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Network Review Questions Ch 5-8

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					                                 Chapter 5 Review Questions

1.      Under what circumstance might you use a simple bus topology?
     Answer: C. When you have few users on a LAN

2.      What kind of topology is susceptible to signal bounce?
     Answer: B. Bus

3.       What are the primary advantages of using a star topology over a ring or bus topology?
     Answer: A star topology is more reliable, because it connects each node or device to the
     network with a separate connection. It is also more scalable, because additional devices can
     be added cheaply and without impacting the performance of the network.

4.      Most modern networks with more than a few nodes use a hybrid topology. True or
        False?
     Answer: True

5.      Why might you want to use a hierarchical topology?
     Answer: A. To differentiate levels of connectivity devices and workstation groups.

6.      What logical topology, or network transport model, relies most often on a star-wired
        bus topology?
     Answer: A. Ethernet




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7.       How do workstations in a ring topology negotiate their data transmissions?
      Answer: D. by using tokens

8.       Which of the following is a potential problem with daisy-chaining hubs?
      Answer: A. exceeding maximum segment length

9.       What type of network backbone is the most reliable?
      Answer: C. Parallel

10.      The Internet is an example of what kind of WAN topology?
      Answer: C. Mesh

11.       Why is packet switching more efficient than circuit switching?
      Answer: B. In packet switching packets can take the quickest route between nodes and arrive independent of
      when other packets in their data stream arrive.

12.        Describe the steps a workstation takes when it participates in CSMA/CD.
      Answer: A node checks the network to determine whether another node is transmitting. If it
      is, it will wait a specified amount of time before it retries. If two nodes have detected a free
      circuit and begun to transmit simultaneously, a collision will occur. In this event the
      Collision Detection routine is performed. If a station’s NIC determines that its data has
      been involved in a collision, it will propagate the collision throughout the network so no
      other stations attempt to transmit, then the station will remain silent for a period of time.
      After waiting, the node will retransmit its data once it again determines that the line is
      available.

13.      On a 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) network, what is the maximum number of hubs that can
         be connected along the bus of a star-wired bus topology?
      Answer: B. 3

14.      What is the maximum number of addressable stations on a 10BaseT Ethernet network?
      Answer: E. 1024

15.      Which two of the following might cause excessive data collisions on an Ethernet
         network?
      Answer: B and E.

16.      What type of media is best suited to 1 Gigabit Ethernet networks?
      Answer: A. fiber-optic

17.      In order to use demand priority on a network (for example, when running 100BaseVG),
         what type of hub is necessary?
      Answer: D. intelligent

18.      What fields do all Ethernet frame types have in common?
      Answer: preamble, source address, destination address, padding, data, and frame check
      sequence

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19.      At what layer of the OSI Model does framing occur?
      Answer: B. Data Link layer




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20.      What is the purpose of the pad field in an Ethernet frame?
      Answer: E. to ensure that the data portion of the frame totals at least 46 bytes

21.      What is the purpose of a Frame Check Sequence field in an Ethernet frame?
      Answer: A. To ensure that data is received without errors at the destination node.

22.      NIC device drivers come with what feature that reduces the need for you to worry about
         frame types?
      Answer: C. autosense

23.      What are the minimum and maximum sizes for an Ethernet frame?
      Answer: C. 64 and 1518 Bytes

24.      What type of TCP/IP protocol does LocalTalk use?
      Answer: B. MacTCP

25.      What is the name of a hub used on a Token Ring network?
      Answer: A. Multistation Access Unit

26.      Which two of the following are disadvantages to using Token Ring networks rather than
         Ethernet networks?
      Answer: B and C.

