Fundamentals of Anatomy Physiology, 7e (Martini) by cmb14063


									BIO 141 STUDY GUIDE

Chapter 1 An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology

1) The study of the structure of individual cells is called
   a) cytology.
   b) histology.
   c) embryology.
   d) physiology.
   e) anatomy.

2) The study of the liver is to macroscopic anatomy as the study of the liver cell is to
   a) physiology.
   b) regional anatomy.
   c) microscopic anatomy.
   d) systemic anatomy.
   e) radiographic anatomy.
3) The study of early developmental processes is termed
   a) histology.
   b) embryology.
   c) cytology.
   d) pathology.
   e) organology.

4) Arrange the following list of levels of organization from the smallest level to the
   largest level.

                        1.   tissue
                        2.   cell
                        3.   organ
                        4.   organelle
                        5.   organism
                        6.   organ system
   b)   2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 5
   c)   4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5
   d)   4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5
   e)   4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5
   f)   2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6

5) Support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation are functions
   of the ________ system.
   a) integumentary
   b) muscular
   c) skeletal
   d) nervous
   e) endocrine

6) Locomotion and heat production are the functions of the ________ system.
   a) skeletal
   b) muscular
   c) respiratory
   d) lymphatic
   e) cardiovascular

7) The internal transport of cells and dissolved substances is the function of the
   ________ system.
   a) integumentary
   b) endocrine
   c) nervous
   d) cardiovascular
   e) respiratory

8) The kidneys and urinary bladder are organs of the ________ system.
   a) endocrine
   b) digestive
   c) respiratory
   d) urinary
   e) lymphatic

9) The pituitary gland and thyroid gland are organs of the ________ system.
   a) endocrine
   b) cardiovascular
   c) respiratory
   d) lymphatic
   e) digestive

10) Defense against infection and disease is the function of the ________ system.
    a) cardiovascular
    b) lymphatic
    c) respiratory
    d) urinary
    e) endocrine

11) Lungs are to the respiratory system as the spleen is to the ________ system.
    a) lymphatic
    b) urinary
    c) digestive
    d) cardiovascular
    e) both A and D

12) Skin, hair, and nails are associated with the ________ system.
    a) skeletal
    b) muscular
    c) integumentary
    d) endocrine
    e) both A and B

13) The maintenance of a constant and optimal internal environment in an organism is
    a) positive feedback.
    b) homeostasis.
    c) negative feedback.
    d) effector control.
    e) integration.

14) When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to
    decrease the body temperature. This is an example of
    a) negative feedback.
    b) positive feedback.
    c) nonhomeostatic regulation.
    d) diagnostic regulation.
    e) disease.

15) In general, the nervous system does each of the following, except
    a) helps to maintain homeostasis.
    b) responds rapidly to change.
    c) directs long-term responses to change.
    d) directs very specific responses.
    e) both B and D

16) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system?
    a) releases chemical messengers called hormones
    b) produces a more rapid response to body changes than the nervous system
    c) can produce effects that last for days or longer
    d) can produce an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time
    e) important homeostatic system

17) A person facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the
    a) supine position.
    b) prone position.
    c) anatomical position.
    d) frontal position.
    e) sagittal position.

18) Which of the following terms refers to the front or chest and abdominal regions of the
    a) anterior
    b) posterior
    c) dorsal
    d) ventral
    e) both A and D

19) Which of the following structures is lateral to the nose?
    a) eyes
    b) mouth
    c) ears
    d) chin
    e) both A and C

20) The wrist is ________ to the elbow.
    a) proximal
    b) distal
    c) lateral
    d) medial
    e) horizontal

21) The chest is ________ to the umbilicus.
    a) anterior
    b) superior
    c) posterior
    d) inferior
    e) medial

22) Which of the following regions corresponds to the lower back?
    a) pelvic
    b) cephalic
    c) gluteal
    d) lumbar
    e) thoracic

23) Which of the following regions corresponds to the upper arm?
    a) cervical
    b) brachial
    c) bronchial
    d) femoral
    e) pedal

24) A cut that passes parallel through the long axis of the body and divides the body into
    equal left and right halves is known as a
    a) frontal section.
    b) coronal section.
    c) transverse section.
    d) midsagittal section.
    e) parasagittal section.

25) The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the ________ from the ________.
    a) pleural cavity; mediastinum
    b) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
    c) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity
    d) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
    e) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity

26) The thoracic cavity contains the
    a) coelom.
    b) pericardial cavity.
    c) pelvic cavity.
    d) pleural cavities.
    e) both B and D

27) The mediastinum separates the ________ from the ________.
    a) pleural cavity; coelom
    b) thoracic cavity; peritoneal cavity
    c) right pleural cavity; left pleural cavity
    d) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
    e) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity

28) The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the
    a) pericardium.
    b) peritoneum.
    c) pleura.
    d) mediastinum.
    e) abdomen.

29) Mary, who is 6 months pregnant, goes to her physician for a test to check the
    development of her fetus. The physician uses a device that emits sound waves to
    produce an image of the fetus. This technique is known as
    a) X ray.
    b) CT.
    c) MRI.
    d) ultrasound.
    e) radiography.

30) A diagnostic technique that uses a computer to produce a series of transverse
    sectional views in the plane of the body from X rays is the
    a) angiogram.
    b) radiograph.
    c) CT scan.
    d) MRI scan.
    e) ultrasound.

