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Security guide to networking security Fundamentals third edition Q and A

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Security  guide to networking security Fundamentals third edition Q and A Powered By Docstoc
					                                /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded          20.00
Points Missed            0.00
Percentage          100%



1.
While most attacks take advantage of vulnerabilities that someone has already uncovered, a(n)
____ occurs when an attacker discovers and exploits a previously unknown flaw.

   A) zero day
Feedback: Reference page 8

    B) identity theft

    C) phishing

    D) scam

Feedback: Reference page 8
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




2.
In a ____ attack, attackers can attackers use hundreds or thousands of computers in an attack
against a single computer or network.

    A) centered

    B) local

    C) remote

   D) distributed
Feedback: Reference page 9

Feedback: Reference page 9
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




3.
_____ ensures that only authorized parties can view information.

    A) Security

    B) Availability

    C) Integrity

   D) Confidentiality
Feedback: Reference page 10

Feedback: Reference page 10
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




4.
_____ ensures that information is correct and that no unauthorized person or malicious software
has altered that data.

    A) Availability

    B) Confidentiality

   C) Integrity
Feedback: Reference page 10

    D) Identity

Feedback: Reference page 10
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
5.
In information security, a loss can be _____.

    A) theft of information

    B) a delay in transmitting information that results in a financial penalty

    C) the loss of good will or a reputation

   D) all of the above
Feedback: Reference page 12

Feedback: Reference page 12
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




6.
In information security, a threat agent can be defined as _____.

    A) a force of nature such as a tornado that could destroy computer equipment

    B) a virus that attacks a computer network

    C) an unsecured computer network

   D) both a and b
Feedback: Reference page 12

Feedback: Reference page 12
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
7.
Business ____ theft involves stealing proprietary business information such as research for a new
drug or a list of customers that competitors are eager to acquire.

     A) identity

   B) data
Feedback: Reference page 13

     C) plan

     D) record

Feedback: Reference page 13
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




8.
According to the 2007 FBI Computer Crime and Security Survey, the loss due to the theft of
confidential data for 494 respondents was approximately ____.

     A) $1 million

   B) $10 million
Feedback: Reference page 13

     C) $50 million

     D) $100 million

Feedback: Reference page 13
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




9.
____ involves using someone's personal information, such as social security numbers, to
establish bank or credit card accounts that are then left unpaid, leaving the victim with the debts
and ruining their credit rating.

    A) Cyberterrorism

   B) Identity theft
Feedback: Reference page 13

    C) Phishing

    D) Scam

Feedback: Reference page 13
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




10.
Under the _____ , healthcare enterprises must guard protected health information and implement
policies and procedures to safeguard it, whether it be in paper or electronic format.

   A) HIPAA
Feedback: Reference page 14

    B) HLPDA

    C) HCPA

    D) USHIPA

Feedback: Reference page 14
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




11.
What is the maximum fine for those who wrongfully disclose individually identifiable health
information with the intent to sell it?
    A) $100,000

   B) $250,000
Feedback: Reference page 14

    C) $500,000

    D) $1,000,000

Feedback: Reference page 14
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




12.
The _____ act is designed to broaden the surveillance of law enforcement agencies so they can
detect and suppress terrorism.

    A) Gramm-Leach-Bliley

    B) Sarbanes-Oxley

    C) California Database Security Breach

   D) USA Patriot
Feedback: Reference page 14

Feedback: Reference page 14
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




13.
COPPA requires operators of online services or Web sites designed for children under the age of
_____ to obtain parental consent prior to the collection, use, disclosure, or display of a child's
personal information.
    A) 8

    B) 10

   C) 13
Feedback: Reference page 14

    D) 16

Feedback: Reference page 14
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




14.
In a company of 500 employees, it is estimated that _____ employees would be required to
combat a virus attack.

    A) two

   B) five
Feedback: Reference page 15

    C) seven

    D) ten

Feedback: Reference page 15
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




15.
The single most expensive malicious attack was the 2000 ____, which cost an estimated $8.7
billion.
    A) Nimda

    B) Slammer

   C) Love Bug
Feedback: Reference page 15

    D) Code Red

Feedback: Reference page 15
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




16.
What is another name for unsolicited e-mail messages?

   A) spam
Feedback: Reference page 15

    B) spawn

    C) trash

    D) scam

Feedback: Reference page 15
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




17.
According to the research group Postini, over ____ of daily e-mail messages are unsolicited and
could be carrying a malicious payload.
    A) one-third

   B) two-thirds
Feedback: Reference page 15

    C) three-fourths

    D) four-fifths

Feedback: Reference page 15
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




18.
____ are a loose-knit network of attackers, identity thieves, and financial fraudsters.

   A) Cybercriminals
Feedback: Reference page 17

    B) Cyberterrorists

    C) Computer spies

    D) Hackers

Feedback: Reference page 17
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




19.
Targeted attacks against financial networks, unauthorized access to information, and the theft of
personal information is sometimes known as ____.
    A) spam

    B) phishing

   C) cybercrime
Feedback: Reference page 18

    D) cyberterrorism

Feedback: Reference page 18
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




20.
A security ____ focuses on the administration and management of plans, policies, and people.

   A) manager
Feedback: Reference page 23

    B) engineer

    C) auditor

    D) inspector

Feedback: Reference page 23
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A


 Continue




                               /w EPDw ULLTEw
Points Awarded        20.00
Points Missed          0.00
Percentage         100%



1.
Flash memory is a type of ____, nonvolatile computer memory that can be electrically erased
and rewritten repeatedly.

    A) EROM

    B) ROM

   C) EEPROM
Feedback: Reference page 56

    D) RAM

Feedback: Reference page 56
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




2.
____ involves horizontally separating words, although it is still readable by the human eye.

   A) Word splitting
Feedback: Reference page 49

    B) GIF layering

    C) Geometric variance

    D) Layer variance

Feedback: Reference page 49
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
3.
____ is an image spam that is divided into multiple images.

    A) Word splitting

    B) Geometric variance

    C) Layer variance

   D) GIF layering
Feedback: Reference page 49

Feedback: Reference page 49
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




4.
A ____ is a computer program or a part of a program that lies dormant until it is triggered by a
specific logical event.

    A) Trojan

   B) logic bomb
Feedback: Reference page 46

    C) macro virus

    D) metamorphic virus

Feedback: Reference page 46
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
5.
____ is a software program that delivers advertising content in a manner that is unexpected and
unwanted by the user.

   A) Adware
Feedback: Reference page 52

     B) Keylogger

     C) Spam

     D) Trojan

Feedback: Reference page 52
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




6.
One type of virtualization in which an entire operating system environment is simulated is
known as ____ virtualization.

     A) NOS

     B) guest

   C) operating system
Feedback: Reference page 59

     D) host

Feedback: Reference page 59
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




7.
A ____ virus can interrupt almost any function executed by the computer operating system and
alter it for its own malicious purposes.

    A) companion

    B) file infector

   C) resident
Feedback: Reference page 43

    D) boot

Feedback: Reference page 43
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




8.
With operating system virtualization, a virtual machine is simulated as a self-contained software
environment by the ____ system (the native operating system to the hardware).

    A) guest

   B) host
Feedback: Reference page 59

    C) root

    D) server

Feedback: Reference page 59
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




9.
____ are portable communication devices that function in a manner that is unlike wired
telephones.
    A) USB devices

    B) NAS devices

   C) Cell phones
Feedback: Reference page 58

    D) SAN

Feedback: Reference page 58
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




10.
Today's computer systems have a(n) ____ chip in which the contents can be rewritten to provide
new functionality.

    A) ROM

    B) RAM

    C) EROM

   D) PROM
Feedback: Reference page 55

Feedback: Reference page 55
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




11.
A ____ virus infects the Master Boot Record of a hard disk drive.
    A) file infector

    B) companion

    C) resident

   D) boot
Feedback: Reference page 43

Feedback: Reference page 43
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




12.
____ is a means of managing and presenting computer resources by function without regard to
their physical layout or location.

    A) Expansion

   B) Virtualization
Feedback: Reference page 59

    C) Load balancing

    D) Distribution

Feedback: Reference page 59
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




13.
____ technology enables a virtual machine to be moved to a different physical computer with no
impact to the users.

   A) Live migration
Feedback: Reference page 61
    B) Load balancing

    C) Operating system virtualization

    D) Server virtualization

Feedback: Reference page 61
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




14.
A ____ is a single, dedicated hard disk-based file storage device that provides centralized and
consolidated disk storage available to LAN users through a standard network connection.

   A) NAS
Feedback: Reference page 57

    B) NSA

    C) NSF

    D) NFS

Feedback: Reference page 57
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




15.
A computer ____ is a program that secretly attaches itself to a legitimate "carrier," such as a
document or program, and then executes when that document is opened or program is launched.

   A) virus
Feedback: Reference page 41

    B) worm
    C) adware

    D) spyware

Feedback: Reference page 41
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




16.
In order to avoid detection some viruses can alter how they appear. These are known as ____
viruses.

    A) macro

   B) metamorphic
Feedback: Reference page 43

    C) boot

    D) companion

Feedback: Reference page 43
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




17.
A ____ is a program advertised as performing one activity but actually does something else.

    A) script

    B) virus

   C) Trojan
Feedback: Reference page 44
    D) worm

Feedback: Reference page 44
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




18.
The ____ is the link between the cellular network and the wired telephone world and controls all
transmitters and base stations in the cellular network.

