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Bank Related Question Paper

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Bank Related Question Paper

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									SBI Bank Clerk Previous Year Solved Question Paper (2007)
(General Awareness) 1.Who amongst the following cricketers became the ninth indian to claim 150 or more wickets? (a) A.Kumble (b) A.Agarkar

(c) S.Tendulkar
(d) Harbhajan Singh (e) None of these Ans (c) 2. Who amongst the following returned to earth after a lomg 195 days stay in space ? (a) Angei Brewer (b) Mike Leinbach (c) Shruti Vadera (d) Sunita Williams (e) None of these Ans(d) 3. Japan PM shinzo Abe came to office last year with huge support in his favour. But since last few months he is facing problems in his political survival. Which ofthe following actions taken by him does / do not enjoy support of the people of Japan (Pick up the correctstatement) ? 1. Decision to postpone parliament elections. 2. Falling to control inflation which has gone to the level of 12% an unusual phenomenon in the history of Japan . 3. Decision to allow USA to make an army Base in some of its Islands where USA will have its nuclear war-heads (a) Only 2 (b) Only 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Only 3 (e) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans(c) 4. European leaders agree on traty was the news in leading news paper in recent past . Which of the following was the treaty on which leadres were of diverse views (Pick up the correct statement) ? 1. The treaty was to make the EURO money a universal currency for all financial / monetary transaction done by all the member countries w.e.f. April 2009. 2. Treaty was to defunct constitution of the Eropean Union by a new one. 3. Poland one of the newest members of the union was threatening to use its

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veto power if any change is done in the present set up of the organization. (a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 (e) Both 2 and 3 Ans(b) 5. “Rajpaksha threatens to resolve Lanka parliament” was the news in leading newspaper a few days back . Which of the following was the reason owing to which president threatens to take a drastic step ? (pick up the correct statements). 1. A number of MPs from Sri Lanka Freedom party defecting to join another party launched by another group of politicians. 2. A group of politicians under the leadership of former president Chandrika Kumartunga demanding the postponement of elctions for the post of president due in the month of November 2007 so that Chandrika can came back from exile and contest for the same. 3. Rajapaksha wants general public and also MPs to support his formula on peace with LTTE which is not accepatble to most of the MPs. (a) All 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 (e) Only 1 Ans(a) 6. Madhesi national liberation front (MNLF) is an organixation active in which of the following countries ? (a) Pakistan (b) Myanmar (c) Uganda (d) Iran (e) Nepal Ans(e) 7. As per the Economic survey 2006-07 the food grain production may not touch the target fixed for the year. What is the target of the same set for the period? (a) 100 million tonnes (b) 220 million tonnes (c) 175 million tonnes (d) 250 million tonnes (e) 320 million tonnes Ans(b) 8. Which of the following sector banks brought its equity share (follow on

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public issue) for the price was set as Rs. 940 per equity ? (a) ICICI Bank (b) Karnataka Bank (c) UTI Bank (d) HDFC Bank (e) None of these Ans(a) 9. Prime minister of India recently unveiled an agricultural package during his visit to 53rd meeting of the National Development Concil. What is the size of the package > (a) Rs. 10,000 Crores (b) Rs. 1s,000 Crores (c) Rs. 20,000 Crores (d) Rs. 25,000 Crores (e) Rs. 30,000 Crores Ans(d) 10. Which of the following States achieved 100% financial inclusion (each and every family in the state has atleast one bank account). ? (a) Delhi (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala (e) None of these Ans(d) Some Other Questions And Answers:1. Which of the following Departments of the Govt. of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the bank ? (A) Railways (B) State Road Transpots (C) Post and Telegraph (D) Ministry of Health (E) None of these Ans (E) 2. Which of the following organization/agencies has established a fund known as ” investor production fund” ? (A) SEBI (B) NABARD (C) Bombay stock exchange (D) AMFI (E)None of these Ans (C) 3.Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present ? (A) Mr. M.V.Kamath (B) Mr. Y.V.Reddy (C) Mr. N.R.Narayanmurthy (D) Mr.O.P.Bhatt

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(E)None of these Ans (B) 4. Majority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit needs ? (A) Money lenders (B) Foreign Bankers (C) NABARD (D) RBI (E) None of these Ans (A) 5. india has different categories of commercial banks.Which of the following is NOT one such categories ? (A) Private Banks (B) Commodities Banks (C) Nationalized Banks (D) Cooperative Banks (E) Foreign Banks Ans (B) 6.Which of the following types of Banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ? (1) Foreign Banks (2) Regional Rural Banks (3) Nationalized Banks (A) Only i (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2and 3 (E) None of these Ans (C) 7. Which of the following countries does not play International Cricket ? (A) Russia (B) England (C) South Africa (D) Pakistan (E) India Ans (A) 8. The money which Govt. of India spends on the development of infrastructure in country comes from the which of the following sources ? [Pick up the correct Statement(s)] (1) Loan from World Bank/ADB etc (2) Taxws collected from the people (3) Loan from the RBI (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 and 2

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(E) All 1,2 and 3 Ans (E) 9. The Securities and Exchange Board Of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P Notes’ ? (A) Permanent Notes (B) Perchase Notes (C) Participatory-Notes (D) Private Notes (E) None of these Ans (C) 10. Who amongst the following was the captain of the India cricket team who won thw Twenty-20 World Cup-2007 ? (A) Yuvraj Singh (B) M.S.Dhoni (C) Rahul Dravid (D) Saurav Ganguly (E) None of these Ans (B) 11. Mnay times we read in financial news paper about ‘FII’.What is the full form of ‘FII’? (A) Final Investment in India (B) Foreign Investment in India (C) Formal Investment in India (D) Fair Institutional Investment (E) Foreign Institutional Investment Ans (E) 12. Benazir Bhutto Is associated with which of the following parties (A) Muslim League (B) Pakistan Peoples Party (C) Pakistan National Congress(D) Islamic Movement of Pakistan (E) None of these Ans (B) 13. One of the former prime ministers of which of the following countries was detained in house arrest for a short period after his/her returns from a long exile ? (A) Germany (B) France (C) Pakistan (D) Brazil (E) None of these Ans (C) 14. Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Isarael and Palestinian West Bank so that a solution to the Isarael and palestinian problem can be worked out ? (A) George Bush

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(B) Al Gore (C) Bill Clinton (D) Condeleeza Rice (E) None of these Ans (A) 15. Justine Henin Won the women’s singles US Open Tennis Championship2007 After defeating (A) Swetlana Kuznetsova (B) Sania Mirza (C) Dinara Safina (D) Mathalie Dechy (E) None of these Ans (A) 16. As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stoped distributing food in Mogadishu Town after its local head was abducted by the Govt. soldiers of the country.Mogadishu is the capital town of(A) Tanzania (B) Turkey (C) Cuba (D) Libya (E) Somalia Ans (E) 17. The financial markets of the which of the following countries were badly affected by sub-prime crisis ? (A) Russia (B) Brazil (C) UK (D) USA (E)None of these Ans (D) 18. which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold ? (A) USA (B) Bangladesh (C) Russia (D) India (E) None of these Ans (D) 19. which of the following countries is NOT happy with the USA’s decision to award a cogressional Medal to Dalai Lama Oof Tibet ? (A) India (B) Pakistan (C) Nepal (D) Myanmar (E) China

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Ans (E) 20. which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killed people from that country ? (A) India (B) Afghanistan (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (E) Turkey Ans (E)

SBI Clerk Exam : General Awareness Solved Question paper
1. Which of the following Departments of the Govt. of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the bank ? (A) Railways (B) State Road Transpots (C) Post and Telegraph (D) Ministry of Health (E) None of these Ans (E) 2. Which of the following organization/agencies has established a fund known as ” investor production fund” ? (A) SEBI (B) NABARD (C) Bombay stock exchange (D) AMFI (E)None of these Ans (C) 3.Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present ? (A) Mr. M.V.Kamath (B) Mr. Y.V.Reddy (C) Mr. N.R.Narayanmurthy (D) Mr.O.P.Bhatt (E)None of these Ans (B) 4. Mjority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit needs ? (A) Money lenders

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(B) Foreign Bankers (C) NABARD (D) RBI (E) None of these Ans (A) 5. india has different categories of commercial banks.Which of the following is NOT one such categories ? (A) Private Banks (B) Commodities Banks (C) Nationalized Banks (D) Cooperative Banks (E) Foreign Banks Ans (B) 6.Which of the following types of Banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ? (1) Foreign Banks (2) Regional Rural Banks (3) Nationalized Banks (A) Only i (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2and 3 (E) None of these Ans (C) 7. Which of the following countries does not play International Cricket ? (A) Russia (B) England (C) South Africa (D) Pakistan (E) India Ans (A) 8. The money which Govt. of India spends on the development of infrastructure in country comes from the which of the following sources ? [Pick up the correct Statement(s)] (1) Loan from World Bank/ADB etc (2) Taxws collected from the people (3) Loan from the RBI (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 and 2

