Streptococcus pneumoniae is identified in the laboratory based on

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 1.     Streptococcus pneumoniae is identified in the laboratory based on :
        (A) Coagulase test                     (B) Optochin sensitivity test
       (C) Bacitracin sensitivity test (D) Manitol fermentation test
4.    VDRL test is a serological test used for diagonosis and prognosis of :
        (A) Typhoid fever                      (B) Lymphogranuloma venereum
        (C) Infectious mononucleosis           (D) Syphilis
3.     Which of these Immunoglobulins can cross placental barrier and is not a mar of
       infection in newborn ?
       (A) IgD                                 (B) IgG
       (C) IgE                                 (D) IgM
4.    The generation time of Mycobacterium tuberculi is :
       (A) 15-20 seconds                      (B) 15-20 minutes
       (C) 15-20 hours                        (D) 15-20 days
5.    Which of the ova of parasites is bile stained ?
       (A) Enterobius vermicularis            (B) Trichuris trichura
       (C) Necator americanus                 (D) Ankylostoma duodenale
6.    Fibrinoid Necroses is seen in :
       (A) fat                                (B) blood vessels
       (C) muscle                             (D) cartilage
7.    Metastatic calcification is due to :
       (A) increased thyroid hormone (B) increased sex hormone
       (C) increased growth hormone (D) increased parathyroid hormone
8.    Vasodilation of arterioles occurs in :
       (A) Fibrosis                           (B) Necrosis
       (C) Acute inflammation                 (D) Apoptosis
9.    Dry gangrene occurs in :
      (A) Brain                              (B) Lung
      (C) Small intestine                    (D) Foot
10.   Increased bleeding time is seen in :
      (A) Eosinophilia                       (B) Neutrophilia
      (C) Thrombocytopenia                   (D) Lymphocytosis
11.   Packed Cell Volume (PCY) is done by :
      (A) Urinometer                         (B) Neubauers chamber
      (C) Westergren's pipette               (D) Wintrobe's tube
12.   Scurvy is due to :
      (A) deficiency of Vitamin A (B) deficiency of Vitamin D (C)
      deficiency of Vitamin B12 (D) deficiency of Vitamin C
13.   Hemophilia A is due to :
      (A) deficiency of Factor VIII          (B) deficiency of Factor XI
      (C) deficiency of Factor X             (D) deficiency of Factor IX
14.   Granulomas are seen in all conditions, except :
      (A) Sarcoidosis                     (B) Tuberculosis
      (C) Leprosy                         (D) Acute inflammation
15.   Decompression sickness results in :
      (A) fat embolism                    (B) paradoxical embolism
      (C) air embolism                    (D) amniotic fluid embolism
16.   Drug X is eliminated by first orqer kinetics and its r..alf life is 20 hours. If
      maintenance dose is administered every 20 hours, the steady state (plateau)
      plasma drug concentration will be achieved in :
      (A) 40-60 hours                     (B) 80-100 hours
      (C) 120-140 hours                   (D) 160-200 hours
17.   The drug of choice for the treatment of myasthenia gravis is
      (A) Physostigmine                   (B) Edrophonium
      (C) Pyridostigmine                  (D) Echothiophate
18.   Adrenaline combined and injected with Lignocaine subcutaneously ; (A)
      reduces the dose of lignocaine
      (B) reduce systemic toxicity of lignocaine
      (C) prolongs the duration of action of
      lignocaine (D) all of the above
19.   Folic acid should never be given alone to patients with vitamin B 12
      deficiency because :
      (A) haematological response may not occur
      (B) haematologic response may occur but neurological defect m~y progres~
      (C) only neurological defect may respond and haematological defect may
      (D) none of the above
20.    Which one of below listed drug is contraindicated In Prinzmetal
       (Vasopastic) angina ?
      (A) Alpha adrenergic receptor
      blocker (B) Beta adrenergic
      receptor blocker (C) Angiotensin
      II receptor blocker
       (D) Both alpha and beta adrenergic receptor blockers
21.    Select the broadspectrum -antiepileptic drug from the following:
      (A) Ethosuccimide                   (B) Phenytoin
      (C) Carbamazepine                   (D) Sodium valproate
~Sl2009                                    (3)

Side effect seen with long term administration of glucocorticoids is :
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Aggravation of bronchial asthma and COPD (C)
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
(D) Acute lymphatic leukaemia
Mechanism of action of acetylsalicylic acid and Ibuprofen is :
(A) in hibition of phospholipase A
(B) inhibition of thromboxane synthetase (C) inhibition of prostacyclin synthetase
(D) inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase
Which of the following drugs are not bactericidal ?