    A) SAN

    B) NAS

    C) RF cell

   D) MTSO
Feedback: Reference page 58

Feedback: Reference page 58
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




19.
____ uses "speckling" and different colors so that no two spam e-mails appear to be the same.

    A) GIF layering

   B) Geometric variance
Feedback: Reference page 49

    C) Word splitting

    D) Layer variance

Feedback: Reference page 49
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




20.
Creating and managing multiple server operating systems is known as ____ virtualization.

    A) operating system

    B) host

    C) guest

   D) server
Feedback: Reference page 59

Feedback: Reference page 59
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D


 Continue




                               /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded     20.00
Points Missed        0.00
Percentage         100%



1.
A(n) ____ is a small Web browser window that appears over the Web site that is being viewed.

    A) swarm

    B) torrent
   C) popup
Feedback: Reference Page 100

    D) applet

Feedback: Reference Page 100
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




2.
____, also called add-ons, represent a specific way of implementing ActiveX and are sometimes
called ActiveX applications.

    A) Applets

   B) ActiveX controls
Feedback: Reference Page 92

    C) Scripts

    D) Beans

Feedback: Reference Page 92
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




3.
____ hinges on an attacker being able to enter an SQL database query into a dynamic Web page.

    A) XSS

   B) SQL injection
Feedback: Reference Page 9

    C) Script injection
    D) Sandboxing

Feedback: Reference Page 9
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




4.
BitTorrent maximizes the transfer speed by gathering pieces of the file and downloading these
pieces simultaneously from users who already have them (the collective pieces are called a
____).

    A) leech

   B) swarm
Feedback: Reference Page 99

    C) seed

    D) track

Feedback: Reference Page 99
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




5.
____ is a Windows Vista and Windows XP Service Pack 2 (SP2) feature that prevents attackers
from using buffer overflow to execute malware.

   A) DEP
Feedback: Reference Page 86

    B) NX

    C) ASLR

    D) ASDEP
Feedback: Reference Page 86
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




6.
____ is a process of ensuring that any inputs are "clean" and will not corrupt the system.

    A) Cross-site scripting

    B) SQL injection

    C) Script injection

   D) Input validation
Feedback: Reference Page 93

Feedback: Reference Page 93
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




7.
____ is real-time communication between two or more users.

    A) SMTP

    B) SMTP open relay

    C) ActiveX

   D) Instant messaging (IM)
Feedback: Reference Page 98

Feedback: Reference Page 98
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
8.
SMTP servers can forward e-mail sent from an e-mail client to a remote domain. This is known
as ____.

   A) SMTP relay
Feedback: Reference Page 98

    B) IMAP

    C) Spam

    D) Spam relay

Feedback: Reference Page 98
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




9.
Instead of the Web server asking the user for the same information each time she visits that site,
the server can store that user-specific information in a file on the user's local computer and then
retrieve it later. This file is called a(n) ____.

   A) cookie
Feedback: Reference Page 89

    B) bug

    C) ActiveX control

    D) script

Feedback: Reference Page 89
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
10.
In a P2P network, a ____ is a server program operated by the person or organization that wants
to share the file.

    A) torrent

    B) seed

    C) leecher

   D) tracker
Feedback: Reference Page 99

Feedback: Reference Page 99
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




11.
The goal of ____ is to make it harder to predict where the operating system functionality resides
in memory.

    A) DEP

   B) ASLR
Feedback: Reference Page 87

    C) NX

    D) ASNX

Feedback: Reference Page 87
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
12.
A(n) ____ is a computer programming language that is typically interpreted into a language the
computer can understand.

    A) ActiveX control

    B) cookie

    C) shell

   D) scripting language
Feedback: Reference Page 90

Feedback: Reference Page 90
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




13.
Regarding e-mail, ____ handles outgoing mail.

   A) SMTP
Feedback: Reference Page 97

    B) POP3

    C) IMAP

    D) SNMP

Feedback: Reference Page 97
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




14.
A ____ is a cumulative package of all security updates plus additional features.
    A) service patch

    B) hotfix

   C) service pack
Feedback: Reference Page 82

    D) security patch

Feedback: Reference Page 82
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




15.
Regarding e-mail, ____ is responsible for incoming mail.

    A) SMTP

    B) IMAP

   C) POP3
Feedback: Reference Page 97

    D) SNMP

Feedback: Reference Page 97
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




16.
If SMTP relay is not controlled, an attacker can use it to forward thousands of spam e-mail
messages. An uncontrolled SMTP relay is known as a(n) ____.
    A) IMAP open relay

   B) SMTP open relay
Feedback: Reference Page 98

    C) open POP

    D) open IMAP

Feedback: Reference Page 98
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




17.
The ____ are the operating system settings that impose how the policy will be enforced.

    A) security policies

    B) group policies

    C) security templates

   D) configuration baselines
Feedback: Reference Page 88

Feedback: Reference Page 88
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




18.
____ typically involves using client-side scripts written in JavaScript that are designed to extract
information from the victim and then pass the information to the attacker.
    A) Spam

    B) SQL injection

   C) Cross site scripting (XSS)
Feedback: Reference Page 93

    D) SQL scripting

Feedback: Reference Page 93
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




19.
____ are active Internet connections that download a specific file that is available through a
tracker.

   A) Torrents
Feedback: Reference Page 99

    B) Applets

    C) ActiveX controls

    D) Scripts

Feedback: Reference Page 99
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




20.
____ is a language used to view and manipulate data that is stored in a relational database.
    A) CSS

    B) XSS

   C) SQL
Feedback: Reference Page 95

    D) DEP

Feedback: Reference Page 95
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C


 Continue




                               /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded     20.00
Points Missed        0.00
Percentage         100%



1.
Wireless location mapping is the formal expression for ____.

    A) wireless scanning

    B) wireless caching

   C) war driving
Feedback: Reference Page 138

    D) wireless beaconing

Feedback: Reference Page 138
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
2.
The most common type of antenna for war driving is an omnidirectional antenna, also known as
a ____ antenna.

    A) bipole

   B) dipole
Feedback: Reference Page 139

    C) GPS

    D) tagging

Feedback: Reference Page 139
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




3.
Each wireless device looks for beacon frames in a process known as ____.

    A) mapping

   B) scanning
Feedback: Reference Page 138

    C) caching

    D) beaconing

Feedback: Reference Page 138
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
4.
One approach to substituting a fraudulent IP address is to target the external DNS server and is
called ____.

     A) DNS spoofing

     B) DNS transfer

     C) zone transfer

   D) DNS poisoning
Feedback: Reference Page 133

Feedback: Reference Page 133
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




5.
In order for a host using TCP/IP on an Ethernet network to find the MAC address of another
device, it uses ____.

     A) BIND

     B) MAC-DNS

   C) ARP
Feedback: Reference Page 135

     D) DNS

Feedback: Reference Page 135
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




6.
____ enables the attacker's computer to forward any network traffic it receives from Computer A
to the actual router.

    A) IP mirroring

    B) Port mirroring

   C) IP forwarding
Feedback: Reference Page 136

    D) Port forwarding

Feedback: Reference Page 136
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




7.
When TCP/IP was developed, the host table concept was expanded to a hierarchical name system
known as the ____.

    A) ARPAnet

   B) DNS
Feedback: Reference Page 132

    C) SNMP

    D) SMTP

Feedback: Reference Page 132
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




8.
A group of piconets in which connections exist between different piconets is called a ____.
    A) shortnet

    B) meshnet

    C) multinet

   D) scatternet
Feedback: Reference Page 140

Feedback: Reference Page 140
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




9.
With wireless CSMA/CA, the amount of time that a device must wait after the medium is clear is
called the ____.

    A) collision time

   B) slot time
Feedback: Reference Page 128

    C) clear time

    D) tx time

Feedback: Reference Page 128
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




10.
____ is the name given to a wireless technology that uses short-range RF transmissions.

   A) Bluetooth
Feedback: Reference Page 139
    B) Piconet

    C) Scatternet

    D) Wi-fi

Feedback: Reference Page 139
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




11.
A(n) ____ is an account that is secretly set up without the administrator's knowledge or
permission, that cannot be easily detected, and that allows for remote access to the device.

    A) escalation account

    B) weak password

   C) back door
Feedback: Reference Page 125

    D) default account

Feedback: Reference Page 125
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




12.
____ allows the administrator to configure a switch to redirect traffic that occurs on some or all
ports to a designated monitoring port on the switch.

    A) Sniffering

    B) Protocol analyzer
    C) NIC mirroring

   D) Port mirroring
Feedback: Reference Page 128

Feedback: Reference Page 128
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




13.
DNS poisoning can be prevented by using the latest editions of the DNS software, ____.

   A) BIND
Feedback: Reference Page 134

    B) DNSS

    C) IPsec

    D) BINDSEC

Feedback: Reference Page 134
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




14.
The most common protocol suite used today for networks as well as the Internet is ____.

   A) TCP/IP
Feedback: Reference Page 131

    B) SMTP

    C) SNMP
    D) DNS

Feedback: Reference Page 131
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




15.
____ specifies that before a networked device starts to send, it should first listen (called carrier
sensing) to see if any other device is transmitting.