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(E) All 1,2 and 3 Ans (E) 9. The Securities and Exchange Board Of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P Notes’ ? (A) Permanent Notes (B) Perchase Notes (C) Participatory-Notes (D) Private Notes (E) None of these Ans (C) 10. Who amongst the following was the captain of the India cricket team who won thw Twenty-20 World Cup-2007 ? (A) Yuvraj Singh (B) M.S.Dhoni (C) Rahul Dravid (D) Saurav Ganguly (E) None of these Ans (B) 11. Mnay times we read in financial news paper about ‘FII’.What is the full form of ‘FII’? (A) Final Investment in India (B) Foreign Investment in India (C) Formal Investment in India (D) Fair Institutional Investment (E) Foreign Institutional Investment Ans (E) 12. Benazir Bhutto Is associated with which of the following parties (A) Muslim League (B) Pakistan Peoples Party (C) Pakistan National Congress(D) Islamic Movement of Pakistan (E) None of these Ans (B) 13. One of the former prime ministers of which of the following countries was detained in house arrest for a short period after his/her returns from a long exile ? (A) Germany (B) France (C) Pakistan (D) Brazil

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(E) None of these Ans (C) 14. Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Isarael and Palestinian West Bank so that a solution to the Isarael and palestinian problem can be worked out ? (A) George Bush (B) Al Gore (C) Bill Clinton (D) Condeleeza Rice (E) None of these Ans (A) 15. Justine Henin Won the women’s singles US Open Tennis Championship2007 After defeating (A) Swetlana Kuznetsova (B) Sania Mirza (C) Dinara Safina (D) Mathalie Dechy (E) None of these Ans (A) 16. As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stoped distributing food in Mogadishu Town after its local head was abducted by the Govt. soldiers of the country.Mogadishu is the capital town of(A) Tanzania (B) Turkey (C) Cuba (D) Libya (E) Somalia Ans (E) 17. The financial markets of the which of the following countries were badly affected by sub-prime crisis ? (A) Russia (B) Brazil (C) UK (D) USA (E)None of these Ans (D) 18. which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold ? (A) USA (B) Bangladesh (C) Russia

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(D) India (E) None of these Ans (D) 19. which of the following countries is NOT happy with the USA’s decision to award a cogressional Medal to Dalai Lama Oof Tibet ? (A) India (B) Pakistan (C) Nepal (D) Myanmar (E) China Ans (E) 20. which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killed people from that country ? (A) India (B) Afghanistan (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (E) Turkey Ans (E) 21. Dr. Mnamohan SAingh called George Bush to explain the difficulties he is having in implementing agreements related with which of the following with USA ? (A) Suply of sugar (B) Civilian nuclear Co-operation (C) Purchase of fighter planes (D) Purchase of Gas / Petroleum (E) None of these Ans (B) 22. which of the following countries is facing a problem of strike by the workers of the transport ,electricity and gas companies as the present govt. of the country has decided to end the pension to these workerss ? (A) USA (B) France (C) China (D) Nepal (E) None of these Ans (B) 23. Who amongst the following is the Secretary General Of UNO ? (A) Al Gore

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(B) Shashi Tharoor (C) Gordon Drown (D) Hugo Chavez (E) None of these Ans (E) 24. The “Orange Coalition Govt” was formed once again in which of the following countries ? (A) Russia (B) Ukraine (C) France (D) Germany (E) None of these Ans (B) 25. which of the following countries is NOT elected by the the UN general assembly on the non-payment seats of UN security council w.e.f. January 2008 ? (A) Libya (B) Vietnam (C) Croatia (D) Costa Rica (E) Pakistan Ans (E) 26. The Govt. of India put a ban on export of which of the following commodities at the price below the price of the same in domestic market ? (A) Steel (B) Chemical Fertilizer (C) Pharma Products (D) Electronic Goods (E) None of these Ans (E) 27. India Launched which of the following Satellites in September 2007 ? (A) EDUSAT (B) MATSAT (C) CROSAT-IIB (D) INSAT-4CR (E) None of these Ans (D) 28. As per the recent agreement between India and one of other country the iNdia Rupee can be easily swapped with (A) Tak (B) Rial

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(C) Kyat (D) Yen (E) Rubbel Ans (E) 29. India won the ONGC Cup Football Tounament 2007 by beating(A) Syria (B) Pakistan (C) Britain (D) France (E) None of these Ans (A)

30. Abdullah Gul’s name was in news recently as he he has taken over as the president of (A) Turkey (B) Sudan (C) Afghanistan (D) Pakistan (E) None of these Ans (A) 31. Hem Dutta who was honoured gy the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award 2007 is famous(A) Author (B) Social Activist (C) Player (D) Film Producer (E) Scientist Ans (B) 32. Who amongst the following is selected for Basawa Award (2006-07) by the Karnataka Government ? (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh (B) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam (C) Sonia Gandhi (D) Pratibha Patil (E) None of these Ans (B) 33. Asia Pacific Economic Business meet was organized in September 2007 in (A) New Delhi (B) Beijing

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(C) Tokyo (D) London (E) Sydney Ans (E) 34. The World Athletics Championship-2007 was organized in (A) Beijing (B) New Delhi (C) Osaka (D) Dhaka (E) London Ans (C) 35. Who amongst the following was the captain of the Indian Hockey Team who won Asia Cup 2007 held in Chennai ? (A) Baichung Bhutia (B) Dilip Tirkey (C) Pnkaj Adwani (D) Manavjeet Singh Sandhu (E) None of these Ans (E) 36. Which of the following is a Public Sector Unit ? (A) TCS (B) ICICI Bank (C) TESCO (D) BHEL (E) All of these Ans (D) 37. India’s foreign exchange reserve declined sharply in recent past. What was the main reason for the same ? (A) Heavy demand of the same by foreign tourists (B) Import of Wheat from Pakistan and S.Korea (C) Appreciation of Rupee Value (D) Instability in coalition Govt. in centre (E) None of these Ans (C) 38. Sinzo Abe who was on visit to India in recent past is the (A) Prime Minister of South Korea (B) Prime Minister of North Korea (C) Prime Minister of Japan (D) President of South Korea

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(E) None of these Ans (C) 39. Asafa Powel who created a new world record in 100 metres race is a citizen of (A) Jamaica (B) South Africa (C) India (D) USA (E) south Korea Ans (A) 40. Who amongst the following got third position in long Jump event of the Bayer International Athletics held in Germany in 2007 ? (A) Shiny Wilson (B) Anju Bobby George (C) Neha Sanwal (D) Prajakta Sawant (E) None of these Ans (B)

SBI Bank Clerk Numerical Ability Exam Paper With Answers 2007
1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.? (a) 30 minutes (b) 25 minutes (c) 28 minutes (d) 34 minutes 2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ? (a) 4096 (b) 8192 (c) 512 (d) 1024

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3. Find the number missing at question mark: 10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149 (a) 100 (b) 103 (c) 78 (d) 128 4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance? (a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes 5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure? (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6 6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18 7. One fourth percent of 180 is: (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45 8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I? (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150 9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 …………… (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14 10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase? (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17 11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is …………. (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400 12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%? (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210 13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125? (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

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14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long? (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds 15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be ……. (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds 16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams? (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40 17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work? (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6 18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050 19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops: (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m 20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2 21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is …….. (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3 (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution 22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years? (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15% 24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

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25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400 26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes 27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes 28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is: (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300 29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them? (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days 30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number? (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27 31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit? (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 % 32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is: (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2 33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0 34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks? (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450 35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the (a) Interior of the triangle

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(b) Midpoint of the diameter (c) Exterior of the triangle (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle 36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle? (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180 37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle? (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre 38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height? (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r 39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas? (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6 40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3 41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects? (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45 42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr 43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer? (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32 44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm. (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm 45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, …… (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

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46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is: (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30 47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 = (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21 48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30 (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750 49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B? (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510 50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number: (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31

Answers 1 A 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 B 11 B 12 A 13 D 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 B 21 C 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 D 29 C 30 B 31 D 32 D 33 B

41 A 42 A 43 B 34 D 44 C 35 C

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45 A 36 D 46 C 37 B 47 B 38 C 48 D 39 C 49 B 40 C 50 B

State Bank of India Clerk Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper
1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of (A) films (B) Literature (C) Sports (D) Politics (E) Status ANS (A) 2. Which of the following is not a food crop ? (A) Wheat (B) Barley (C) Maize (D) Gram (E) Cotton ANS (E) 21

3. Union Budget always presented first in (A) The Loksabha (B) The Rajyasabha (C) Joint session of Parliament (D) Meeting of the Union cabinet (E) The State Assemblies ANS (A) 4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of the following sections of the society ? (A) Children who are bonded labour (B) Persons working in hazardous industries (C) Farmers (D) People living below poverty line (E) None of these ANS (E) 5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of (A) France (B) Argentina (C) Spain (D) New zealand (E) Italy ANS (C) 6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in (A) Jakarta (B) Bali (C) New Delhi (D) Tokyo (E) Islamabad ANS (B) 7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for reckless lending ? (A) G-7 (B) G-8 (C) SAARC (D) World Bank (E) IMF ANS (E) 8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the -

