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Digestive Review Key

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					Digestive Review Key
 1. Food is digested so that
A. it can be swallowed.
B. it can be converted to waste.
C. nutrients are small enough to enter the cell.
D. for all of these reasons.


2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system?
A. ingestion of food
B. absorption of nutrient molecules
C. elimination of indigestible wastes
D. movement of nutrients to the cells

3. Which of the following is NOT a salivary gland?
A. submaxillary
B. parotid
C. sublingual
D. submandibular

4. Which of the following is NOT a component of saliva?
A. the enzyme salivary amylase
B. mucus
C. hydrochloric acid
D. water

5. Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?
A. starts the digestion of proteins
B. moisten food for swallowing
C. starts the digestion of starches
D. removes microbes


6. The oral cavity and its anatomical features are responsible for
A. ingestion of food.
B. mechanical digestion.
C. swallowing.
D. All of the choices are correct.


7. The material that leaves the mouth and enters the pharynx is called
A. chyme.
B. chyle.
C. bolus.
D. rugae.
8. What mechanical process moves the bolus through the esophagus?
A. peristalsis
B. swallowing
C. segmentation
D. mass movement

9. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stomach?
A. digestion of most foods
B. receives and stores food
C. liquefies food through its muscular mixing action
D. moves food into the small intestine

10. Gastric glands
A. are in the stomach.
B. secrete juice containing HCl.
C. secrete juice containing an enzyme.
D. are described by all of these characteristics.

11. Which gastric gland cell type secretes HCl?
A. chief
B. mucus
C. parietal
D. enteroendocrine

12. Which type of gastric gland cell secretes pepsinogen?
A. chief
B. mucus
C. parietal
D. enteroendocrine

13. The functions of HCl in the stomach include
A. kills bacteria
B. breaks down connective tissue of meat
C. activates pepsin from pepsinogen
D. All of the choices are correct.

14. Lack of intrinsic factor leads to
A. heartburn.
B. pernicious anemia.
C. gastric ulcers.
D. None of the choices are correct.

15. An open sore in the stomach wall due mainly to the action of a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, is
A. pernicious anemia.
B. heartburn.
C. a hiatal hernia.
D. an ulcer.
16. Food leaving the stomach is called
A. bolus.
B. rugae.
C. chyme.
D. peristalsis.

17. What is the function of the small intestine?
A. digests food
B. absorbs nutrients
C. transports undigested food to the large intestine
D. All of the choices are functions

18. Which of the following does NOT aid in giving the internal surface of the small intestine a larger surface
area?
A. circular folds
B. rugae
C. villi
D. microvilli

19. Lacteals
A. are located in villi.
B. are part of the lymphatic system.
C. absorb fat molecules.
D. are described by all of these characteristics.

20. A special type of mixing movement of chyme through the small intestine is called
A. peristalsis.
B. segmentation.
C. absorption.
D. mass movement.

21. What body system, other than the nervous system, is very important for controlling activities of the
digestive system?
A. skeletal system
B. muscular system
C. lymphatic system
D. endocrine system

22. What hormone, secreted by enteroendocrine cells, increases stomach churning and release of gastric juices?
A. GIP
B. gastrin
C. cholecystokinin
D. secretin

23. The large intestine functions to
A. digest fat.
B. absorb water.
C. store food.
D. is described by all of these characteristics.
24. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the large intestine?
A. shorter and larger in diameter than the small intestine
B. contains pouches called haustra
C. moves waste by segmentation
D. absorbs water, salts, and some vitamins

25. Bacteria in the large intestine
A. break down some undigested food.
B. produce vitamins.
C. produce gas.
D. All of the choices are correct.

26. Movement of wastes through the large intestine too quickly can result in
A. diarrhea.
B. constipation.
C. heartburn.
D. peritonitis.

27. The pancreas secretes enzymes acting on
A. proteins.
B. fats.
C. carbohydrates.
D. All of the choices are correct.

28. The secretion of pancreatic juice from the pancreas is a/an
A. endocrine function.
B. exocrine function.
C. hormone function.
D. All of the choices are correct.

29. Pancreatic juice and bile are both released into the
A. duodenum.
B. ascending colon.
C. jejunum.
D. descending colon.

30. Pancreatic amylase will digest
A. proteins.
B. fats.
C. starches.
D. minerals.

31. Which of the following is NOT a protein digesting enzyme from the pancreas?
A. trypsin
B. lipase
C. chymotrypsin
D. carboxypeptidase
32. The liver functions to
A. store glucose as glycogen.
B. convert amino acids to glucose and urea.
C. produce blood proteins.
D. All of the choices are functions.

33. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A. produces digestive enzymes
B. stores iron and fat-soluble vitamins
C. regulates the amount of cholesterol in the blood
D. removes poisonous and toxic substances from the blood

34. The emulsifying ingredient(s) in bile is(are)
A. biliverdin.
B. bilirubin.
C. bile salts.
D. All of the choices are correct.

35. Bile pigments are
A. yellow substances synthesized in the gallbladder.
B. formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin in the liver.
C. synthesized in the pancreas.
D. used to breakdown proteins.

36. Which of these molecules needs to be emulsified before digestion begins?
A. protein
B. sugar
C. fat
D. All of the choices are correct.

37. Which of the following is NOT true of digestive enzymes?
A. They are pH dependent.
B. They are hydrolytic enzymes.
C. One enzyme can catalyze several reactions.
D. They use water as a reactant.

38. Which of the following organs does NOT produce enzymes for starch (carbohydrate) digestion?
A. mouth
B. stomach
C. small intestine
D. pancreas

39. Where does starch (carbohydrate) digestion occur?
A. mouth and stomach
B. stomach and small intestine
C. stomach and pancreas
D. mouth and small intestine
40. What enzymes will break starch (carbohydrates) down to disaccharides?
A. amylases
B. peptidases
C. lipases
D. All of the choices are correct.

41. The final breakdown product of starch is
A. maltose.
B. peptides.
C. glucose.
D. glycerol

42. Where does protein digestion occur?
A. mouth and stomach
B. stomach and small intestine
C. stomach and pancreas
D. mouth and small intestine

43. The final breakdown product of protein is
A. maltose.
B. glucose.
C. fatty acid.
D. amino acids.

44. Fats are broken down into
A. amino acids and glycerol.
B. fatty acids and glycerol.
C. fatty acids and nucleic acids.
D. nucleic acids and glucose.

45. Fats are digested in the
A. stomach.
B. liver.
C. pancreas.
D. small intestine.

46. Nucleic acids are broken down into
A. amino acids and phosphates.
B. sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen bases.
C. nitrogen bases, sugar, and glucose.
D. fatty acids, amino acids, and sugar

47. Which of the following is NOT a brushborder enzyme of the small intestine?
A. nucleotidase
B. lactase
C. amylase
D. peptidase
48. The __________ digests ONLY protein.
A. large intestine
B. stomach
C. esophagus
D. small intestine
E. mouth

49. The __________ digests ONLY starch.
A. large intestine
B. stomach
C. esophagus
D. small intestine
E. mouth

50. Chemical digestion begins in the
A. mouth.
B. esophagus.
C. stomach.
D. small intestine.

51. The __________ digests almost all food.
A. stomach
B. large intestine
C. small intestine
D. mouth

52. The __________ contains pepsin.
A. stomach
B. large intestine
C. small intestine
D. mouth

53. What is the most immediate energy source for the body?
A. amino acids
B. glucose
C. glycogen
D. any sugar

54. Which of the following vitamins is NOT correctly matched with its major function?
A. Vitamin A – helps in night vision
B. Vitamin D – helps absorb calcium from the small intestine
C. Vitamin K – helps to form collagen
D. Folic acid – helps to make hemoglobin in red blood cells

55. The external anal sphincter allows for voluntary control over the time of defecation.
TRUE

56. The intestinal crypts contain chief cells, parietal cells, and G cells.
FALSE
57. Positive feedback is important in the production of pepsin in the stomach.
TRUE

58. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon into the duodenum.
FALSE

59. Ingested food raises the pH of the stomach contents.
TRUE

60. The stomach secretes gastrin when its internal pH rises.
TRUE

61. Chylomicrons are produced by the epithelial cells of the small intestine.
TRUE

62. Which of the following cells are not found in the gastric glands?
A. chief cells
B. goblet cells
C. parietal cells
D. mucous neck cells
E. enteroendocrine cells

63. The swallowing center is located in
A. the mouth.
B. the oropharynx.
C. the esophagus.
D. the brainstem.
E. the enteric nervous system.

64. Vitamin B12, which is needed for red blood cell production, requires ___ for its absorption.
A. intrinsic factor
B. bile salts
C. lecithin
D. hydrochloric acid
E. enterokinase

65. Chylomicrons are produced in
A. the mouth, by the action of lingual lipase.
B. the stomach, by the action of gastric lipase.
C. the lumen of the small intestine, as fats are emulsified.
D. the epithelial cells of the small intestine, as lipids are absorbed.
E. the lymph, as fats are absorbed.