    A) CSMA/ACK

    B) CSMA/CA

   C) CSMA/CD
Feedback: Reference Page 128

    D) CSCD/MA

Feedback: Reference Page 128
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




16.
____ is a popular protocol used to manage network equipment.

    A) SMTP

    B) IMAP

    C) TCP/IP

   D) SNMP
Feedback: Reference Page 131

Feedback: Reference Page 131
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




17.
A(n) ____ attack makes a copy of the transmission before sending it to the recipient.

    A) man-in-the-middle

   B) replay
Feedback: Reference Page 131

    C) DNS spoofing

    D) ARP poisoning

Feedback: Reference Page 131
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




18.
In a "____ attack," a TCP/IP ping request is sent to all computers on the network, which makes it
appear that a server is asking for a response.

   A) smurf
Feedback: Reference Page 126

    B) ping of death

    C) frame

    D) DNS poisoning

Feedback: Reference Page 126
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
19.
An attacker could alter the MAC address in the ARP cache so that the corresponding IP address
would point to a different computer, which is known as ____.

    A) DNS spoofing

    B) DNS poisoning

    C) ARP transfer

   D) ARP poisoning
Feedback: Reference Page 136

Feedback: Reference Page 136
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




20.
At regular intervals a wireless AP sends a beacon frame to announce its presence and to provide
the necessary information for devices that want to join the network. This process is known as
____.

   A) beaconing
Feedback: Reference Page 138

    B) scanning

    C) mapping

    D) caching

Feedback: Reference Page 138
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
 Continue




                               /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded      20.00
Points Missed        0.00
Percentage          100%



1.
The goal of ____ is to prevent computers with sub-optimal security from potentially infecting
other computers through the network.

    A) subnetting

    B) NAT

   C) NAC
Feedback: Reference page 163

    D) PAT

Feedback: Reference page 163
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




2.
____ honeypots are complex to deploy and capture extensive information. These are used
primarily by research, military, and government organizations.

   A) Research
Feedback: Reference page 170

    B) Production

    C) Clustered
    D) Virtual

Feedback: Reference page 170
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




3.
____ are designed to inspect traffic, and based on their configuration or security policy, they can
drop malicious traffic.

    A) NIDS

    B) HIPS

   C) NIPS
Feedback: Reference page 173

    D) HIDS

Feedback: Reference page 173
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




4.
____ switches are connected directly to the devices on the network.

   A) Workgroup
Feedback: Reference page 156

    B) Core

    C) Stateless

    D) Stateful

Feedback: Reference page 156
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




5.
____ packet filtering keeps a record of the state of a connection between an internal computer
and an external server and then makes decisions based on the connection as well as the rule base.

    A) Stateless

   B) Stateful
Feedback: Reference page 167

    C) Classful

    D) Classless

Feedback: Reference page 167
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




6.
A ____ watches for attempts to penetrate a network.

    A) SIDS

    B) HIDS

   C) NIDS
Feedback: Reference page 171

    D) PIDS

Feedback: Reference page 171
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
7.
A ____ is an instruction that interrupts the program being executed and requests a service from
the operating system.

   A) system call
Feedback: Reference page 172

    B) system command

    C) kernel call

    D) system module

Feedback: Reference page 172
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




8.
____ can fully decode application-layer network protocols. Once these protocols are decoded,
the different parts of the protocol can be analyzed for any suspicious behavior.

    A) Proxy servers

   B) Protocol analyzers
Feedback: Reference page 173

    C) Firewalls

    D) HIDS

Feedback: Reference page 173
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
9.
____ work to protect the entire network and all devices that are connected to it.

    A) HIPS

    B) HIDS

    C) Reverse proxy

   D) NIPS
Feedback: Reference page 173

Feedback: Reference page 173
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




10.
A software-based ____ attempt to monitor and possibly prevent attempts to attack a local system.

   A) HIDS
Feedback: Reference page 171

    B) NIDS

    C) SIDS

    D) PIDS

Feedback: Reference page 171
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




11.
____ examines the current state of a system or network device before it is allowed to connect to
the network.
    A) NAT

    B) PAT

    C) VAC

   D) NAC
Feedback: Reference page 163

Feedback: Reference page 163
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




12.
The goal of a ____ is to hide the IP address of client systems inside the secure network.

    A) VLAN

    B) switch

    C) router

   D) proxy server
Feedback: Reference page 169

Feedback: Reference page 169
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




13.
____ honeypots are used mainly by organizations to capture limited information regarding
attacks on that organization's honeypot.
    A) Virtual

    B) Research

   C) Production
Feedback: Reference page 170

    D) Clustered

Feedback: Reference page 170
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




14.
A(n) ____ attempts to identify inappropriate activity.

    A) reverse proxy

   B) IDS
Feedback: Reference page 171

    C) firewall

    D) proxy server

Feedback: Reference page 171
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




15.
____ IP addresses are not assigned to any specific user or organization; instead, they can be used
by any user on the private internal network.
    A) Public

    B) Virtual

    C) DMZ

   D) Private
Feedback: Reference page 162

Feedback: Reference page 162
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




16.
A variation of NAT is ____. Instead of giving each outgoing packet a different IP address, each
packet is given the same IP address but a different TCP port number.

   A) PAT
Feedback: Reference page 163

    B) CAT

    C) DAT

    D) TAT

Feedback: Reference page 163
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




17.
A(n) ____ finds malicious traffic and deals with it immediately.
    A) IDS

    B) HIDS

    C) NIDS

   D) IPS
Feedback: Reference page 172

Feedback: Reference page 172
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




18.
Using ____, networks can essentially be divided into three parts: network, subnet, and host.

    A) classful addressing

   B) subnetting
Feedback: Reference page 155

    C) stateful addressing

    D) stateless addressing

Feedback: Reference page 155
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




19.
A ____ is a computer typically located in a DMZ that is loaded with software and data files that
appear to be authentic, yet they are actually imitations of real data files.
    A) proxy server

   B) honeypot
Feedback: Reference page 170

    C) reverse proxy

    D) HIDS

Feedback: Reference page 170
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




20.
____ are subdivisions of IP address class (Class A, B, or C) networks and allow a single Class A,
B, or C network to be used instead of multiple networks.

    A) Workgroups

    B) VLANs

   C) Subnets
Feedback: Reference page 158

    D) Domains

Feedback: Reference page 158
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C


 Continue




                               /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded        20.00
Points Missed       0.00
Percentage        100%



1.
IEEE 802.11i authentication and key management is accomplished by the IEEE ____ standard.

   A) 802.11a

   B) 802.11n

   C) 802.1x
Feedback: Reference page 206

   D) 802.3i

Feedback: Reference page 206
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




2.
This IEEE ____ standard specifies a maximum rated speed of 54 Mbps using the 5 GHz
spectrum.

   A) 802.11a
Feedback: Reference page 192

   B) 802.11b

   C) 802.11c

   D) 802.11d

Feedback: Reference page 192
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
3.
At regular intervals a wireless AP sends a beacon frame to announce its presence and to provide
the necessary information for devices that want to join the network. This process is known as
____.

     A) broadcasting

   B) beaconing
Feedback: Reference page 198

     C) roaming

     D) association

Feedback: Reference page 198
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




4.
In 2002, the WECA organization changed its name to ____.

   A) Wi-Fi Alliance
Feedback: Reference page 203

     B) WECA Alliance

     C) WTiG

     D) iWITG

Feedback: Reference page 203
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




5.
With ____ scanning, a wireless device simply listens for a beacon frame for a set period of time.

    A) active

    B) broadcast

    C) reactive

   D) passive
Feedback: Reference page 198

Feedback: Reference page 198
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




6.
Access points have a setting called "____," which is what the PSK uses as a seed value to
generate new keys.

   A) Group Key Renewal
Feedback: Reference page 203

    B) Interseed

    C) PSK-seed

    D) PSK-IV

Feedback: Reference page 203
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




7.
WPA also replaces the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) function in WEP with the ____.
    A) TKIP

   B) MIC
Feedback: Reference page 204

    C) PSK

    D) MD5

Feedback: Reference page 204
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




8.
Encryption under the WPA2 personal security model is accomplished by ____.

    A) DES-CCMP

   B) AES-CCMP
Feedback: Reference page 205

    C) 3DES

    D) RC5

Feedback: Reference page 205
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




9.
____ was designed to ensure that only authorized parties can view transmitted wireless
information.
    A) WECA

    B) MAC

   C) WEP
Feedback: Reference page 193

    D) 802.11g

Feedback: Reference page 193
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




10.
____ authentication is based upon the fact that only pre-approved wireless devices are given the
shared key.

