a good way to determine whether choosing switches over routers will improve your
network's performance?
a. Use a pilot network. c. Hot swap each component.
b. Perform shadow testing. d. Use proper contingency planning.
____ 161. The amount of preparation you perform for each contingency should ____.
a. be the same in all cases
b. vary by cost
c. be commensurate with the potential effects of that possibility
d. ensure that even the smallest problem won't occur
____ 162. Accurately measuring increases in performance depends on keeping a(n) ____ of the network's
performance before the change occurred.
a. Gantt chart c. baseline
b. record d. table
____ 163. Once a network change project is deemed feasible, what should the project team do next?
a. Develop the problem resolution process. c. Plan for unforeseen circumstances.
b. Create a timeline for each task. d. Define project goals.
____ 164. A ____ is the process of clarifying the reasons and objectives underlying a proposed change.
a. feasibility study c. pilot test
b. project assessment d. needs assessment
____ 165. A ____ involves interviewing users and other stakeholders, comparing perceptions to factual data, and
may also involve analyzing network baseline data.
a. feasibility study c. research assessment
b. project assessment d. needs assessment
____ 166. When conducting user interviews to clarify user requirements, you should ____.
a. never restate a user's answer and run the risk of misrepresenting it
b. ask general questions and let users give as much information as they want
c. aim to guide users to a better articulation of their needs
d. be as subjective as possible
____ 167. Which is true about performance requirements on a network?
a. Performance needs are easily quantifiable.
b. Performance needs are often identified by technical staff before customers experience
slowdowns.
c. Methods for enhancing performance are easily agreed upon.
d. All of the above.
____ 168. ____ describes how consistently and reliably a file, device, or connection can be accessed by authorized
personnel.
a. Usability c. Reliability
b. Availability d. All of the above.
____ 169. When determining availability requirements, which question would be most appropriate for
management?
a. What part of the application is most important to keep available?
b. Where do current availability flaws exist?
c. What measures can boost current availability to your recommended percentage?
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d. How will availability improvements affect performance?
____ 170. When determining availability requirements, which question would be most appropriate for technical
staff?
a. What is the cost of one hour of down time during business hours?
b. Where are the network's single points of failure?
c. How much are you willing to spend to ensure that the network remains available for your
ideal percentage of time?
d. What is your ideal availability percentage?
____ 171. Which is least likely to drive network changes?
a. customer needs c. security issues
b. performance problems d. scalability
____ 172. When determining integration and scalability requirements, which question would be most appropriate
for management?
a. How is the network's growth currently limited?
b. What needs to change to accommodate growth?
c. Do you expect the number of users on the network to grow over the next 5 years?
d. Where is the network's growth currently limited?
____ 173. When determining integration and scalability requirements, which question would be most appropriate
for technical staff?
a. How will improving scalability and integration affect customers, performance, security,
and availability?
b. What type of hardware and software do you expect to adopt in coming months and years?
c. Would you place a higher priority on positioning the network and systems for growth or
on improving network security, availability, usability,or performance?
d. How much are you willing to spend to optimally position the network and systems for
growth?
____ 174. Which is not true about creating realistic and useful pilot networks?
a. Do not connect the pilot network to a live network.
b. Try to emulate the number of segments, protocols, and addressing schemes that will be
used in the final network.
c. Test the pilot network for at least 2 days after it is configured.
d. Evaluate your testing results against the predefined test criteria and note where your
results show success or failure.
Study Guide ch 12-16
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
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10. B
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. B
40. B
41. D
42. A
43. A
44. D
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. A
49. D
50. A
51. C
52. A
53. A
54. B
55. D
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56. B
57. C
58. A
59. B
60. D
61. C
62. C
63. D
64. A
65. A
66. C
67. D
68. B
69. C
70. A
71. B
72. A
73. C
74. A
75. C
76. A
77. B
78. B
79. D
80. C
81. B
82. D
83. A
84. B
85. C
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. B
90. A
91. B
92. D
93. A
94. B
95. A
96. A
97. D
98. B
99. C
100. C
101. A
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102. A
103. D
104. D
105. D
106. A
107. A
108. B
109. C
110. C
111. D
112. A
113. C
114. B
115. D
116. C
117. B
118. A
119. C
120. B
121. C
122. D
123. D
124. D
125. C
126. B
127. A
128. A
129. B
130. C
131. A
132. D
133. C
134. D
135. A
136. A
137. C
138. B
139. A
140. B
141. D
142. B
143. A
144. C
145. C
146. B
147. A
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148. A
149. A
150. C
151. A
152. B
153. C
154. D
155. A
156. D
157. D
158. B
159. C
160. A
161. C
162. C
163. D
164. D
165. D
166. C
167. B
168. B
169. A
170. B
171. D
172. C
173. A
174. C
Review Questions for Chapter 1
What resources do networks not enable workstations to share?
Answer: B.
A server-based network can:
Answer: A.
What is the simplest form of a network still in use today?
Answer: D.
Servers usually possess the same amount of memory and hard disk capacity as workstations. True or False?
Answer: False. Servers usually possess greater processing capabilities, more hard disk space, and more
memory than workstations
What is the primary function of a file server on a network?
Answer: D.
What is the primary difference between LANs and WANs?
Answer: A. the distance they span
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Any two computers can use the same network interface card to connect to the network. True or False?
Answer: False. You cannot assume that two different computers can use the same network interface card to
connect to the network, because they may have different specifications, different internal architecture or
different kinds of connections to the network.
Why is it important to make sure that each workstation on a network has a unique network address?
Answer: B.
A shared HP LaserJet 6P could be considered a network node. True or False?
Answer: True. A node can be a workstation, printer, fax machine, server or any other kind of device
connected to the network
Which of the following is not a network topology?
Answer: C.
Which of the following is not true about peer-to-peer networks?
Answer: A.
In addition to message storage and transfer, what additional function might a mail server provide?
Answer: C.
Which of the following could not be considered a network management service?
Answer: D.
Security is a concern when using communications servers on a network because:
Answer: A.
Which of the following services does not belong to the Internet services group of networked functions?
Answer: D.
One function that network protocol serves is to ensure that data are delivered in the correct sequence. True or
False?
Answer: True
Name three specialties within the networking field that are in high demand.
Answer: The following specialties are currently in high demand:
Network security
Internet and intranet design
Network management
Voice/data integration
Remote and mobile computing
Data integrity and fault tolerance
In-depth knowledge of Microsoft,
networking products
In-depth knowledge of Microsoft,
NetWare networking products
In-depth knowledge of router
configuration and management
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Soft skills are probably not necessary in which of the following on-the-job scenarios?
Answer: B.
Which of the following is probably not a benefit of pursuing professional certification?
Answer: C
To find the best possible job in networking, what sources would you investigate?
Answer: To find the best possible job in networking you should investigate the classified ads in the local
newspaper, searchable job databases on the Web, your college career center, other colleagues, and career fairs
Review Questions for Chapter 2
1. Which international standards organization is part of the United Nations?
Answer: B. The International Telecommunications Union (ITU)
2. What does ―ISO‖ stand for?
Answer: C. International Organization for Standardization
3. Which organization represents the United States in ISO?
Answer: A. ANSI (American National Standards Institute)
4. Which technology is standardized in the IEEE 802.5 specification?
Answer: B. IEEE 802.5 standardizes the Token Ring LAN technology.
5. Which technology is standardized in the IEEE 802.3 specification?
Answer: D. IEEE 802.3 standardizes the Ethernet technology used on most Ethernet networks today.
6. Which layer of the OSI Model provides file transfer services?
Answer: A. Application layer
7. Netscape is an example of a program that runs in the Application layer. True or False?
Answer: False. Netscape is an application whose requests get picked up by the Application layer and passed to
the Session layer.
8. Which layer of the OSI Model establishes the rules of communication between two nodes?
Answer: B. The Session layer establishes the rules of communication between two nodes.
9. In which layer of the OSI Model do switches and bridges belong?
Answer: A. Bridges and switches belong in the Data Link Layer.
10. In which layer of the OSI Model do routers belong?
Answer: C. Routers belong in the Network Layer.
11. In which two layers of the OSI Model do NICs belong?
Answer: D. NICs operate in the Physical and Data Link Layers.
12. What standards organization developed the OSI Model?
Answer: D. ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
13. Under what circumstances would the Network layer use segmentation?
Answer: C. The Network layer would need to segment data into smaller blocks if it detected that the
destination node could not accept the size of the data blocks transmitted by the source node.
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14. Generating and detecting voltage so as to transmit and receive signals carrying data is the responsibility of
which OSI Model layer?
Answer: D. The Physical layer
15. Flow control is the process of making sure data frames are received in the correct order. True or False?
Answer: False. Flow control is the method of gauging and accommodating the rate of data transmission that
the destination node requires
16. What is the purpose of a token in a token passing network?
Answer: A. A token is special control frame that indicates to the rest of the network that one node has the
right to transmit data.
17. If you use a password to log into your Microsoft Exchange program, what layer of the OSI Model would
decode your password?
Answer: C. The Presentation layer, as it is responsible for encoding and decoding data.