66. The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by
A. the hepatopancreatic sphincter.
B. the gastroesophageal sphincter.
C. the pyloric sphincter.
D. the biliary valve.
E. the ileocecal valve.
67. Bile gets its yellow, green color mainly from
A. cholesterol.
B. bile salts.
C. phospholipids.
D. bilirubin.
E. urobilinogen.

68. Of the following components of bile, only ___ has/have a digestive function.
A. bile salts
B. bilirubin
C. cholesterol
D. phospholipids
E. neutral fats

69. Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to the hormone
A. insulin.
B. cholecystokinin.
C. secretin.
D. glucagon.
E. gastrin.

70. The function of enterokinase is to
A. convert pepsinogen to pepsin.
B. convert trypsinogen to trypsin.
C. convert procarboxypeptidase to carboxypeptidase.
D. digest dietary proteins.
E. digest dietary fats.

71. Which of the following enzymes functions at the lowest pH?
A. salivary amylase
B. pancreatic amylase
C. pepsin
D. trypsin
E. dipeptidase
Respiratory Review Key
1. All atmospheric gases are equally soluble in the blood and tissue fluid.
FALSE
2. Hypoventilation leads to hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis.
TRUE

3. It normally involves no muscular effort to exhale, only to inhale.
TRUE

4. Most CO2 in the blood is transported in the form of carbaminohemoglobin.
FALSE

5. Hyperventilation occurs when the peripheral chemoreceptors sense high levels of CO2 in the arterial blood.
TRUE

6. Tuberculosis is caused by a Streptococcus infection.
FALSE

7. Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are
transporting.
TRUE

8. The binding of one oxygen molecule to hemoglobin makes it easier for the next one to bind.
TRUE

9. At rest, the blood gives up only one-quarter of its oxygen as it passes through the systemic capillaries.
TRUE

10. As hemoglobin binds hydrogen ions, it tends to release oxygen.
TRUE

11. Hemoglobin releases the same amount of oxygen to all the tissues regardless of variations in their metabolic
rate.
FALSE

12. Hemoglobin binds more oxygen at high temperatures than it does at lower temperatures.
TRUE

13. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by
A. alveolar macrophages.
B. type I alveolar cells.
C. type II alveolar cells.
D. goblet cells.
E. S cells.

14. Most CO2 is transported in the blood
A. bound to the ferrous ion of hemoglobin.
B. as dissolved gas bubbles.
C. as bicarbonate ions.
D. bound to the globin moiety of hemoglobin.
E. bound to carbonic anhydrase.
15. Gasping, labored breathing or "craving for air" is called
A. eupnea.
B. hyperventilation.
C. dyspnea.
D. hyperpnea.
E. Cheyne-Stokes breathing.

16. The ___ pressure is the gas pressure between the parietal and visceral pleurae minus the gas pressure in the
alveoli.
A. transpulmonary
B. intrapleural
C. atmospheric
D. ventilation
E. intrapulmonary

17. The bonding of CO2 to hemoglobin produces
A. methemoglobin.
B. oxyhemoglobin.
C. reduced hemoglobin.
D. carboxyhemoglobin.
E. carbaminohemoglobin.

18. What hormone, secreted by enteroendocrine cells, increases stomach churning and release of gastric juices?
A. GIP
B. gastrin
C. cholecystokinin
D. secretin

19. When you inhale, your lungs expand easily because they have
A. low compliance.
B. high compliance.
C. low elasticity.
D. high elasticity.
E. high resistance.

20. Surface tension at the surface of the water and air in alveoli resists inspiration. To decrease this surface
tension, the great (type II) alveolar cells release
A. lysozymes.
B. pleural fluid.
C. surfactant.
D. mucus.
E. bile.

21. If your chest expands, you would predict the intrapulmonary pressure to _____ because of ____ law.
A. decrease; Charles'
B. decrease; Boyle's
C. increase; Dalton's
D. increase; Henry's
E. increase; Bohr's
22. The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the ____, while the apneustic and pneumotaxic centers
are located in the _____.
A. pons; midbrain
B. medulla oblongata; pons
C. medulla oblongata; thalamus
D. thalamus; hypothalamus
E. pons; thalamus

23. You are sitting at the computer doing quiet normal breathing, or eupnea. The nuclei responsible for the
eupnea is the
A. dorsal respiratory group (DRG).
B. ventral respiratory group (VRG).
C. apneustic center.
D. Hering-Breuer center.
E. pneumostatic center.