(A) Penicillins                       (B) Tetracyclines
(C) Aminoglycosides                   (D) Fluoroquinolones
Clove oil exerts the following actions, except :
(A) Anodyne action                    (B) Analgesic action
(C) Antimicrobial action              (D) Antispasmodic action
Saltatory conduction refers to conduction:
(A) between presynaptic and post-synaptic membranes
(B) of a nerve impulse by a myelinated axon
(C) of a nerve impulse by a unmyelinated axon
(D) of electrical current through a body of water
Presbyopia :
(A) is related to age of the person
(B) occurs due to increase ill the range of accommodation
(C) can be treated by phacoemulsion and intraocular lens implant (D)
is an opacity in the cornea of the eye
Under normal conditions in human colloid osmotic pressure of plasma is
(A) 75 mm Hg                          (B) 3 mm Hg
(C) 10 mm Hg                          (D) 28 nun Hg
The lungs and chest wall have opposite and equal recoil tendencies at :
(A) total lung capacity               (B) functional residual capacity
(C) residual volume                   (D) inspiratory reserve volume
Testosterone :
(A) has anabolic effects on metabolism
(B) is less potent than DHT in male reproductive tissues (C)
is not required for full spermatogenesis
(D) does not induce feedback inhibition on pituitary gonadotropins
31.   Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves (respective organs) will cause:
      (A) increased force of contractions of myocardium
      (B) -decreased motility and secretions of stomach
      (C) decreased secretion of Epinephrine and Nor-epinephrine
      (D) Both (A) and (B)
34.   Intrinsic factor is secreted by :
      (A) Pyloric glands                    (B) Peptic cells of gastr:c glands
      (C) Parietal cells of gastric glands (D) Goblet cells
33.   In normal human blood :
       (A) Monocyte is the most common type of white blood cell
       (B) There are more lympl].~s. than neutrophils
      (C) There are less platelets than red blood cells
      (D) There are more white blood cells than red blood cells
34.   The substance influencing the absorption of calcium from the intestine :
      (A) Intrinsic fa~tor                  (B) Vitamin D
      (C) Ferritin                          (D) Bile salts
35.   Simple diffusion :
      (A) is a downhill process where no energy is required
      (B) possesses maximum rate beyond which rate cannot be increased
      (C) requires energy
      (D) requires a carrier protein
36.   Sullivan's Index is calculated by :
      (A) subtracting £Fom the life expectancy the probable duration of bed disability
      (B) adding life expectancy with the probable duration of bed disability
      (C) adding probable duration of bed disability with morbidity
      (D) subtracting probable duration of bed disability from morbidity
37.   Millennium development goal indicators
      : (A) was adopted by United Nations
      (B) was adopted by WHO
      (C) was adopted by Dental Council of India
      (D) was adopted by IDA
38.   In a population of 7000, 150 new cases of oral cancer are detected in 2008. What
      is the incidence ?
       (A) 20.42
       (C) 22.34

(B) 21.43    (D)
31.   Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves (respective organs) will cause:
      (A) increased force of contractions of myocardium
      (B) -decreased motility and secretions of stomach
      (C) decreased secretion of Epinephrine and Nor-epinephrine
      (D) Both (A) and (B)
32.    Intrinsic factor is secreted by :
      (A) Pyloric glands                    (B) Peptic cells of gastr:c glands
      (C) Parietal cells of gastric glands (D) Goblet cells
33.    In normal human blood :
       (A) Monocyte is the most common type of white blood cell
       (B) There are more lympl}()~ytes than neutrophils
      (C) There are less platelets than red blood cells
      (D) There are more white blood cells than red blood cells
34.    The substance influencing the absorption of calcium from the intestine :
      (A) Intrinsic fa~tor                  (B) Vitamin D
      (C) Ferritin                          (D) Bile salts
35.    Simple diffusion:
      (A) is a downhill process where no energy is required
       (B) possesses maximum rate beyond which rate cannot be increased (C)
       requires energy
      (D) requires a carrier protein
36.    Sullivan's Index is calculated by :
      (A) subtracting fFom the life expectancy the probable duration of bed disability
      (B) adding life expectancy with the probable duration of bed disability
      (C) adding probable duration of bed disability with morbidity
      (D) subtracting probable duration of bed disability from morbidity
37.   Millennium development goal indicators :
      (A) was adopted by United Nations
      (B) was adopted by WHO
      (C) was adopted by Dental Council of India
      (D) was adopted by IDA
38.   In a population of 7000, 150 new cases of oral cancer are detected in 2008. What
      is the incidence ?
       (A) 20.42                         (B) 21.43
       (C) 22.34                         (D) 23.43

39.    Case control studies proceed from:
       (A) effect to cause                    (B) cause to effect
       (C) exposure to effect                 (D) none of these
40.    Sensitivity of a screening test is the ability of a test to : (A)
       identify correctly those who do not have the disease
      (B) true negative
       (C) identify correctly all those who have the disease
       (D) false negative
41.   Infected hospital waste should be ideally disposed by :
      (A) compo sting                         (B) incineration
      (C) controlled tipping                  (D) dumping
42.   Indian Dental Association was formed in the year :
      (A) 1948                                (B) 1949
      (C) 1967                                (D) 1968
43.    An arrangement under which a carrier and the beneficiary are each liable for -a
       share of the cost of dental services provided is referred to as :
      (A) indemnity insurance                 (B) closed insurance
      (C) co-insurance                        (D) none of these
44.   CPA refers to :
       (A) Community Protection Act (B) Consumer Protection Act
      (C) Common Protection Act               (D) Consumer Prosecution Act
45.    A condition usually affecting a large proportion of the population occurring over a
       wide geographic area such as a section of a nation, the entire nation, a-continent or
       the world is known as :
      (A) Epidemic                            (B) Pandemic
      (C) Endemic                             (D) Outbreak
46.   A hamartoma is a :
      (A) disorganized maSH of tissue indigenous to the site (B)
      benign neoplastic proliferation of mesenchymal cells
      (C) developmental anomaly composed of tissue derived from an three germ layers
      (D) histologically normal tissue found in an abnormal location
47.   In carious enamel, maximum mineral loss occurs from the :
      (A) surface zone                        (B) body zone
      (C) dark zone                           (D) translucent zone
   A post-zygotic mutation in the GNAS 1 gene during postnatal life results in (A)
! 48.