18. Which layer of the OSI Model handles error checking and retransmission of bad data?
Answer: A. The Transport layer
19. What are the differences between MAC addresses and Network layer addresses?
Answer: MAC addresses are hardwired into the networking device by the manufacturer and do not have any
logical significance to a particular network. Network layer addresses are assigned to nodes through the
operating system software and are hierarchical, which means they contain sequentially limiting information.
This characteristic makes network layer addresses usable by routers.
20. One frame type will not interact with another frame type on the network. True or False?
Answer: True. Only like frame types can interact on a network (although multiple frame types may
simultaneously be present on the network).
21. Which of the following types of addresses follow a hierarchical format?
Answer: C. Network layer (or logical) addresses follow a hierarchical format.
22. Which of the following is not a field found in an Ethernet 802.3 data frame:
Answer: A.
23. Token Ring technology was originally developed by what company?
Answer: B. IBM
24. Which of the following is not a field found in a Token Ring data frame?
Answer: D.
25. A single frame type can support only one kind of protocol. True or False?
Answer: False. Several kinds of protocols can be used over a single frame type.
26. What are the sublayers of the Data Link layer as defined in the IEEE 802 standards?
Answer: A. The Logical Link Control sublayer and the Media Access Control sublayer.
27. Describe the functions of the two Data Link layer sublayers.
Answer: The Logical Link Control sublayer is the upper part of the Data Link Layer and its function is to
create a common interface and supply reliability and flow control services. The Media Access Control
sublayer is the lower part of the Data Link layer and its most significant function is to append the data’s
destination address to the frame.
28. What is the purpose of a router?
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Answer: A router connects two similar or dissimilar network segments. It is capable of interpreting frames
and using the information in the frame, such as addressing and handling fields, to intelligently direct the data.
29. What part of the MAC Address is unique to each vendor?
Answer: B. The Block ID
30. IEEE has standardized four different Ethernet frame types. True or False?
Answer: True.
Review Questions for Chapter 3
1. What characteristics make a protocol routable?
Answer: B.
2. Which layer in the TCP/IP Model of network communications roughly corresponds to the Physical and Data
Link layers of the OSI Model?
Answer: A.
3. To which layer of the TCP/IP Model does the IP protocol belong?
Answer: B.
4. To which layer of the TCP/IP Model does the TCP protocol belong?
Answer: C.
5. What is the function of ARP?
Answer: D.
6. Which TCP/IP utility might you use to connect to a UNIX host from your PC over the network?
Answer: C.
7. What does SMTP stand for?
Answer: A.
8. Which version of IP are most TCP/IP networks currently using?
Answer: B.
9. Why might an application be better served by UDP than TCP?
Answer: Because UDP doesn’t provide any guarantees for data reliability, it is a very fast protocol. It may be
useful in cases where data streams are time-dependent, such as with audio or video applications sent over the
Internet. In such a situation, TCP’s data checking mechanisms would slow the traffic down and make
transmission unintelligible.
10. An IP address consists of 4 bytes. True or False?
Answer: True
11. Which technique is used to break large TCP/IP-based networks into smaller logical segments?
Answer: A.
12. On which Class network is the workstation that uses the following IP address: 193.12.176.55?
Answer: C.
13. Which of the following is the loopback address?
Answer: D.
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14. Which of the following is an alternative to configuring each workstation on a network with its own IP
address?
Answer: A.
15. What kind of network operating system requires IPX/SPX?
Answer: C.
16. Which IPX/SPX core protocol provides data reliability services?
Answer: B.
17. The node address portion of an IPX/SPX address is equivalent to what other address?
Answer: A.
18. What function is performed by the time to live (in IP) and the transport control (in IPX) fields?
Answer: Time to Live, in IP and Transport Control, in IPX measure how many routers a packet has passed
through and control when a packet is discarded.
19. Which of the following is not a valid network address for a NetWare server?
Answer: C, because it contains the letter K
20. Why wouldn’t you want to use NetBEUI for Internet connections (pick two reasons)?
Answer: A and B.
21. Why are hosts on a TCP/IP network assigned host names?
Answer: TCP/IP hosts are assigned hostnames primarily so that humans can contact those hosts without
having to know their IP address.
22. IPX/SPX is not a routable protocol. True or False?
Answer: False. IPX/SPX is routable.
23. Macintosh computers can be integrated with Microsoft-based networks. True or False?
Answer: True
24. On a Windows 2000 workstation, how would you find your computer’s NetBIOS name?
Answer: D.
25. Which AppleTalk protocol ensures reliable data delivery?
Answer: D.
26. What is a logically defined group of workstations called on an AppleTalk network?
Answer: A.
27. On a Windows 2000 workstation, after you install the NWLink (IPX/SPX) protocol, you need not configure it
in order to use it. True or False?
Answer: True
28. On a Windows 98 workstation, what is the default setting for the IP Address in the TCP/IP protocol
properties?
Answer: A.
29. What information does the WINIPCFG command (run from a Windows 98 workstation) give you?
Answer: The WINIPCFG command, when run on a Windows 98 workstation, will provide you with your
MAC address, IP Address, subnet mask and default gateway. If you click the More Info button, you can also
view your hostname and DHCP information, among other TCP/IP parameters.
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30. How many protocols can you install on a single Windows 98 workstation?
Answer: D.
Review Questions for Chapter 4
1. When they become faint, analog signals are regenerated while digital signals are amplified.
True or False?
Answer: False. Analog signals are amplified while digital signals are regenerated.
2. Which two of the following technologies cannot achieve full-duplex transmission?
Answer: D and E.
3. What is the origin of the word ―modem?‖
Answer: B. modulator/demodulator
4. How does noise affect a digital signal?
Answer: D. Noise distorts the signal.
5. Which two of the following transmission techniques can increase the potential throughput
of a network?
Answer: B and C.
6. Which of the following would not be a source of EMI?
Answer: C. A loud gong.
7. When determining the cost of a cabling system, what – besides the cost of the wire, must
you bear in mind?
Answer: In addition to the cost of the physical medium, you should bear in mind the cost of
installation, cost of new vs. reusing existing infrastructure, cost of maintenance and support,
cost of a lower transmission rate affecting productivity and the cost of obsolescence.
8. What is the term that refers to the outer covering of a cable?
Answer: D. Sheath
9. What type of coaxial cable would you use to connect network nodes on a Thinnet network?
Answer: B. RG-58A/U
10. What are two advantages of using twisted pair cabling over coaxial cabling on a network?
Answer: B and E.
11. In which of the following network types would you use a cable with AUI connectors?
Answer: A. 10Base5
12. Describe the differences between baseband and broadband transmission.
Answer: Baseband is a form of transmission in which digital signals are sent through direct
current pulses applied to the wire. This direct current reserves exclusive use of the wire’s
capacity. Therefore, baseband systems can only transmit one signal, or one channel, at a
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time. Broadband, on the other hand, uses modulated analog frequencies to transmit multiple
signals over the same wire.
13. What type of terminator is required at both ends of a Thinnet or Thicknet cable?
Answer: C. 50 ohms.
14. Which two of the following network types require a bus topology?
Answer: A and B.
15. Crosstalk does not present a problem for UTP cable. True or False?
Answer: False.
16. What is the maximum throughput currently supported by CAT5 wiring?
Answer: B. 100Mbps (Currently, CAT5 wiring is rated for 100 Mbps, though signaling and
physical advances may allow it to support 1 Gbps in the future.)
17. How many wire pairs are in a typical CAT5 cable?
Answer: C. 4
18. What type of fiber optic cable is more frequently found on LANs?
Answer: E. Multi-mode fiber (because the cost of single-mode fiber is prohibitive.)
19. Which two of the following are drawbacks to using fiber-optic cable for LANs?
Answer: A and D.
20. What is the maximum allowable distance for a horizontal wiring subsystem?
Answer: C. 100 m
21. What is the maximum segment length on a 100BaseT network?
Answer: B. 100 m
22. What is the maximum segment length on a Thicknet network?
Answer: D. 500 m
23. In what subsystem of a structured cabling design are patch cables used?
Answer: B. in the work area
24. What part of the TIA/EIA structured cabling recommendations provides connectivity to a
telecommunications service provider?
Answer: D. Entrance facilities
25. On what type of network would you use BNC connectors?
Answer: B. 10Base2
26. On a 100BaseTX Ethernet network, where will you most likely find the transceivers?
Answer: C. in the NICs
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27. In general, what type of cabling can sustain the most bending without impairing
transmission?
Answer: D. UTP
28. What is the maximum amount of insulation you should strip from copper wires before
inserting them into connectors?
Answer: C. 1 inch
29. What is the maximum amount you should untwist twisted-pair wires before inserting them
into connectors?
Answer: B. ½ inch
30. On a 10BaseT network, which of the following best describes how the wires of a UTP cable
are used to transmit and receive information?
Answer: A. One wire pair handles data transmission, while another wire pair handles data
reception.
31. If you wanted to allow two workstations to transmit and receive data between their NICs
without using a connectivity device, which of the following would you need?
Answer: A. crossover cable
32. What are the two main types of infrared transmission, and how do they differ?
Answer: The two types of infrared transmission are direct and indirect. Direct infrared
relies on an unobstructed ―line of sight‖ path between the sender and receiver. Indirect
infrared signals bounce off obstacles in their path.
33. Radiofrequency transmissions can be easily intercepted. True or False?
Answer: B. True. One type of RF transmission, narrowband, is particularly susceptible to tapping.