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(A) Prime Minister of Iraq (B) President of Iran (C) Prime Minister of Iran (D) President of Iraq (E) None of these ANS (B) 9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ? (A) Islamabad (B) Karanchi (C) Dhaka (D) Kathmandu (E) None of these ANS (C) 10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian sub-continent ? (A) Bhutan (B) China (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (E) Sri Lanka ANS (A) 11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ? About (A) 6 % (B) 6.5 % (C) 7 % (D) 7.5 % (E) 9 % ANS (E) 12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the (A) Governor of Karnataka (B) Chief Minister of Karnataka (C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh (D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh (E) None of these ANS (B)

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13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and compulsory education for all those who are of the age of (A) 3 Years (B) 5 Years (C) 6-14 Years (D) 12-20 Years (E) Upto 21 Years ANS (C) 14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ? (A) Ist May (B) 10th May (C) 21st May (D) 31 st May (E) 1st June ANS (D) 15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous (A) Social Work (B) Politician (C) Sportsman (D) Play Wright (E) None of these ANS (D) 16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full form of GM ? (A) Genetically Marketed (B) Genetically Modified (C) Green & Moisturious (D) Globally Marketed (E) None of these ANS (B) 17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ? (A) UK (B) USA (C) France (D) Italy (E) None of these ANS (B) 18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in which former US Vice President Al Gore has featured as a

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narrator ? (A) An inconvenient truth (B) The Sea (C) Road to prediction (D) Remember My Name (E) None of these ANS (A) 19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following places to discuss security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ? (A) Beijing (B) New Delhi (C) Singapore (D) Kuala Lumpur (E) None of these ANS (C) 20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ? (A) Serena Williams (B) Katarina Srebotnik (C) Andy Murray (D) Nichlas Almagro (E) Ricky Ponting ANS (E) 21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in (A) Kolkat (B) New Delhi (C) Pune (D) Ahmedabad (E) None of these ANS (E) Mumbai 22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ? (A) Nasdaq (B) Nikkei (C) Kospi (D) Dow (E) Combix ANS (E) 23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full form of 'ECB'?

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(A) Essential Commercial Borrowing (B) Essential Credit & Borrowing (C) External Credit & Business (D) External Commercial Borrowing (E) None Of These ANS (D) 24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was reshuffled recently ? (A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer (B) Rahul Gandhi (C) Priyanka (D) Jyotiraditya Scindia (E) None of these ANS (D) 25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ? (A) Manik Sarkar (B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay (C) P.Longon (D) K.Shankaranarayanan (E) None of these ANS (E)

Model Test Paper For Bank Clerk Exam (Computer Science and Marketing Aptitude)
1. A keyboard is this kind of device— (A) black (B) input (C) output (D) word Processing (E) None of these Ans : (B) 2. IT stands for— (A) information Technology (B) integrated Technology (C) intelligent Technology

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(D) interesting Technology (E) None of these Ans : (A) 3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ? (A) Personal Computers (B) Supercomputers (C) Laptops (D) Notebooks (E) None of these Ans : (B) 4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a— (A) disk (B) data (C) file (D) floppy (E) None of these Ans : (C) 5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as— (A) pulling (B) pushing (C) downloading (D) transferring (E) None of these Ans : (C) 6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ? (A) Disk drive (B) Keyboard (C) Monitor (D) Printer (E) None of these Ans : (A) 7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands. (A) Fetching (B) Storing (C) Executing (D) Decoding (E) None of these Ans : (C)

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8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software. (A) computer Scientist (B) computer sales representative (C) computer consultant (D) corporate trainer (E) None of these Ans : (B) 9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ? (A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor (B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor (C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor (D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor (E) None of these Ans : (D) 10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a— (A) title bar (B) button (C) dialog box (D) window (E) None of these Ans : (D) 11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected. (A) pointer (B) menu (C) icon (D) button (E) None of these Ans : (B) 12. An error is also known as— (A) bug (B) debug (C) cursor (D) icon (E) None of these Ans : (A) 13. Arithmetic Operations— (A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item (B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order

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or descending order (C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT (D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division (E) None of these Ans : (D) 14. Sending an e-mail is similar to— (A) picturing an event (B) narrating a story (C) writing a letter (D) creating a drawing (E) None of these Ans : (C) 15. Promotion in Marketing means— (A) passing an examination (B) elevation from one grade to another (C) selling the products through various means (D) selling the product in specific areas (E) None of these Ans : (C) 16. Microsoft Word is an example of— (A) an operating system (B) a processing device (C) application software (D) an input device (E) None of these Ans : (B) 17. Sources of Sales Leads are— (A) Data Mining (B) Market Research (C) Media Outlets (D) Promotional Programs (E) All of these Ans : (E) 18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as— (A) storage (B) output (C) input (D) information (E) None of these Ans : (A)

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19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ? (A) RAM (B) printer (C) monitor (D) ROM (E) None of these Ans : (C) 20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is— (A) to watch TV serials (B) to discuss with other sales persons (C) to monitor media outlets (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (C) 21. Market Expansion means— (A) hiring more staff (B) firing more staff (C) buying more products (D) buying more companies (E) None of these Ans : (E) 22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a— (A) program (B) command (C) user response (D) processor (E) None of these Ans : (A) 23. Effective marketing helps in— (A) developing new products (B) creating a competitive environment (C) building demand for products (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D) 24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ? (A) Hardware (B) Software (C) Programs

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(D) Output (E) None of these Ans : (A) 25. A Call in Marketing means— (A) to phone the customers (B) to visit the customers (C) to visit the marketing site (D) to call on prospective customers (E) None of these Ans : (D) 26. Delivery Channel means— (A) maternity wards (B) handing over the products to the buyers (C) places where products are made available to the buyers (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (C) 27. Processing involves— (A) inputting data into a computer system (B) transforming input into output (C) displaying output in a useful manner (D) providing relevant answers (E) None of these Ans : (B) 28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking. (A) All the customers (B) All the educated customers (C) All the computer educated customers (D) Only creditors (E) All of these Ans : (C) 29. Innovation mean— (A) Product Designing (B) New ideas (C) Impulse (D) Both (A) and (B) (E) None of these Ans : (D) 30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational

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loan. (A) All the customers (B) Students (C) Only poor students (D) Students having promising educational track record (E) All of these Ans : (B) 31. Service after sale is not the function of— (A) Marketing staff (B) Seller (C) Director of the company (D) Employees of the company (E) All of the above are wrong Ans : (A) 32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective. (A) fairs (B) village fairs (C) door to door campaign (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (B) 33. Market Survey means— (A) Market Research (B) Market Planning (C) Marketing Strategies (D) Market Monitering (E) All of these Ans : (A) 34. ………can be done through digital Banking ? (A) Mobile phone (B) Internet (C) Telephone (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (A) 35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ? (A) Devotion to the work (B) Submissive (C) Sympathy (D) All of these (E) None of these

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Ans : (D) 36. The rural marketing is not required because— (A) rural people do not understand marketing (B) its not practical from the cost point of view (C) it is sheer wastage of time (D) All are wrong (E) All are correct Ans : (D) 37. Planned-cost service means— (A) Costly products (B) Extra profit on the same cost (C) Extra work by seller (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (B) 38. Internet marketing means— (A) Self-marketing (B) Core Groups monitering (C) Employees marketing (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (E) 39. The aim of successful marketing is— (A) to increase the sale (B) to increase the profit (C) to increase the output of sellers (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D) 40. The networking becomes……through networking. (A) very difficult (B) dull (C) easy (D) has no role in marketing (E) None of these Ans : (C)

(Paper) Model Test Paper For Indian Bank Clerk Exam

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Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Once upon a time, there was a rich merchant who had four wives. He loved the fourth wife the most and adorned her with rich robes and treated her to delicacies. He took great care of her and gave her nothing but the best. He also loved the third wife very much. He was very proud of her and always wanted to show her off to his friends. However, the merchant was always in great fear that she might run away with some other men. He loved his second wife too. She was a very considerate person, always patient and in fact was the merchant’s confidant. Whenever the merchant faced some problems, he always turned to his second wife and she would always help him out and tide him through difficult times. Now, the merchant’s first wife was a very loyal partner and had made great contributions in maintaining his wealth and business as well taking care of the household. However, the merchant did not love the first wife and although she loved him deeply, he hardly took notice of her. One day, the merchant fell ill. Before long, he knew that he was going to die soon. He thought of his luxurious life and told himself, “Now I have four wives with me. But when I die, I’ll be alone. How lonely I’ll be !” Thus, he asked the fourth wife, “I loved you most, endowed you with the finest clothing and showered great care over you. Now that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No way !” replied the fourth wife and she walked away without another word. The answer cut like a sharp knife right into the merchant’s heart. The sad merchant then asked the third wife, “I have loved you so much for all my life. Now that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No !” replied the third wife, “Life is so good over here ! I’m going to remarry when you die !” The merchant’s heart sank and turned cold. He then asked the second wife. “I always turned to you for help and you’ve always helped me out. Now I need your help again. When I die, will you follow me and keep me company ?” “I’m sorry, I can’t help you out this time !” replied the second wife. “At the very most, I can only send you to your grave.” The answer came like a bolt of thunder and the merchant was devastated. Then a voice called out, “I’ll leave with you. I’ll follow you no matter where you go.” The merchant looked up and there was his first wife. She was so skinny, almost like she suffered from malnutition. Greatly grieved, the merchant said, “I should have taken much better care of you while I could have !” Actually, we all have four wives in our lives. The fourth wife is our body. No matter how much time and effort we lavish in making it look good, it’ll leave us when we die. Our third wife is our possessions, status and wealth. When we die, they all go to others. The second wife is our family and friends. No matter how close they had been to us when we’re alive, the furthest they can stay by us is up to the grave. The first wife is in fact our soul, often neglected in our pursuit of 34