31) The diaphragm divides the ventral body cavity into a superior ________ cavity and
    an inferior ________ cavity.
    a) pleural; pericardial
    b) abdominal; pelvic
    c) thoracic; abdominopelvic
    d) cranial; thoracic
    e) cranial; cervical

32) Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________.
    a) function; form
    b) form; structure
    c) structure; function
    d) structure; form
    e) growth; form

33) Advancing knowledge by forming a question, collecting data related to the query,
    observing and experimenting, and testing answers is employing
    a) the scientific method.
    b) the critical method.
    c) a theoretical method.
    d) a structural method.
    e) none of these.

34) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature
    would be
    a) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus.
    b) sweat glands that increase secretion.
    c) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector.
    d) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate.
    e) sweat glands that act like effectors.

35) Homeostasis is to ________ as gross anatomy is to ________.
    a) intervals; microscopic anatomy
    b) macroscopic anatomy; unbalance
    c) equilibrium; macroscopic anatomy
    d) balance; equilibrium
    e) imbalance; microscopic anatomy

36) Identify an organ located within the pleural cavity.
    a) heart
    b) small intestine
    c) lung
    d) spleen
    e) stomach

37) A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the ________ position.
    a) prone
    b) supine
    c) posterior
    d) dorsal
    e) caudal

38) The right pleural cavity surrounds the
    a) heart.
    b) trachea.
    c) left lung.
    d) right lung.
    e) digestive organs.

39) The abdominopelvic cavity includes
    a) the abdominal cavity.
    b) the pericardial cavity.
    c) the pelvic cavity.
    d) the mediastinum.
    e) A and C

40) Visceral pericardium is located
    a) on the heart itself.
    b) lining the pleural cavity.
    c) lining the pericardial cavity.
    d) on the lung itself.
    e) lining the spinal cavity.

41) The mediastinum
    a) contains the abdominal cavity.
    b) separates the pleural cavities.
    c) contains the pericardial cavity.
    d) A and B
    e) B and C
42) ________ is the study of life.
    a) Anatomy
    b) Biology
    c) Physiology
    d) Cytology
    e) Embryology

43) Terms of position are used to describe
    a) one body part in relation to another.
    b) the muscular system.
    c) the nervous system.
    d) the skeletal system.
    e) living matter.

44) Two major body cavities are the
    a) superior and inferior.
    b) inferior and dorsal.
    c) dorsal and ventral.
    d) ventral and inferior.
    e) superior and dorsal.

45) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is
    a) upward.
    b) downward.
    c) laterally.
    d) medially.
    e) none of these.

46) While standing in the anatomical position,
    a) front refers to anterior.
    b) front refers to ventral.
    c) back refers to posterior.
    d) back refers to dorsal.
    e) all of the above

47) A chemical imbalance in a heart muscle cell can cause the heart to stop pumping
    blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This
    observation supports the view that
    a) all organisms are composed of cells.
    b) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent.
    c) chemical molecules make up cells.
    d) all cells are independent of each other.
    e) congenital defects can be life-threatening.

Chapter 2 The Chemical Level of Organization

1) The simplest chemical units of matter are
   a) atoms.
   b) molecules.
   c) protons.
   d) neutrons.
   e) electrons.

2) Which of the following is the largest in size?
   a) an atom
   b) a molecule
   c) a proton
   d) a neutron
   e) an electron

3) Isotopes of an element differ in the number of
   a) protons in the nucleus.
   b) electrons in the nucleus.
   c) neutrons in the nucleus.
   d) electron clouds.
   e) electrons in energy shells.

4) The atomic number represents the number of
   a) protons in an atom.
   b) electrons in an ion.
   c) neutrons in an atom.
   d) protons and neutrons.
   e) neutrons and electrons.

5) All atoms with the same atomic number are grouped into
   a) molecules.
   b) cells.
   c) compounds.
   d) elements.
   e) isotopes.

6) The mass number of an atom indicates the number of
   a) protons in the nucleus.
   b) neutrons in the nucleus.
   c) electrons in the outer shells.
   d) protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
   e) protons and electrons in an atom.

7) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by
   a) the number of protons.
   b) the number of neutrons.
   c) the number and arrangement of electrons.
   d) the size of the atom.
   e) the mass of the atom.

8) Ions with a positive charge are called
   a) cations.
   b) anions.
   c) radicals.
   d) polyatomic ions.
   e) isotopes.

9) In living cells, the weakest bond between two or more atoms is the ________ bond.
   a) ionic
   b) covalent
   c) polar
   d) nonpolar
   e) hydrogen

10) Ionic bonds are formed when
    a) atoms share electrons.
    b) electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another.
    c) a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms.
    d) hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms in the same or different
    e) two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time.

11) In a molecule of nitrogen, three pairs of electrons are shared by two nitrogen atoms.
    The type of bond that is formed would be an example of a(n)
    a) single covalent bond.
    b) double covalent bond.
    c) triple covalent bond.
    d) polar covalent bond.
    e) hydrogen bond.

12) If a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a(n) ________ occurs.
    a) single covalent bond
    b) double covalent bond
    c) triple covalent bond
    d) polar covalent bond
    e) hydrogen bond

13) Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons
    a) will form many compounds.
    b) will normally form anions.
    c) will normally form cations.
    d) frequently form hydrogen bonds.
    e) are inert.