34. What kind of transmission media would you recommend for videoconferencing between
two buildings that are across the street from each other?
Answer: B. Fiber-optic cable
35. Which government agency in the United States allocated radio frequencies?
Answer: E. FCC
Chapter 5 Review Questions
1. Under what circumstance might you use a simple bus topology?
Answer: C. When you have few users on a LAN
2. What kind of topology is susceptible to signal bounce?
Answer: B. Bus
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3. What are the primary advantages of using a star topology over a ring or bus topology?
Answer: A star topology is more reliable, because it connects each node or device to the
network with a separate connection. It is also more scalable, because additional devices can
be added cheaply and without impacting the performance of the network.
4. Most modern networks with more than a few nodes use a hybrid topology. True or
False?
Answer: True
5. Why might you want to use a hierarchical topology?
Answer: A. To differentiate levels of connectivity devices and workstation groups.
6. What logical topology, or network transport model, relies most often on a star-wired
bus topology?
Answer: A. Ethernet
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7. How do workstations in a ring topology negotiate their data transmissions?
Answer: D. by using tokens
8. Which of the following is a potential problem with daisy-chaining hubs?
Answer: A. exceeding maximum segment length
9. What type of network backbone is the most reliable?
Answer: C. Parallel
10. The Internet is an example of what kind of WAN topology?
Answer: C. Mesh
11. Why is packet switching more efficient than circuit switching?
Answer: B. In packet switching packets can take the quickest route between nodes and arrive
independent of when other packets in their data stream arrive.
12. Describe the steps a workstation takes when it participates in CSMA/CD.
Answer: A node checks the network to determine whether another node is transmitting. If it
is, it will wait a specified amount of time before it retries. If two nodes have detected a free
circuit and begun to transmit simultaneously, a collision will occur. In this event the
Collision Detection routine is performed. If a station’s NIC determines that its data has
been involved in a collision, it will propagate the collision throughout the network so no
other stations attempt to transmit, then the station will remain silent for a period of time.
After waiting, the node will retransmit its data once it again determines that the line is
available.
13. On a 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) network, what is the maximum number of hubs that can
be connected along the bus of a star-wired bus topology?
Answer: B. 3
14. What is the maximum number of addressable stations on a 10BaseT Ethernet network?
Answer: E. 1024
15. Which two of the following might cause excessive data collisions on an Ethernet
network?
Answer: B and E.
16. What type of media is best suited to 1 Gigabit Ethernet networks?
Answer: A. fiber-optic
17. In order to use demand priority on a network (for example, when running 100BaseVG),
what type of hub is necessary?
Answer: D. intelligent
18. What fields do all Ethernet frame types have in common?
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Answer: preamble, source address, destination address, padding, data, and frame check
sequence
19. At what layer of the OSI Model does framing occur?
Answer: B. Data Link layer
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20. What is the purpose of the pad field in an Ethernet frame?
Answer: E. to ensure that the data portion of the frame totals at least 46 bytes
21. What is the purpose of a Frame Check Sequence field in an Ethernet frame?
Answer: A. To ensure that data is received without errors at the destination node.
22. NIC device drivers come with what feature that reduces the need for you to worry about
frame types?
Answer: C. autosense
23. What are the minimum and maximum sizes for an Ethernet frame?
Answer: C. 64 and 1518 Bytes
24. What type of TCP/IP protocol does LocalTalk use?
Answer: B. MacTCP
25. What is the name of a hub used on a Token Ring network?
Answer: A. Multistation Access Unit
26. Which two of the following are disadvantages to using Token Ring networks rather than
Ethernet networks?
Answer: B and C.
27. Modern token ring networks may transmit data at 4, 16, 32 or 64 Mbps. True or False?
Answer: False.
28. If you were working on a Token Ring network that used cables with DB-9 connectors
and needed to connect a NIC that contained an RJ-45 receptor, which of the following
would help you accomplish your goal?
Answer: D. media filter
29. Which of the following IEEE standards describes Token Ring networks?
Answer: D. IEEE 802.5
30. Which of the following logical topologies is capable of the fastest throughput?
Answer: E. ATM
31. What type of Physical layer is required for FDDI?
Answer: B. a dual ring of single mode or multimode fiber
32. Besides their ring-based topologies, what else do FDDI and Token Ring networks have
in common?
Answer: C. Both use token passing to mediate data transmission.
33. You have been asked to serve on a technical committee planning an upgrade from your
university’s FDDI network to a Gigabit Ethernet network. The rest of the committee
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asserts this will be a relatively simple transition. What concern should you raise that
contradicts their assertion?
Answer: B. The maximum allowable distance for a FDDI network is longer than that of an
Ethernet network, so the existing FDDI network will need to be divided into smaller
subnetworks.
34. What type of switching do ATM networks use?
Answer: A. circuit switching
35. Which two of the following might explain why network administrators prefer Gigabit
Ethernet over ATM?
Answer: A and B.
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Chapter 6 Review Questions
1. If you purchase a new desktop computer today, what kind of network adapter is it likely to require?
Answer: A.
2. What does ―ISA‖ stand for?
Answer: B. ISA stands for Industry Standard Architecture. It is still used for modems and mice on some
computers, and can be used for network adapters.
3. Describe the process for installing a PCMCIA network adapter.
Answer: Installing PCMCIA cards is an easy process. Simply turn off the laptop, insert the PCMCIA card into
an available PCMCIA slot, then turn the machine back on. In newer operating systems, you may not even
have to reboot the machine, but rather you can simply insert the PCMCIA NIC.
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4. In which of the following instances is a wireless network adapter most appropriate?
Answer: C.
5. You have just chosen a new NIC on your desktop computer, which runs Windows 2000 Professional.
When you reboot the machine, you can tell that neither the sound card nor the NIC is working. You
suspect that they have chosen the same IRQ. How can you confirm your suspicion?
Answer: A.
6. Which two of the following IRQs could you probably assign to a network adapter without causing a
conflict with preassigned devices?
Answer: C and D. See the IRQ table in this chapter.
7. Which IRQ is typically reserved by COM 1?
Answer: B.
8. You can install only one network adapter in a computer. True or False?
Answer: False. In fact, most servers have at least two NICs installed.
9. On older NICs, what type of switches enables you to change the adapter’s configuration?
Answer: B.
10. Which of the following could be a symptom of a resource conflict involving the network adapter?
Answer: C.
11. Which of the following methods could allow you to change the rate at which a NIC can transmit and
receive data?
Answer: D and E.
12. Name three enhancements or features that manufacturers might add to network adapters to improve
these devices performance.
Answer: Any of the following may be enhancements to a NIC: On-board CPU, DMA, dual channel, load
balancing, ―Look ahead‖ transmit and receive, RAM buffering
13. To which layer of the OSI Model do repeaters belong?
Answer: A.
14. What is the function of a hub’s uplink port?
Answer: C.
15. You are a network technician working on a 10BaseT network. A coworker has been having trouble
logging on to the server and asks whether you can quickly tell her if her workstation’s NIC is
operating properly. You do not have the NIC’s utility disk on hand, but you look at the back of her
workstation and learn that although the NIC is properly installed and connected to the network,
something’s wrong with it. What might you have seen that causes you to come to this conclusion?
Answer: D.
16. Intelligent hubs differ from passive hubs in part because they can perform which of the following
functions?
Answer: E. Passive hubs simply repeat signals while intelligent hubs can collect data and make some
rudimentary networking decisions.
17. What kind of hub introduces a single point of failure into a network design?
Answer: A.
18. What is a MIB?
Answer: A.
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19. At what layer of the OSI Model do bridges function?
Answer: B.
20. Before they will forward packets, bridges must be configured to accept the type of protocol (for
example, TCP/IP or IPX/SPX) in use by the network. True or False?
Answer: False. Bridges can forward any kind of packets, because they are protocol-independent.
21. How do bridges keep track of whether they should forward or filter packets?
Answer: B. Bridges maintain a filtering database that identifies which packets can be filtered and which
should be forwarded, based on their destination address.
22. Which of the following is an advantage of using switches rather than hubs?
Answer: B. Switches separate a segment into dedicated channels and that makes data more secure and
provides more bandwidth for congested areas.
23. In cut-through switching, what frame field does the switch never read?
Answer: D.
24. Which type of switching is more appropriate for heavily trafficked networks?
Answer: C. Since cut-through switching cannot adequately verify the integrity of every packet it forwards, it
may forward errors. Under heavy traffic, this can cause serious congestion. Thus store and forward switches,
which do verify the integrity of packets, are more suitable for heavily trafficked LANs.
25. A VLAN can be created using only one switch. True or False?
Answer: True.
26. Which two of the following are important functions performed by a LAN?
Answer: A and E.
27. How do routing protocols and routable protocols differ?
Answer: C. A routing protocol is the means by which routers communicate with each other about network
status. A routable protocol is a protocol that carries data from node to node and can be interpreted by a router.
28. OSPF is a more efficient routing protocol than RIP. True or False?
Answer: True
29. A brouter contains characteristics of which of the two following devices?
Answer: B and E.