material wealth and sensual pleasure. It is actually the only thing that follows us wherever we go. Perhaps it’s a good idea to cultivate and strengthen it now rather than to wait until we’re on our deathbed to lament. 1. What did the merchant want to do with his third wife ? (A) To buy good clothes for her (B) To give her away to his friends (C) To show her off to his friends (D) To share his problems with her (E) None of these 2. What was the second wife’s quality ? (A) She helped the merchant during tough times (B) She helped the merchant in his business (C) She made the merchant feel proud (D) She contributed to the merchant’s wealth (E) None of these 3. What does the phrase ‘cut like a sharp knife’ as used in the passage mean ? (A) Injure (B) Bleed (C) Dangerous (D) Hurt (E) None of these 4. Which of the following is possibly NOT a characteristic of the first wife as given in the passage ? (A) Caring (B) Beautiful (C) Thin (D) Loyal (E) All of the above are characteristics of the first wife 5. What fear did the merchant have about his third wife ? (A) That she would kill him (B) That she would not accompany him when he died (C) That she would run away with all his money (D) That she would not look beautiful anymore (E) None of these 6. What explanation did the fourth wife give for not accompanying the merchant when he was dying ? (A) She wanted more money (B) She did not give any explanation (C) She wanted to marry someone else after the merchant’s death

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(D) She was afraid to go with him (E) None of these 7. Why did the first wife offer to go with the merchant when he died ? (A) Because she loved him (B) Because she was afraid to stay alone (C) Because she hated the other wives (D) Because she was undernourished and was going to die anyway (E) None of these 8. The author has compared the merchant’s fourth wife to our ……… (A) Soul (B) Wealth (C) Friends (D) Status (E) None of these 9. What does the author have to say about our soul ? (A) That it is well taken care of (B) That it can give us company only till our death (C) That it has been ignored in the chase for worldly pleasures (D) That it belongs to someone else after our death (E) None of these 10. What does the phrase ‘like a bolt of thunder’ used in the passage mean ? (A) like a very bright light (B) like a pleasant feeling (C) like a loud noise (D) like a shock (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 11. adorned (A) spent (B) dressed (C) tried (D) carried (E) necklace 12. showered (A) bestowed (B) cleaned (C) pleased

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(D) bathed (E) threw 13. lament (A) fear (B) tell (C) grieve (D) care (E) forget Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 14. considerate (A) ignorant (B) lazy (C) angry (D) thoughtful (E) insensitive 15. furthest (A) longest (B) closest (C) greatest (D) shortest (E) wildest Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer. 16. I woke up early in the morning and had a steamer cup of coffee. (A) has a steamer (B) has a steaming (C) had a steaming (D) had a steam (E) No correction required 17. Tired of being harassed by the goons, I finally called the police and complained— (A) in being harassed (B) of being harass (C) in be harassed

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(D) of be harass (E) No correction required 18. A friendship founded on business is best than a business founded on friendship. (A) is good than (B) is better than (C) is bestest than (D) is better then (E) No correction required 19. Right action cannot came out of nothing, it must be preceded by thought. (A) come out of (B) came out off (C) come off (D) coming out of (E) No correction required 20. One of the base laws of nature is that adaptability is the price of survival. (A) basis laws of (B) basic law of (C) base law of (D) basic laws of (E) No correction required Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer. 21. Oportunities (A) multiply (B) when they are seized (C) and die (D) when they are not. All correct (E) 22. He realized (A) he was alone (B) in the house and rushed (C) to bolt (D) all the doors and windows. All correct (E) 23. The information (A) provided (B) to the staff was not adecuate (C) and everyone retaliated. (D) All correct (E) 24. Worried (A) that he will fail in the exams, Satish stayed (B) up the whole kinght (C) and studied. (D) All correct (E)

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25. Thomas could not cook (A) very well and thus had to stay (B) food from (C) a restaurant. (D) All correct (E) Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) She eased out something from her waist folds. (2) Maganlal welcomed a customer early in the day. (3) Once visible, Maganlal realized it was a pair of gold bangles. (4) The woman carefully counted the money and then left. (5) He took the bangles and placed some money in the woman’s palm. (6) This customer was a peasant woman wearing a discoloured sari and old anklets. 26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

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30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 31. Progress is impossible (A) / without change, and those (B) / who cannot change their minds (C) / cannot change nothing. (D) No error (E) 32. She was allergic (A) / to some medicines (B) / and informed (C) / the doctor about it. (D) No error (E) 33. He walked as faster (A) / as he could so that (B) / he would not (C) / miss the train to work. (D) No error (E) 34. She shared (A) / all her secrets with (B) / Suman as they had been (C) / friends with childhood. (D) No error (E) 35. Gautam did not care (A) / so many about (B) / anything else as much (C) / as he cared for his dog. (D) No error (E) 36. You cannot change (A) / people, but you (B) / can definitely (C) / change own. (D) No error (E) 37. Veena wanted to (A) / become a surgeon (B) / and worked very hardly (C) / to achieve this. (D) No error (E) 38. Krishna ran to the (A) / nearing grocery store to (B) / buy biscuits as his parents (C) / were expecting guests. (D) No error (E) 39. As soon so (A) / he came home, (B) / he showered and got (C) / ready to go out again. (D) No error (E) 40. She failed to remember (A) / that it was Rema’s birthday (B) / and did not buy (C) / a present for her. (D) No error (E)

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Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. One of the good things that happened to me …(41)… in Patliputra, …(42)… the friendship of the farmer’s daughter. This nine year old girl …(43)… became very fond of me and her parents …(44)… her that she could keep me forever as her toy. She was very good at needlecraft and …(45)… clothes for her doll. In fact, on my first night there and …(46)… the rest of my stay in the farmer’s house, I slept in her doll’s cradle. That first night, they put the cradle on …(47)… of a shelf far away from the danger of rats. As I slowly got to learn their language, I was …(48)… to talk to the girl and let her know my needs and she was able to make me …(49)… comfortable. She made me seven shirts and was my teacher of the language. When I pointed to anything, she would …(50)… it by name, and soon I was able to talk easily with her. 41. (A) waiting (B) truly (C) till (D) still (E) while 42. (A) for (B) was (C) because (D) is (E) it 43. (A) soon (B) had (C) was (D) has (E) forever 44. (A) handled (B) worried (C) taught (D) promised (E) carried 45. (A) tore (B) tearing (C) making

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(D) wore (E) make 46. (A) to (B) as (C) for (D) of (E) if 47. (A) bottom (B) top (C) coating (D) height (E) wide 48. (A) possible (B) happiness (C) eagerly (D) able (E) request 49. (A) every (B) thorough (C) total (D) high (E) more 50. (A) call (B) ask (C) throw (D) help (E) hit Answers : 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (E) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (E) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (E) 22. (E) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (D) 32. (E) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (E) 41. (E) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (E) 50. (A)

Sample Practice Paper SBI Bank (2009)

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1. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number? (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27 Answer : (b) 28 2. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas? (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6 Answer : (c) 8:27 3. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 Answer : (b) 1/6 4. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3 Answer : (c) √2 5. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number . (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5 Answer : (c) 9 6. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in . (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes Answer : (a) 20 minutes

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7. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years? (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15% Answer : (a) 10% 8. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats . (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes Answer : (b) 10 minutes 9. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM. (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400 Answer : (b) 1200 10. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit? (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 % Answer : (d) 50% 11. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0 Answer : (b) 1.0 12. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is: (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400

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(d) 300 Answer : (d) 300 13. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks? (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450 Answer : (d) 450 14. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them? (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days Answer : (c) 10 days 15. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height? (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r Answer : (c) √5r

Reasoning Test : Paper For Bank PO, Bank Clerk, S.S.C., RRB TC, ASM, B.ED Exam Reasoning :
Directions-(Q.1-7) In each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question-mark (?) ? 1. CG, GH, LJ, RM, ? (A) ZR (B) YR (C) ZQ (D) YQ (E) None of these Ans : (D)

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2. FRP, HPQ. JNS, LLV, ? (A) PKZ (B) NJZ (C) OJZ (D) MKZ (E) None of these Ans : (B) 3. Z15A, W13C, ?, Q9G, N7I. (A) T12F (B) R11F (C) T11E (D) R13D (E) None of these Ans : (C) 4. MN, NM, MNO, ONM, MNOP, ? (A) NPOM (B) POMN (C) MOPN (D) PONM (E) None of these Ans : (D) 5. CVD, CTE, DQE, DMF, EHF, ? (A) ECG (B) FCG (C) EBG (D) FBG (E) None of these Ans : (C) 6. JKL, LKJ, JKLM, MLKJ, JKLMN, ? (A) LMJKN (B) NLMKJ (C) NMUK (D) NMLKJ (E) None of these Ans : (D) 7. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, ? (A) 17E4 (B) 18F5 (C) 17E3 (D) 18D4