Monostotic fibrous dysplasia (B) Cherubism
     (C) McCune-Albright syndrome (D) F&milial gigantiform cementoma
49. The Reed-Sternberg cell is found in :
     (A) Ewing's sarcoma                 (B) Sarcoidosis
     (C) Hodgkin's lymphoma              (D) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
50. A white patch or plaque that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically
     as any other disease is :
     (A) Leukoedema                      (B) Leukoplakia
     (C) Lentigo                         (D) Linea alba
51. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts are associated with the: .
     (A) Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
     (B) Peutz-Jegher syndrome
     (C) Gardener's syndrome
     (D) None of the above
u2. Xerostomia is associated with:
        (A) Calcium channel blockers (B) Diabetes mellitus
        (C) HIV infection                   (D) All of these
53.     Any lesion classified as Ml according to the TNM system for oral carcinoma, is
        categorized as :
        (A) Stage I                         (B) Stage II
        (C) Stage III                       (D) Stage IV
54.     Shell teeth exhibit :
        (A) Hypoplastic enamel, normal dentin and pulp
        (B) Normal enamel, extremely thin dentin and enlarged pulp (C)
        Thin enamel, thin dentin and an enlarged pulp
        (D) None of the above
55.     Oral hairy leukoplakia in patients with AIDS is related to :
        (A) Herpes Simplex Virus 1        (B) Human Papilloma Virus
        (C) Epstein-Barr Virus            (D) Herpes Zoster Virus
56.     Sheets of polyhedral epithelial cells with considerable nuclear pleomorphism,
        eosinophilic amyloid-like material and concentric calcifications in a fibrous
        stroma are consistent with :
        (A) Odontoameloblastoma
        (B) Pindborg tumor
        (C) Psammomatoid juvenile ossifying fibroma
        (D) Squamous odontogenic tumor
      Patients with recurrent aphthous stomatitis must be evaluated for :
      (A) Celiac disease                     (B) Pemphigoid
      (C) Leukemia                           (D) None of these
      Sequestrum is a :
      (A) fragment of necrotic bone that separates from vital bone (B)
      sequel to lysis of fibrin in an extraction site
      (C) fragment of necrotic bone that is encased by vital bone (D)
      periapical fibrous scar
      A . dense lympoid stroma with germinal centers is a feature of the :
      (A) Pleomorphic adenoma                (B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
      (C) Warthin tumor                      (D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
      An aspirate from a cystic lesion with soluble protein levels in excess of 5
      gm/l00/ml is suggestive of :
      (A) a non-keratinized epithelial lining
      (B) a keratinized epithelial lining. (C)
      absence of epithelial lining
      (D) none of the above
      The size of a matrix vesicle is about:

      (A) 100-200 nm                     (B) 100-200 urn
      (C) 50-100 rom                     (D) 50-100 um
62.   Type II nerve endings in the TMJ are :
      (A) Free nerve endings             (B) ~lgi tendon organs
      (C) Pacini corpuscles              (D) . Rufini corpuscles
63.   A homeobox is a :
      (A) Specific transcription factor
      (B) DNA sequence found on chromosome 7, 12, 17 and 2
      (C) Regulatory gene for cytokines
      (D) All of the above
64.   The dental plate also refers to :
      (A) Primary epithelial band              Zone of reflection
      (C) Lateral lemina                       Successicnal lamina
65.   The origin of an osteoclast is :
      (A) Neural crest cell                    Mesenchymal
      (C) Hematopoietic                        None of these
MDSI2009                                  (D

66.   Development of the Maxillary Sinus begins at :
      (A) 6-7 weeks IUL                      (B) ·1 year of age
      (C) 3-4 weeks IUL                      (D) 3-4 months IUL
67.   The future site of the oral cavity in the 3 week embryo is at the :
      (A) Prechordal plate                   (B) Notochordal process
      (C) Cecal plate                      (D) Primitive pit
68.   The components of the cytoskeleton that attach to. the integrins are :
        (A) Actin-myosin filaments         (B) Vinculin and Talin
         (C) Intermediate filaments        (D) Connexons
69.   Enamel brochs measure about:
       (A) 10-15 um in diameter            (B) 3D-50 um is diameter
       (C) 1-1.5 um in diameter            (D) 10-15 mm in diameter
70.   Desmosomal attachments are present in :
      (A) Lymphocytes                      (B) Langerhans' cells
      (C) Merkel cells                     (D) Melanocytes
71.   Akanthe is a Greek word for:
      (A) Squame                           (B) Keratohyaline granules
      (C) Pyknotic nuclei                  (D) Prickle
72.   The long period lines in Dentin are:
      (A) Von Ebner's Lines                (B) Lines of Owen
      (C) Andersen Lines                   (D) Schreger Lines
73.   Circumvallate Papillae have :
      (A) 2500 taste buds                  (B) 1250 taste buds
      (C) 12-20 taste buds                 (D) 2-4 taste buds
74.   Desmosome is also known as :
      (A) Zonula adherens                  (B) Macula adherens
      (C) Zonula occludens                 (D) None of these'
75.   Cell turn over in the buccal mucosa is :
      (A) 25 days                          (B) 4-14 days
      (C) 41-57 days                       (D) 52-75 days
76.   Suxamethonium is a :
      (A) Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant
      (B) I.V. inducing Anaesthesia agent (C)
      Depolarizing muscle relaxant
      (D) Reversal agent
77.    Immediate Toxic Action of Lignocaine is predominantly on :
       (A) Haemopoetic system               (B) Liver
       (C) Central Nervous System           (D) Kidneys
78.   Nitrous Oxide is stored in :
       (A) Orange cylinders                 (B) Blue cylinders
       (C) Black cylinders                  (D) Black and white cylinders
79.   C.P.C.R. is given :
       (A) To make the pupils constrict                                         4
       (B) To pump oxygenated blood to all vital organs especially the brain
      (C) To contract skeletal muscles
      (D) To reverse consciousness
80.   Injection Ketamine is contraindicated in the following, except:
      (A) Hypertensive patients             (B) Psychotic patients
      (C) Asthmatic patients                (D) Raised intracrar..ial tension
81.   Clubbing of fingers is present in all, except :
      (A) Bronchogenic carcinoma            (B) Lung abscess
      (C) Hepatitis B                       (D) Infective endocarditis
82.   Rheumatic fever is associated with all, except :
      (A) Carditis                          (B) Streptococci
      (C) Chorea                            (D) Lack of response to aspirin
83.   Smoking is a risk factor in all, except:
      (A) Carcinoma Bronchus                (B) Myocardial infarction
      (C) Irritable bowel syndrome          (D) Chronic bronchitis
84.   Tender hepatomegaly is seen in all, except :
      (A) Viral hepatitis                   (B) Congestive cardiac failure
      (C) Hepatoma                         (D) Cirrhosis of liver
85.   Iron deficiency anemia is associated with all, except:
      (A) Koilonychia
      (B) Megaloblasts
      (C) Microcytosis
      (D) Increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC)
86.   Mixed Parotid tumour arises from :
      (A) Epithelium                       (B) Epithelium and Mesenchymal
      (C) Mesenchymal                      (D) None of these
87.    Thyroglossal fistula develop due to :
       (A) Developmental anomaly
      (B) Injury
      (C) Inflammatory disorder
      (D) Incomplete removal of thyroglossal cyst
88.   Which of the following is associated with Cystic Hygroma ?
       (A) Marfa~'s syndrome                 (B) Turner's syndrome
       (C) Down's syndrome                   (D) Noonan's syndrome
89.   The most common malignant tumour of minor salivery gland:
       (A) Adeno Carcinoma                   (B) Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma
       (C) Squamous Cell Ca                  (D) Basal Cell Ca.
90.   It is also called as glands of Blandin and Nuhn :
       (A) Submandibular                     (B) Sublingual
      (C) Minor salivary gland               (D) Pituitary gland
91.   Dental Lamina cysts are found on :
      (A) Crests of alveolar ridges
      (B) Midpalatine raphe
      (C) Buccal and lingual aspects of ridges but away from raphe (D)
      Soft palate
92.   A vital permanent tooth has an irreversible pulpitis and an open apex. Which of the
      following represents the treatment of choice ?
      (A) Formocresol pulpotomy
      (B) Indirect pulp therapy
      (C) Calcium hydr.oxide pulpotomy
      (D) Apexification
93.   Alban's test measures:
      (A) Soluble proteins                   (B) Caries activity
      (C) Immunoglobulins in saliva (D) Masticatory furiction
94.   "Hierarchy of needs", this theory of Child Psychology was put forth by :
      (A) Maslow                             (B) Pavlov
      (C) Freud                              (D) Piaget
95.   A permanent tooth with a local hypoplastic deformity in a crown is called :
      (A) Turner's tooth                     (B) Taurodontism
      (C) Enameloma                          (D) Ghost teeth
MDS/2009                                  ( 11 )
96.    'Diagnodent' is a newer system used to diagnose dental caries. Of what method is
       it an example ?