27.      Modern token ring networks may transmit data at 4, 16, 32 or 64 Mbps. True or False?
      Answer: False.

28.      If you were working on a Token Ring network that used cables with DB-9 connectors
         and needed to connect a NIC that contained an RJ-45 receptor, which of the following
         would help you accomplish your goal?
      Answer: D. media filter

29.      Which of the following IEEE standards describes Token Ring networks?
      Answer: D. IEEE 802.5

30.      Which of the following logical topologies is capable of the fastest throughput?
      Answer: E. ATM

31.      What type of Physical layer is required for FDDI?
      Answer: B. a dual ring of single mode or multimode fiber

32.      Besides their ring-based topologies, what else do FDDI and Token Ring networks have
         in common?
      Answer: C. Both use token passing to mediate data transmission.

33.      You have been asked to serve on a technical committee planning an upgrade from your
         university’s FDDI network to a Gigabit Ethernet network. The rest of the committee


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         asserts this will be a relatively simple transition. What concern should you raise that
         contradicts their assertion?
      Answer: B. The maximum allowable distance for a FDDI network is longer than that of an
      Ethernet network, so the existing FDDI network will need to be divided into smaller
      subnetworks.

34.      What type of switching do ATM networks use?
      Answer: A. circuit switching

35.      Which two of the following might explain why network administrators prefer Gigabit
         Ethernet over ATM?
      Answer: A and B.




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                                 Chapter 6 Review Questions

1.      If you purchase a new desktop computer today, what kind of network adapter is it likely to require?
Answer: A.

2.      What does “ISA” stand for?
Answer: B. ISA stands for Industry Standard Architecture. It is still used for modems and mice on some
computers, and can be used for network adapters.

3.       Describe the process for installing a PCMCIA network adapter.
Answer: Installing PCMCIA cards is an easy process. Simply turn off the laptop, insert the PCMCIA card into
an available PCMCIA slot, then turn the machine back on. In newer operating systems, you may not even
have to reboot the machine, but rather you can simply insert the PCMCIA NIC.




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4.      In which of the following instances is a wireless network adapter most appropriate?
Answer: C.

5.      You have just chosen a new NIC on your desktop computer, which runs Windows 2000 Professional.
        When you reboot the machine, you can tell that neither the sound card nor the NIC is working. You
        suspect that they have chosen the same IRQ. How can you confirm your suspicion?
Answer: A.

6.      Which two of the following IRQs could you probably assign to a network adapter without causing a
        conflict with preassigned devices?
Answer: C and D. See the IRQ table in this chapter.

7.      Which IRQ is typically reserved by COM 1?
Answer: B.

8.      You can install only one network adapter in a computer. True or False?
Answer: False. In fact, most servers have at least two NICs installed.

9.      On older NICs, what type of switches enables you to change the adapter’s configuration?
Answer: B.

10.     Which of the following could be a symptom of a resource conflict involving the network adapter?
Answer: C.

11.     Which of the following methods could allow you to change the rate at which a NIC can transmit and
        receive data?
Answer: D and E.

12.     Name three enhancements or features that manufacturers might add to network adapters to improve
        these devices performance.
Answer: Any of the following may be enhancements to a NIC: On-board CPU, DMA, dual channel, load
balancing, “Look ahead” transmit and receive, RAM buffering

13.     To which layer of the OSI Model do repeaters belong?
Answer: A.

14.     What is the function of a hub’s uplink port?
Answer: C.

15.     You are a network technician working on a 10BaseT network. A coworker has been having trouble
        logging on to the server and asks whether you can quickly tell her if her workstation’s NIC is
        operating properly. You do not have the NIC’s utility disk on hand, but you look at the back of her
        workstation and learn that although the NIC is properly installed and connected to the network,
        something’s wrong with it. What might you have seen that causes you to come to this conclusion?
Answer: D.

16.     Intelligent hubs differ from passive hubs in part because they can perform which of the following
        functions?
Answer: E. Passive hubs simply repeat signals while intelligent hubs can collect data and make some
rudimentary networking decisions.

17.     What kind of hub introduces a single point of failure into a network design?
Answer: A.

18.     What is a MIB?
Answer: A.


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19.     At what layer of the OSI Model do bridges function?
Answer: B.