14) Which one of the following statements is not correct about the reaction H2 + Cl2 →
    2 HCl?
    a) H2 and Cl2 are the reactants.
    b) HCl is the product.
    c) One molecule of hydrogen contains 2 atoms.
    d) Two molecules of HCl are formed in the reaction.
    e) This reaction is an example of a decomposition reaction.

15) All of the following are true concerning enzymes, except that they
    a) are proteins.
    b) function as biological catalysts.
    c) lower the activation energy required for a reaction.
    d) affect only the rate of a chemical reaction.
    e) become a part of the reaction's product.

16) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites.
    a) amino group
    b) active
    c) carboxyl group
    d) reactant
    e) neutral zone

17) Each of the following is an example of an inorganic compound, except
    a) water.
    b) acids.
    c) bases.
    d) salts.
    e) glucose.

18) Which of the following statements about water is not correct?
    a) is composed of polar molecules
    b) is responsible for about 2/3 of the mass of the human body
    c) has a relatively low heat capacity
    d) can be considered a "universal solvent"
    e) contains hydrogen bonds

19) During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a solute and a mixture
    of ions is produced. These ions are called
    a) cations.
    b) anions.
    c) dissociates.
    d) electrolytes.
    e) anti-ions.

20) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by
    a) the high heat capacity of water.
    b) hydration spheres.
    c) water's nonpolar nature.
    d) radicals.
    e) hydrogen bonding.

21) A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
    a) acidic.
    b) basic.
    c) neutral.
    d) alkaline.
    e) ionated.

22) Which of the following substances would be least acidic?
    a) lemon juice, pH = 2
    b) urine, pH = 6
    c) tomato juice, pH = 4
    d) white wine, pH = 3
    e) stomach secretions, pH = 1

23) If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is
    a) neutral.
    b) acidic.
    c) alkaline.
    d) a buffer.
    e) a salt.

24) An important buffer in body fluids is
    a) NaCl.
    b) NaOH.
    c) HCl.
    d) NaHCO3.
    e) H2O.

25) Inorganic compounds that are soluble and whose ions will conduct an electrical
    current are called
    a) hydrophobic.
    b) electrolytes.
    c) covalent bonds.
    d) polar covalent molecules.
    e) hydration spheres.

26) Carbohydrate molecules
    a) are integral molecules of the cell membrane.
    b) form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes.
    c) are the body's most readily available source of energy.
    d) are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms.
    e) contain the genetic information found in cells.

27) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
    a) sucrose.
    b) starch.
    c) protein.
    d) vitamins.
    e) glucose.

28) Molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are
    a) isotopes.
    b) isomers.
    c) isozymes.
    d) isotypes.
    e) isomonomers.

29) A polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store glucose is
    a) starch.
    b) cellulose.
    c) glycogen.
    d) sucrose.
    e) fructose.

30) The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a near
    1:2:1 ratio is defined as a
    a) carbohydrate.
    b) lipid.
    c) protein.
    d) nucleic acid.
    e) both C and D

31) Lipids
    a) form essential structural components of cells.
    b) provide roughly twice the energy as carbohydrates.
    c) help to maintain body temperature.
    d) all of the above
    e) B and C only

32) A fatty acid that contains three double covalent bonds in its carbon chain is said to
    a) saturated.
    b) monounsaturated.
    c) polyunsaturated.
    d) hydrogenated.
    e) carboxylated.

33) Most of the fat found in the human body is in the form of
    a) steroids.
    b) phospholipids.
    c) triglycerides.
    d) prostaglandins.
    e) monoglycerides.

34) A type of lipid that is produced by nearly every tissue in the body and that acts as a
    local regulator of metabolism are the
    a) prostaglandins.
    b) steroids.
    c) monoglycerides.
    d) phospholipids.
    e) glycolipids.

35) Cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycolipids are examples of
    a) dietary fats.
    b) prostaglandins.
    c) structural lipids.
    d) lipid drugs.
    e) steroids.

36) You would expect a peptide bond to link
    a) two simple sugars.
    b) two amino acids.
    c) two nucleotides.
    d) a fatty acid and a glycerol molecule.
    e) a cholesterol molecule and a fatty acid molecule.

37) Each amino acid differs from another in the
    a) number of central carbon atoms.
    b) size of the amino group.
    c) number of carboxyl groups.
    d) nature of the R group.
    e) number of peptide bonds in the molecule.

38) In proteins the alpha-helix and pleated sheet are examples of a ________ structure
    of a protein.
    a) primary
    b) secondary
    c) tertiary
    d) quaternary
    e) pentanary

39) Glycoproteins and proteoglycans are combinations of proteins and
    a) carbohydrates.
    b) fatty acids.
    c) lipids.
    d) nucleic acids.
    e) none of the above

40) Molecules that store and process genetic information are the
    a) proteins.
    b) nucleic acids.
    c) carbohydrates.
    d) lipids.
    e) steroids.

41) Nucleic acids are composed of units called
    a) amino acids.
    b) fatty acids.
    c) purines.
    d) pyrimidines.
    e) nucleotides.

42) A nucleotide consists of
    a) a five-carbon sugar and phosphate group.
    b) a five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base.
    c) a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.
    d) a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.
    e) a five-carbon sugar and an amino acid.