    A) Open key

    B) Open system

    C) Shared system

   D) Shared key
Feedback: Reference page 196

Feedback: Reference page 196
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




11.
WPA replaces WEP with an encryption technology called ____.
    A) GKR

    B) PSK

   C) TKIP
Feedback: Reference page 203

    D) RC5

Feedback: Reference page 203
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




12.
A(n) ____ frame carries information about the data rates that the device can support along with
the Service Set Identifier (SSID) of the network it wants to join.

    A) open authentication

    B) device request

   C) association request
Feedback: Reference page 196

    D) roaming

Feedback: Reference page 196
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




13.
The plaintext to be transmitted has a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) value calculated, which is a
checksum based on the contents of the text. WEP calls this the ____ and appends it to the end of
the text.
   A) integrity check value (ICV)
Feedback: Reference page 195

    B) keystream

    C) initialization vector (IV)

    D) pre-pended IV

Feedback: Reference page 195
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




14.
In the early 1980s, the IEEE began work on developing computer network architecture
standards. This work was called ____, and it quickly expanded into several different categories
of network technology.

    A) Project 100

    B) Project 302

    C) Project 513

   D) Project 802
Feedback: Reference page 191

Feedback: Reference page 191
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




15.
In order to address growing wireless security concerns, in October 2003 the Wi-Fi Alliance
introduced ____.
    A) RC5

    B) WEP2

    C) AES

   D) WPA
Feedback: Reference page 203

Feedback: Reference page 203
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




16.
____ is intended for personal and small office home office users who do not have advanced
server capabilities.

   A) PSK
Feedback: Reference page 204

    B) AES

    C) CCMP

    D) CBC-MAC

Feedback: Reference page 204
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




17.
The PRNG in WEP is based on the ____ cipher algorithm.
    A) RC2

   B) RC4
Feedback: Reference page 195

    C) DES

    D) AES

Feedback: Reference page 195
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




18.
IEEE 802.11i includes ____, which stores information from a device on the network so if a user
roams away from a wireless access point and later returns, he does not need to re-enter all of the
credentials.

    A) pre-authentication

    B) AES-CCMP

    C) PSK

   D) key-caching
Feedback: Reference page 207

Feedback: Reference page 207
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




19.
WEP accomplishes confidentiality by taking unencrypted text and then encrypting or
"scrambling" it into ____ so that it cannot be viewed by unauthorized parties while being
transmitted.
    A) plaintext

   B) ciphertext
Feedback: Reference page 193

    C) simpletext

    D) shuffletext

Feedback: Reference page 193
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




20.
Mobile devices constantly survey the radio frequencies at regular intervals to determine if a
different AP can provide better service. If it finds one, then the device automatically attempts to
associate with the new AP (this process is called ____).

    A) beaconing

    B) a turnoff

   C) a handoff
Feedback: Reference page 198

    D) scanning

Feedback: Reference page 198
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C


 Continue




                                /w EPDw ULLTEw
Points Awarded       20.00
Points Missed          0.00
Percentage           100%



1.
____ is the process of setting a user's account to expire.

   A) Account expiration
Feedback: Reference page 238

    B) Time of day restriction

    C) Account restriction

    D) Login expiration

Feedback: Reference page 238
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




2.
A ____ attack begins with the attacker creating hashes of common dictionary words, and
compares those hashed dictionary words against those in a stolen password file.

    A) birthday

    B) brute force

   C) dictionary
Feedback: Reference page 239

    D) rainbow table

Feedback: Reference page 239
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
3.
Regarding access control, a(n) ____ is a specific resource, such as a file or a hardware device.

   A) object
Feedback: Reference page 228

    B) subject

    C) operation

    D) asset

Feedback: Reference page 228
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




4.
With the ____ model a subject has total control over any objects that he or she owns, along with
the programs that are associated with those objects.

    A) RBAC

   B) DAC
Feedback: Reference page 230

    C) RuBAC

    D) MAC

Feedback: Reference page 230
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
5.
A ____ is a secret combination of letters and numbers that only the user knows.

    A) badge

   B) password
Feedback: Reference page 238

    C) RFID tag

    D) smartcard

Feedback: Reference page 238
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




6.
____ in access control means that if a condition is not explicitly met, then it is to be rejected.

   A) Implicit deny
Feedback: Reference page 234

    B) Separation of duties

    C) least privilege

    D) job rotation

Feedback: Reference page 234
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




7.
The ____ model is considered a more "real world" approach than the other models to structuring
access control.
    A) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

   B) Rule Based Access Control (RBAC)
c.Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

   C) Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Feedback: Reference page 232

Feedback: Reference page 232
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




8.
Known as a ____ lock, this lock extends a solid metal bar into the door frame for extra security.

    A) tailgate

    B) preset

   C) deadbolt
Feedback: Reference page 246

    D) cipher

Feedback: Reference page 246
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




9.
Regarding access control, an example of a(n) ____ is when a user attempts to delete a file.

    A) object

    B) subject
   C) operation
Feedback: Reference page 228

    D) asset

Feedback: Reference page 228
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




10.
____ accounts are user accounts that remain active after an employee has left an organization.

    A) Ghost

   B) Orphaned
Feedback: Reference page 238

    C) Phantom

    D) Floating

Feedback: Reference page 238
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




11.
Generally a ____ is used to configure settings for systems that are not part of Active Directory.

    A) Group Policy

    B) Group Policy Object

   C) Local Group Policy
Feedback: Reference page 236
    D) Domain Group Policy

Feedback: Reference page 236
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




12.
The ____ model can dynamically assign roles to subjects based on a set of rules defined by a
custodian.

    A) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

    B) Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

   C) Rule Based Access Control (RBAC)
Feedback: Reference page 232

    D) Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Feedback: Reference page 232
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




13.
In the ____ model, the end user cannot implement, modify, or transfer any controls.

    A) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

    B) Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

    C) Rule Based Access Control (RBAC)

   D) Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Feedback: Reference page 230

Feedback: Reference page 230
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




14.
____ make password attacks easier by creating a large pregenerated data set of hashes from
nearly every possible password combination.

    A) Brute force attacks

    B) Dictionary attacks

    C) Birthday attacks

   D) Rainbow tables
Feedback: Reference page 240

Feedback: Reference page 240
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




15.
A ____ lock, also known as the key-in-knob lock, is the easiest to use because it requires only a
key for unlocking the door from the outside.

    A) deadbolt

    B) cipher

    C) tailgate

   D) preset
Feedback: Reference page 245

Feedback: Reference page 245
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
16.
Regarding access control, a(n) ____ is a user or a process functioning on behalf of the user who
attempts to access an object.

    A) object

   B) subject
Feedback: Reference page 228

    C) operation

    D) asset

Feedback: Reference page 228
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




17.
To address the security issues in the LM hash, Microsoft introduced the ____ hash.

    A) VLM

   B) NTLM
Feedback: Reference page 241

    C) ELM

    D) NETLM

Feedback: Reference page 241
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
18.
____ locks are combination locks that use buttons that must be pushed in the proper sequence to
open the door.

   A) Cipher
Feedback: Reference page 246

    B) Deadbolt

    C) Preset

    D) Tailgate

Feedback: Reference page 246
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




19.
Known as ____, this practice requires that if the fraudulent application of a process could
potentially result in a breach of security, then the process should be divided between two or more
individuals.

   A) separation of duties
Feedback: Reference page 233

    B) job rotation

    C) least privilege

    D) implicit deny

Feedback: Reference page 233
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
20.
The principle of ____ in access control means that each user should be given only the minimal
amount of privileges necessary to perform his or her job function.

    A) job rotation

    B) implicit deny

    C) separation of duties

   D) least privilege
Feedback: Reference page 233

Feedback: Reference page 233
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D


 Continue




                                /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded         19.00
Points Missed           1.00
Percentage            95.0%



1.
____ is a feature of Windows that is intended to provide users with control of their digital
identities while helping them to manage privacy.

    A) FMI

    B) Windows Live ID

   C) Windows CardSpace
Feedback: Reference page 276

    D) OpenID
Feedback: Reference page 276
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




2.
The management protocol of IEEE 802.1x that governs the interaction between the system,
authenticator, and RADIUS server is known as the ____.

   A) EAP
Feedback: Reference page 282

    B) LDAP

    C) X.500

    D) TACACS+

Feedback: Reference page 282
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




3.
____ is an industry standard protocol specification that forwards username and password
information to a centralized server.

   A) TACACS+
Feedback: Reference page 280

    B) LDAP

    C) RADIUS

    D) Kerberos

Feedback: Reference page 280
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




4.
____ is an authentication system developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
and used to verify the identity of networked users.

    A) RADIUS

   B) Kerberos
Feedback: Reference page 280

    C) TACACS+

    D) LDAP

Feedback: Reference page 280
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




5.
____ refers to any combination of hardware and software that enables access to remote users to a
local internal network.

    A) LDAP

    B) EAP

   C) RAS
Feedback: Reference page 284

    D) VPN

Feedback: Reference page 284
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
6.
____, such as using an OTP (what a person has) and a password (what a person knows),
enhances security, particularly if different types of authentication methods are used.

    A) Standard biometrics

    B) Federated identity management

    C) Cognitive biometrics

   D) Two-factor authentication
Feedback: Reference page 275

Feedback: Reference page 275
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




7.
____ is granting permission for admittance.