30. Why can’t routers forward packets as quickly as bridges can?
Answer: A. Routers operate at Layer 3, which means they take the time to read protocol and logical
addressing information. In addition, they store packets while they determine the best routing path. This adds
time. Bridges, on the other hand, only read Layer 2 addressing information and can quickly forward packets.
31. Describe the difference between static and dynamic routing.
Answer: The main difference between static and dynamic routing is that in static routing, routing tables are
programmed by the network administrator to indicate the best path for nodes on the network and in dynamic
routing, the router determines best paths as it works, saving that data dynamically in its routing table.
32. At which layers of the OSI Model do gateways function?
Answer: E.
33. EIGRP is a routing protocol that was developed by which company?
Answer: C.
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34. Which of the following routing protocols is used on the Internet’s backbone?
Answer: D.
35. What is the function of an e-mail gateway?
Answer: A.
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Chapter 7 Review Questions
1. Name three networking scenarios that would require a WAN.
Answer: Each of the following scenarios demonstrates a need for a WAN:
A bank with offices around the state needs to connect those offices to gather transaction and account
information into a central database
An insurance company allows parents on maternity or paternity leave to work from home by dialing into the
company’s network
An automobile manufacturer in Detroit contracts its plastic parts manufacturing to a company in Delaware.
Through WAN links the auto manufacturer can videoconference with the plastics manufacturer, exchange
specification data, and even examine the parts for quality online;
A pharmaceutical company’s salespeople scattered across the nation need to dial in their sales figures and
receive e-mail from headquarters
A technical support technician for the remote pharmaceutical sales person may need to show the salesperson
how to create a macro in an Excel spreadsheet
A remote control program such as PCAnywhere enables the support technician to ―take over‖ the salesperson’s
PC (over a WAN link) and demonstrate how to create the macro.
2. What kind of public links do most telecommuters use for dial-up connections?
Answer: C.
3. What is the maximum throughput of a BRI ISDN line?
Answer: B.
4. What is the purpose of an ISDN’s D channel?
Answer: A. An ISDN line’s D (data) channel carries information about the call, such as session initiation and
termination signals, caller identity, call forwarding and conference calling signals.
5. Which of the following WAN technologies is represented in network diagrams by a cloud?
Answer: A.
6. Which of the following WAN links is the most reliable?
Answer: E.
7. Which of the following customers would symmetrical DSL suit best?
Answer: D. Symmetric transmission, in which downstream throughput is equal to upstream throughput, suits
customers who generally upload things to a WAN as opposed to downloading data from a WAN.
8. What technique enables DSL to achieve high bandwidth over PSTN lines?
Answer: D.
9. A home user of DSL is likely to connect to his external DSL modem through either of what two methods?
Answer: C and D.
10. DS1 is equivalent to T1 throughout the world. True or False?
Answer: False. Technically, DS1 is the data signal equal to 24 voice channels. In North America, the
throughput of a DS1 equals a T1. But in Europe a DS1 line is called an E1, and has a slightly higher
throughput.
11. Which two of the following are symmetrical versions of DSL?
Answer: C and D.
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12. What technique does T1 technology use to transmit multiple signals over a single telephone line?
Answer: B. T-carrier technology, including T1s, uses time division multiplexing to create multiple signal paths
over a single line.
13. One T3 is equivalent to how many T1s?
Answer: D.
14. How many 64-Kbps channels does a single T1 circuit carry?
Answer: D.
15. Why are SONET networks considered ―self-healing‖?
Answer: SONET networks are made of two rings, a primary and secondary ring. If the primary ring is severed,
the technology automatically reroutes traffic to the backup ring. In this sense, the rings are self-healing.
16. Which of the following is a drawback of cable modem technology, compared to DSL?
Answer: C.
17. What is the maximum throughput supported by X.25 technology?
Answer: E.
18. What do frame relay and ATM connections have in common?
Answer: C. Frame relay and ATM circuits both rely on virtual circuits. Frame relay uses permanent virtual
circuits while ATM can use either Permanent virtual circuits or switched virtual circuits.
19. Which of the following may limit a DSL connection’s capacity?
Answer: B.
20. What does CSU/DSU stand for?
Answer: A.
21. Which of the two following transmission media could a T3 use?
Answer: C and E
22. Outside of the United States, SONET is known as which of the following?
Answer: B.
23. Name five factors you need to consider when planning a WAN implementation.
Answer: When implementing a new WAN installation or upgrade, you will need to consider the following
factors:
How well a WAN solution will integrate with your existing LAN or WAN equipment
What kind of transmission speed your users and applications require
What kind of security you need
The geographical distance your WAN must span
The extent to which the WAN might grow over time
What kind of technology you can afford
24. What type of equipment is used to convert incoming digital signals from an ISDN line into analog signals
for use by an attached telephone?
Answer: B.
25. Which transmission medium does SONET use?
Answer: C.
26. Why might a company choose to implement a VPN?
Answer: A.
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27. If you are configuring a Windows 2000 dial-up connection to an ISP, which of the following details must you
get from the ISP?
Answer: C. For dial-up networking connections to an ISP, you must know:
The telephone number of the ISP’s access server
The type of server they use
What types of protocols other than TCP/IP are supported
Whether or not to specify an IP number and if so, what the IP number should be
What the default nameserver is
Whether or not IP header compression is supported
Whether or not you should let the remote server determine the default gateway
28. Dial-up connections from a Windows 2000 Profession client will work only with Windows 2000 Remote
Access Service (RAS). True or False?
Answer: False. Windows 2000 dial-up networking will work with a variety of access server types.
29. For a user running queries on her office LAN’s database server from home, which of the following access
types makes the most sense?
Answer: B. Using the remote control solution with a dedicated LAN workstation makes the most sense when
running processor-intensive applications over phone lines.
30. Which of the following is the most popular communications protocol for dial-up networking connections?
Answer: D.
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Chapter 8 Review Questions
1. List four factors you should consider before purchasing a network operating system.
Answer: Any four of the following are acceptable:
Whether it will integrate with the LAN’s existing infrastructure
How much it costs
How well the vendor supports it
Whether it provides additional services (such as Web hosting or remote access) that users might want
Whether technical staff can manage it
Whether it provides for future growth
Whether necessary applications will run smoothly on it
2. What is the function of a redirector?
Answer: C.
3. Which of the following must be installed on a Windows 2000 Professional client workstation in order for
it to be able to log onto a Windows 2000 server?
Answer: D.
4. What are the three tiers in three-tier architecture?
Answer: C.
5. If a user has Modify rights to a folder on a Windows 2000 server, what is he or she able to do?
Answer: A.
6. Groups can contain other groups. True or False?
Answer: True
7. You have created a printer object for a new HP LaserJet in your Windows 2000 server Active Directory.
Before users can print to this printer, what else must you create in Active Directory?
Answer: A.
8. Name at least five attributes that may be associated with a user account.
Answer: Any five of the following:
First name Telephone number
Last name Common name
Group membership User name
E-mail address GUID
Title Password restrictions
Organization Password
Office location Dial-in permissions
Full name
9. What is the purpose of a container in a NOS directory?
Answer: D.
10. What is the maximum amount of memory that a Windows 2000 server can utilize?
Answer: B.
11. What primary advantage does Windows 2000 gain by assigning each operation its own 32-bit address space?
Answer: By assigning their own address space, Windows 2000 can isolate faulty operations. This means if one
program ―crashes,‖ other programs will continue functioning.
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12. What is the common name in the following distinguished name:
widgets.com/charleston/marketing/jkessel?
Answer: E.
13. What do threads have to do with multiprocessing?
Answer: C.
14. In comparing an NOS directory to a tree, what are analogous to leaves?
Answer: D.
15. In case RAM runs out of space, where can it store unused information blocks?
Answer: B.
16. What kind of trust relationship do multiple domains within the same domain tree on a Windows 2000
network use?
Answer: C.
17. On a Windows 2000 server, two domains, named Marketing and Engineering, are within the same domain
tree. Thus, a user from the Engineering domain has access to run any of the programs on a server in the
Marketing domain. True or False?
Answer: False
18. When talking about a Windows 2000 domain tree, what would you call the one domain from which all
other domains and their containers emanate?
Answer: D.
19. You are a user on a Windows 2000 network who wants to print a memo to a printer across the hall. What
kind of name would your client software use to direct your memo to this printer?
Answer: C.
20. Which file system must a Windows 2000 server use to accept Macintosh clients?
Answer: D.
21. What kind of multiprocessing does Windows 2000 support?
Answer: A.
22. Name six things you need to know before you begin installing the Windows 2000 Server operating system.
Answer: Any six of the following:
Whether the server is a domain controller
To what domain or workgroup it will belong
Its name
The domain name
Licensing mode
Registration key
Number, type and size of hard disk partitions
Protocols and services the server needs to support
Optional services you need to install
Time zone
Administrator password
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23. After you install Windows 2000 Server, you want to use the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) to
manage users and groups. What is the first thing you must do?
Answer: B.
24. What is the purpose of replication on a Windows 2000 network?
Answer: A.
25. What is the maximum length for an NTFS file name?
Answer: E.
26. You work at an organization with 12 servers and 1000 employees, each of whom works full-time and has
his or her own workstation. Which Windows 2000 licensing mode should you purchase?
Answer: per seat licensing
27. You are the network administrator for a school district. During August, you create a number of new
student user accounts, but you do not want them to be functional at that time. What option should you choose
when you create the user accounts?