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(E) None of these Ans : (A) Directions— (Q.8-10) In each of the following questions one number-series is given in which one term is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 8. 5, 7, 11, 20, 35, 67. (A) 11 (B) 20 (C) 35 (D) 67 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 9. 4, 11, 21, 34, 49, 69,91. (A) 34 (B) 69 (C) 49 (D) 21 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 10. 5, 12, 19, 33, 47, 75, 104. (A) 33 (B) 47 (C) 75 (D) 104 (E) None of these Ans : (D) Directions—(Q.11-15) In each of the following questions a number-sereis is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question mark (?) ? 11. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ? (A) 169 (B) 159 (C) 119 (D) 139 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 12. 0, 7, 26, 65, 124, 215, ? (A) 305 (B) 295 (C) 342

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(D) 323 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 13. 4, 7, 10, 10, 16, 13, ? (A) 19 (B) 23 (C) 21 (D) 22 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 14. 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ? (A) 52 (B) 50 (C) 51 (D) 48 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 15. 2, 11, 47, 191, 767, ? (A) 2981 (B) 3068 (C) 3081 (D) 3058 (E) None of these Ans : (E) Directions—(Q.16-20) In each of the following questions a letter-series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative. 16. mno—p—no—p—n—opm. (A) opmno (B) pmomn (C) pmmpn (D) nmopo (E) None of these Ans : (B) 17. ba—abab—b—ba—aba. (A) abab (B) aabb (C) baab (D) bbaa

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(E) None of these Ans : (C) 18. —acca—ccca—acccc—aaa. (A) caac (B) ccaa (C) acca (D) caaa (E) None of these Ans : (D) 19. mnm—mn—m—mn. (A) nmnn (B) nmnm (C) mmmn (D) nmnm (E) None of these Ans : (A) 20. ac—cab—baca—aba—acac. (A) acbc (B) abca (C) bacb (D) acbb (E) None of these Ans : (E) 21. If the position of Raja is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is the total number of students in his class? . (A) 28 (B) 24 (C) 27 (D) 29 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 22. The position of Satyam is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his position from the beginning? (A) 8th (B) 9th (C) 7th (D)) 10th (E) None of these Ans : (B)

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23. In the class of 40 students, if Sangita is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the other end? (A) 9th (B) 12th (C) 10th (D) 11th (E) None of these Ans : (D) 24. In a row of girls, Neelam is 15th from the left and Vinita is 23rd from the right. If they interchange their positions, then Neelam becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vinita be from the right? (A) 25th (B) 24th (C) 26th (D) 20th (E) None of these Ans : (C) 25. In a row of ladies Manokamana is 20th from the right and Kamala is 10th from the left. When they interchange their positions Manokamana becomes 25th from the right. What is the total number of ladies in the row ? (A) 35 (B) 34 (C) 44 (D) 24 (E) None of these Ans : (B)

Study Notes : Computer Awareness : Quick Revision Notes (For Union Bank of India, Andhra Bank, Dena Bank, Andhra Bank, Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India etc.)
Questions on Computer Awareness have recently been introduced in most Bank Recruitment exams. To help you prepare better for the Bank exams we present to you the revision notes on Computer Awareness. 1. The earlier computers, which were massive in size, were based on vacuum tubes. 2. Early computing machines, like the ENIAC, were actually meant to assist the 50

armed forces. 3. The printers in pre-1950s were punch cards. 4. An improvement on the ENIAC, which pioneered 'stored program', was made possible with the help of the mathematician John von Neumann. 5. Before the 1950s, computers were mostly owned by universities and research labs. 6. The B-programming language was developed by Ken Thompson. 7. Famous people, associated with the ENIAC, EDVAC, UNIVAC computers are Eckert & Mauchly. 8. The 1st commercially produced and sold computer (1951) was UNIVAC. 9. IBM was provided software for PCs by Microsoft. 10. Time-sharing, teletyping, were associated with mainframe computers. 11. The transformation from heavy computers to PCs was made possible using microprocessors. 12. The first microprocessor was developed in 1971 by Intel. 13. The term 'micro' (extremely small) denotes 10-6m. 14. The Harvard student, who chose to write computer programs and dropped studies was Bill Gates. 15. A pentium 4 (P-4) employs roughly 40 million transistors. 16. Mark-1, Apple-1, and collossus were initial desktop computers. 17. Binary digits are briefed as bit. 18. A collection of bits is called byte. 19. C++, is a computer language. 20. The process of eliminating programming faults is called debugging. 21. Starting up on operating system is called booting. 22. A program used to browse the web is called browser. 23. An error in software designing which can even cause a computer to crash is called bug. 24. Click and double-click are achieved using the mouse. 25. Java, C, ForTran, Pascal and BASIC are computer programming languages.

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26. The device which sends computer data using a phone line is called MODEM. 27. 'Worm' and 'virus' are actually programs. 28. A 'file' is a unit of information. 29. A megabyte has 106(million) bytes. 30. A small, single-site network is called LAN. 31. A processor that collects several data and sends them over a single line is called bridge. 32. 'Nano' stands for one billionth part. 33. The number of bit patterns using an n-bit code is 2n. 34. The part of a computer that works with the data/programs is called CPU. 35. To convert a binary number to a decimal, we have to express it in power of 2. 36. www stands for world wide web. 37. Mathematics employed in computers is called Boolean algebra. 38. A collection of 8 bits is called byte. 39. The first home computer (1977), which was sold in millions of units was Apple II. 40. 'PARAM' is a supercomputer. 41. A website containing periodic posts is called blog. 42. While cutting and pasting, the cutitem is temporarily stored in the clipboard. 43. http stands for hyper text transfer protocol. 44. The unwanted or non-requested emails are called "spam". 45. A computer framed to give various network services is called server.

(Paper) Bank Clerk Marketing and Money Question 2008

PAPER : Bank Clerk Marketing and Money Question 2008 1. In which type of account, banks generally don’t pay interest— (A) Saving Account (B) Current Account

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(C) Fixed Deposit Account (D) Interest is always payable in all types of account 2. A bank standing order would be suitable for paying— (A) Telephone accounts (B) Electricity accounts (C) Grocery bills (D) Mortgage repayments 3. Payment of a cheque cannot be made on a cash counter of bank if the cheque is— (A) Bearer (B) Cross (C) Order (D) All of these 4. Which of the following is not Commercial Bank ? (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) Canra Bank (D) Oriental Bank of Commerce 5. What is the Bank draft ? (A) Letter from the Bank (B) Cheque which a bank draws on itself (C) Instraction to a banker to collect a customer’s debt (D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment 6. The essential characteristic of whatever serves as money is that it must— (A) Be issued by the State

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(B) Be generally acceptable (C) Not be wholly fiduciary (D) Have some instrinsic value 7. One of the following is not an example of Near-Money, which ? (A) Bill of Exchange (B) Bonds and Debentures (C) Equity shares of Ranbaxy Company Ltd. (D) Treasury bills of the Government of India 8. ‘Fiat Money’ is that which is— (A) Accepted by overseas banks only (B) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold (C) Backed by gold or silver (D) Decreed as money by the government 9. Money is— (A) Acceptable only when it has intrinsic value (B) Constant in purchasing power (C) The most liquid of all assets (D) All of the above 10. Greshan’s law states that— (A) Bad money promotes good money in the system (B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation (C) Good money drives bad money out of circulation (D) Good money promotes bad money in the system 11. Value of Money— (A) Is independent of the price level (B) Is directly related to the price level

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(C) Is inversely related to the price level (D) None of the above 12. Demand pull inflation can be caused by money factors including— (A) A fall in consumption expenditure (B) A sharp increase in unemployment (C) A steep reduction in direct taxation (D) An increase in Income Tax 13. The process of deplation tends to favour— (A) Debtor and Creditiors a like (B) Debtor at the expense of Creditors (C) Creditors at the expense of Debtors (D) Profit receivers at the expense of fixed income receivers 14. Which of the following statement is not completely true ? (A) An increase in the supply of money will result in inflation (B) Cost inflation occurs when prices rise to cover increased factor costs (C) Inflation occurs when the value of money declines (D) Inflation will have the effect of redistributing incomes within a country 15. Which of the following people is most likely to benefit from an inflationary situation ? (A) A person who buys units from the Unit Trust (B) A person who keeps his savings under the floor at home (C) A person makes a large private loan to a friend (D) A person who takes out a mortgage with a building society 16. The principal liability of a Joint Stock Bank relates to— (A) Its investment abroad (B) Its investment at home

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(C) Repayment of its customer’s deposits (D) Its requirements to make special deposits when requested 17. Which of the following is not a function of the Commercial Banks ? (A) Acting as a lender of last resort (B) Lending to the private and public sectors (C) The provision of a cheque system for setting debts (D) The provision of safe deposit facilities 18. When the Commercial Bank create credit areas which are in effect and increases— (A) The national debt (B) The supply of money (C) The purchasing power of the rupee (D) The real wealth of the country 19. A customer does not require a bank account to obtain— (A) A Loan (B) A Cheque Card (C) A Banker’s Draft (D) An Overdraft 20. Which of the following is not a liability of Commercial Banks— (A) Security Holdings (B) Treasury deposit at banks (C) Demand deposits and time deposits (D) Borrowing from Central Bank 21. ‘Not negotiable’ written on a cheque crossing means— (A) The cheque cannot be paid to any one but the payee (B) The cheque is valid only for payment of the transaction for which it is made