    A) Authentication

    B) Identification

   C) Authorization
Feedback: Reference page 267

    D) Access

Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
8.
____ is the presentation of credentials or identification, typically performed when logging on to a
system.

   A) Authentication
Feedback: Reference page 267

      B) Identification

      C) Authorization

      D) Access

Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




9.
The ____, sometimes called X.500 Lite, is a simpler subset of DAP.

      A) Kerberos

      B) RADIUS

      C) TACACS+

   D) LDAP
Feedback: Reference page 281

Feedback: Reference page 281
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




10.
A ____ fingerprint scanner requires the user to place the entire thumb or finger on a small oval
window on the scanner.

    A) cognitive

    B) dynamic

    C) physical

   D) static
Feedback: Reference page 270

Feedback: Reference page 270
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




11.
____ requires that a user present three different types of authentication credentials.

    A) Two-factor authentication

   B) Three-factor authentication
Feedback: Reference page 275

    C) Behavioral biometrics

    D) Cognitive biometrics

Feedback: Reference page 275
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




12.
____ is the verification of the credentials to ensure that they are genuine and not fabricated.

   A) Authentication
Feedback: Reference page 267
    B) Identification

    C) Authorization

    D) Access

Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




13.
____ time is the time it takes for a key to be pressed and then released.

    A) Hit

   B) Dwell
Feedback: Reference page 271

    C) Flight

    D) Type

Feedback: Reference page 271
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




14.
____ is a very basic authentication protocol that was used to authenticate a user to a remote
access server or to an Internet service provider (ISP).

    A) MS-CHAP

    B) EAP-MD5

    C) EAP-TLS
   D) PAP
Feedback: Reference page 283

Feedback: Reference page 283
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




15.
A ____ fingerprint scanner has a small slit or opening. Instead of placing the entire finger on the
scanner the finger is swiped across the opening.

    A) static

    B) cognitive

   C) dynamic
Feedback: Reference page 270

    D) physical

Feedback: Reference page 270
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




16.
____ is the right to use specific resources.

    A) Authentication

    B) Identification

    C) Authorization

   D) Access
Feedback: Reference page 267
Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




17.
There are several types of OTPs. The most common type is a ____ OTP.

   A) time-synchronized
Feedback: Reference page 268

    B) challenge-based

    C) token-based

    D) biometric-based

Feedback: Reference page 268
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




18.
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) created a standard for directory
services known as ____.

    A) X.400i

    B) X.459

   C) X.500
Feedback: Reference page 281

    D) X.589

Feedback: Reference page 281
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
19.
A(n) ____ uses an unsecured public network, such as the Internet, as if it were a secure private
network.

    A) RAS

   B) VPN
Feedback: Reference page 284

    C) EAP

    D) LDAP

Feedback: Reference page 284
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




20.
____ is a decentralized open source FIM that does not require specific software to be installed on
the desktop.

   A) OpenID
Feedback: Reference page 277

    B) Windows CardSpace

    C) .NET Passport

    D) Windows Live ID

Feedback: Reference page 277
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
 Continue




                               /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded       3.00
Points Missed       17.00
Percentage         15.0%



1.
Most communication in TCP/IP involves the exchange of information between a program
running on one device (known as a ____) and the same or a corresponding process running on
another device.

    A) port

    B) socket

   C) scanner
Feedback: Reference page 312

    D) process

Feedback: Reference page 312
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




2.
The ____ is the expected monetary loss every time a risk occurs.

    A) Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

   B) Exposure Factor (EF)
Feedback: Reference page 309

    C) Asset Value (AV)
    D) Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Feedback: Reference page 309
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




3.
Known as ____, this in effect takes a snapshot of the security of the organization as it now
stands.

   A) risk identification
Feedback: Reference page 308

    B) risk mitigation

    C) threat identification

    D) vulnerability appraisal

Feedback: Reference page 308
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




4.
____ is a generic term that refers to a range of products that look for vulnerabilities in networks
or systems.

    A) Port scanner

   B) Network mapper
Feedback: Reference page 317

    C) Ping

    D) Vulnerability scanner
Feedback: Reference page 317
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




5.
____ is a "common language" for the exchange of information regarding security vulnerabilities.

    A) XML

   B) OVAL
Feedback: Reference page 319

    C) SQL

    D) HTML

Feedback: Reference page 319
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




6.
Identifying vulnerabilities through a(n) ____ determines the current security weaknesses that
could expose assets to threats.

   A) asset identification
Feedback: Reference page 312

    B) threat identification

    C) vulnerability appraisal

    D) risk mitigation

Feedback: Reference page 312
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
7.
A(n) ____ port means that the host system does not reply to any inquiries to this port number.

    A) blocked

   B) closed
Feedback: Reference page 313

    C) open

    D) listening

Feedback: Reference page 313
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




8.
In a ____, the risk is spread over all of the members of the pool.

    A) retained risk

    B) risk retention pool

   C) joined risk
Feedback: Reference page 311

    D) cooperative risk

Feedback: Reference page 311
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
9.
The key feature of a protocol analyzer is that it places the computer's network interface card
(NIC) adapter into ____, meaning that NIC does not ignore packets intended for other systems
and shows all network traffic.

    A) promiscuous mode

    B) listening mode

   C) traffic mode
Feedback: Reference page 317

    D) sniffing mode

Feedback: Reference page 317
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




10.
A(n) ____ port means that the application or service assigned to that port is listening.

    A) open

    B) closed

   C) blocked
Feedback: Reference page 313

    D) listening

Feedback: Reference page 313
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




11.
____ are software tools that can identify all the systems connected to a network.
    A) Port scanners

   B) Network mappers
Feedback: Reference page 314

    C) ICMP mappers

    D) ICMP scanners

Feedback: Reference page 314
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




12.
A(n) ____ port indicates that no process is listening at this port.

    A) listening

   B) open
Feedback: Reference page 313

    C) closed

    D) blocked

Feedback: Reference page 313
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




13.
In information security, a ____ is the likelihood that a threat agent will exploit a vulnerability.

    A) hole

    B) threat
Feedback: Reference page 304

    C) risk

    D) weakness

Feedback: Reference page 304
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




14.
TCP/IP uses a numeric value as an identifier to applications and services on the systems. These
are known as the ____.

    A) process

   B) socket
Feedback: Reference page 312

    C) port number

    D) protocol

Feedback: Reference page 312
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




15.
____ provides support to IP in the form of ICMP messages that allow different types of
communication to occur between IP devices.

    A) SNMP

   B) SMTP
Feedback: Reference page 314

    C) HTTP
    D) ICMP

Feedback: Reference page 314
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




16.
____ generally denotes a potential negative impact to an asset.

    A) Risk

   B) Threat
Feedback: Reference page 304

    C) Weakness

    D) Vulnerability

Feedback: Reference page 304
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




17.
____ programs use the file of hashed passwords and then attempts to break the hashed
passwords offline.

   A) ICMP scanner
Feedback: Reference page 320

    B) Port scanner

    C) Password cracker

    D) Network mapper

Feedback: Reference page 320
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




18.
The goal of ____ is to better understand who the attackers are, why they attack, and what types
of attacks might occur.

    A) risk modeling

    B) threat modeling

   C) weakness modeling
Feedback: Reference page 306

    D) vulnerability modeling

Feedback: Reference page 306
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




19.
____ are typically used to determine the state of a port to know what applications are running
and could be exploited.

    A) Network scanners

   B) Port scanners
Feedback: Reference page 313

    C) Port testers

    D) Network testers

Feedback: Reference page 313
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
20.
The ____ is the expected monetary loss that can be expected for an asset due to a risk over a
one-year period.

    A) Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

   B) Exposure Factor (EF)
Feedback: Reference page 309

    C) Asset Value (AV)

    D) Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Feedback: Reference page 309
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D


 Continue




                                /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded         4.00
Points Missed        16.00
Percentage         20.0%



1.
____ logs can be used to determine whether new IP addresses are attempting to probe the
network and if stronger firewall rules are necessary to block them.

    A) Proxy servers

   B) Firewall
Feedback: Reference page 342
    C) Authentication servers

    D) DNS

Feedback: Reference page 342
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




2.
The Windows file and folder ____ permission allows files or folders to be opened as read-only
and to be copied.

    A) Write

    B) Read and Execute

   C) Modify
Feedback: Reference page 335

    D) Read

Feedback: Reference page 335
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




3.
A ____ baseline is a reference set of data established to create the "norm" of performance for a
system or systems.

   A) configuration
Feedback: Reference page 349

    B) performance

    C) system
    D) monitoring

Feedback: Reference page 349
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




4.
____ assigns a level of business importance, availability, sensitivity, security and regulation
requirements to data.

    A) Usage auditing

    B) Security auditing

   C) Usage classification
Feedback: Reference page 337

    D) Data classification

Feedback: Reference page 337
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




5.
Logs based on ____ are the second common type of security-related operating system logs.

    A) event records

   B) system events
Feedback: Reference page 344

    C) event logs

    D) audit records

Feedback: Reference page 344
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




6.
The Windows file and folder ____ permission allows the creation of files and folders, and
allows data to be added to or removed from files.