       (A) Laser fluorescence
       (B) Digital fiberoptic transillumination (C)
       Electrical conductance measurements (D)
       Digital radiography
97.    Late mesial shift of the permanent first molar is mainly a result of closure of :
       (A) Primate spaces                   (B) Leeway s'pace
       (C) Posterior extraction             (D) Mandibular arch
98.    A common non-caloric sugar substitute is :
       (A) Sorbitol                         (B) Xylitol
       (C) Aspartame                        (D) Mannitol
99.    Which condition is called 'Trisomy 18' ?
       (A) Down syndrome                    (B) Turner syndrome
       (C) Klinefelter's syndrome           (D) Edward's syndrome
100.   The Labio-buccal portion and lingual portion of the gum pads in relation to the
       pre-dental period are separated from each other by a groove called the:
       (A) Gingival groove                  (B) Dental groove
       (C) Transverse groove                (D) Lateral sulcus
101.   Which of the following tissue regresses after the pubertal growth spurt ?
       (A) Neural                           (B) General
       (C) Genital                          (D) Lymphoid
102.   Leeway space is the difference in the mesio-distal widths between :
       (A) Deciduous incisors and permanent incisors
       (B) Deciduous canine and molars and permanent canine and premolars (C)
       Deciduous molars and permanent premolars
       (D) None of the above
103.   Mesial step in primary dentition leads to :
       (A) Class II malocclusion
       (B) Class III malocclusion
       (C) Class I malocclusion
       (D) Class II sub-division malocclusion
104.   Which of the following is not a self-correcting malocclusion?
       (A) Ugly duckling stage              (B) Mesial step
       (C) Deep overbite                    CD) Physiologic open bite
105. Frankfort Horizontal Plane joins:
     (A) Sella and Nasion                   (B) Porion and Orbitale
     (C) Bolton and Nasion                  (D) Basion and Nasion
106. A lip-bumper utilizes the following type of anchorage
     (A) Inter-maxillary                    (B) Muscular
     (C) Dental                             (D) Cortical
107. Which type of tooth lJ.J.Ovement requires minimum force?
     (A) Translation                        (B) Root uprighting
     (C) Intrusion                          (D) Extrusion
108. Serial extraction is carried out in the following type of malocclusion :
     (A) Class I with severe crowding
     (B) Class II with severe crowding
     (C) Class III with severe crowding
     (D) None of the above
109. One of the following is not an etiological agent for Cleft lip and palate :
     (A) Aspirin                            (B) Cigarette smoking
     (C) Rubella virus                      (D) 6-Mercaptopurine
110. Vertical slot bracket is used in :
     (A) Edge-wise appliance                (B) Straight-wire appliance
     (C) Tip-Edge appliance                 (D) Begg appliance
111. Leukoplakia of the oral mucosa may predispose the patient to which of these
     conditions :
     (A) Malignancy
     (B) Syphilis
     (C) White Folded Gingivostomatitis
     (D) Leukoedema
112. The usual tuberculcus lesion of the oral cavity is an irregular ulcer that tends tC'
     increase slowly in size and is :
     (A) Painless                        (B) Itching
     (C) Asymptomatic                    (D) Painful
113. Serum alkaline phosphatase will be elevated in patients with:
     (A) Myocardial infraction           (B) Paget's disease
     (C) Kidney failure                  (D) Prostrate carcinoma
114. Epstein Barr virus is an etiologic factor for all of the following diseases, except:
     (A) Burkitt's lymphoma                (B) Infectious mononucleosis
     (C) Mum~s                             (D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
115. Plummer Vinson syndrome includes all of the following characteristics, except:
     (A) Achlorhydria                      (B) Hypertelorism
     (C) Koilonychia                       (D) Oesophageal webs
116. Etiological factor of Vincent's angina is :
     (A) Streptococci                      (B) Staphylococci
     (C) Spirochetes                       (D) Herpes virus
117. 'Torchheimer Spots' are seen at the junction of hard and soft palate in :
     (A) Measles                           (B) German Measles
     (C) Chickenpox                        (D) Smallpox
118. A distortion or perversion in the perception of taste is called:
     (A) Ageusia                           (B) Hypogeusia
     (C) Dysgeusia                         (D) Gustatory agnosia
119. Raynaud's phenomenon 'is the initial sign of :
     (A) Chondroma                         (B) Sclerodenna
     (C) Atheroma                          (D) Hemangioma
120. Bell's palsy is recognized as a unilateral dysfunction of one of the following
     cranial nerves:
     (A) Trigeminal nerve                  (B) Vagus nerve
     (C) Facial nerve                      (D) Optic nerve
121. The hand cutting instrument with a formula of 10-7-14 is :
     (A) Binangle -chisel                  (B) Hoe
     (C) Enamel hatchet                    (D) Gingival marginal trimmer
122. For cemented pins, the pinholes are prepared :
     (A) 0.001" larger than the diameter of the pin (B)
     0.0015" larger than the diameter of the pin (C)
     0.001" smallelo than the diameter of the pin (D)
     0.0015" smaller than the diameter of the pin
123. An anatomic (triangular) wedge is especially recommended:
     (A) for a dass II cavity with deep gingival margins
     (B) for a class II cavity with a conservative proximal box
     (C) when the proximal box of a class II cavity is wide faciolingtlal1y (D)
     when a concavity is present on the adjacent tooth
124. A svedopter. is a combination of :
     (A) saliva ejector and cotton-holder
      (B) cotton-holder and cheek retractor (C)
      saliva ejector and tongue retractor (D)
      tongue retractor and a mouth prop
125. The role of occlusal bevels in an inlay cavity preparation is to produce a :
      (A) 30-degree metal margin
      (B) 140-degree occlusal marginal enamel
      (C) 25-degree metal margin
     (D) 110-degree occlusal marginal enamel
126. The most likely organisms to initiate root caries are:
      (A) Actinomyces viscosus            (B) Mutans streptococci
      (C) Lactobacillus species           (D) Peptostreptococcus
127. A class IV cavity has a C-factor of :
      (A) 5                               (B) 0.2
      (C) 0.5                             (D) 0
128. During curing of composite resin, when light is initially applied at low intensity
     and gradually increased over time to high intensity, it is known as :
     (A) ramp cure                      (B) step cure
      (C) uniform continuous cure         (D) discontinuous cure
129. When viewing a radiograph, the diagnostic clue called 'the fast break' suggests:
      (A) the presence of a horizontal root fracture
     (B) the beginning of an additional root canal
     (C) the presence of a vertical root fracture
     (D) the loss of lamina dura
130. The endodontic instrument produced by twisting the blank from one quarter to
     a half of a spiral/rom of length is a :                        .