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out (C) An honest person receiving a stolen cheque is liable to repay the rightful owner (D) The cheque must be paid into a bank 22. The Central Bank is not expected to perform the function of— (A) Acting as a clearing house (B) The banker to the government (C) Accepting deposit from Commercial Banks (D) Accepting deposits from general public 23. Increase in bank rates generally is followed by— (A) An increase in market rate of interest (B) A fall in market rates of interest (C) A rise only in the deposits rates but not the lending rates (D) A rise only in the lending rates 24. The major quantitative monetary tool available with the Central Bank is— (A) Retioning of credit (B) Regulation of consumer credit (C) Margin requirements (D) Reserve ratio requirements 25. Bank must refuse payment of a cheque where— (A) Cheque is not dated (B) Where cheque is stale, i.e. date has expired (C) Payment has been stopped by customer (D) The cheque is not presented during working hours of Bank 26. A ‘Stale’ cheque is one that is—

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(A) Over six months old (B) Converning an overdue payment (C) Cancelled by the drawer (D) Written on an account which is overdrawn 27. When the Central Bank sells securities, as a result— (A) The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks increase (B) The cash resources of the commercial banks remain unchanged (C) The cash resources at the disposal of commercial banks get diminished (D) None of the above 28. When a cheque is returned by the bank marked ‘Refer to Drawer’ this means the drawer— (A) Has instructed the bank not to pay the cheque (B) Whishes to be contacted before the cheque is cashed (C) Has improperly completed the cheque and must correct it before payment (D) Had insufficient funds in his account to pay the cheque 29. The current Bank Rate is— (A) 6% (B) 8% (C) 9% (D) 9·5% 30. It has been made compulsory for Non-Banking Financing Companies to get themselves registered with … before July 8, 1997. (A) RBI (B) SEBI (C) Government of India (D) None of the above

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31. India ranks number … among the countries with the biggest growth potential in the world according to the latest report of world Economic Forum. (A) Six (B) Five (C) Four (D) Three 32. Which is the ‘most competitive country’ of the world according to the latest report of world Economic Forum ? (A) Hong Kong (B) Singapore (C) United State of America (D) Netherlands 33. The maximum permissible limit of interest on postshipment rupee credit on demand bills for transit period upto 90 days is— (A) 13% (B) 14% (C) 15% (D) 16% 34. Which of the following statement is correct about India according to the World Bank’s latest calculations ? (A) India’s per capita national wealth is $ 25000 (B) India’s per capita incomeis $ 360 (C) India’s per capita income (according to purchasing power parity) is $ 2390 (D) All of the above 35. Scheduled commercial banks recorded nonperforming assets (NPAs) of

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… at the end of March 2006-07 against 1·8% during 2005-06. (A) 2·3% (B) 3·3% (C) 1·5% (D) 7·9% 36. Which of the following is not a tool in the hands of RBI to control the inflationary pressure in the country ? (A) Bank Rate (BR) (B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) (C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (D) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 37. Which of the following is/are included in Legal Tender Money in India ? (A) Coins and currency notes (B) Coins and bank drafts (C) Currency notes and SDRs (D) Currency notes issued by RBI 38. Which of the following is correctly matched? (A) CRR on FCNR (B) Scheme—12% (B) Bank Rate—6% (C) SLR on NRE deposits—31·5% (D) CRR on NRE—13% 39. India’s First Financial Archive has been set up at— (A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi (C) Ahmedabad (D) Kolkata

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40. Which of the following Bank merged with Oriented Bank of Commerce ? (A) New Bank of India (B) Punjab Co-operative Bank (C) Bari Doab Bank (D) (B) and (C) both
Answers

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)

(Paper) Latest SBI Clerk Reasoning Ability Solved Exam Paper 2009
Directions : – Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the given alternatives 1 Editor : Magazine (a) Movie (b) Scene (c) Drama (d) Director 2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion (a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division (c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region 3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ? (a) BROW (b) DRAW (c) CRAW (d) SLAW 4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ? (a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI 5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ? (a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ (c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ

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Q-6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ? (a) 51 (b) 53 (c) 55 (d) 57 Q-7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ? (a) 23 (b) 48 (c) 10 (d) 42 Q-8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ? (a) 105 (b) 104 (c) 1003 (d) 1004 DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from the other three . Q-9 (a) Mile (b) Centimeter (c) Litre (d) Yard Q-10 (a) High – Up (b) Past – Present (c) Often – Seldom (d) Fresh – Stale Q-11 (a) 11 – 127 (b) 9 – 85 (c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29 Q-12 (a) 26 Z (b) 24 X (c) 22 V (d) 20 S Q-13 (a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206 (c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263 Q-14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency ? 846734378344563464348 (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3 Q-15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after tomorrow be

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(a) Saturday (b) Monday (c) Sunday (d) Friday Q-16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their perimeter is (a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4 Q-17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole . (a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft (c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft Q-18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but less than A . Who is the lowest scorer ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Q-19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is midway between K & S ? (a) R (b) Q (c) P (d) O Q-20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th November be ? (a) Tuesday (b) Thursday (c) Wednesday (d) Friday Q-21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq meters , then find out its breadth (a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 9 Q-22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of the two number is (a) – 2 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3 Q-23 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ? Speak , Reap , Shark (a) S (b) P (c) K (d) H Q-24 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes after every kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise 63

to cover 3.5 kilometers ? (a) 14 hours (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 12 Q-25 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in the dictionary ? 1. socks 2. Shocks 3. Sharp 4. snooker (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 ANSWER 1 2 3 4 5 c c b b b 6 7 8 9 10 b d a c a 11 12 13 14 15 a d a c c 16 17 18 19 20 a b b a b 21 22 23 24 25 a c d c a

(Paper) SBI: Management Executive Exam Paper (English)

Read the following passage to answer the given questions.
We tend to be harsh on our bureaucracy, but nowhere do citizens enjoy dealing with their government. They do it because they have to. But that doesn’t mean that the experience has to be dismal. Now there is a new wind blowing through government departments around the world, which could take some of this pain away. In the next five years it may well transform not only the way public services are delivered but also the fundamental relationship between government and citizens. Not surprisingly, it is the Internet that is behind it. After e-commerce and e-business, the next revolution may be e-governance. Exam pleas bound. The municipality of phoenix, Arizona, allows its citizens to

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renew their car registrations, pay traffic fines, replace lost identity cards etc. Online without having to stand in endless queues in a grubby municipal office. The municipality is happy because it saves $5 a transaction-it costs only $1.60 to process an online transaction versus $6.60 to do it across the counter. In chile, people routinely submit their income tax returns over the Internet, which has increased transparency, drastically reduced the time taken and the number of errors and litigation with the tax department. Both tax payers and the revenue department are happier. The furthest ahead, not surprisingly, is the small, rich and entrepreneurial civil service of Singapore, which allows citizens to do more functions online than any other. As in many private companies, the purchasing and buying of Singapore’s government departments is now on the web, and cost benefits come through more competitive bidding, easy access to global suppliers and time saved by online processing of orders. They can post their catalogues on their site, bid or contracts submit in voices and check their payment status over the Net. The most useful idea for Indian municipalities is Gov works a private sector-run site that collects local taxes, fines, and utility bills for 3,600 municipalities across the United States. It is a citizen’s site, which also provides information on Government jobs, tenders, etc. The most ambitious is the British Government, which has targeted to convert 100 percent of its transactions with its citizens to the internet by 2005. Cynics in India will say, ‘Oh, e-government will never work in India. We are so poor and we don’t have computers.’ But they are wrong! There are many experiments afoot in India as well. Citizens in Andhra Pradesh can download government forms and submit applications on the Net without having to bribe clerks. In many districts, land records are online and this has created transparency. Similarly, in Dhar district to Madhya Pradesh, villagers have begun to file applications for land transferes and follow their progress on the Net. In seventy village in the Kolhapur and Sangli district in Maharashtra, internet booths have come up where farmers can daily check the market and rates of agricultural commodities in Marathi, along with data on agricultural schemes, information on crop technology, when to spray and plant their crops and bus and railway time tables. They also find vocational guidance in jobs, application for ration cards, kerosene/ gas burners and a land record extracts with details of land ownership. Sam Pitroda’s World Tel, Reliance Industries and the Tamil Nadu Government are jointly laying 3000km of optic fibre cables to create a Tamil network which will offer ration cards, school College and hospital admission forms, land records, and pension records. If successful, World Tel will expand the network to Gujarat, Karnataka and West Bengal. In Kerala, all the villages are getting linked online to the district headquarters, allowing citizens to compare the development priorities of their village with other villagers in the state.