    A) Modify

    B) Read and Execute

    C) Write

   D) Read
Feedback: Reference page 335

Feedback: Reference page 335
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




7.
The ____ is typically defined as the person responsible for the information, who determines the
level of security needed for the data, and delegates security duties as required.

    A) guardian

   B) manager
Feedback: Reference page 333

    C) owner

    D) custodian

Feedback: Reference page 333
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
8.
____ monitoring compares activities against a predefined signature.

    A) Signature-based

    B) Anomaly-based

   C) Behavior-based
Feedback: Reference page 348

    D) Time-based

Feedback: Reference page 348
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




9.
____ refers to a methodology for making changes and keeping track of those changes, often
manually.

    A) Event auditing

   B) Event management
Feedback: Reference page 346

    C) Change management

    D) Log management

Feedback: Reference page 346
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
10.
____ are operational actions that are performed by the operating system, such as shutting down
the system or starting a service.

    A) System events

    B) System calls

    C) System functions

   D) System processes
Feedback: Reference page 343

Feedback: Reference page 343
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




11.
The Microsoft ____ infrastructure is a mechanism to centrally configure and secure a common
set of computer and user configurations and security settings to Windows servers, desktops, and
users in an AD.

   A) Security Template
Feedback: Reference page 336

    B) Baseline

    C) Auditing

    D) Group Policy

Feedback: Reference page 336
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
12.
____ is the process of assigning and revoking privileges to objects; that is, it covers the
procedures of managing object authorizations.

    A) Privilege assignment

    B) Privilege management

   C) Privilege auditing
Feedback: Reference page 333

    D) Privilege configuration

Feedback: Reference page 333
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




13.
____ monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.

    A) Signature-based

   B) Behavior-based
Feedback: Reference page 348

    C) Time-based

    D) Anomaly-based

Feedback: Reference page 348
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




14.
____ means permissions given to a higher level "parent" will also be inherited by a lower level
"child."
    A) Delegation

    B) Inheritance

   C) Transition
Feedback: Reference page 339

    D) Classification

Feedback: Reference page 339
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




15.
ILM strategies are typically recorded in ____ policies.

    A) user security

   B) storage and retention
Feedback: Reference page 337

    C) data confidentiality

    D) group

Feedback: Reference page 337
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




16.
____ servers are intermediate hosts through which Web sites are accessed.

    A) NIDS

    B) Authentication
   C) Proxy
Feedback: Reference page 342

    D) HIPS

Feedback: Reference page 342
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




17.
The ____ is the individual to whom day-to-day actions have been assigned by the owner and
who periodically reviews security settings and maintains records of access by end users.

    A) custodian

    B) guardian

    C) manager

   D) owner
Feedback: Reference page 333

Feedback: Reference page 333
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




18.
____ is part of the pre-trial phase of a lawsuit in which each party through the law of civil
procedure can request documents and other evidence from other parties or can compel the
production of evidence by using a subpoena.

   A) Discovery
Feedback: Reference page 337

    B) Interrogation
    C) Interview

    D) Retention

Feedback: Reference page 337
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




19.
____ is the process for generating, transmitting, storing, analyzing, and disposing of computer
security log data.

    A) Log management

    B) Log auditing

   C) Event management
Feedback: Reference page 340

    D) Event auditing

Feedback: Reference page 340
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




20.
A(n) ____ is an occurrence within a software system that is communicated to users or other
programs outside the operating system.

    A) thread

   B) entry
Feedback: Reference page 343

    C) event
    D) call

Feedback: Reference page 343
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C


 Continue




                                /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded        4.00
Points Missed        16.00
Percentage          20.0%



1.
____, also called a one-way hash, is a process for creating a unique "signature" for a set of data.

    A) Digital signing

   B) Decrypting
Feedback: Reference page 371

    C) Hashing

    D) Encrypting

Feedback: Reference page 371
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




2.
A ____ cipher manipulates an entire block of plaintext at one time.
    A) substitution

    B) block

   C) stream
Feedback: Reference page 378

    D) transposition

Feedback: Reference page 378
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




3.
The simplest type of stream cipher is a ____ cipher. It simply substitutes one letter or character
for another.

   A) transposition
Feedback: Reference page 376

    B) substitution

    C) permutation

    D) homoalphabetic

Feedback: Reference page 376
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




4.
Data that is in an unencrypted form is called ____ data.
    A) plaintext

    B) caesartext

   C) hidetext
Feedback: Reference page 368

    D) cleartext

Feedback: Reference page 368
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




5.
The asymmetric algorithm ____ was published in 1977 and patented by MIT in 1983.

    A) AES

    B) Diffie-Hellman

    C) SHA

   D) RSA
Feedback: Reference page 385

Feedback: Reference page 385
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




6.
____ encryption uses two keys instead of one. These keys are mathematically related and are
known as the public key and the private key.
    A) Asymmetric

    B) Symmetric

    C) Private

    D) Open

Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




7.
A ____ substitution cipher maps a single plaintext character to multiple ciphertext characters.

    A) polyalphabetic

    B) monoalphabetic

    C) homoalphabetic

   D) random
Feedback: Reference page 376

Feedback: Reference page 376
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




8.
Changing the original text to a secret message using cryptography is known as ____.

    A) encryption

   B) decryption
Feedback: Reference page 368
    C) ciphertext

    D) cleartext

Feedback: Reference page 368
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




9.
Symmetric encryption is also called ____ key cryptography.

    A) open

   B) close
Feedback: Reference page 375

    C) public

    D) private

Feedback: Reference page 375
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




10.
A similar program known as ____ is a PGP open-source product.

    A) FreePGP

    B) GPG

   C) PGPx
Feedback: Reference page 386

    D) PGPnix
Feedback: Reference page 386
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




11.
____ was approved by the NIST in late 2000 as a replacement for DES.

   A) AES
Feedback: Reference page 380

    B) 3DES

    C) Twofish

    D) Blowfish

Feedback: Reference page 380
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




12.
____ is a relatively recent cryptographic hash function that has received international recognition
and adoption by standards organizations.

    A) MD5

   B) Whirlpool
Feedback: Reference page 374

    C) SHA-1

    D) MD2

Feedback: Reference page 374
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
13.
The ____ algorithm dates back to the early 1990s and is used in European nations.

    A) Blowfish

   B) Twofish
Feedback: Reference page 381

    C) RC4

    D) IDEA

Feedback: Reference page 381
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




14.
Cryptography can also be applied to entire disks. This is known as ____ encryption.

    A) symmetric

   B) whole disk
Feedback: Reference page 387

    C) file system

    D) EFS

Feedback: Reference page 387
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
15.
The strength of the ____ algorithm is that it allows two users to share a secret key securely over
a public network.

   A) DES
Feedback: Reference page 385

    B) RSA

    C) Diffie-Hellman

    D) AES

Feedback: Reference page 385
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




16.
____ is a hardware-enabled data encryption feature.

    A) BitLocker

    B) EFS

    C) AES

   D) DES
Feedback: Reference page 387

Feedback: Reference page 387
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




17.
A ____ cipher rearranges letters without changing them.
    A) transposition

    B) monoalphabetic

   C) substitution
Feedback: Reference page 377

    D) homoalphabetic

Feedback: Reference page 377
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




18.
____ is a block cipher that processes blocks of 64 bits.

    A) SHA-1

   B) RC4
Feedback: Reference page 381

    C) RC2

    D) MD5

Feedback: Reference page 381
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




19.
Microsoft's ____ is a cryptography system for Windows operating systems that use the Windows
NTFS file system.
    A) GPG

   B) AES
Feedback: Reference page 386

    C) PGP

    D) EFS

Feedback: Reference page 386
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




20.
To protect data stored on a hard drive, Microsoft Windows Vista includes ____ drive encryption.

    A) IDEA

   B) TPM
Feedback: Reference page 387

    C) BitLocker

    D) AES

Feedback: Reference page 387
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C


 Continue




                               /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded       5.00
Points Missed         15.00
Percentage          25.0%



1.
____ is the most widely deployed tunneling protocol.

    A) SSL

    B) PPTP

    C) TLS

   D) NAS
Feedback: Reference page 423

Feedback: Reference page 423
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




2.
____ is actually a suite of three utilities-slogin, scp, and ssh-that are secure versions of the
unsecure UNIX counterpart utilities rlogin, rcp, and rsh.

    A) SSH

    B) TLS

   C) SSL
Feedback: Reference page 421

    D) SFTP

Feedback: Reference page 421
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
3.
Some organizations set up a subordinate entity, called a ____, to handle some CA tasks such as
processing certificate requests and authenticating users.

    A) Remote Authority (RA)

   B) Delegation Authority (DA)
Feedback: Reference page 403

    C) Registration Authority (RA)

    D) Handle Authority (HA)

Feedback: Reference page 403
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




4.
The TLS ____ Protocol is used to encapsulate higher-level protocols.

    A) Packing

    B) Handshake

    C) Transport

   D) Record
Feedback: Reference page 421

Feedback: Reference page 421
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




5.
The ____ trust model is the basis for digital certificates issued by Internet users.
    A) distributed

   B) hierarchical
Feedback: Reference page 414

    C) direct

    D) web of

Feedback: Reference page 414
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




6.
____ digital certificates are often issued from a Web server to a client, although they can be
distributed by any type of server, such as a mail server.