20.     Before they will forward packets, bridges must be configured to accept the type of protocol (for
        example, TCP/IP or IPX/SPX) in use by the network. True or False?
Answer: False. Bridges can forward any kind of packets, because they are protocol-independent.

21.     How do bridges keep track of whether they should forward or filter packets?
Answer: B. Bridges maintain a filtering database that identifies which packets can be filtered and which
should be forwarded, based on their destination address.

22.      Which of the following is an advantage of using switches rather than hubs?
Answer: B. Switches separate a segment into dedicated channels and that makes data more secure and
provides more bandwidth for congested areas.

23.     In cut-through switching, what frame field does the switch never read?
Answer: D.

24.     Which type of switching is more appropriate for heavily trafficked networks?
Answer: C. Since cut-through switching cannot adequately verify the integrity of every packet it forwards, it
may forward errors. Under heavy traffic, this can cause serious congestion. Thus store and forward switches,
which do verify the integrity of packets, are more suitable for heavily trafficked LANs.

25.     A VLAN can be created using only one switch. True or False?
Answer: True.

26.     Which two of the following are important functions performed by a LAN?
Answer: A and E.

27.      How do routing protocols and routable protocols differ?
Answer: C. A routing protocol is the means by which routers communicate with each other about network
status. A routable protocol is a protocol that carries data from node to node and can be interpreted by a router.

28.     OSPF is a more efficient routing protocol than RIP. True or False?
Answer: True

29.     A brouter contains characteristics of which of the two following devices?
Answer: B and E.

30.      Why can’t routers forward packets as quickly as bridges can?
Answer: A. Routers operate at Layer 3, which means they take the time to read protocol and logical
addressing information. In addition, they store packets while they determine the best routing path. This adds
time. Bridges, on the other hand, only read Layer 2 addressing information and can quickly forward packets.

31.       Describe the difference between static and dynamic routing.
Answer: The main difference between static and dynamic routing is that in static routing, routing tables are
programmed by the network administrator to indicate the best path for nodes on the network and in dynamic
routing, the router determines best paths as it works, saving that data dynamically in its routing table.

32.     At which layers of the OSI Model do gateways function?
Answer: E.

33.     EIGRP is a routing protocol that was developed by which company?
Answer: C.



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34.     Which of the following routing protocols is used on the Internet’s backbone?
Answer: D.

35.     What is the function of an e-mail gateway?
Answer: A.




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                                       Chapter 7 Review Questions

1.       Name three networking scenarios that would require a WAN.
      Answer: Each of the following scenarios demonstrates a need for a WAN:

     A bank with offices around the state needs to connect those offices to gather transaction and account
      information into a central database
     An insurance company allows parents on maternity or paternity leave to work from home by dialing into the
      company’s network
     An automobile manufacturer in Detroit contracts its plastic parts manufacturing to a company in Delaware.
      Through WAN links the auto manufacturer can videoconference with the plastics manufacturer, exchange
      specification data, and even examine the parts for quality online;
     A pharmaceutical company’s salespeople scattered across the nation need to dial in their sales figures and
      receive e-mail from headquarters
     A technical support technician for the remote pharmaceutical sales person may need to show the salesperson
      how to create a macro in an Excel spreadsheet

      A remote control program such as PCAnywhere enables the support technician to “take over” the salesperson’s
      PC (over a WAN link) and demonstrate how to create the macro.

2.       What kind of public links do most telecommuters use for dial-up connections?
      Answer: C.

3.       What is the maximum throughput of a BRI ISDN line?
      Answer: B.

4.        What is the purpose of an ISDN’s D channel?
      Answer: A. An ISDN line’s D (data) channel carries information about the call, such as session initiation and
      termination signals, caller identity, call forwarding and conference calling signals.

5.       Which of the following WAN technologies is represented in network diagrams by a cloud?
      Answer: A.

6.       Which of the following WAN links is the most reliable?
      Answer: E.

7.        Which of the following customers would symmetrical DSL suit best?
      Answer: D. Symmetric transmission, in which downstream throughput is equal to upstream throughput, suits
      customers who generally upload things to a WAN as opposed to downloading data from a WAN.