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Many are still skeptical of the real impact because so few Indians have computers. The answer lies in interactive cables. TV and in Internet kiosks. Although India has only five million computers and thirty-eight million telephones, it has thirty-four million homes with cable TV and these are growing eight percent a year. By 2005 most cable homes will have access to the interenel from many of the 700000 local STD/PCO Booths. Internet usage may be low today, but it is bound to grow rapidly in the future, and e-governance in India may not be a dream. 1. Choose the word that is same in the meaning as the word “post” as used in the passage . (a) deliver (b) send (c) put up (d) drop out Answer:(b) Send 2. How can India overcome low penetration of computers for e-governance ? (a) By manufacturing more computers (b) By putting more services on internet (c) By opening more STD/ PCO booths (d) By making the Internet free Answer:(b) By putting more services on internetAnswer 3. Gov Works in which of the following countries ? (a) India (b) UK (c) Chile (d) None of these Answer:(d) None of these 4. Choose the word that is same in meaning as the word “abound” as used in the passage. (a) around (b) proliferate (c) flourish (d) plentiful Answer:(d) plentiful 5. According to the passage, what is the annual growth rate of computer in India ?

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(a) 8% (b) 5% (c) 0.5% (d) Not mentioned Answer:(d) Not mentioned 6. According to the passage which country is at present the most advanced in e-governance ? (a) Singapore (b) Chile (c) India (d) USA Answer:(a) Singapore 7. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning of the word “dismal” as used in the passage. (a) grim (b) approve (c) pleasing (d) better Answer:(c) pleasing 8. Which of the following has not been one of the effects of submitting income tax return over internet in chile ? (a) Increase in no. of returns (b) Reduction in errors (c) Increase in transparency (d) Reduction of legal cases Answer:(a) Increase in no. of returns 9. According to the passage, which country has the most ambitious plan for e-governance ? (a) USA (b) Chile (c) Singapore (d) India Answer:(c) Singapore 10. In which direction is the new wind blowing ? (a) Integrating e-commerce, e- business and e-governance (d) Outsourcing the work of infrastructure creation for internet 67

(c) Increasing the penetration of computers in rural areas (d) More and more interaction of citizens with government government through internet Answer:(d) More and more interaction of citizens with government government through internet Ans

(Paper) SBI Management Executive Exam Paper (General Awareness)
These are the General Awareness Questions of SBI (State Bank of India) Previous year exams. Keep visiting for the next slot of questions. Q1. Which of the following car companies in India announced a special savings scheme________ ‘Happy Customer Offer’ - in December 2007? (a) Hyundai (b) Tata (c) Ford (d) Maruti Suzuki Answer: (d) Maruti Suzuki Q2. Whom did Zubin Kumar beat in the finals to win the youth boys’ crown in the National youth and junior table tennis championship in Indore on December 21 2007? (a) Raj Mondal (b) G. Sathiyan (c) Devesh Karia (d) Satyajit Prasanna Answer: (c) Devesh Karia Q3. The Eleventh Plan Document approved by the National Development Council (NDC) on December 19, 2007 envisages a growth of _____ percent during 2001-12 the terminal year of plan period. (a) Eight (b) Nine (c) Ten (d) Eleven Answer: (c) Ten Q4. The _________ based Prudentail Finance (INC (PFI), on December 4, 2007 announced an asset management joint venture with real estate giant DLF with which it already has a life insurance partnership.

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(a) USA (b) Canada (c) South Africa (d) Singapore Answer: (a) USA Q5. Who, among the following golfers, won the Target World Challenge Cup in Thousand Oaks on December 16, 2007? (a) Zach Johnson (b) Lee Westwood (c) Tiger Woods (d) HenrikStenson Answer: (c) Tiger Woods Q6. Which of the following countries, on December 17, 2007, expressed its interest in investments by Indian corporates for construction and promotion of budget hotels in the island nation ? (a) Sri Lanka (b) Mauritius (c) Maldives (d) Tuvalu Answer: (a) Sri Lanka Q7. The American cyclist, stripped of his 2006 Tour de France title for doping, who was banned from all competitions in France by the country’s anti-doping agency AFLD, on December 19, 2007 is ___________ . (a) Fabio Lefebore (b) John Carragher (c) Desmond Capello (d) Floyd Landis Answer: (d) Floyd Landis Q8. In December 2007, Nasdaq opened an office in the Asian capital-city of _________aimed at stepping up efforts at attracting more firms to list on the exchange and forging deeper ties with bourses and regulators. (a) Seoul (b) Beijing (c) Tokyo (d) Manila Answer: (b) Beijing

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Q9. The French Minister for Foreign and European Affairs who visited India in December 2007 to prepare the ground for French President Nicolas Sarkozy’s visit in January 2008 is . (a) Bernard Kouchner (b) Andrei Strahler (c) William Tarbuck (d) Philip Randell Answer: (a) Bernard Kouchner Q10. Which of the following teams was defeated by Chennai Superstars to win the ICL (Indian Cricket Leagure) Twenty-20 final in Panchkula on December 16, 2007? (a) Kolkata Tigers (b) Chandigarh Lions (c) Hyderabad Heroes (d) Delhi Jets Answer: (b) Chandigarh Lions Q11. Hollywood star in box-office hits like ‘Monster-in-Law’, fitness guru and activist who turned seventy years old on December 21, 2007 is ___________. (a) Olivia Silverstone (b) Lisa Marigold (c) Jane Fonda (d) Elizabeth Turner Answer: (c) Jane Fonda Q12. The editor of Jaipur-based monthly journal, “Sharad Krishi” who was on December 18, 2007 presented the prestigious Atmaram Prize for developing scientific and technical literature in Hindi is . (a) Mahendra Madhup (b) Anupam Shrivastava (c) Dhirendra Singh Parmar (d) Gaurav Bainsala Answer: (a) Mahendra Madhup Q13. The former British Prime Minister who, in December 2007, was welcomed into Britain’s Catholic community after his/ her conversion to the the Catholic Church is___________. (a) John Major (b) Tony Blair (c) Rowan Williams (d) Margaret Thatcher

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Answer: (b) Tony Blair Q14. After16, months of marathon hearing the inquiry into the 1985 Kanishka bombing ended in Toronto on December 13, 2007. The bombing of the Air India flight killed _________ people. (a) 117 (b) 233 (c) 329 (d) 409 Answer: (c) 329 Q15. Thousands of workers in which of the following countries, on December 15, 2007 march through the national capital to protest against the pressures on life and fuel and food prices due to the failure of the political leaders to form a government after the June 2007 general elections? (a) Belgium (b) Czech Republic (c) Romania (d) Slovakia Answer: (a) Belgium Q16. The former managing editor of SAGE India and longtime Doordarshan news reader who died in Landour (above Mussorie) on December 16, 2007 is . (a) Pakaj Singh (b) Rajesh Sharma (c) Tajeshwar Singh (d) Mohanlal Chaturvedi Answer: (c) Tajeshwar Singh Q17. In which of the following capital cities, of Gulf Cooperation Council countries, did Union Bank of India open its representative office in December 2007? (a) Riyadh (b) Doha (c) Kuwait City (d) Abu Dhabi Answer: (d) Abu Dhabi Q18. The Supreme Court of ___________ sentenced the former President, Alberto . K. Fujimori, on December 11, 2007 sentenced the former President K. Fujimori to six years in prison for ordering an illegal search as his government was collapsing in 2000.

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(a) Peru (b) Chile (c) Colombia (d) Mexico Answer: (a) Peru Q19. The United States and China, in December 2007, held the Sino-U. S. Strategic Economic Dialogue (SED) in . (a) New York (b) Beijing (c) Oslo (d) Seattle Answer: (a) Beijing Q20. Which of the following countries on December 23, 2007 conclude the annual central rural work conference with a pledge to improve rural infrastructure, promote stable development of agriculture and facilitate a sustained income growth for farmers in the year 2008? (a) Brazil (b) Canada (c) China (d) Argentina Answer: (c) China

(Paper) LIC AAO General Knowledge Paper (2008)
LIC AAO 2008 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PAPER
1. In which of the following years the Government of India nationalised the general insurance business under the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act? (1) 1970 (2) 1972 (3) 1976 (4) 1973 (5) 1981 2. When was the Kalka-Shimla Railway Line added to the UNESCO's World Heritage List? (1) April 18.2008 (2) July 8. 2008 (3) August 15, 2007 (4) January 26,2008 (5) March 23, 2008

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3. The famous Kailasanath Temple at Kanchiwasbuiltby was built by: (1) Mahendravarman I (2) Narasimhavarman II (3) Nandivarman II (4) Dantivarman (5) None of these 4. Shivaji ceded the forts to the Mughals by which treaty? (1) Chittor (2) Pune (31 Purandar (4) Toma (5) None of these 5. The Life Insurance Corporation of India was established in September 1956 under an Act of the Indian Parliament. The Government of India invested a capital of ------ in this corporation. (1) Rs.5 •crore (2) Rs. 4 crore (3) Rs. 7 crore (4) Rs. (3 crore. (5) None otthese 6. Bindusara sent Asoka to quell the rebellion in.. (1) Swamagiri (2) Taxila (3) Uijain (4) Tosali (5) None of these 7. 'Royal Asiatic Society' was founded by (1) Sir William Jones (2) Sir John Marshall (3) R. D. BaneIjee (4) Sir William Bentick (5) None of these 8. The first Sultan of Delhi. who attempted the conquest of South India was (1) gutb-ud-din Mubarak (2) Nasir-ud-din Khusrav Shah I (3) Ala-ud-din Khilji (4) Jala-ud-din Firoz (5) None of these 9. Which of the following countries in February 2008 lifted a ban on Islamic