    A) Software publisher

   B) Server
Feedback: Reference page 405

    C) Personal

    D) Organizational

Feedback: Reference page 405
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




7.
One variation of PPP that is used by broadband Internet providers with DSL or cable modem
connections is ____.

   A) TLS
Feedback: Reference page 423
    B) LCP

    C) PPPoE

    D) PPTP

Feedback: Reference page 423
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




8.
The ____ trust model assigns a single hierarchy with one master CA called the root.

    A) web of

   B) hierarchical
Feedback: Reference page 413

    C) direct

    D) third party

Feedback: Reference page 413
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




9.
The ____ trust model has multiple CAs that sign digital certificates.

    A) direct

    B) web of

   C) distributed
Feedback: Reference page 414
    D) hierarchical

Feedback: Reference page 414
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




10.
____ is a protocol that guarantees privacy and data integrity between applications
communicating over the Internet.

    A) FTP

    B) TLS

   C) HTTP
Feedback: Reference page 421

    D) CRL

Feedback: Reference page 421
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




11.
The TLS ____ Protocol allows authentication between the server and the client and the
negotiation of an encryption algorithm and cryptographic keys before any actual data is
transmitted.

    A) Handshake

    B) Record

    C) Transport

   D) Packing
Feedback: Reference page 421
Feedback: Reference page 421
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




12.
A ____ describes in detail how the CA uses and manages certificates.

   A) CA policy
Feedback: Reference page 417

    B) certificate policy

    C) baseline policy

    D) certificate practice statement

Feedback: Reference page 417
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




13.
____ digital certificates are issued by a CA or RA directly to individuals.

    A) Server

    B) Software publisher

   C) Single-sided
Feedback: Reference page 405

    D) Personal

Feedback: Reference page 405
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
14.
In one type of trust model, ____ trust, a relationship exists between two individuals because one
person knows the other person.

    A) indirect

   B) third party
Feedback: Reference page 413

    C) discrete

    D) direct

Feedback: Reference page 413
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




15.
The ____ provides recommended baseline security requirements for the use and operation of CA,
RA, and other PKI components.

    A) certificate practice statement

   B) certificate policy
Feedback: Reference page 416

    C) baseline policy

    D) CA policy

Feedback: Reference page 416
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
16.
With the ____ trust model, there is one CA that acts as a "facilitator" to interconnect all other
CAs.

      A) web of

   B) distributed
Feedback: Reference page 415

      C) bridge

      D) hierarchical

Feedback: Reference page 415
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




17.
A(n) ____ trust refers to a situation in which two individuals trust each other because each trusts
a third party.

      A) third party

   B) direct
Feedback: Reference page 413

      C) indirect

      D) discrete

Feedback: Reference page 413
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




18.
____ refers to a situation in which keys are managed by a third party, such as a trusted CA.

    A) Expiration

    B) Renewal

    C) Key escrow

   D) Revocation
Feedback: Reference page 418

Feedback: Reference page 418
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




19.
____ is used to connect to an FTP server, much in the same way that HTTP links to a Web server.

    A) SSH

    B) PKCS

   C) SSL
Feedback: Reference page 420

    D) FTP

Feedback: Reference page 420
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




20.
When Bob sends one digital certificate to Alice along with his message, that is known as a ____
certificate.
    A) single-sided

   B) software publisher
Feedback: Reference page 407

    C) dual-sided

    D) server

Feedback: Reference page 407
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A


 Continue




                                /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded         8.00
Points Missed         12.00
Percentage            40.0%



1.
Disk ____ involves connecting multiple drives in the server to the same disk controller card.

    A) segmenting

    B) stripping

   C) mirroring
Feedback: Reference page 449

    D) duplexing

Feedback: Reference page 449
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
2.
The ____ is simply the length of time it will take to recover the data that has been backed up.

    A) D2D2T

   B) RPO
Feedback: Reference page 458

    C) RTO

    D) D2D

Feedback: Reference page 458
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




3.
A ____ site is generally run by a commercial disaster recovery service that allows a business to
continue computer and network operations to maintain business continuity.

    A) hot

   B) warm
Feedback: Reference page 452

    C) cold

    D) cool

Feedback: Reference page 452
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
4.
A Class ____ fire includes common combustibles.

     A) A

   B) B
Feedback: Reference page 443

     C) C

     D) D

Feedback: Reference page 443
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




5.
Instead of having a single disk controller card that is attached to all hard drives, disk ____ has
separate cards for each disk.

   A) duplexing
Feedback: Reference page 449

     B) segmenting

     C) mirroring

     D) stripping

Feedback: Reference page 449
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




6.
A system of hard drives based on redundancy can be achieved through using a technology known
as ____, which uses multiple hard disk drives for increased reliability and performance.

    A) MTBF

    B) VPN

    C) ESD

   D) RAID
Feedback: Reference page 448

Feedback: Reference page 448
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




7.
An alternative to using magnetic tape is to back up to magnetic disk, such as a large hard drive or
RAID configuration. This is known as ____.

   A) RTO
Feedback: Reference page 458

    B) RPO

    C) D2D2T

    D) D2D

Feedback: Reference page 458
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




8.
____ fire suppression systems do not harm people, documents, or electrical equipment in the
room.
    A) Water sprinkler

    B) Clean sprinkler

   C) Clean agent
Feedback: Reference page 443

    D) Dry chemical

Feedback: Reference page 443
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




9.
A(n) ____ UPS is always running off its battery while the main power runs the battery charger.

    A) battery

    B) on-line

   C) off-line
Feedback: Reference page 451

    D) mirroring

Feedback: Reference page 451
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




10.
A ____ site has all of the equipment installed but does not have active Internet or
telecommunications facilities, and does not have current backups of data.
    A) cold

    B) hot

   C) cool
Feedback: Reference page 452

    D) warm

Feedback: Reference page 452
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




11.
____ partitions the storage space of each hard drive into smaller sections, which can be as small
as 512 bytes or as large as several megabytes.

   A) Striping
Feedback: Reference page 448

    B) Mirroring

    C) Duplexing

    D) Segmenting

Feedback: Reference page 448
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




12.
____ systems spray the fire area with pressurized water.
    A) Dry chemical

   B) Water sprinkler
Feedback: Reference page 443

    C) Chemical agent

    D) Clean agent

Feedback: Reference page 443
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




13.
A solution that combines the best of magnetic tape and magnetic disk is ____. This technology
uses the magnetic disk as a temporary storage area.

    A) D2D

    B) D2D2T

    C) RTO

   D) RPO
Feedback: Reference page 458

Feedback: Reference page 458
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




14.
In a(n) ____ server cluster, a standby server exists only to take over for another server in the
event of its failure.
    A) network

   B) asymmetric
Feedback: Reference page 447

    C) redundant

    D) symmetric

Feedback: Reference page 447
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




15.
A ____ site provides office space but the customer must provide and install all the equipment
needed to continue operations.

    A) cool

    B) cold

   C) warm
Feedback: Reference page 452

    D) hot

Feedback: Reference page 452
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




16.
RAID Level 5 distributes ____ data (a type of error checking) across all drives instead of using a
separate drive to hold the parity error checking information.
    A) mirroring

    B) stripping

   C) segmenting
Feedback: Reference page 449

    D) parity

Feedback: Reference page 449
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




17.
The ____ is defined as the maximum length of time that an organization can tolerate between
backups.

    A) RPO

   B) RTO
Feedback: Reference page 457

    C) D2D

    D) D2D2T

Feedback: Reference page 457
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




18.
Backup software can internally designate which files have already been backed up by setting a(n)
____ in the properties of the file.
    A) archive sector

    B) backup bit

   C) archive bit
Feedback: Reference page 455

    D) backup sector

Feedback: Reference page 455
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




19.
____ systems disperse a fine, dry powder over the fire.

    A) Clean agent

   B) Clean chemical
Feedback: Reference page 443

    C) Water sprinkler

    D) Dry chemical

Feedback: Reference page 443
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




20.
In a(n) ____ server cluster, every server in the cluster performs useful work. If one server fails,
the remaining servers continue to perform their normal work as well as that of the failed server.

   A) asymmetric
Feedback: Reference page 447
    B) redundant

    C) symmetric

    D) network

Feedback: Reference page 447
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C


 Continue




                                 /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded        6.00
Points Missed       14.00
Percentage         30.0%



1.
A ____ policy is designed to produce a standardized framework for classifying information
assets.

    A) classification of information

    B) change management

    C) service level agreement

   D) disposal and destruction
Feedback: Reference page 490

Feedback: Reference page 490
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
2.
____ are values that are attributed to a system of beliefs that help the individual distinguish right
from wrong.

   A) Ethics
Feedback: Reference page 491

    B) Morals

    C) Codes

    D) Norms

Feedback: Reference page 491
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




3.
A ____ is a document that outlines specific requirements or rules that must be met.

    A) standard

   B) policy
Feedback: Reference page 481

    C) guideline

    D) recommendation

Feedback: Reference page 481
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
4.
A ____ is a collection of suggestions that should be implemented.