8.       What technique enables DSL to achieve high bandwidth over PSTN lines?
      Answer: D.

9.       A home user of DSL is likely to connect to his external DSL modem through either of what two methods?
      Answer: C and D.

10.       DS1 is equivalent to T1 throughout the world. True or False?
      Answer: False. Technically, DS1 is the data signal equal to 24 voice channels. In North America, the
      throughput of a DS1 equals a T1. But in Europe a DS1 line is called an E1, and has a slightly higher
      throughput.

11.      Which two of the following are symmetrical versions of DSL?
      Answer: C and D.




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12.       What technique does T1 technology use to transmit multiple signals over a single telephone line?
      Answer: B. T-carrier technology, including T1s, uses time division multiplexing to create multiple signal paths
      over a single line.

13.      One T3 is equivalent to how many T1s?
      Answer: D.

14. How many 64-Kbps channels does a single T1 circuit carry?
    Answer: D.

15. Why are SONET networks considered “self-healing”?
    Answer: SONET networks are made of two rings, a primary and secondary ring. If the primary ring is severed,
    the technology automatically reroutes traffic to the backup ring. In this sense, the rings are self-healing.

16. Which of the following is a drawback of cable modem technology, compared to DSL?
    Answer: C.

17. What is the maximum throughput supported by X.25 technology?
    Answer: E.

18. What do frame relay and ATM connections have in common?
    Answer: C. Frame relay and ATM circuits both rely on virtual circuits. Frame relay uses permanent virtual
    circuits while ATM can use either Permanent virtual circuits or switched virtual circuits.

19. Which of the following may limit a DSL connection’s capacity?
    Answer: B.

20. What does CSU/DSU stand for?
    Answer: A.

21. Which of the two following transmission media could a T3 use?
    Answer: C and E

22.      Outside of the United States, SONET is known as which of the following?
      Answer: B.

23.        Name five factors you need to consider when planning a WAN implementation.
      Answer: When implementing a new WAN installation or upgrade, you will need to consider the following
      factors:
     How well a WAN solution will integrate with your existing LAN or WAN equipment
     What kind of transmission speed your users and applications require
     What kind of security you need
     The geographical distance your WAN must span
     The extent to which the WAN might grow over time
     What kind of technology you can afford

24.      What type of equipment is used to convert incoming digital signals from an ISDN line into analog signals
         for use by an attached telephone?
      Answer: B.

25.      Which transmission medium does SONET use?
      Answer: C.

26.      Why might a company choose to implement a VPN?
      Answer: A.


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27. If you are configuring a Windows 2000 dial-up connection to an ISP, which of the following details must you
         get from the ISP?
    Answer: C. For dial-up networking connections to an ISP, you must know:
 The telephone number of the ISP’s access server
 The type of server they use
 What types of protocols other than TCP/IP are supported
 Whether or not to specify an IP number and if so, what the IP number should be
 What the default nameserver is
 Whether or not IP header compression is supported
 Whether or not you should let the remote server determine the default gateway

28. Dial-up connections from a Windows 2000 Profession client will work only with Windows 2000 Remote
        Access Service (RAS). True or False?
    Answer: False. Windows 2000 dial-up networking will work with a variety of access server types.

29. For a user running queries on her office LAN’s database server from home, which of the following access
        types makes the most sense?
    Answer: B. Using the remote control solution with a dedicated LAN workstation makes the most sense when
    running processor-intensive applications over phone lines.

30. Which of the following is the most popular communications protocol for dial-up networking connections?
    Answer: D.




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                                       Chapter 8 Review Questions

1.      List four factors you should consider before purchasing a network operating system.
     Answer: Any four of the following are acceptable:
    Whether it will integrate with the LAN’s existing infrastructure
    How much it costs
    How well the vendor supports it
    Whether it provides additional services (such as Web hosting or remote access) that users might want
    Whether technical staff can manage it
    Whether it provides for future growth
    Whether necessary applications will run smoothly on it

2.      What is the function of a redirector?
     Answer: C.

3.         Which of the following must be installed on a Windows 2000 Professional client workstation in order for
     it to be able to log onto a Windows 2000 server?
     Answer: D.