24. Compared to inspired air, CO2 is higher in alveolar air, O2 is lower in alveolar air, water is higher in alveolar
air, and nitrogen is lower in alveolar air. This can be explained because
A. CO2 moves into the alveoli and O2 and H2O move out into the alveoli from blood capillaries.
B. CO2 moves out of the alveoli and O2 and H2O move into the capillaries.
C. CO2 moves into the alveoli, O2 moves out of the alveoli, and H2O is added all along the respiratory tract.
D. N2 involves a pathological situation. N2 will move out of the alveoli into the capillaries increasing the risk of
the bends.
E. CO2 and N2 move into the alveoli and H2O moves out of the alveoli as respiratory water.

25. As altitude increases, the partial pressure of O2 _____ and the partial pressure of CO2 ______.
A. increases; increases
B. increases; decreases
C. decreases; increases
D. decreases; decreases
E. decrease; does not change

26. Each hemoglobin can carry up to ____ O2 molecules that are bound to ____.
A. 4; globin
B. 4; iron
C. 2; globin
D. 2; iron
E. 2; heme

27. Hemoglobin bound to at least one molecule of O2 is called _____; hemoglobin bound to no O2 is called
_____, and hemoglobin bound to CO2 is called _____.
A. carbaminohemoglobin; deoxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin
B. deoxyhemoglobin; reduced hemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin
C. oxyhemoglobin; deoxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin
D. reduced hemoglobin; oxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin
E. deoxyhemoglobin; oxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin
28. Internal respiration refers to
A. atmospheric air coming into the lungs.
B. gas exchange between the lungs and the blood.
C. gas exchange in the atmosphere.
D. gas exchange between the blood and body tissues.
E. cellular respiration.

29. Constriction of smooth muscle in the bronchioles
A. occurs during periods of exercise.
B. restricts the flow of air into the lungs.
C. decreases ciliary action.
D. increases airflow out of the lungs.
E. does not affect airflow.

30. Which of the following muscles increases the volume of the thorax during a normal inhalation?
(1) diaphragm
(2) external intercostals
(3) internal intercostals
(4) rectus abdominis
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3
D. 2, 4
E. 3, 4

31. Which of the following statements concerning the lungs and the pleura is true?
A. Each lung is suspended in a separate pleural cavity.
B. Parietal pleura covers the surface of each lung.
C. The space between the visceral and parietal pleurae is called the mediastinum.
D. The pleural fluid assists in gas exchange.
E. The pleural membranes adhere, but cannot slide past each other.

32. The serous membranes that surround the lungs are called the
A. mucous membranes.
B. synovial membranes.
C. pleural membranes.
D. peritoneal membranes.
E. pulmonary membranes.

33. When the inspiratory muscles contract,
A. thoracic volume increases.
B. pleural pressure increases.
C. the alveolar pressure increases.
D. expiration occurs.
E. thoracic volume decreases.
34. For air to flow into or out of the lungs, there must be
A. a volume gradient established between the atmosphere and the alveoli.
B. a temperature gradient between the atmosphere and the alveoli.
C. a pressure gradient established between the atmosphere and the alveoli.
D. a diffusion gradient between the atmosphere and the alveoli.
E. None of these choices is correct.

35. During expiration, the alveolar pressure must be
A. greater than atmospheric pressure.
B. less than atmospheric pressure.
C. equal to atmospheric pressure.
D. greater than pleural pressure.
E. None of these choices is correct.

36. Surfactant facilitates alveolar ventilation by
A. decreasing the surface tension between water molecules on the lining of the alveoli.
B. decreasing thoracic compliance.
C. attracting water to the alveolar surface.
D. increasing the surface area for gas exchange.
E. increases the surface tension between fluid and the alveoli.

37. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged across the respiratory membrane by the process of
A. active transport.
B. diffusion.
C. filtration.
D. osmosis.
E. cotransport.

38. Which of the following increases the rate of gas exchange across the respiratory membrane?
A. increased fluid in the alveoli
B. increased thickness of the respiratory membrane
C. increased surface area of the respiratory membrane
D. increased connective tissue in the alveolar wall
E. decreased surface area of the respiratory membrane

39. Oxygen diffusion from the alveolus to the pulmonary capillary occurs because
A. alveolar PO2 is greater than capillary PO2.
B. oxygen diffuses faster than carbon dioxide.
C. alveolar PCO2 is greater than capillary PCO2.
D. alveolar PO2 is less than capillary PCO2.
E. carbon dioxide diffuses faster than oxygen.