     (A) K-reamer                          (B) K-file
     (C) H-file                           (D) Broach
131. In Kronfeld's mountain pass theory, the mountain passes represent:
     (A) The foramina (B) The periapex
     (C) Lacunae in alveolar bone (D) Extra canals
132. The technique of positioning and preloading an instrument through a clockwise
      rotation and then shaping the canal with a counter clockwise rotation is known as :
     (A) Step back technique               (B) Balanced force technique
     (C) Crown down technique              (D) Hybrid technique
133. The following flap design is contraindicated in periradicular surgery :
     (A) Triangular flap                   (B) Rectangular flap
     (C) Trapezoidal flap                  (D) Horizontal flap
134. The most reliable method for determining the working length in a root canal with
     an immature apex is :
     (A) Radiographic method               (B) An apexlocator
      (C) Paper point measurement (D) Digital tactile sense
135. The elliptical shape that forms in the apical foramen during preparation of a
      curved canal when a file extends through the apical foramen and subsequently
      transports that outer \val! is Im,own as :
     (A) Elbow                             (B) Zip
     (C) Ledge                             (D) Transportation
136. Polyglactin 910 suture material used in oral and maxillofacial surgery can be
     classified as :
     (A) Natural and absorbable suture material (B)
     Natural and non-absorable suture material (C)
     Synthetic and absorbable suture material
     (D) Synthetic and non-absorbable suture material
137. Methylparaben is used in local anesthetic solution as :
     (A) Preservative                      (B) Antioxidant
     (C) Antifungal                        (D) Vasoconstrictor
138. Which of the following space is not' involved by the spread of odontogenic
     infection from the mandibular first molar :
     (A) Submandibular space               (B) Infratemporal space
     (C) Sub-ling-ual space                (D) Buccal space
139. Eburnation is seen in which of the following condition?
     (A) Non-union of fracture             (B) Osteomyelitis
     (C) Ostearadionecrosis                (D) All of these
140. Carnoy's solution is used in the treatment of :
     (A) Ameloblastoma                     (B) Trigeminal neuralgia
     (C) Odontogenic keratocyst            (D) Aphthous ulcer
141. Visor osteotomy is a technique used for:
      (A) Malunited fracture                (B) Mandibular prognathism
      (C) Bimaxillary protrusion            (D) Ridge augmentation
142. The most commonly used implant form for replacement of missing single tooth IS :
      (A) Endosseous                        (B) Subperiosteal
      (C) Transosseous                      (D) Supraperiosteal
143. Ashley's flap used in closure of Oro Antral fistula is a :
     (A) Buccal flap                        (B) Palatal flap
     (C) Combination of (A) and (B) (D) None of these
144. In which stage of internal derangement of TM joint as described by Wilkes there
     is non-reducing disc displacement--chronic ?
     (A) Stage II                           (B) Stage III
     (C) Stage IV                          (D) Stage V
145. On which theory is Transcutaneous Electric Nerve Stimulation (TENS) based on
     for pain relief ?