43) According to the rules of complementary base pairing, a nucleotide containing the
    base cytosine would pair with a nucleotide containing the base
    a) thymine.
    b) adenine.
    c) uracil.
    d) cytosine.
    e) guanine.

44) The most important high-energy compound in cells is
    a) ribonucleic acid.
    b) adenosine diphosphate.
    c) adenosine monophosphate.
    d) adenosine triphosphate.
    e) deoxyribonucleic acid.

45) The bond between sodium and chloride in the compound sodium chloride (NaCl) is
    a) an ionic bond.
    b) a single covalent bond.
    c) a nonpolar covalent bond.
    d) a double covalent bond.
    e) a double ionic bond.

46) When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form
    a) ionic bonds.
    b) covalent bonds.
    c) hydrogen bonds.
    d) anions.
    e) cations.

47) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as
    a) organic molecules.
    b) inorganic molecules.
    c) acids.
    d) salts.
    e) bases.

48) If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass
    number is
    a) 26.
    b) 16.
    c) 18.
    d) 8.
    e) 12.

49) Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is
    a) 6.0.
    b) 4.5.
    c) 2.3.
    d) 1.0.
    e) 7.0.

50) Electrons have a ________ charge; protons have a ________ charge; and neutrons
    have a ________ charge.
    a) positive; negative; negative
    b) negative; positive; positive
    c) negative; positive; neutral
    d) negative; neutral; positive
    e) negative; neutral; neutral

51) A needle floating on the surface of a glass of water best illustrates
    a) surface tension.
    b) chemical tension.
    c) subatomic particles.
    d) cation action.
    e) anion action.

52) An example of an organic substance is
    a) table sugar.
    b) sodium.
    c) table salt.
    d) oxygen.
    e) nitric oxide (NO).

53) An example of an inorganic substance is
    a) fructose.
    b) water.
    c) lipid.
    d) glycogen.
    e) cholesterol.

54) In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with
    a) hydrogen causing decomposition.
    b) glucose causing decomposition.
    c) water causing decomposition.
    d) carbon causing decomposition.
    e) water causing synthesis.

55) In dehydration reactions, compounds
    a) lose water molecules.
    b) gain water molecules.
    c) convert water molecules to hydrogen and oxygen.
    d) convert hydrogen and oxygen to water.
    e) gain electrons.

56) If a molecule has two equal and opposite electrically charged poles separated by a
    short distance, it is said to be
    a) hydrophilic.
    b) hydrophobic.
    c) dipolar.
    d) tripolar.
    e) colloid.

57) In an aqueous solution, cations move toward
    a) water.
    b) sodium.
    c) potassium.
    d) anions.
    e) hydrogen ions.

58) The chemical symbol indicating concentration is represented as
    a) ().
    b) <>.
    c) [ ].
    d) {}.
    e) ||.

59) Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or
    a substance with a pH of 4?
    a) A pH of 4 is greater.
    b) A pH of 5 is greater.
    c) They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values.
    d) A and B
    e) none of the above

60) Of the list below, which has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions?
    a) one with a pH of 1
    b) one with a pH of 10
    c) one with a pH of 7
    d) one with a pH of 13
    e) one with a pH of 2

61) Which pH is closest to neutral pH?
    a) pH 6
    b) pH 5
    c) pH 4
    d) pH 3
    e) pH 2

62) A functional group is best described as groupings of
    a) elements that occur in a salt.
    b) atoms that occur repeatedly, such as carboxyl groups and amino groups.
    c) atoms that occur in low pH.
    d) elements that occur in high pH.
    e) amino acids in a protein.

63) The term ________ means each enzyme catalyzes only one type of reaction.
    a) saturation
    b) specificity
    c) inertia
    d) micelle
    e) peptide

64) Identify the product formed from the phosphorylation of ADP.
    a) adenosine diphosphate
    b) adenine
    c) adenosine triphosphate
    d) deoxyribonucleic acid
    e) ribose

65) ADP + P →.
    a) ADP
    b) 2ADP
    c) DNA
    d) ATP
    e) adenine

66) The phosphorylation of AMP forms
    a) ADP.
    b) ATP.
    c) 2AMP.
    d) 2ATP.
    e) ribose.

67) Adenine and guanine are
    a) purines represented by T and C.
    b) pyrimidines represented by A and G.
    c) purines represented by A and G.
    d) pyrimidines represented by T and C.
    e) carbohydrates represented by A and G.

68) Dissolved gases are required in biological systems for
    a) cellular metabolism.
    b) storage of energy.
    c) serving as structural components of bone.
    d) serving as catalysts.
    e) chemical messengers.

69) Human red blood cells are removed and replaced every 120 days. This is an
    example of
    a) metabolic turnover.
    b) thermal inertia.
    c) surface tension.
    d) functional groups.
    e) specificity.

70) What element is the most plentiful in the human body?
    a) sulfur
    b) sodium
    c) oxygen
    d) potassium
    e) carbon

71) What element is the second most abundant in the human body?
    a) oxygen
    b) carbon
    c) hydrogen
    d) nitrogen
    e) calcium

72) From the following group, indicate one containing all trace elements.
    a) sulfur, chlorine, oxygen
    b) selenium, hydrogen, calcium
    c) boron, oxygen, carbon
    d) silicon, fluorine, tin
    e) cobalt, calcium, sodium

73) The molecule NO is known as
    a) nitric oxide.
    b) noxious oxide.
    c) noxious oxygen.
    d) nitric oxygen.
    e) nitrate oxide.