40. The Bohr effect refers to the
A. mechanism involved in diffusion of nitrogen into the blood.
B. physical laws governing the solubility of gases in fluids.
C. effect of pH on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
D. chemical equilibrium between carbonic acid and bicarbonate in the blood.
E. effect of temperature on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
41. Most oxygen is carried in the blood ______; but most carbon dioxide is ________.
A. dissolved in plasma; associated with salt or acid
B. bound to hemoglobin; associated with bicarbonate ions
C. combined with albumin; associated with carbonic acid
D. bound to hemoglobin; bound to albumin
E. bound to plasma proteins; carried as carbon dioxide

42. As acidity increases, how does this affect the affinity of hemoglobin for the oxygen it carries?
A. Oxyhemoglobin affinity decreases.
B. Oxyhemoglobin affinity increases.
C. Oxyhemoglobin affinity remains the same.
D. Hemoglobin loses its affinity for oxygen.
E. None of these choices is correct.

43. How does carbon monoxide affect red blood cells (RBCs)?
A. It causes them to shrivel.
B. The hemoglobin within the RBC bind to carbon monoxide.
C. The hemoglobin rejects carbon monoxide.
D. The RBCs clump together.
E. The carbon monoxide converts to carbon dioxide.

44. The chloride shift refers to the
A. effect of chloride ions on the oxygen dissociation curve.
B. exchange of chloride ions for bicarbonate ions across the red blood cell membrane.
C. exchange of chloride ions for carbon dioxide across alveolar cell membranes.
D. effect of chloride ions on hydrogen ion diffusion from red blood cells.
E. exchange of chloride ions for hemoglobin across the RBC membrane.

45. If there is an accumulation of acidic products in the plasma, one would expect
A. an increase in respiration rate.
B. a decrease in respiration rate.
C. no influence on respiration rate.
D. an increase in residual volume.
E. apnea.

46. The ventral respiratory group
A. is located in the pons.
B. stimulates the intercostal and abdominal muscles.
C. is part of the pontine respiratory group.
D. is active only in exhalation.
E. stimulates the diaphragm.

47. A baby holding its breath will
A. be termed a "blue baby".
B. have brain cells damaged because of low blood oxygen levels.
C. suffer heart damage because of increased pressure in the aorta.
D. automatically start to breathe when the CO2 levels in the blood reach a high enough value.
E. automatically start to breathe when oxygen levels decrease slightly.
48. Mr. Smith hypoventilates and retains too much carbon dioxide. Which of the following receptors is
stimulated by an increase in carbon dioxide?
A. irritant receptors
B. pressure receptors
C. osmoreceptors
D. peripheral chemoreceptors
E. baroreceptors

49. When carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase, the
A. condition is called hypocapnia.
B. pH of the blood increases.
C. blood becomes more acidic.
D. number of hydrogen ions in the blood decreases.
E. blood becomes more alkaline.

50. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. bronchitis - inflammation of the bronchi
B. emphysema - destruction of the alveolar walls
C. pulmonary fibrosis - loss of elastic recoil in the lung
D. cystic fibrosis - replacement of lung tissue with fibrous connective tissue
E. smokers - chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

51. Type I alveolar cells secrete pulmonary surfactant.
FALSE

52. What law states that the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume?
A. Boyle's Law
B. Charles Law
C. Dalton's Law
D. Henry's Law

53. A measure of the dispensability of the lungs is
A. Compliance
B. Elasticity
C. Surface tension
D. None of these choices are correct

54. Surfactant begins to be produced in late fetal life.
TRUE

55. Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) is a condition associated with premature babies who lack
A. a-antitrypsin
B. Histamine
C. Type I alveolar cells
D. Surfactant
56. Quiet expiration is caused by
A. Contraction of the external intercostals
B. Contraction of the internal intercostals
C. Lung recoil and increased intrapulmonary pressure
D. Contraction of the scalenes

57. Cessation of breathing is known as
A. Apnea
B. Dyspnea
C. Eupnea
D. Pneumothorax

58. The partial pressure of oxygen decreases at high altitude because the amount of oxygen in the air is
decreased.
FALSE

59. What law states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the pressures that each gas in
the mixture would exert independently?
A. Boyle's Law
B. Charles Law
C. Dalton's Law
D. Henry's Law

60. Increasing the partial pressure of a gas increases the amount of that gas which will dissolve in a fluid.
TRUE

61. The amount of a given gas dissolved in the blood
A. Is directly proportional to the solubility of the gas
B. Increases at higher altitudes
C. Is described primarily by Boyle's law
D. All of these choices are correct

62. Peripheral chemoreceptors that can detect changes in blood pH are located in the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Aortic and carotid bodies
C. Pons
D. Lungs

63. Carbon monoxide is lethal because it
A. Reduces CO2 and slows breathing
B. Increases CO2 and causes seizures
C. Binds hemoglobin preventing oxygen binding
D. Increases oxygen unloading at the cells

				
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