     (A) Membrane expansion theory
     (B) Gate control theory
     (C) Neutralization of transmembrane charge
     (D) Specific receptor theory
146. One of the most common salivary gland tumours of the parotid gla..'1d is :
     (A) Adenocystic carcinoma             (B) Pleomorphic adenoma
     (C) Monomorphic adenoma               (D) Muco epidermoid carcinoma
147. ThTM classification by American joint committee on cancer is based on :
     (A) Tumor size                        (B) Involvement of the lymph nodes
     (C) Metastasis                        (D) All of these
148. Principal for the use of Coupland elevator for extraction of teeth is based on :
     (A) Wedge principle                   (R) Wheel and axle principle
     (C) Lever principle                   (D) None of these
149. Reasons for anterior open bite in a case of bilateral subcondylar fracture: (A)
     Lack of TMJ movement
     (B) Antero posterior occlussal derangement
     (C) Increase in anterior facial height
     (D) Decrease in vertical ramal height
150. Tinel's sign is seen in :
     (A) Frey's syndrome                    (B) Bell's palsy
     (C) _ Trigeminal neuralgia             (D) Nerve regeneration
151. Chlorhexidine gluconate, the antiseptic-antiplaque mouthrinse is used in a concen-
     tration of :
     (A) 0.2%                            (B) 0.02%
      (C) 2%                                (D) None of these
152. Life-preserver shaped enlargements of the marginal gingiva that occur mostly in the
     canine-premolar area are called:
     (A) Mc Calls Festoons              (B) Stillman's Clefts
      (C) Fenestrations                     (D) None of these
153. The exposure of the root surface by an apical shift in the position of the gingiva is
     (A) Margination                      (B) Guided tissue regeneration
     (C) Recession.                       (D) None of these
154. Pierre Fauchard, the Father of Modem Dentistry wrote the book: (A)
      The Natural History of the Human Teeth
      (B) The Microorganisms of the Human Mouth
      (C) The Surgeon Dentist
      (D) None of the above
155. The principlal immunoglobulin in exocrine secretions is :
      (A) IgG                              (B) IgM
      (C) IgA                              (D) None of these
156. Periodontal abscess formation may occur in the following way :
      (A)   Extension of infection from a periodontal pocket deeply into supporting
                    periodontal tissues
      (B) Lateral extension of inflammation from inner surface of periodontal pocket
                    into the connective tissue of pocket wall
      (C) After trauma to the tooth
      (D) All of the above
157. Thickness of cementum on the corenal half of the root varies from :
      (A) 16 to 60 f.lm (C)                (B) 1.6 to 6 f.lm (D)
      0.16 to 0.6 ~                        none of these

158. Progressive peri-implant bone loss in conjunction with a soft tissue inflammatory
     lesion is termed :
     (A) Peri-implant mucositis          (B) Peri-implantitis
     (C) Osseointegration                (D) None of these
159. The gingivectomy technique may be performed for:
       (A) Elimination of suprabony pockets
      (B) Elimination of gingival enlargements
       (0) Elimination of suprabony periodontal abscesses (D) All of the
160.. .......................... are the keystone of treatment of ANUG.
       (A) Nutritional supplements                  (B) Local procedures
       (C) Systemic antibiotics                     (D) None of these
161. Sibilant sounds are produced at :
     (A) rest position
     (B) occluding position
     (C) open from resting position
     (D) between rest and occluding position
162. In complete denture setting, for better aesthetics, maxillary anterior teeth are set
       (A) parallel to the middle of thl3 face profile (B)
       parallel to the lower profile of the face
       (0) parallel to the inner canthus-angle of the mouth line (D) skeletal
       profile has no role in aesthetic teeth setting
163. Incisal guidance that assures maximum stability in a denture is :
     (A) 15-200                         (B) Less' than 15 0
     (C) Zeroo                          (D) 450
164. For balanced occlusion, when condyla!' inclination is increased the compensating
     curve should be :
       (A) Shallow                                  (B) Decreased and flat
       (C) Increased and prominent                  (D) Reversed
165. Boucher's method of relining is alan:
      (A) Open mouth technique                      (B) Chair side relining technique
      (C) Functional relining technique (D) Closed mouth technique
166.In full tooth born dentures, occlusal rest transmits ........................... % of occlusal
       to teeth.