74) The molecule CO2 is known as
    a) carbonized oxygen.
    b) carbonated oxygen.
    c) carbon monoxide.
    d) carbon oxide.
    e) carbon dioxide.

75) The molecule H2 is known as
    a) hydro.
    b) hydrogen.
    c) hydroxide.
    d) helium.
    e) helios.

76) The molecule O2 is known as
    a) oxide.
    b) oxygen.
    c) organic.
    d) B and C
    e) none of the above
77) The basic units of matter include ________ or ________.
    a) atoms; elements
    b) protons; neutrons
    c) protons; electrons
    d) neutrons; electrons
    e) cells; tissues

78) H2O is an example of a(n)
    a) ionic formula.
    b) glucose molecule.
    c) molecular formula.
    d) sodium molecule.
    e) covalent formula.

79) A(n) ________ accepts hydroxide ions in water and a(n) ________ releases
    hydrogen ions in water.
    a) acid; base
    b) base; acid
    c) compound; element
    d) element; compound
    e) molecule; acid

80) A nanometer is
    a) 10-6 meter.
    b) 10-8 meter.
    c) 10-9 meter.
    d) 10-10 meter.
    e) 10-12 meter.

81) An excess of hydrogen ions in the body fluids can have disastrous results because
    a) excess hydrogen ions can break chemical bonds.
    b) excess hydrogen ions can change the shape of large complex molecules,
       rendering them nonfunctional.
    c) excess hydrogen ions can disrupt tissue functions.
    d) all of the above
    e) A and B only

82) Artificial sweeteners
    a) are naturally similar to sugars.
    b) are always some form of carbohydrate.
    c) are generally 100 or more times sweeter than sucrose.
    d) are inorganic sugar substitutes.
    e) produce the same number of calories as the equivalent amount of sucrose.

83) Alaska Natives have a lower incidence of heart disease even though their diets are
    high in fat and cholesterol. This may be due to the large amount of ________ in their
    a) steroids
    b) triglycerides
    c) prostaglandins
    d) omega-3 fatty acids
    e) oleic acid

84) If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number
    of 14, then a neutral atom of this element contains
    a) 6 protons.
    b) 6 neutrons.
    c) 8 electrons.
    d) 14 protons.
    e) 14 electrons.

85) One mole of any element
    a) has the same mass.
    b) has the same weight.
    c) has the same number of atoms.
    d) has the same number of electrons.
    e) all of the above

86) When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite
    as a result of the electrostatic attraction,
    a) an ion is formed.
    b) a molecule is formed.
    c) a hydrogen bond is formed.
    d) an ionic bond is formed.
    e) a covalent bond is formed.

87) Calcium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would
    expect calcium to form ions with a charge of
    a) +1.
    b) +2.
    c) -1.
    d) -2.
    e) 0.

88) Each of the following statements concerning hydrogen bonds is true, except one.
    Identify the exception.
    a) Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and
       negatively charged atoms.
    b) Hydrogen bonds can occur within a single molecule.
    c) Hydrogen bonds can form between neighboring molecules.
    d) Hydrogen bonds are important forces for holding large molecules together.
    e) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for many of the unique properties of water.

89) In the reaction listed below, what coefficient needs to be added to balance the
    equation? 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + ________ O2
    a) 2
    b) 4
    c) 6
    d) 8
    e) 10

90) An inorganic compound, when placed in water, dissociates 99 percent forming
    hydrogen ions and anions. This substance would be
    a) a strong base.
    b) a weak base.
    c) a strong acid.
    d) a weak acid.
    e) a salt.

91) Fructose
    a) is a hexose.
    b) is an isomer of glucose.
    c) is found in male reproductive fluids.
    d) all of the above
    e) A and B only

92) When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis,
    a) a new monosaccharide is formed.
    b) a disaccharide is formed.
    c) a polysaccharide is formed.
    d) a starch is formed.
    e) hydrolysis occurs.

93) A shortage of cholesterol in the body would interfere with the formation of
    a) sex hormones.
    b) proteins.
    c) nucleic acids.
    d) glycogen.
    e) both A and C

94) The nucleic acid RNA
    a) is double stranded.
    b) contains the pyrimidine uracil in place of thymine.
    c) contains the pentose deoxyribose.
    d) is restricted to the nucleus.
    e) contains the cell's genetic information.

Chapter 3 The Cellular Level of Organization

1) The basic structural and functional unit of the human body is
   a) protein.
   b) the cell.
   c) tissue.
   d) the organ.
   e) the organ system.

2) The watery medium that surrounds a cell is called
   a)   cytosol.
   b)   protoplasm.
   c)   extracellular fluid.
   d)   cytoplasm.
   e)   a colloidal gel.

3) Which of the following terms is not used to define the structure that separates the
   contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium?
   a) cell wall
   b) cell membrane
   c) plasma membrane
   d) plasmalemma
   e) both A and D

4) Functions of the cell membrane include all of the following, except
   a) separation of the cytoplasm from the extracellular fluid.
   b) regulation of exchange of materials with the extracellular environment.
   c) sensitivity to changes in the concentration of certain substances in the
      extracellular fluid.
   d) identifying foreign substances and cells.
   e) structural support.