Answer: E.
28. What utility allows you to transform NetWare directory objects to a Windows 2000 Server’s Active
Directory?
Answer: C.
29. Which of the following is not a valid name for a Windows 2000 domain?
Answer: A.
30. What two methods can you use for installing Windows 2000 Server?
Answer: A and D.
Review Questions for Ch 9
1. Which versions of NetWare support TCP/IP services such as Web site hosting?
Answer: C.
2. Which version of NetWare contains many services coded in the Java programming language?
Answer: D.
3. How many processors can a NetWare 5.0 server support?
Answer: C.
4. What is the minimum amount of RAM required for a NetWare 5.0 server?
Answer: D.
5. Why might you want to install more than the minimum RAM required by NetWare 5.x?
Answer: You will want to use more if you run additional applications or services beyond the core operating
system. Some services that take more memory include GroupWise, ManageWise, BorderManager, printing
services, Web site hosting, etc.
6. Where can you go to find out about known bugs in NetWare?
Answer: B.
7. How might NLMs provide better stability on your NetWare server?
Answer: A. NLMs can be loaded and unloaded without taking the server down. They can also be loaded in
protected mode, which prevents them from interfering with the core operating system if they have problems.
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8. Which version of NetWare supports the use of virtual memory?
Answer: D.
9. What stands at the very top of the NDS tree?
Answer: A.
10. If you decide to change the name of your NDS tree after you’ve installed NetWare, you can rename it through
a server console command. True or False?
Answer: False. A tree name cannot be changed once it’s created.
11. What is the name of the graphical server manager utility in NetWare 5.x?
Answer: B.
12. Which DOS command loads the NetWare operating system kernel?
Answer: D.
13. Which of the following file systems does NetWare not support?
Answer: B.
14. What is the name of the volume created automatically when you install NetWare 5.x?
Answer: D.
15. File compression is enabled by default during a NetWare 5.x installation. True or False?
Answer: True
16. Which server resource does block suballocation conserve?
Answer: C.
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17. What is the purpose of a container object in an NDS tree?
Answer: A.
18. A user is an example of what kind of NDS object?
Answer: C.
19. If a user’s login id is ―james‖ and the user belongs to the ―marketing‖ organizational unit, which is part of the
―Corporate‖ organizational unit within the ―ABC‖ organization, what is this user’s context?
Answer: D.
20. Which utility allows you to manage NDS objects?
Answer: C.
21. List five questions you should answer before beginning a NetWare server installation.
Answer:
Where does the server fit in the NDS tree?
What will the server’s name be?
How many and what kind(s) of network adapter cards will the server use?
What protocols and network services should the server use?
What kind of disk controllers does my server have?
How many, how large and what kind of volumes will the server require?
What additional services will the server support?
22. After right-clicking on an object within NWAdmin, which option should you choose to modify that object’s
properties?
Answer: A.
23. In a typeful context notation, how is a user object’s container designated?
Answer: C.
24. Why might you want to create an administrator-equivalent ID that isn’t called ―Admin?‖
Answer: B. For security purposes. The default administrator ID created by the NetWare installation is called
Admin. If you leave the Admin ID with all supervisory rights to the network, a hacker has half the
information he/she needs to break into your network and cause havoc.
25. After a simple NetWare 5.x installation, what rights does the default group called PUBLIC have to the NDS
tree?
Answer: D.
26. In NWAdmin, you can grant users rights to save files in a directory. True or False?
Answer: True
27. In NetWare version 5.x, which command should you use to access the protocol and NIC configuration utility?
Answer: D.
28. What must the network administrator do in NWAdmin before he can delete a container object?
Answer: A.
29. Which Novell utility enables Windows 2000 servers to appear as objects in the NDS tree?
Answer: C.
30. If NetWare’s integration tool is used, what type of an object will a Windows NT domain appear as in an NDS
tree?
Answer: A.
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Review Questions for Ch 10
1. In what year did work begin on the UNIX system?
Answer: D.
2. Which two of the following are open source software implementations of UNIX-like
systems?
Answer: C and D.
3. Which of the following services might not be appropriate for a UNIX server?
Answer: D.
4. It is appropriate to use UNIX systems for network firewalls. True or False?
Answer: True
5. What is the primary method for interacting with the UNIX system?
Answer: C.
6. Which of the following is a characteristic common to all UNIX systems?
Answer: C.
7. Which character is used to separate directory names on UNIX systems?
Answer: E.
8. Hardware requirements for UNIX servers are roughly equivalent to those of Windows 2000 or NetWare
servers. True or False?
Answer: True
9. Which of the following are stored in a file's i-node?
Answer: A.
10. Which letter does the 'ls' command use to identify a UNIX symbolic link (much like a Windows 2000
shortcut) in a detailed file listing?
Answer: C.
11. Which two of the following items are you required to know when installing a RedHat Linux server?
Answer: C and D.
12. The administrative user ―root‖ is subject to which of the following access restrictions, just like any other
UNIX system user?
Answer: E.
13. Which open source software application enables UNIX systems to participate in SMB file sharing on a
network?
Answer: B.
14. Which three of the following tools might enable you to run Windows programs from your Linux system?
Answer: C.
15. Which command would you use to create a new directory on a UNIX system?
Answer: C.
16. Which command would you use to remove a directory on a UNIX system?
Answer: B.
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17. Which option would you use to tell the ls command to display all the files in the current directory?
Answer: D.
18. What does grep stand for?
Answer: E.
19. Which UNIX command might you use to display the last 10 lines of a file?
Answer: C.
20. Under what circumstances would file globbing be useful?
Answer: Any answer that includes the notion of grouping file names together in a command line is a correct
answer.
21. If a UNIX command is like a sentence, which part of the command is like the sentence’s verb?
Answer: A.
22. Which part of a UNIX command is like the noun in a sentence?
Answer: D.
23. How would you learn about a command for which you know the name, but not the purpose?
Answer: C.
24. How would you learn about a command for which you know the purpose, but not the exact name?
Answer: D.
25. What is the full command you would use to revoke write permission for everyone other than yourself for
the file named sent-mail?
Answer: C.
26. What is the full command you would use to create the directory named GRADES?
Answer: C.
27. What is a Linux kernel module?
Answer: D.
28. A UNIX thread is:
Answer: B.
29. Which two of the following choices describe how the open source application WINE differs from the
commercial application VMWare?
Answer: B and D.
30. What is the UNIX telnet command used for?
Answer: D.
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Review Questions for Ch 11
1. How many octets are used for the network portion of a Class B IP address?
Answer: C.
2. Which of the following dotted decimal addresses corresponds to the binary IP address 11111111 11111111
11111111 11111111?
Answer: D.
3. What is another term for the address represented by 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111?
Answer: B.
4. Why would a network manager choose to divide his or her TCP/IP networks into subnets?
Answer: C.
5. What is the default subnet mask for a Class A network?
Answer: A.
6. If a client workstation’s IP address equals 119.55.60.122, and the network administrator is using subnetting,
which of the following is probably the workstation’s subnet mask?
Answer: B.
7. Each node on a TCP/IP network has only one default gateway. True or False?
Answer: True
8. What is the primary advantage to using sockets?
Answer: A. Sockets allow servers and clients to communicate more expeditiously. For example, if a server
receives a request to its TCP port # 23, it can assume the request is for a telnet session and it can begin the
session without further negotiation.
9. Which two ports are used in FTP transmission?
Answer: C. Port 20 is used for FTP data transmission while port 21 is used for transferring commands.
10. Which top-level domain would the U.S. Congressional offices use?
Answer: D.
11. You are the network manager for a realtor with 50 workstations in its TCP/IP-based LAN. One day your
supervisor tells you that the company is doubling in size next month and that you will have to add 50 new
workstations to the network in the next two weeks, making sure they can use both internal and external
resources. However, you realize that you only have enough Internet-authorized IP addresses for the existing
50 workstations and cannot get new IP addresses in time for setting up the new workstations. Which of the
following is the best solution to this problem?
Answer: E.
12. What three columns of information would you find in a file called ―lmhosts‖ on a Windows 2000
workstation?
Answer: D.
13. How can a resolver quickly find addresses for previously visited sites?
Answer: It can use a cached copy of the host name record.
14. Which of the following symbols indicates a comment in an lmhosts file?
Answer: E.
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15. An organization may only use one name server. True or False?
Answer: False. Most organizations, in fact, use a primary and secondary name server.
16. What is the significant disadvantage to using BOOTP?
Answer: B. BOOTP is an improvement over having to manually assign each node on the
network its own IP address, because a BOOTP server centrally stores a database of the
devices’ MAC addresses and their associated IP Addresses. However, BOOTP demands
that a network administrator maintain that database. This can be cumbersome and introduce
errors.
17. Although DHCP enables users to move their machines from one location on the network to another without
reconfiguring TCP/IP settings, what might a user have to do once she has moved to a new part of the network
in order to use TCP/IP applications?
Answer: C.
18. When a client needs to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, what kind of transmission does it send?
Answer: A. A client transmits a broadcast DHCP discover packet via UDP to port 67, the DHCP server port.
19. In total, how many packets are exchanged in the process of a client requesting and obtaining an IP address
from a DHCP server?