    A) guideline

    B) recommendation

   C) policy
Feedback: Reference page 481

    D) standard

Feedback: Reference page 481
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




5.
____ takes a snapshot of the security of the organization as it now stands.

    A) Risk mitigation

   B) Vulnerability appraisal
Feedback: Reference page 482

    C) Risk assessment

    D) Threat identification

Feedback: Reference page 482
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




6.
A ____ is a collection of requirements specific to the system or procedure that must be met by
everyone.
    A) recommendation

    B) guideline

   C) standard
Feedback: Reference page 481

    D) policy

Feedback: Reference page 481
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




7.
____ involves determining the damage that would result from an attack and the likelihood that
the vulnerability is a risk to the organization.

   A) Risk assessment
Feedback: Reference page 482

    B) Risk mitigation

    C) Vulnerability appraisal

    D) Asset identification

Feedback: Reference page 482
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




8.
A(n) ____ policy defines requirements for storing and retrieving database usernames and
passwords.
    A) analog line

   B) dial-in access
Feedback: Reference page 485

    C) e-mail retention

    D) database credentials coding

Feedback: Reference page 485
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




9.
A(n) ____ policy establishes requirements for Remote Access IPSec or L2TP Virtual Private
Network (VPN) connections to the organization's network.

    A) extranet

    B) server security

   C) VPN security
Feedback: Reference page 485

    D) demilitarized zone security

Feedback: Reference page 485
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




10.
Most organizations have a ____ policy that addresses the disposal of resources that are
considered confidential.

   A) security-related human resource
Feedback: Reference page 489
    B) password management and complexity

    C) disposal and destruction

    D) personally identifiable information

Feedback: Reference page 489
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




11.
____ are a person's fundamental beliefs and principles used to define what is good, right, and
just.

   A) Norms
Feedback: Reference page 491

    B) Morals

    C) Values

    D) Ethics

Feedback: Reference page 491
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




12.
One of the most common forms of social engineering is ____, or sending an e-mail or displaying
a Web announcement that falsely claims to be from a legitimate enterprise in an attempt to trick
the user into surrendering private information.

    A) dumpster diving

    B) phishing
   C) computer hoax
Feedback: Reference page 494

    D) pharming

Feedback: Reference page 494
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




13.
A(n) ____ policy establishes guidelines for effectively reducing the threat of computer viruses on
the organization's network and computers.

    A) acceptable encryption

    B) dial-in access

    C) automated forwarded e-mail

   D) anti-virus
Feedback: Reference page 485

Feedback: Reference page 485
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




14.
At its core, a(n) ____ policy is a document that outlines the protections that should be enacted to
ensure that the organization's assets face minimal risks.

   A) safety
Feedback: Reference page 479

    B) acceptable use

    C) change management
    D) security

Feedback: Reference page 479
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




15.
Many organizations have a ____ policy that outlines how the organization uses personal
information it collects.

    A) security-related human resource

    B) password management and complexity

   C) disposal and destruction
Feedback: Reference page 488

    D) personally identifiable information

Feedback: Reference page 488
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




16.
____ can be defined as the study of what a group of people understand to be good and right
behavior and how people make those judgments.

    A) Ethics

    B) Codes

    C) Values

   D) Morals
Feedback: Reference page 491
Feedback: Reference page 491
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




17.
A(n) ____ policy helps employees determine what information sent or received by e-mail should
be retained and for how long.

    A) e-mail retention

   B) extranet
Feedback: Reference page 485

    C) router security

    D) information sensitivity

Feedback: Reference page 485
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




18.
____ refers to a methodology for making changes and keeping track of those changes, often
manually.

   A) Classification of information
Feedback: Reference page 490

    B) Change management

    C) Destruction and disposal

    D) Service level agreement

Feedback: Reference page 490
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




19.
A(n) ____ policy outlines the requirements and provides the authority for an information security
team to conduct audits and risk assessments, investigate incidents, to ensure conformance to
security policies, or to monitor user activity.

    A) database credentials coding

    B) audit vulnerability scanning

   C) automatically forwarded e-mail
Feedback: Reference page 485

    D) analog line

Feedback: Reference page 485
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




20.
____ determines the items that have a positive economic value and may include data, hardware,
personnel, physical assets, and software.

    A) Risk assessment

   B) Threat identification
Feedback: Reference page 482

    C) Asset identification

    D) Vulnerability appraisal

Feedback: Reference page 482
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
 Continue




                                /w EPDw ULLTEw


Points Awarded       19.00
Points Missed         1.00
Percentage          95.0%



1.
____ is a feature of Windows that is intended to provide users with control of their digital
identities while helping them to manage privacy.

    A) FMI

    B) Windows Live ID

   C) Windows CardSpace
Feedback: Reference page 276

    D) OpenID

Feedback: Reference page 276
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




2.
The management protocol of IEEE 802.1x that governs the interaction between the system,
authenticator, and RADIUS server is known as the ____.

   A) EAP
Feedback: Reference page 282

    B) LDAP

    C) X.500
    D) TACACS+

Feedback: Reference page 282
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




3.
____ is an industry standard protocol specification that forwards username and password
information to a centralized server.

   A) TACACS+
Feedback: Reference page 280

    B) LDAP

    C) RADIUS

    D) Kerberos

Feedback: Reference page 280
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




4.
____ is an authentication system developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
and used to verify the identity of networked users.

    A) RADIUS

   B) Kerberos
Feedback: Reference page 280

    C) TACACS+

    D) LDAP
Feedback: Reference page 280
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




5.
____ refers to any combination of hardware and software that enables access to remote users to a
local internal network.

    A) LDAP

    B) EAP

   C) RAS
Feedback: Reference page 284

    D) VPN

Feedback: Reference page 284
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




6.
____, such as using an OTP (what a person has) and a password (what a person knows),
enhances security, particularly if different types of authentication methods are used.

    A) Standard biometrics

    B) Federated identity management

    C) Cognitive biometrics

   D) Two-factor authentication
Feedback: Reference page 275

Feedback: Reference page 275
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




7.
____ is granting permission for admittance.

    A) Authentication

    B) Identification

   C) Authorization
Feedback: Reference page 267

    D) Access

Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




8.
____ is the presentation of credentials or identification, typically performed when logging on to a
system.

   A) Authentication
Feedback: Reference page 267

    B) Identification

    C) Authorization

    D) Access

Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
9.
The ____, sometimes called X.500 Lite, is a simpler subset of DAP.

    A) Kerberos

    B) RADIUS

    C) TACACS+

   D) LDAP
Feedback: Reference page 281

Feedback: Reference page 281
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




10.
A ____ fingerprint scanner requires the user to place the entire thumb or finger on a small oval
window on the scanner.

    A) cognitive

    B) dynamic

    C) physical

   D) static
Feedback: Reference page 270

Feedback: Reference page 270
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




11.
____ requires that a user present three different types of authentication credentials.
    A) Two-factor authentication

   B) Three-factor authentication
Feedback: Reference page 275

    C) Behavioral biometrics

    D) Cognitive biometrics

Feedback: Reference page 275
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




12.
____ is the verification of the credentials to ensure that they are genuine and not fabricated.

   A) Authentication
Feedback: Reference page 267

    B) Identification

    C) Authorization

    D) Access

Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




13.
____ time is the time it takes for a key to be pressed and then released.

    A) Hit

    B) Dwell
Feedback: Reference page 271

    C) Flight

    D) Type

Feedback: Reference page 271
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B




14.
____ is a very basic authentication protocol that was used to authenticate a user to a remote
access server or to an Internet service provider (ISP).

    A) MS-CHAP

    B) EAP-MD5

    C) EAP-TLS

   D) PAP
Feedback: Reference page 283

Feedback: Reference page 283
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




15.
A ____ fingerprint scanner has a small slit or opening. Instead of placing the entire finger on the
scanner the finger is swiped across the opening.

    A) static

    B) cognitive

   C) dynamic
Feedback: Reference page 270
    D) physical

Feedback: Reference page 270
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




16.
____ is the right to use specific resources.

    A) Authentication

    B) Identification

    C) Authorization

   D) Access
Feedback: Reference page 267

Feedback: Reference page 267
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D




17.
There are several types of OTPs. The most common type is a ____ OTP.

   A) time-synchronized
Feedback: Reference page 268

    B) challenge-based

    C) token-based

    D) biometric-based

Feedback: Reference page 268
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A




18.
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) created a standard for directory
services known as ____.

    A) X.400i

    B) X.459

   C) X.500
Feedback: Reference page 281

    D) X.589

Feedback: Reference page 281
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C




19.
A(n) ____ uses an unsecured public network, such as the Internet, as if it were a secure private
network.

    A) RAS

   B) VPN
Feedback: Reference page 284

    C) EAP

    D) LDAP

Feedback: Reference page 284
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
20.
____ is a decentralized open source FIM that does not require specific software to be installed on
the desktop.

   A) OpenID
Feedback: Reference page 277

    B) Windows CardSpace

    C) .NET Passport

    D) Windows Live ID

Feedback: Reference page 277
Points Earned:     1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A


 Continue

				
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