ISTQB Model Paper

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                   ISTQB Model Paper
1) The concept ‘Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built
is unusable manner’, belongs to which testing principle?
a) Early Testing
b) Testing shows presence of defects
c) Absence-of-errors fallacy
d) Pesticide paradox

2) Analyzing lessons learned for future releases and projects, and the
   improvement of test maturity, are a part of which phase?
     a) Test Implementation and execution
     b) Test Analysis and Design
     c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
     d) Test Closure Activities

3) When we do Incident reporting?
    a) During test planning
    b) During test execution
    c) Throughout the life cycle
    d) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting

4) Test Approach is
a) A high level description of the test levels to be performed and the testing with in
those levels for an organization.
b) The implementation of the test strategy for a specific project.
c) A document describing the scope, approach, resources and schedule of intended
test activities?
d) A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of
the organization regarding testing.

5) Regression testing mainly helps in
a. Retesting fixed defects
b. Checking for side-effects of fixes
c. Checking the core gaps
d. Ensuring high level sanity

6) Test data planning essentially includes
a. Network
b. Operational Model
c. Boundary value analysis
d. Test Procedure Planning

7) Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations?
1. Severe time pressure
2. Inadequate specification

a. Decision testing
b. Error guessing
c. statement testing
d. Exploratory testing

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8) Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test
principles apply across the test life cycle?
 a) Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
b) Test principles only affect test execution activities.
c) Test principles affect the early test activities such as review
d) Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.

9) Which of the following is not a non-functional test?
a) Performance testing
b) Interoperability testing
c) Usability testing
d) Portability testing

10) In a Preventative approach to testing when would you expect the bulk
of the test design work to be begun?
a) After the software or system has been produced.
b) During development.
c) As early as possible.
d) During requirements analysis.

11) The standard that         gives    Software   Verification   and   Validation   -
      a) ISO/IEC 12207
      b) BS 7925-1
      c) IEEE 1012-1998
      d) ANSI/IEEE 729

12) Cyclomatic Complexity is
a) The number of links in a program
b) The number of decision points through a program
c) The number of independent paths through a program
d) The number of nodes in a program

13) Which of the following is not an interactive-incremental model?
a) Prototyping model
b) RAD model
c) Agile model
d) „V‟ model

14) N-switch testing is a form of
a) Equivalence class partition
b) Boundary value analysis
c) State transition testing
d) Decision table testing

15) COTS is known as
a) Compliance of the software
b) Change control of the software
c) Commercial off the shelf software
d) Capable off the shelf software

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16) From the below pseudo code , calculate the MINIMUM number of test
cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for
decision coverage respectively.

    READ X
    READ Y
    Print „X is a big number‟
    Print „Y is a big number‟

          a) SC=3, DC=3.
          b) SC=2, DC=2.
          c) SC=1, DC=2.
          d) SC=2, DC=1.

17) Which of the following is Key Characteristics of Inspection?
a) Pair programming or a technical lead review
b) Scenarios, dry runs, peer group
c) Open-ended sessions
d) Includes Metrics

18) Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to
support testing?

1 over reliance on the tools 2 greater consistency and repeatability
3 objective assessment       4 unrealistic expectations
5 underestimating the effort require maintaining the test assets generated by the
6 ease of access to information about tests or testing
7 repetitive work is reduced

a) Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
b) Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7. Risks: 4, 5 and 6
c) Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
d) Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7

19) Which of the following tools would you use to identify time
dependencies and identify pointer arithmetic errors?
a. Static analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis

20) Which of the following is true about Informal Review?
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. Pair programming or a technical lead review
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main objective is to find defects

a) ii is true and i, iii, iv are false
b) i, iii, iv are true and ii is false

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c) i, iii, iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and I, ii, iv are false

21) Which of the following test activities is supported by Static analysis
a) The enforcement of coding standards
b) Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure
c) Test specification and design
d) Manipulate the tests using scripting language

22) Which is not a test Oracle
a) The existing system
b) The code
c) Individual‟s knowledge
d) User manual

23) V-Model is:
a) A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
b) The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
c) A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance
d) A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with
software development phases

24) Which of the following factor is Not important in selecting a tool?
a) Proof-of-concept to see whether the product works as desired and meets the
requirements and objectives defined for it
b) Identification of the areas within the organization where tool support will help to
improve testing process
c) Cost of the tool
d) Identifying and planning internal implementation

25) Generally when we choose the configuration management procedures
and infrastructure?
a) During Test analysis
b) During Test planning
c) During Test strategy preparation
d) During Test Execution

26) Which of the following test activities comes under Test Monitoring?
a) Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objective of testing
b) Setting the level of detail for test procedures in order to provide enough
information to support reproducible test preparation and execution.
c) Residual risks, such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
d) Test coverage of requirements, risks or code

27) Which one is not the task of test leader?
a) Write or review a test strategy for the project, and test policy for the organization
b) Set up adequate configuration management of testware for traceability.
c) Set up the test environment (often coordinating with system administration and
network management).
d) Decide about the implementation of the test environment.

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28) Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO 9001
c) record of changes to documentation over time
d) controlled library access

29) Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
        i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test
        tool on the project.
        ii. Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how
        iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
        iv. Create the Test Specifications

          a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
          b) ii, iii, iv is true and i is false
          c) i is true and ii, iii, iv are false
          d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are false

30) Data flow analysis studies:
a) Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
c) The use of data on paths through the code.
d) The intrinsic complexity of the code.
b) The rate of change of data values as a program executes.

31) Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: “What type of room do you want, single or double?”
      IF the customer replies „single‟
              Say: “only one single room is available”
              Say: “single rooms are not available”
              Say: “only double rooms are available at this movement”

Now decide the minimum number of tests required to cover all statements in the

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

32) Which of the following techniques is not considered to be White-box?
a) LCSAJ testing
b) Syntax testing
c) Arc testing
d) Statement testing

33) Which of the following is not performed in component testing?
a) Functional testing
b) Structural testing
c) Stress testing

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d) Robustness testing

34) Which test design technique is useful, if our system requirement
contains logical condition?
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) Decision table testing
c) Boundary value analysis
d) State transition testing

35) Manual Test script is also called?
a) Test approach
b) Test case specification
c) Test procedure specification
d) Test batch

36) Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Product risks are more important than project risks
b) Risks are prioritized on the basis of likelihood and impact
c) Project risks are more important than Product risks
d) All risks are equally important

37) What is the most important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
a) Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to find defects
b) Because risk-based testing is the most efficient way to show value
c) Because testing every thing is not feasible
d) Because software is inherently risky

38) Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
a) The size of risk of any change(s) to the system
b) Defects found at the last regression test run
c) The coverage of the current regression pack
d) The time since the last change was made to the system

39) Which of the following is not a drawback of Independent testing team?
a) Isolation from the development team (if treated as totally independent).
b) Independent testers may be the bottleneck as the last checkpoint.
c) Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.
d) Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

40) Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

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Description: ISTQB Model Paper for software testers