Answer: B.
20. Which of the following is a benefit to using WINS?
Answer: C. WINS ensures that each network device has a unique NetBIOS name, it integrates with DHCP,
and it improves network performance because devices do not need to broadcast their NetBIOS name to every
other device on the network.
21. What is the primary difference between UDP and TCP?
Answer: B. UDP is a connectionless protocol, which means it does not guarantee delivery, whereas TCP is a
connection-oriented protocol, which means that it uses error-checking measures to make sure its packets reach
their destinations.
22. How could RARP benefit diskless workstations?
Answer: Using RARP, a diskless workstation could send a request for an IP address based on its MAC
address. The RARP server would respond with the device’s IP address, thereby performing an IP management
function for the device.
23. What is SMTP’s primary function?
Answer: C.
24. Where does mail go after it is retrieved by an e-mail program that uses POP?
Answer: B.
25. Which two of the following are benefits of using IMAP4 relative to POP?
Answer: B and E.
26. IMAP4 can work without SMTP, but POP cannot. True or False?
Answer: False. IMAP4 depends on SMTP’s mail transport functions (as does POP).
27. Why is it critical that the clocks of all computers on a network are synchronized?
Answer: C.
28. What can you learn by pinging the loopback address?
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Answer: Pinging your loopback address will tell you if your local TCP/IP services are installed, configured
and bound to the NIC.
29. If you know that your boss’s TCP/IP host name is JSMITH, and you need to find out what her IP address is,
what command (with correct syntax) should you type at your DOS prompt?
Answer: A.
30. What command might you use to find out whether your ISP’s router is especially slow on a particular
afternoon?
Answer: A. traceroute
31. How can you view a list of FTP commands once you have connected to an FTP server?
Answer: D.
32. What command would you use to list the TCP/IP configuration for all three of the NICs in your Linux server?
Answer: D.
33. Which protocol is used to transmit and receive messages to and from newsgroups?
Answer: A.
34. Why is security a concern for Web sites that offer e-commerce?
Answer: Security is a significant concern for e-commerce Web sites because users have to transmit credit card
information to purchase goods or services.
35. What type of device digitizes, compresses, and assembles into packets a voice phone call,
which it receives from a telephone switch?
Answer: E.
Review Questions for Ch 12
1. If, after several tries, you cannot reproduce symptoms of a problem, what might you suspect is its cause?
Answer: A.
2. Which of the following symptoms probably points to a physical connectivity problem?
Answer: C.
3. Which part of the network should you examine if a network problem affects a single workstation?
Answer: B.
4. You are troubleshooting a problem in which a dial-in remote user claims he cannot make a connection to your
organization’s access server. Of the following steps, which should you take first and second as you diagnose
this problem?
Answer: D, then B.
5. You have recently resolved a problem in which a user could not print to a particular shared printer, by
upgrading her workstation’s client software. Which of the following might be an unintended consequence of
your solution?
Answer: B.
6. Answering which two of the following questions may help you identify the demographic scope of a problem?
Answer: C and D.
7. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of a gateway failure?
Answer: A. Under what circumstances should you try swapping equipment?
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Answer: When you suspect that a problem is dues to a component malfunctioning or failing, you should try
swapping out the component with an identical (and known functional) one.
8. You have just discovered that your backup device is not properly writing files to your backup media. Which
of the following would be the last two steps you take in troubleshooting this problem?
Answer: E, then B.
9. Which of the following is an example of a network change that could cause a group of workstations to lose
connectivity to one local file server?
Answer: A.
10. Which of the following tools could you use to determine whether a user’s workstation is transmitting packets
in the proper Ethernet frame type for your network?
Answer: E.
11. Which of the following symptoms would definitely be present if your Ethernet network length exceeds the
maximum specified by IEEE standards?
Answer: B.
12. Which member of the IT staff is usually the first to receive notice of a network problem?
Answer: A.
13. If you don’t have the manual for your 3Com NIC, how can you find out whether it supports promiscuous
mode?
Answer: B.
14. What kind of tool would you use to verify that your new cable meets CAT5 standards?
Answer: A.
15. Which TCP/IP command can you use to find out whether a workstation’s TCP/IP stack is operating properly?
Answer: D.
16. Where is crosstalk most likely to occur?
Answer: Crosstalk is often caused by wires being crushed or crossed at the connector end of a cable. For this
reason, you can accurately test for crosstalk only after a cable is installed, and you should perform the test at
both ends of the wire.
17. Which two of the following tools can help you determine whether your Thinnet connection has the proper
amount of impedance at each end?
Answer: B and D.
18. Which of the following frequently results in negative frame sequence checks?
Answer: E.
19. Which of the following frequently causes a jabber?
Answer: C.
20. With what operating system does NetMon work?
Answer: E. NetMon (Network Monitor) is a network monitoring package that comes with Windows NT
Server 4.0 and Windows 2000 operating systems.
21. The LANalyzer agent can help you determine when network traffic exceeds 50%. True or False?
Answer: True. LANalyzer can respond to thresholds.
22. If you wanted to determine the average daily traffic on your network’s backbone, what type of tool would you
use?
Answer: D
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23. Name two advantages of using a sniffer over using NetMon or LANalyzer.
Answer: Sniffers are mobile, so they can be moved from one segment (or network) to another, and they do not
depend on another operating system, so they can pick up error data that the operating system might discard.
24. Which two of the following functions can both network monitors and network analyzers perform?
Answer: A and E. Both network monitors and analyzers can capture and analyze data from any node to
another, detect excessive errors or utilization, discover nodes on the network, created reports of traffic data,
and reproduce network conditions by transmitting a selected amount and type of data.
25. How do switches affect network analyzers?
Answer: B. Using a switch logically separates a network into several segments. If a network is fully switched,
that is, if every node is connected to its own switch port, your network analyzer can on capture broadcast
packets and packets destined for the node where you’re running the software, because those are the only
packets that will travel through a switched environment.
26. You can typically use the same sniffer for your Token Ring and ATM networks. True or False?
Answer: False
27. You have just purchased a new network adapter to replace the faulty network adapter in your file server. The
adapter is so new that your Windows 2000 Server software does not provide a device driver for it. As you
install the network adapter, where should you obtain the device driver from?
Answer: C.
28. You work in a small office with only six employees and a small, peer-to-peer network that used a single hub
to connect all the workstations. One day you glance at the hub and notice that one of the port’s LEDs has gone
from blinking green to blinking amber. What can you conclude about the workstation connected to that port?
Answer: B.
29. Which of the following is a network change that does not need to be recorded in the change management
system?
Answer: D. Trivial changes do not have to be recorded in a change management system. These might include
changing a user’s password, creating a new network group, moving a patch cable to a different hub, moving a
networked workstation, etc.
Review Questions of Ch 13
1. Which of the following is not a benefit of a baselining tool?
Answer: D.
2. Name three network characteristics that might belong in a baseline measurement.
Answer: Any three of the following:
Percent utilization on your network backbone
Number of users per day or per hour
Number of protocols that run on your network
Statistics about errors (such as runts, collisions, jabbers, or giants)
How frequently networked applications are used
Or which users take up the most bandwidth
3. If you were planning to purchase a baselining tool for your network, which of the following is one factor you
would not use to evaluate your options?
Answer: A.
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4. What hardware-related data might you record in an asset management system and why?
Answer: Number and locations of components on the network, each device’s configuration files, model
number, serial number, and a technical contact for support. This information can affect purchasing decisions,
improve technical support, and assist in proactive hardware maintenance.
5. Some asset management programs can automatically discover all devices on a network. True or False?
Answer: True
6. Which of the following times would be the best time to install a patch to your network operating system?
Answer: C. It’s best to schedule any kind of software change, particularly one that impacts the network
operating system, after hours, or at the very least, when few people will be accessing the system.
7. How does a software patch differ from an upgrade?
Answer: D. While an upgrade usually changes a significant part, if not all, of the code in a program, a patch
only changes a small piece of the code.
8. Under what circumstances should network administrators inform users of software changes?
Answer: B. Optimally, network administrators should inform users of any upgrade to a piece of software they
use or rely on, including client upgrades, application upgrades, and network operating system upgrades. Any
kind of upgrade has the potential to at least change the look and feel of a program. At worst, it might have
unanticipated consequences on other programs or reduce the functionality of the upgraded program.
9. Name five considerations you should address before undertaking a network operating system upgrade.
Answer: Any 5 of the following (in addition to the considerations addressed with any other kind of
software upgrade, such as ―Is it necessary?‖):
How will the upgrade affect user ids, groups, rights, and policies?
How will the upgrade affect file, printer, and directory access on the server(s)?
How will the upgrade affect applications or client interactions on the server(s)?
How will the upgrade affect configuration files, protocols, and services running on the server(s)?
How will the upgrade affect the server’s interaction with other devices on the network?
How accurately can you test the upgrade software in a simulated environment?
How can you leverage the new operating system to enable your system to perform more efficiently?
What is your technical support arrangement with the operating system’s manufacturer should you need
help in the midst of an upgrade?
Have you allotted enough time to perform the upgrade (for example, would it be more appropriate to do it
over a weekend rather than overnight?)?
Have you ensured that the users, help desk personnel, and system administrators understand how the
upgrade will affect their daily operations and support burdens?