5) The plasma membrane
   a) is composed of a bilayer of proteins.
   b) is composed of a bilayer of lipids.
   c) is composed of only carbohydrate molecules.
   d) is a complex combination of carbohydrates and proteins.
   e) is a complex combination of carbohydrates and lipids.

6) Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?
   a) binds to ligands
   b) regulates the passage of ions
   c) acts as carrier molecules for various solutes
   d) acts as anchors or stabilizers for the cell membrane
   e) produces energy

7) Functions of the glycocalyx include
   a) lubricating and protecting the cell membrane.
   b) identifying the cell for the immune system.
   c) acting as receptors for hormones.
   d) all of the above
   e) B and C only

8) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle, except
   a) lysosomes.
   b) cilia.
   c) centrioles.
   d) ribosomes.
   e) cytoskeleton.

9) Components of the cytoskeleton may include all of the following, except
   a) microfilaments.
   b) intermediate filaments.
   c) basal bodies.
   d) microtubules.
   e) thick filaments.

10) Which of the following cytoskeleton components are responsible for the movement
    of chromosomes during cell division?
    a) microfilaments
    b) intermediate filaments
    c) thick filaments
    d) microtubules
    e) basal bodies

11) Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
    a) ribosomes.
    b) endoplasmic reticulum.
    c) nucleus.
    d) mitochondria.
    e) Golgi apparatus.

12) In the mitochondrion, folds are to cristae as the contained fluid is to
    a) actin.
    b) microvilli.
    c) cytosol.
    d) basal body.
    e) matrix.

13) The components of ribosomes are formed by
    a) the endoplasmic reticulum.
    b) Golgi complexes.
    c) lysosomes.
    d) mitochondria.
    e) nucleoli.

14) Synthesis of lipids takes place at the
    a) ribosomes.
    b) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
    c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
    d) Golgi apparatus.
    e) mitochondria.

15) Which of the following consist of a network of intracellular membranes with attached
    a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
    b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    c) mitochondria
    d) nucleoli
    e) Golgi apparatus

16) Vesicles containing enzymes that neutralize toxins such as alcohol are
    a) lysosomes.
    b) peroxisomes.
    c) centrosomes.
    d) endosomes.
    e) toxisomes.

17) When activated, lysosomes function in
    a) formation of new cell membranes.
    b) synthesis of proteins.
    c) digestion of foreign material.
    d) synthesis of lipids.
    e) cell division.

18) The cell's DNA is located in the
    a) ribosomes.
    b) lysosomes.
    c) Golgi apparatus.
    d) nucleus.
    e) nucleolus.

19) The control center for cellular operations is the
    a) nucleus.
    b) mitochondria.
    c) Golgi apparatus.
    d) endoplasmic reticulum.
    e) ribosome.

20) The complex structures of DNA and protein found in the cell nucleus are
    a) nucleoplasm.
    b) chromosomes.
    c) histones.
    d) nucleases.
    e) mitochondria.

21) The nucleus stores the DNA needed to synthesize which of the following molecules
    in the cytoplasm?
    a) carbohydrates
    b) lipids
    c) proteins
    d) phospholipids
    e) none of the above

22) The triplet codes needed to produce a specific polypeptide chain are found in the
    a) chromosome.
    b) gene.
    c) codon.
    d) anticodon.
    e) polypeptide itself.

23) As each codon arrives at the active site of a ribosome, it interacts with another
    molecule. This molecule is called
    a) DNA.
    b) mRNA.
    c) ribosomal RNA.
    d) tRNA.
    e) rough ER.

24) The process of protein formation is called
    a) replication.
    b) transcription.
    c) translation.
    d) mitosis.
    e) auscultation.

25) The process of forming mRNA is called
    a) replication.
    b) transcription.
    c) translation.
    d) ribolation.
    e) auscultation.

26) The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low
    concentration is an example of
    a) osmosis.
    b) active transport.
    c) diffusion.
    d) facilitated transport.
    e) filtration.

27) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is influenced by all of the
    following, except
    a) its ability to dissolve in water.
    b) the size of the membrane channel.
    c) the charge on the ion or molecule.
    d) the charge of the membrane.
    e) its solubility in the lipid membrane.

28) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through
    a) channels in some integral proteins.
    b) peripheral proteins.
    c) lipid channels.
    d) peripheral carbohydrates.
    e) small holes in the lipid layer of the membrane.

29) A solution that contains a lower solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is
    a) merotonic.
    b) hypertonic.
    c) isotonic.
    d) hypotonic.
    e) homotonic.

30) Crenation occurs when a blood cell is placed in a(n) ________ solution.
    a) isotonic
    b) hypertonic
    c) hypotonic
    d) merotonic
    e) homotonic

31) The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their
    concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called
    a) osmosis.
    b) facilitated diffusion.
    c) active transport.
    d) endocytosis.
    e) exocytosis.

32) Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that
    a) facilitated diffusion expends no ATP.
    b) facilitated diffusion moves molecules from an area of their higher concentration to
       their lower concentration.
    c) the rate of molecular movement is limited by the number of available carrier
    d) facilitated diffusion never eliminates the concentration gradient.
    e) the rate of molecular movement is not limited by the number of available carrier

33) A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its
    concentration gradient is called
    a) active transport.
    b) passive transport.
    c) facilitated transport.
    d) osmosis.
    e) diffusion.