4.      What are the three tiers in three-tier architecture?
     Answer: C.

5.      If a user has Modify rights to a folder on a Windows 2000 server, what is he or she able to do?
     Answer: A.

6.      Groups can contain other groups. True or False?
     Answer: True

7.   You have created a printer object for a new HP LaserJet in your Windows 2000 server Active Directory.
     Before users can print to this printer, what else must you create in Active Directory?
     Answer: A.

8.    Name at least five attributes that may be associated with a user account.
      Answer: Any five of the following:
    First name                                                  Telephone number
    Last name                                                   Common name
    Group membership                                            User name
    E-mail address                                              GUID
    Title                                                       Password restrictions
    Organization                                                Password
    Office location                                             Dial-in permissions
    Full name

9.   What is the purpose of a container in a NOS directory?
     Answer: D.

10. What is the maximum amount of memory that a Windows 2000 server can utilize?
    Answer: B.

11. What primary advantage does Windows 2000 gain by assigning each operation its own 32-bit address space?
    Answer: By assigning their own address space, Windows 2000 can isolate faulty operations. This means if one
    program “crashes,” other programs will continue functioning.

12. What is the common name in the following distinguished name:
    widgets.com/charleston/marketing/jkessel?

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      Answer: E.

13. What do threads have to do with multiprocessing?
    Answer: C.

14.      In comparing an NOS directory to a tree, what are analogous to leaves?
      Answer: D.

15.      In case RAM runs out of space, where can it store unused information blocks?
      Answer: B.

16.       What kind of trust relationship do multiple domains within the same domain tree on a Windows 2000
      network use?
      Answer: C.

17.        On a Windows 2000 server, two domains, named Marketing and Engineering, are within the same domain
      tree. Thus, a user from the Engineering domain has access to run any of the programs on a server in the
      Marketing domain. True or False?
      Answer: False

18.       When talking about a Windows 2000 domain tree, what would you call the one domain from which all
      other domains and their containers emanate?
      Answer: D.

19.       You are a user on a Windows 2000 network who wants to print a memo to a printer across the hall. What
      kind of name would your client software use to direct your memo to this printer?
      Answer: C.

20.      Which file system must a Windows 2000 server use to accept Macintosh clients?
      Answer: D.

21.      What kind of multiprocessing does Windows 2000 support?
      Answer: A.

22.        Name six things you need to know before you begin installing the Windows 2000 Server operating system.
      Answer: Any six of the following:
     Whether the server is a domain controller
     To what domain or workgroup it will belong
     Its name
     The domain name
     Licensing mode
     Registration key
     Number, type and size of hard disk partitions
     Protocols and services the server needs to support
     Optional services you need to install
     Time zone
     Administrator password




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23.      After you install Windows 2000 Server, you want to use the Microsoft Management Console
      (MMC) to manage users and groups. What is the first thing you must do?
      Answer: B.

24.      What is the purpose of replication on a Windows 2000 network?
      Answer: A.

25.      What is the maximum length for an NTFS file name?
      Answer: E.

26.       You work at an organization with 12 servers and 1000 employees, each of whom works full-time
      and has his or her own workstation. Which Windows 2000 licensing mode should you purchase?
      Answer: per seat licensing

27.       You are the network administrator for a school district. During August, you create a number of new
      student user accounts, but you do not want them to be functional at that time. What option should you
      choose when you create the user accounts?
      Answer: E.

28.       What utility allows you to transform NetWare directory objects to a Windows 2000 Server’s Active
      Directory?
      Answer: C.

29. Which of the following is not a valid name for a Windows 2000 domain?
    Answer: A.

30. What two methods can you use for installing Windows 2000 Server?
       Answer: A and D.




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