10. When considering a major upgrade, such as a network operating system or backbone upgrade, you should
depend on a manufacturer’s Web site materials to determine whether the upgrade is necessary and useful.
True or False?
Answer: False.
11. What is another name for reversing a software upgrade?
Answer: B. backleveling
12. Which of the following is the best way to reverse a network operating system upgrade?
Answer: D. Most likely you would have created a complete backup of the system, and you could recover that
backup to reverse the process. Otherwise, the software vendor might have provided a way to backlevel the
upgrade. However, you should do this as a last resort.
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13. Name three reasons to perform a hardware upgrade on a network.
Answer: To increase capacity, improve performance, correct a problem, or add functionality to the network.
14. Which of the following changes probably requires the most planning?
Answer: C.
15. You can assume that installing a switch from one manufacturer is similar to installing a hub from the same
manufacturer. True or False?
Answer: False
16. Why are cabling and backbone upgrades often implemented in phases?
Answer: Because they affect every user and function on the network, and because these upgrades require
downtime, usually network administrators perform the upgrade in phases because they do not want to take
down everyone simultaneously.
17. What is the first step in a backbone upgrade?
Answer: A. Since backbone upgrades are so costly and comprehensive, you must perform a cost vs. benefit
analysis: do the advantages of the backbone upgrade outweigh the costs, in hardware, effort (staff time), and
downtime?
18. Name two good reasons to perform a backbone upgrade.
Answer: Some examples of backbone upgrades include:
Migrating from Token Ring to Ethernet
Migrating from Ethernet to ATM
Migrating from a slower technology to a faster one, or replacing all routers with switches (to make use of
VLANs, for example)
A variety of needs may drive these upgrades:
Faster throughput
A physical move or renovation
A more reliable network
Greater security
More consistent standards
Support of a new application
Making the network more cost effective
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For example, switching from Token Ring to Ethernet may make a LAN less expensive to maintain because
Ethernet’s components are economical and technical support may be easier to find. The need for faster throughput
may prompt an upgrade from an old Ethernet technology to Gigabit Ethernet. The need to support
videoconferencing may require a backbone upgrade from CAT 5 to fiber and from Ethernet to ATM.
19. Which of the following networking trends makes security a greater concern for network managers?
Answer: A.
20. Which of the following is the best way to research a new networking technology you are considering
adapting?
Answer: D.
Review Questions of CH14
1. Describe five scenarios that might detrimentally affect the integrity or availability of your network’s data.
Answer: Any of the following:
Flood Sabotage
Fire Human error
Hurricane System or data link fault
Tornado Security breach
2. Which of the following percentages represents the highest availability for a network?
Answer: D.
3. To ensure that a system change does not detrimentally affect integrity and availability, what information
should you record about the change?
Answer: B.
4. Which of the following symptoms might make you suspect that your workstation is infected with a macro
virus?
Answer: B.
5. Why are stealth viruses difficult to detect?
Answer: C.
6. Name three key components of an enterprise-wide anti-virus policy.
Answer: An enterprise wide anti-virus policy should include instructions for users on:
How to recognize viruses
How to run and use anti-virus software
What to do in case a virus is detected on one’s system
How to copy new files from the Internet or from a floppy disk
What will happen if users don’t follow the anti-virus policy
7. Which of the following is a popular anti-virus program?
Answer: C.
8. A worm is a type of polymorphic virus. True or false?
Answer: False. A worm is a separate program that moves from machine to machine. Although worms are
not harmful, they may carry viruses.
9. How does a Trojan Horse disguise itself?
Answer: B.
10. Which of the following techniques does a polymorphic virus employ to make itself more difficult to
detect?
Answer: A.
11. If your anti-virus software uses signature scanning, what must you do to keep its virus-fighting capabilities
current?
Answer: D.
12. What might you tell a user who receives what seems to be a virus hoax message?
Answer: A.
13. Describe the main difference between a fault and a failure.
Answer: A fault is a breakdown of one element of a system. A failure is a complete loss of service for that
system. A fault may cause a failure.
14. Fail-over is a technique used in highly fault tolerant systems. True or False?
Answer: True
15. What makes components hot swappable?
Answer: C.
16. Over time, what might electrical line noise do to your system?
Answer: B.
17. How long will an online UPS take to switch its attached devices to battery power?
Answer: D. An online UPS takes no time to switch an attached device to battery power, because a device
attached to an online UPS is always using its battery.
18. Which of the following is the most highly fault tolerant network topology?
Answer: D.
19. Which characteristic of SONET rings makes them highly fault-tolerant?
Answer: A.
20. Describe how load balancing between redundant NICs works.
Answer: In load balancing, two identical components share responsibility for processing, transmitting, or
storing data. Redundant NICs on a server can use load balancing to dynamically share the sending and
receiving of data to and from the server.
21. Why is simple disk striping not fault tolerant?
Answer: B.
22. Why is RAID 5 superior to RAID 3?
Answer: In RAID Level 5, data is written in small blocks across several disks, and in addition, parity error
checking information is distributed among the disks. The advantages to using RAID Level 5 are that it has
excellent performance when writing data because the parity information doesn’t have to contend for the
same I/O resources and that it allows failed disks to be swapped out and replaced with good disks without
any interruption of service. In RAID level 3, on the other hand, while error checking and parity are both
employed, the error checking information is stored on only one disk, making recovery slightly slower in
the case of a disk failure.
23. Which of the following can be considered an advantage of server clustering over server mirroring?
Answer: B.
24. What is currently the greatest disadvantage to using server clustering?
Answer: C.
25. List four considerations you should weigh when deciding on a data backup solution.
Answer: To select the right tape backup solution for your network, you should consider the following:
Storage capacity
Proven reliability
Data error checking techniques
Speed
Cost of tape drive, software, and media
Compatibility with existing network hardware and software
Extent of automation
26. Which factor must you consider when using online backups that you don’t typically have to
consider when backing up to a LAN tape drive?
Answer: C.
27. In a grandfather-father-son backup scheme, the October—week 1—Thursday backup tape would
contain what types of files?
Answer: C. Typically this tape would contain only files that are new or changed since the
October—Week 1—Wednesday backup, and this tape would be reused for the October—Week
2—Thursday backup.
28. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to performing full system backups on a daily
basis?
Answer: A.
29. How can you verify the accuracy of tape backups?
Answer: To verify the accuracy of tape backups, regularly test the recovery process to make sure
that your backups worked and that you can retrieve a backed up file.
30. Name four components of a smart disaster recovery plan.
Answer: A disaster recovery plan should specifically address:
Contact names for emergency coordinator(s) who will execute the disaster recovery response
in case of disaster
Roles and responsibilities of other staff
Details on what data and servers are being backed up
How frequently backups occur
Where backups are kept (offsite)
Most importantly, how backed up data can be recovered in full
Details on network topology, redundancy and agreements with national service carriers, in
case local or regional vendors are taken down by the same disaster
Regular strategies for testing the disaster recovery plan
A plan for managing the crisis, including regular communication with employees and
customers.
Consider the possibility of regular communication modes (such as phone lines) being
unavailable
Review Questions for Ch15
1. If you have root privileges on a system, you could delete user IDs from that system. True or False?
Answer: True
2. What do you call manipulating people to get them to reveal confidential information, such as their
passwords?
Answer: A.
3. Which of the following is the most secure password?
Answer: C.
4. Which of the following would not typically be used for authenticating to a system?
Answer: D and E.
5. Name three different security risks associated with people.
Answer: Any three of the following:
Intruders or attackers may use social engineering or snooping to obtain user passwords
An administrator may incorrectly create or configure user ids, groups, and their associated
rights on a file server, resulting in file and login access vulnerabilities
Network administrators may overlook security flaws in topology or hardware configuration
Network administrators may overlook security flaws in operating system or application
configuration
Lack of proper documentation and communication of security policies may lead to deliberate
or inadvertent misuse of files or network access
Dishonest or disgruntled employees may abuse the file and access rights they’ve been given
A computer or terminal left logged into the network while its operator goes away may provide
an entry point for an intruder
Users or even administrators choose passwords that are easy to guess
Authorized staff may leave computer room doors propped open or unlocked, allowing
unauthorized individuals to enter
Staff may discard disks or backup tapes in ―public‖ waste containers
Administrators may neglect to remove access and file rights for employees who have left the
organization
6. What is the most likely way that a network’s security will be compromised?
Answer: A.
7. Which device could a cracker use to intercept and interpret transmissions between one router and
another router on a WAN?
Answer: D.
8. Accepting the default options for security on a server-based application is usually a good policy. True
or False?
Answer: False
9. If someone obtains one of your LAN’s internal IP addresses and uses it to gain access through your
firewall from the Internet, he is using what method of security attack?
Answer: E
10. The UDP protocol is more secure than the TCP protocol. True or False?
Answer: False
If someone floods your LAN’s router with excessive traffic so that your legitimate traffic cannot go out or
come in, what method of security attack is he or she using?
Answer: C.
11. Which of the following is not typically addressed in a security policy?
Answer: B.
12. What is the primary purpose for establishing a security response team?
Answer: C.
13. What should an organization do to assess its potential security risks?
Answer: A.
14. Name four questions that should be addressed in a security audit.
Answer: Questions to ask as part of a security audit that address your organization’s
physical security include:
Which rooms contain critical systems or data and need to be secured?