34) The packaging of extracellular materials in a vesicle at the cell surface for
    importation into the cell is called
    a) osmosis.
    b) active transport.
    c) facilitated transport.
    d) endocytosis.
    e) an ion exchange pump.

35) The principal cations in our body fluids are ________ and ________.
    a) sodium; potassium
    b) calcium; magnesium
    c) sodium; magnesium
    d) chloride; potassium
    e) sodium; chloride

36) In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, an important exchange pump within the
    cell membrane ejects ________ ions from the cell and imports ________ ions.
    a) potassium; calcium
    b) sodium; calcium
    c) potassium; sodium
    d) sodium; potassium
    e) calcium; sodium

37) When describing a cell's membrane potential, the cell interior is
    a) more positively charged than the exterior.
    b) more negatively charged than the exterior.
    c) electrically neutral.
    d) continuously reversing its electrical charge.
    e) positively charged whenever the sodium-potassium pump is active.

38) The potential difference across the cell membrane is due to the separation of
    a) carbohydrate molecules.
    b) water molecules.
    c) cations and anions.
    d) protein and carbohydrate molecules.
    e) vitamins and hormones.

39) Changes in the transmembrane potential of a cell are involved in
    a) muscle contractions.
    b) the function of nerve cells.
    c) the process of secretion by some secretory cells.
    d) all of the above
    e) A and B only

40) The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and
    prepares for division is called
    a) prophase.
    b) metaphase.
    c) interphase.
    d) telophase.
    e) anaphase.

41) During the process of mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes
    a) prophase.
    b) metaphase.
    c) interphase.
    d) telophase.
    e) anaphase.

42) During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane
    forms, and cytokinesis may occur.
    a) anaphase
    b) prophase
    c) interphase
    d) telophase
    e) metaphase

43) When genes are functionally eliminated, the cell loses its ability to create particular
    proteins. This specialization process is termed
    a) adaptation.
    b) differentiation.
    c) structural integration.
    d) cellular activation.
    e) apoptosis.

44) All of the following membrane transport mechanisms are passive processes, except
    a) diffusion.
    b) facilitated diffusion.
    c) vesicular transport.
    d) osmosis.
    e) all of the above

45) The cell membrane includes
    a) integral proteins.
    b) glycolipids.
    c) phospholipids.
    d) all of the above
    e) A and C only

46) The genetically controlled death of cells is called
    a) differentiation.
    b) replication.
    c) apoptosis.
    d) metastasis.
    e) mitosis.

47) Osmotic pressure differs from hydrostatic pressure because the osmotic pressure of
    a solution is an indication of the force of water movement resulting from
    a) the solute concentration.
    b) the volume of water.
    c) the permeability of the membrane.
    d) A and B
    e) B and C

48) Cytoplasm contains ________ protein as/than extracellular fluid.
    a) less
    b) equal amounts of
    c) more
    d) nearly enough
    e) none of the above

49) Many proteins in the cytosol are ________ that regulate metabolic operations.
    a) carbohydrates
    b) enzymes
    c) lipids
    d) messengers
    e) ions

50) Tubulin is
    a) a carbohydrate that assembles into filamentous tubes (microtubules).
    b) a lipid that assembles into filamentous tubes (microtubules).
    c) a protein that assembles into filamentous tubes (microtubules).
    d) a protein that forms the fluid portion of the cytosol.
    e) a lipid that forms the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.

51) Endocytosis is
    a) a method for transporting substances across the cell membrane.
    b) a method for metabolizing within the cytosol.
    c) a form of anabolism.
    d) a manner in which lysosomes are formed.
    e) a method for synthesizing products.

52) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or
    none. This suggests that
    a) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived.
    b) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.
    c) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.
    d) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand.
    e) some cells are older than others.

53) A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus. Thus, it
    a) can repair itself rather readily.
    b) is malformed.
    c) is normal, but its function will be impaired.
    d) will be a long-lived cell.
    e) cannot repair itself and will disintegrate within a few months.

54) Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________.
    a) RNA; carbohydrates
    b) DNA; lipids
    c) DNA; proteins
    d) water; RNA
    e) RNA; proteins

55) In the course of a semester, items began disappearing from the A&P lab. Students
    claimed that they saw nobody remove any items from the classroom. The instructor
    decided to investigate this phenomenon. Which of the following could have been
    used to identify the culprit using DNA fingerprinting?
    a) skin scrapings
    b) hair samples
    c) photo identification
    d) indirect observation
    e) A and B

56) Messenger RNA is vital to the cell because
    a) mRNA can leave the cell.
    b) mRNA cannot leave the cell.
    c) DNA can leave the cell.
    d) DNA cannot leave the cell.
    e) A and D

57) The functional units of DNA are
    a) chromosomes.
    b) genes.
    c) proteins.
    d) codons.
    e) RNA.

58) Placing a swollen ankle into a solution of Epsom salt is a common practice used to
    decrease edema (swelling). The Epsom salt solution is an example of
    a) an isotonic solution.
    b) a hypotonic solution.
    c) a hypertonic solution.
    d) a diffusion solution.
    e) an osmosis solution.