       (A) 60                                    (B) 80
       (C) 99                                    (D) 100
167.   Which of the following is PUSH type of clasp ?
       (A) Bar clasp                             (B) C clasp
       (C) Embrasure clasp                       (D) Ring clasp
168.   Clasp best suited for isolabd tooth is :
       (A) C clasp                               (B) Bar clasp
       (C) Half and half clasp                   (D) Ring clasp
169.   Fractured metal parts in an RPD are best joined by :
       (A) Spot welding                          (B) Brazing
       (C) Laser welding                         (D) Electric soldering
170.   Contingency design is :
       (A) for designing major connector
       (B) for rests
       (C) that design which takes into consideration the presence of compromised
                      tooth so that, if it is lost in future, the RPD need not be repeated
       (D) for designing clasp assemblies
171.   Part of the fIxed partial denture that connects the pontic to the retainer is :
       (A) Fixer                                 (B) Joint
       (C) Connector                             (D) Bridge
172.   After dowel preparation the length of remaining apical fIlling should ideally be :
       (A) 1 mm                                  (B) 2 mm
       (C) 4 mm                                  (D) 6 mm
173.   Sanitary pontic is used ir.. the posterior regions because :
       (A) it is aesthetic                       (B) it makes the restoration strong
       (C) it covers the ridge defect            (D) it is easy to clean
174.   Functional occlusal bevel is given to :
       (A) improve structural durability (B)
       enhance pulp protection
       (C) improve aesthetics
       (D) improve marginal fIt
175.   For metal ceramic fixed partial dentures in the posterior region the vertical heigh1
       of the connector should be at least :
       (A) 2 mm                                  (B) 3 mm
       (C) 4 mm                                  (D) 7 mm
176. Osteogenesis imperfecta is an example of :
     (A) Autosomal recessive trait       (B) Autosomal dominant trait
     (C) X-linked recessive trait        (D) X-linked dominant trait
177. When a patient is asked to clench the teeth, the nerve being tested is :
     (A) Facial                          (B) Maxillary
     (C) Hypoglossal                     (D) Mandibular
 178. The paranasal air sirJ.ilses opening into the superior meatus of the lateral wall of
      the nose is :
      (A) Anterior ethmoidal                  (B) Frontal
       (C) Posterior ethmoidal                (D) Sphenoidal
179. Philtrum of the upper lip develops from :
      (A) Frontonasal process                 (B) Mandibular process
      (C) Maxillary process                   (D) Mandibular arch
180. In tonsillitis the pain is referred to the middle ear because of :
      (A) Auricular branch of vagus
      (B) Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
      (C) Hypoglossal nerve
      (D) Chorda tympani
181. The frontal air sinus begins to develop at :
      (A) birth                               (B) age of 1
      (C) age of 2                            (D) age of 3
182. Tensor veli palatini muscle is supplied by :
                                             -           ,
      (A) Nerve to medial pterygoid (B) Pharyngeal plexus
      (C) Ophthalmic nerve                    (D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
183. Number of fontanelles present at birth:
      (A) 2                               (B) 3
      (C)     4                           (D) 6
184. Parotido-masseteric fascia is supplied by :
     (A) lesser petrosal nerve           (B) external petrosal nerve
     (C) great auricular nerve _         (D) auriculotemporal nerve
185. All the following structures are developed from first pharyngeal arch, except:
     (A) Stapes                          (B) Malleus
     (C) Tensor tympani muscle           (D) Sphenomandibular ligament
186. Rate limiting enzyme in de novo synthesis of cholesterol is :
     (A) HMG CoA synthatase               (B) HMG CoA reductase
     (C) HMG CoA lyase                    (D) _ 7 alpha hydroxylase
187. Hartnup's disease is an inborn error of metabolism of the amino acid :
     (A) Tyrosine                         (B) Valine
     (C) Tryptophan                       (D) Cysteine
188. All of the following are keto~es, except :
     (A) Ribulose                         (B) Fructose
     (C) Erythrose                        (D) Sedoheptulose
189. The precursor for the biosynthesis of prostaglandins is :
     (A) Linoleic acid                    (B) Linolenic acid
     (C) Oleic acid                       (D) Arachidonic acid
190. The enzyme urase belongs to the IUB class of :
     (A) Oxidoreductase                   (B) Transferase
     (C) Isomerase                        (D) Hydrolase
191. Amalgam scrap should be stored in :
     (A) Sodium thiosulphate solution (B) Air
     (C) Petroleum                        (D) Water
192. Decreased setting time of alginate can be due to :
     (A) cold temperature of water
     (B) non-aeration of the powder before dispensing
     (C) too much water
     (D) freshly manufactured powder
193. Surface tension of liquids is :
     (A) increased by presence of impurities
     (B) reduced as temperature increases
     (C) increased by addition of sodium lauryl sulphate
     (D) independent of its wettability
194. Translucency is the property of a substance that:
     (A) allow the passage of light in such a manner that little distortion takes plac
            and objects may be seen clearly through them
     (B) prevents the passage of light.
      (C) absorbs some of the light and reflects the remainder
      (D)    permits passage oflight but disperses the light so objects cannot be seen
                   th..-,:ug the material
195. The greatest amount of thermal expansion is seen in :
      (A) Cristobalite                    (B) Fused silica
      (C) Quartz                          (D) Tridymite
196. Calcium hydroxide pulp capping agents do not cause :
      (A) Necrosis of the exposed pulp
      (B) Coagulation of any hemorrhagic exudates of the superficial pulp (C)
      Obtunding effect
      (D) Stimulus for calcific bridge
197. The following impression material is difficult to electroplate :
      (A) impression compound             (B) hydrophillic addition silicone
      (C) condensation silicone           (D) polysulphide
198. Cracks in metal ceramic restoration can be caused by :
      (A) not allowing the metal ceramic restoration to cool within the furnace after
      (B) not glazing enough
      (C) not firing enougn
      (D) not ensuring a thermal expansion mismatch
199. Trial closure of flask during packing of acrylic resin is done to ensure:
      (A) condensation of polymer
      (B) to equalize density of polymer throughout the mold space (C)
      ensure overfilling of mold space
      (D) to adapt packed acrylic to the acrylic teeth
200. Factors that cause failure of soldered joint in a bridge in use may be :
      (A) fused solder has formed a boundary between soldered and non-soldered
      (B   flux used has fusion temperature below that of alloy being soldered
      )    gap between units to be soldered is less than 0.1 mm
      (C   wide area of solder joint