Through what means might intruders gain access to the facility, computer room,
telecommunications room, wiring closet, or data storage areas?
How and to what extent are authorized personnel given entry?
Are employees instructed to ensure security after entering or leaving secured areas (not to
prop open doors)?
Are authentication methods difficult to forge or circumvent?
Are periodic physical security checks made by supervisors or security personnel?
Are all combinations, codes, or other access means to computer facilities protected at all
times, and are these combinations changed periodically?
Is a plan in place for documenting and responding to physical security breaches?
15. What’s the simplest way to stop a denial of service attack on a server?
Answer: A.
16. Which of the following transmission media is the most secure?
Answer: E.
17. Which of the following encryption methods is most commonly used on a VPN?
Answer: C.
18. Which two of the following do not contribute to a network’s physical security?
Answer: B and E.
19. Which of the following network operating system restrictions is most likely to stop a cracker who is
attempting to discover someone’s password?
Answer: A.
20. Name four different criteria that a packet filtering firewall might use for filtering traffic.
Answer: Any four of the following:
Source and destination IP addresses
Source and destination ports (for example, ports that supply TCP/UDP connections, FTP,
Telnet, SNMP, RealAudio, etc.)
TCP, UDP, or ICMP protocol
Whether a packet is the first packet in a new data stream or a subsequent packet
Whether the packet is inbound or outbound to or from your private network
Whether the packet came from or is destined for an application on your private network.
21. At which two layers of the OSI Model do a packet filtering firewall operate?
Answer: C.
22. Before a firewall can effectively filter unwanted traffic, it must be:
Answer: B.
23. Which of the following best describes the function of a proxy server?
Answer: D.
24. Which of the following security risks does using the callback feature on a remote control application
address?
Answer: B.
25. If a company wants to save office leasing costs and allow 50 of its employees to work at home, what
type of arrangement would be the most secure, practical, and economical for granting home workers
access to the LAN?
Answer: B.
26. What service does PPTP provide?
Answer: A.
27. If you are entering your account number in a Web page to gain access to your stock portfolio online,
which of the following encryption methods are you most likely using?
Answer: E.
28. In general, the longer the key, the more secure the encryption. True or False?
Answer: True
29. PGP is frequently used for what type of network communication?
Answer: A.
Review Questions for Ch16
1. What type of chart is used in project management to express how tasks will occur over a horizontal
timeline?
Answer: B.
2. What do you call a task that must be completed before another task can begin?
Answer: C.
3. What is the purpose of a milestone?
Answer: C.
4. Who would be a likely sponsor for a network backbone upgrade?
Answer: D.
5. In a project to upgrade the version of Microsoft Exchange on the network, a receptionist who uses
Exchange is an example of a project stakeholder. True or False?
Answer: True
6. In what type of situation might additional funding have no impact on an enterprise’s ability to
complete a project more quickly?
Answer: A.
7. Name four benefits of effective communication among project participants.
Answer: Some benefits of communication on a project include:
Ensure that a projects’ goals are understood by participants, stakeholders, and sponsors
Keep a project’s timeline and budget on track
Encourage teamwork among participants
Allow you to learn from previous mistakes
Prevent finger-pointing if a task is not completed correctly or on time
Prevent duplication of efforts
Ensure that stakeholders are prepared for the effects of change
8. What type of process can be managed to improve the efficiency of how modifications to a project plan
are handled?
Answer: B.
9. Which pre-defined process can help you recover when a project suffers a setback?
Answer: A.
10. Which of the following implementation steps should come first?
Answer: D.
11. Which step in the implementation of network projects should precede the final release of changes to all
users?
Answer: C.
12. What is the last step in a network implementation project?
Answer: Rewriting and updating network documentation, including baseline information, so that it is
current.
13. Why is it sometimes advisable to hire external consultants to perform a feasibility study?
Answer: Consultants will not make assumptions (they’ll provide an objective viewpoint).
14. Which of the following is a good example of test criteria that can be used to evaluate the success of a
network backbone upgrade?
Answer: D.
15. Baselining will help you determine how long a project should take to complete. True or False?
Answer: False
16. What can you do if your needs assessments interviews indicate that two groups of customers have
conflicting needs?
Answer: D.
17. Why does it cost significantly more to achieve 99.99% availability than it does to achieve 99.5%
availability?
Answer: Because it requires buying much more redundant hardware and connectivity, which is more
expensive than redundant components or using software-based fault tolerance techniques.
18. Which of the following questions should you ask your organization’s management staff so as to better
determine scalability needs?
Answer: A.
19. Give two examples of projects that might be driven by security concerns.
Answer: Examples of projects driven by security needs include:
Installation of firewalls at WAN locations
Modifications to firewall or router configurations or operating systems
Implementation of intrusion detection systems
A company-wide effort to enforce security policies, such as good password selection.
20. If you were planning a project to replace all 25 routers in your enterprise-wide network with switches,
what kind of pilot network might you design to test whether the switches will work as planned?
Answer: A pilot network that includes the same types of workstations and at least one of the exact
model of switches that will be implemented on the new network.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid config
for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
2 Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for data representation, encoding, and dialog control?
application
transport
internetwork
network access
3 When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 4 and 5
1 and 2; 3 and 6
3 and 6; 7 and 8
4 and 5; 7 and 8
4 An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. Th
finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
The host discards the frame.
The host processes the data frame normally.
The host initiates a request for retransmission of the frame.
The host sends the frame content to an upper layer protocol for error recovery.
5
What can be stated about the topology in classroom 240? (Choose two.)
All hosts are in one collision domain.
Effective use of inexpensive equipment makes this classroom topology desirable.
Excessive broadcasts and collisions during class use could cause slow and intermittent Internet access.
The topology successfully follows the 5-4-3 rule.
None of the hosts has a connection to the Internet.
6
Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable A
Cable B
Cable C
Cable D
7
Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
bits, segments, frames, packets, data
bits, frames, packets, segments, data
bits, frames, segments, packets, data
bits, packets, frames, segments, data
8 Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
DSL
Token Ring
Frame Relay
ISDN
Ethernet
9
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
three
four
five
six
eight
ten
10
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the
communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source MAC address: BBBB.3333.5677
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
11 Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
provides windowing
provides reliability
uses port numbers
acknowledges receipt of data
classified as a connectionless protocol
classified as a transport layer protocol
12 A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the c
in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
static routes
dynamic routing protocols
only default routes
none. No routing is necessary.
13 A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible
establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
application
session
transport
network
data link
14 Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
A switch manages frames faster than a hub does.
A switch operates at 100 Mbps. A hub operates at a maximum of 10 Mbps.
A switch modifies the Ethernet frame to remove any errors. A hub forwards the frame exactly as it arrived.
A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub s
frame out all ports except the source port.
15
Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if ho
transmits a broadcast frame?
Only workstation B and the router will receive the data.
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.
Only workstations connected to the hub will receive the data.
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data and it will be forwarded into the Internet.
16
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the
between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the O
used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
switch
hub
bridge
router
repeater
17
In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP
use?
A=straight, B=rollover, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=rollover, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=straight
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover, D=straight, E=straight
18
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
the MAC address of the file server
the MAC address of the PADI router interface connected to Switch A
the IP address of Switch A
a unique host IP address
the subnet mask for the LAN
the default gateway address
19 A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does
address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
20 After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the
and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
transport
network
data link
physical
21 Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
TFTP
IP
TCP
UDP
DNS
22
Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used w
router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
physical
data link
network
transport
session
presentation
23
How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
three
four
five
six
seven
eight
24
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
rollover
console
crossover
straight-through
25
Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the adm
prefer it?
Diagram A. It provides the hosts with full-duplex connections.
Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.
Diagram B. It extends the collision domain.
Diagram B. It prevents the frames from looping.
Either network will perform equally well.
26
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two route
subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
27 Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
255.255.0.0
255.192.0.0
240.0.0.0
255.0.0.0
28 Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?
hub
router
switch
bridge
29 A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already i
Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
crossover
rollover
straight-through
console
30
A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were succ
The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the
information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
The IP address of Host A is incorrect.
The subnet mask of Host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.
Host A is properly configured. Some other problem exists in the internetwork.
46 A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
session
transport
network
data link
physical
47
Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
The switch sends its MAC address to each host.
The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.
Each host exchanges MAC addresses with each other.
The switch listens for data traffic to block since the switch lacks an IP address.
48
Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually e
the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network
administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
Both cables are acceptable.
The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.
49
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Wo
1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
Workstation 1 and Workstation 2 are on the same subnet.
The serial connections are using addresses from the LAN subnets.
Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.
If routers are used in the network, IP addresses do not need to be subnetted.
50 A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating
Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?
0.24 Mbps
4.17 Mbps
10 Mbps
24 Mbps
100 Mbps
200 Mbps
51 A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. Fo
purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
to connect a router to a switch
to connect a switch to a switch
to connect a host to a switch
to connect a hub to a switch
to connect a router to a hub
to connect a host to a hub
52 Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
It places requirements on all vendors that develop proprietary networking technologies for advance networking systems.
It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.
The International Organization for Standards develops all new products to be incorporated into the product.
It is mandated by the International Organization for Standardization that network products be compliant with the OSI mode