Medical-Surgical Nursing Review and Resource Manual, 2nd Edition Pre-Test Questions 1. In the Health Belief Model, the motivating force for behavior change is: a. High-level wellness b. Fear of disease c. Relief of suffering d. Bio-psycho-spiritual well-being 2. Which of the following illustrates a patient outcome? a. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute b. Decline in level of dyspnea between admission and discharge c. Use of home oxygen therapy d. Health status at hospital discharge 3. Mr. Jackson, a 64-year-old African American with a 10-year history of Type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia is being evaluated for severe, crushing chest pain. His pain ranks 9/10 on a numeric scale. A 12 lead EKG and cardiac enzymes are pending. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate cardiac decompensation? a. Ventricular gallop or pathologic S3 b. An opening snap c. An ejection click d. A mid-systolic click 4. When teaching your patient how to reduce his LDLs and triglycerides and increase his HDLs, you are sure to tell him to increase his intake of which of the following? a. Olive oil, tuna, and salmon b. Coconut oil, mackerel, and soft margarines c. Whole grains, whole milk, and peanut oils d. Canola oil, alcohol, and fruits 5. Your patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate? a. Activity intolerance b. Potential for infection c. Acute pain d. Anticipatory grieving 6. Which patient should obtain an annual flu vaccine and a single pneumococcal vaccine? a. A 54-year-old steel worker with metabolic syndrome b. A 64-year-old African-American male with a history of hypertension c. A 28-year-old flight attendant with a history of polycystic ovary disease d. A 34-year-old mother of two with a 5 year history of Type 1 Diabetes 7. A common complementary therapy that a patient with an upper respiratory infection might choose would be a. echinacea b. St. John’s wort c. ginkgo biloba d. Feverfew 8. You are assessing a patient and note that his lips have painful lesions at the corners of their mouth. You document this as a. leukoplakia b. gingivitis c. cheilosis d. candidiases 9. Your patient has a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and has been started on metaclopramide. He asks you how this medication works. You tell him that it a. stimulates upper gastric motility and gastric emptying. b. reacts with gastric acid to form a thick paste. c. buffers and neutralizes the acid. d. inhibits the hydrogen-potassium-ATP pump. 10. Your patient says that he “urinates at night” and it is affecting his daytime alertness. You would document this as a. dysuria. b. nocturia. c. oliguria. d. polyuria. 11. M.J. has been given a loop diuretic. His instructions for this medication would include a. limiting intake of fluids. b. taking the medication at bedtime. c. taking the medication on an empty stomach. d. if experiencing pain, take an non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). 12. Which of the following may be an early sign of complication for the patient with type 2 diabetes? a. Microalbuminuria b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Vision changes d. Cardiovascular disease 13. H.P. has sustained a fracture to his lower extremity. As his nurse, you realize that a major complication to his condition that can occur with in the first 48 hours is a. sepsis. b. compartment syndrome. c. infection. d. delayed union. 14. Mr. Smith just had a small cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and is anticipating discharge in the next few days. Which of the following is an important topic that the nurse should review with the patient to decrease the likelihood of another stroke? a. Avoiding green leafy vegetables in his diet b. Monitoring blood pressure at home and report high readings to his provider c. Cigarette smoking d. Taking 325 mg of aspirin every day 15. The MOST important aspect of patient/family teaching for someone on an immunomodulator to treat multiple sclerosis is teaching that a. constipation may occur. b. nausea may occur. c. depression and suicidal ideation are possible, and should be reported to a medical provider immediately. d. medication should be administered within three hours of reconstitution 16. Partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and/or dermis, best describes a _________ pressure ulcer. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 17. When educating a patient about DM, which of the following medications would be most likely to cause hypoglycemia? a. Glipizide – sulfonylurea b. Metformin – biguanide c. Rosiglitazone – thiazolidinedione d. Insulin glargine – 24-hour insulin 18. Tom is a 40-year-old man who fell from a ladder and fractured his left femur. He is awaiting surgery and being medicated with oral narcotic analgesics. Which of the following side effects is Tom most likely to encounter while taking narcotics? a. Respiratory distress b. Psychological dependence c. Constipation d. Delirium 19. Which of the following would be the best food selection for a 75-year-old woman with diagnosed osteoporosis? a. Glass of skim milk, serving of pinto beans, and salad of fresh greens b. Cup of low-fat yogurt, turkey sandwich on white bread, and diet soda c. Roast beef sandwich with boiled egg slices d. Chicken casserole and cup of black coffee 20. In order to prevent hypokalemia, a patient taking furosemide should be instructed to consume foods high in potassium, such as a. liver, dark green vegetables, and raisins. b. bananas, orange juice, and salt substitutes. c. bran, raspberries, and brown rice. d. milk, yogurt, and cottage cheese. 21. A legal document that formally expresses a person’s wishes regarding life-sustaining treatment in the event of terminal illness or permanent unconsciousness is a a. durable power of attorney for health care. b. durable power of attorney for finances. c. hospice order. d. living will. 22. The most common type of chronic pain is a. lower back pain. b. post-herpetic neuralgia. c. reflex sympathetic dystrophy. d. myofascial syndrome. 23. Which of the following leukocytes (white blood cells) are involved in hypersensitivity allergic reactions? a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. Monocytes d. Eosinophils 24. A potential gastrointestinal [GI] system complication of a major burn is a. diarrhea. b. Curling’s ulcers. c. increased appetite. d. urinary tract infection. 25. The most common manifestation of AIDS is a. opportunistic infections. b. dementia. c. sensory neuropathy. d. cervical cancer.
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