59) Cell shrinkage is to ________ as cell bursting is to ________.
    a) crenation; lysis
    b) lysis; crenation
    c) hypotonic; isotonic
    d) isotonic; hypotonic
    e) isotonic; hypertonic

60) White blood cells engulfing disease-causing bacteria illustrates
    a) pinocytosis.
    b) endocytosis.
    c) exocytosis.
    d) phagocytosis.
    e) receptor-mediated endocytosis.

61) During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has
    a) a different number of chromosomes as the original cell.
    b) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell.
    c) the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
    d) a lesser number of chromosomes as the original cell.
    e) no chromosomes.

62) A unit in messenger RNA consisting of a set of three consecutive nucleotides is
    termed a(n)
    a) amino acid.
    b) tRNA.
    c) rRNA.
    d) codon.
    e) pore.

63) A carbohydrate that cannot cross cell membranes that is commonly administered to
    patients suffering blood loss is
    a) saline solution.
    b) salt solution.
    c) glucose.
    d) isotonic saline.
    e) dextran.

64) Which endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?
    a) the ribosomal reticulum
    b) the proteosomes reticulum
    c) the raised reticulum
    d) the smooth reticulum
    e) the rough reticulum

65) Inside the cell, membrane proteins are bound to the
    a) cytoplasm.
    b) cytoskeleton.
    c) protein fibers.
    d) phospholipid bilayer.
    e) cell membrane.

66) The most fragile of the cytoskeletal elements are the
    a) microfilaments.
    b) actin.
    c) filaments.
    d) microtubules.
    e) intermediate filaments.

67) Microtubules have the following functions?
    a) They form structural components of organelles.
    b) They regulate the exchange of waste products with ECF.
    c) They provide a mechanism for changing the cell shape.
    d) all of the above
    e) both A and C

68) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for
    a) drug and toxin neutralization.
    b) protein, carbohydrate, and lipid synthesis.
    c) storage of synthesized molecules.
    d) all of the above
    e) both A and C

69) Special catalytic molecules called ________ control chemical reactions in the human
    a) enzymes
    b) cytozymes
    c) cofactors
    d) activators
    e) cytochromes

70) All organic compounds in the human body contain all of the following, except
    a) hydrogen.
    b) oxygen.
    c) carbon.
    d) calcium.
    e) both A and D

71) Which of the following is not a function of protein?
    a) support
    b) transport
    c) metabolic regulation
    d) storage of genetic information
    e) movement

72) Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into
    a) isotonic solution.
    b) hypertonic solution.
    c) hypotonic solution.
    d) merotonic solution.
    e) homotonic.

73) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not
    a) form protein.
    b) form complementary sequences of DNA.
    c) link pieces of DNA together.
    d) form spindle fibers.
    e) form a new nuclear membrane during telophase.

74) Compared to the extracellular fluid, cytosol contains
    a) a higher concentration of sodium ion.
    b) a relatively high concentration of dissolved proteins.
    c) relatively low supplies of carbohydrates.
    d) relatively few amino acids.
    e) no lipids.

75) Microfilaments
    a) are usually composed of myosin.
    b) are hollow, filamentous structures.
    c) anchor the cytoskeleton to integral proteins of the cell membrane.
    d) interact with filaments composed of tubulin to produce muscle contractions.
    e) are found in the cytoplasm radiating away from the centrosome.

76) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to
    a) move.
    b) synthesize proteins.
    c) produce DNA.
    d) metabolize sugars.
    e) divide.

77) Each of the following statements concerning mitochondria is true, except one.
    Identify the exception.
    a) The mitochondrial cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle.
    b) The matrix of the mitochondria contains metabolic enzymes involved in energy
    c) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.
    d) The mitochondria contain no DNA or RNA.
    e) The mitochondria produce most of a cell's ATP.

78) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum, except
    a) removal and storage of calcium ions.
    b) modification of protein products.
    c) synthesis of steroid hormones.
    d) synthesis of triglycerides in liver cells.
    e) detoxification of drugs in liver cells.

79) Two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane with the same
    properties as a cell membrane. Solution A is 5 percent glucose and solution B is 10
    percent glucose. Under these circumstances, which of the following would most
    likely occur?
    a) Water will move from solution A to solution B.
    b) Water will move from solution B to solution A.
    c) Glucose will move from solution A to solution B.
    d) Glucose will move from solution B to solution A.
    e) At equilibrium the concentration of glucose will be higher in solution B.

80) If the amount of sodium ion in blood plasma increases, which of the following would
    initially occur?
    a) The blood osmotic pressure will increase.
    b) The blood osmotic pressure will decrease.
    c) The blood osmotic pressure will stay the same.
    d) The blood hydrostatic pressure will increase.
    e) The blood hydrostatic pressure will decrease.

81) If the concentration of sodium ions in the fluid surrounding cells decreases and the
    concentration of other solutes remains constant,
    a) the cells will shrink.
    b) the cells will swell.
    c) the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic.
    d) the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic.
    e) the cells will not change.

82) The movement of a particular amino acid across the cell membrane (along its
    concentration gradient) is impaired when a molecule chemically similar to the amino
    acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the
    membrane is by
    a) osmosis.
    b) diffusion.
    c) facilitated diffusion.
    d) active transport.
    e) pinocytosis.

83) The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA would be
    a) ATC.
    b) TAG.
    c) UAG.
    d) AUG.
    e) AUC.

84) The anticodon for the triplet UCA would be
    a) AGU.
    b) AGC.
    c) TCA.
    d) TGT.
    e) AGT.


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