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headscarves at varsities? (1) Turkey (2) Germany (3) Kuwait (4) Afghanistan (5) indonesia 10. Mahaballpuramis an important city that reveals the interest in arts of... (1) Pallavas (2) Cheras (3) Pandyas (4) Chalukyas (5) None of these 11. The renowned musician duo: Tansen and Baiju Bawra, flourishec during the reign of (1) Jehangir (2) Bahadur Shah zafar (3) Akbar (4) ShahJahan (5) None of these 12. Lord Mahavira died at (1) Saravana Belagola (2) Lumbini Garden (3) KaIugumaIai (4) Pavapuri (5) None of these 13. The Indus people knew the use of Weights and Measures, which is proved by the discoveiy of the seal at (1) KaIibangan (2) Harappa (3) Chanhudaro (4) Lothal (5) None of these 14. Which language was mostly used for• the propagation of Buddhism? (I) Sanskrit (2) Prakrit (3) Pall (4) Sauraseni (5) None of these 15. The 11 th National Conference on e-Governance was held in February 2008 at 1) Chennai

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(2) Guwahati (3) Jaipur (4) Chandigarh (5) None of these 16. Which of the following statements about Kharif and Rabi is not-correct? (1) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in late Spring (2) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in Autumn (3) Rabi season begins in Autumn after the rains and harvested in late Spring. (4) Important Kharif crops are rice, millets. jute, maize and cotton; important Rabi crops are wheat, gram. barley and linseed (5) None of these 17. Raniganj Coal Mine is situated in (1) Bihar (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) West Bengal (4) Maharashtra (5) None ofthes~ 18. Bosnia-Herzegovina formed the parts of (1) Czechoslovakia (2) Yugoslavia (3) Bulgaria (4) Azerbaijan (5) None of these 19. Major producer of sugar is (1) Australia (2) Cuba (3) India (4) Mauritius (5) None of these 20. In the north-east of the Deccan plateau is? (1) Chhola Nagpur plateau (2) Malawa plateau (3) Deccan plateau (4) Vindhyan Range (5) None of these

Answers: 1. 1 2. 2 3.2

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4.3 5.1 6.3 7.1 8. 3 9. 1 10. 1 11. 3 12. 4 13. 2 14. 3 15. 4 16. 1 17. 3 18. 2 19. 2 120.1

(Paper) General Awareness Paper of Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008 (Held on 14-09-2008)
Paper Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008 (Held on 14-09-2008)
General Awareness 1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front? (A) Prakash Karat (B) A.B.Bardhan (C) D.Raju (D) T.J.Chandrachoodan (E) M.Veerappa Moily Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.

2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States? (A) Maharashtra (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Gujarat (D) Rajasthan (E) None of these Ans (C)

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3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ? (A) 7% (B) 7.5% (C) 8% (D) 8.5% (E) None of these Ans (C)

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ? (1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere (2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen (3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI (A) Only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) Only 2 & 3 Ans (A)

5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ? (A) West Bengal (B) Keral (C) Orissa (D) Karnataka (E) None of these Ans (B)

6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___ (A) Britain (B) U.S.A. (C) Japan (D) Canada (E) China Ans (B)

7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew 77

its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ? (1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time (2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs (3) Nuclear deal with USA (A) Only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2 (E) Only 2 & 3 Ans (C)

8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ? (A) South Korea (B) Iran (C) China (D) North Korea (E) None of these Ans (D)

9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ? (A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) (B) Bank Rate (C) Repo Rate (D) Reserve Repo Rate (E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) Ans (E)

10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship" ? (A) North Korea (B) South Korea (C) Japan (D) Russia (E) All of these Ans (C)

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11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ? (A) Venezuela (B) Russia (C) Uganda (D) Tanzania (E) None of these Ans (B)

12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ? (A) IDBI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) Bajaj Capitals (D) ICICI Bank (E) None of these Ans (B)

13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____ (A) Lebanon (B) Cuba (C) Yemen (D) Zambia (E) Turkey Ans (A)

14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ? (1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence (2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same (3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme (A) Only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (A)

15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ? (A) Iran 79

(B) Indonesia (C) Kuwait (D) Saudi Arabia (E) None Of these Ans (B)

16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is _______ (A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks (B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population (C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery (D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently (E) None of these Ans (C)

17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______ (A) 2.5 % (B) 3 % (C) 4.5 % (D) 5 % (E) 6.33 % Ans (C)

18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ? (A) Oil (B) Gas (C) Sugar (D) Foodgrain (E) None of these Ans (A)

19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ? (1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India (2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs (3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions (A) Only 1 80

(B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (A)

20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____ (A) Rs. 20,000/(B) Rs. 25,000/(C) Rs. 23,000/(D) Rs. 33,000/(E) Rs. 48,000/Ans (D)

21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______ (A) Katrina Srebtnik (B) Dinara Safina (C) Virginia Ruano Pascual (D) Victoria Azarenka (E) None of these Ans (B)

22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days? (A) 5TH October (B) 5TH August (C) 5TH July (D) 5TH June (E) None of these Ans (D)

23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"? (A) L. N. Mittal (B) Anil Ambani (C) Kumar Mangalam Birla (D) Mukesh Ambani (E) Ratan Tata Ans (A)

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24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank? (A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society (B) Accident insurance cover (C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques (D) Free cheque book (E) All are value Added services Ans (D)

25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008 ? (A) Rs.10,000 Crore (B) Rs.25,000 Crore (C) Rs.45,000 Crore (D) Rs.72,000 Crore (E) Rs.83,000 Crore Ans (D)

26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ? (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Goa (E) Delhi Ans (E)

27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in ____ (A) China (B) South Korea (C) North Korea (D) Japan (E) USA Ans (D)

28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China? (A) Indian (B) Air India (C) Kingfisher 82

(D) Jet Airways (E) None of these Ans (D)

29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ? (A) Arab League Summit (B) G-8 Summit (C) G-15 Summit (D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members (E) None of these Ans (A)

30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ? (A) China (B) Bangladesh (C) Nepal (D) Bhutan (E) Myanmar Ans (E)

31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ? (A) Retail Banking (B) Merchant Banking (C) Institutional Banking (D) Social Banking (E) Corporate Banking Ans (A)

32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector? (A) SLR (B) NPA (C) Credit Rating (D) Fixed (E) PURA Ans (E)

33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?

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(A) Agriculture Sector (B) Service Sector (C) Manufacturing (D) Industrial Sector (E) None of these Ans (B)

34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as _____ (A) Demat Account (B) NRI Account (C) NRIO Account (D) Current Account (E) None of these Ans (A)

35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ? (A) CRR (B) RTGS (C) SLR (D) Deposit Insurance (E) All are the measures of risk management Ans (B)

36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______ (A) 50 % (B) 100% (C) 125 % (D) 200 % (E) 250 % Ans (C)

37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004-2009 ? (A) Foreign Trade Policy (B) 11th Five Year Plan (C) 10th Five Year Plan (D) National Rural Guarantee Act (E) None of these Ans (A)

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38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ? (A) EEG (B) Narco Test (C) ELISA Test (D) Mind mapping (E) DOPE tEST Ans (E)

39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress? (A) Shamita Shetty (B) Rani Mukherjee (C) Priyanka Chopra (D) Konkana Sen (E) Kareena Kapoor Ans (E)

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ? (A) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam (B) Ashok Lahiri (C) Amartya Sen (D) M.S.Swaminathan (E) None of these Ans (D)

41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema? (A) Kalidas Samman (B) Dronacharya Award (C) Arjun Award (D) Kalinga Award (E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award Ans (E)

42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ? (A) Chad (B) Uganda (C) Libya (D) Lebanon 85

(E) None of these Ans (A)

43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society? (A) Kareena Kapoor (B) Jaya Bachchan (C) Shabana Azmi (D) Sridevi (E) None of these Ans (E) Nafisa Ali

44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ? (A) NIMI (B) IGNOU (C) CAPART (D) NPCIL (E) ICRP Ans (C)

45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in ____ (A) Russia (B) Middle East (C) Africa (D) Europe (E) Canada Ans (B)

46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year? (A) V.S.Naipaul (B) Indra Sinha (C) William Darlymple (D) Bill Clinton (E) John Banville Ans (B)

47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ? (A) 55th

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(B) 80th (C) 100th (D) 120th (E) None of these Ans (D) According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position.

48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ? (A) Grand Slam (B) Half Nelson (C) Ashes (D) Screen (E) Love Ans (C)

49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following? (A) Global Energy (B) China Sea (C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists (D) Nuclear installation in China (E) None of these Ans (D)

50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ? (A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP) (B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM) (C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP) (D) ANNAPURNA (E) Desert Development Programme (DDP) Ans (D)

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Canara Bank PO Paper Held On 15 March 2009 (General Knowledge)
Canara Bank PO Paper Held On 15 March 2009 (General Knowledge)
1. As per the recent reports published in newspapers / magazines, India ranks at a lower level in Hunger Index. The Hunger Index is measured on which of the following indicators? 2. Child Malnutrition 3. Rate of Child Mortality 4. Rate of Literacy 5. No. of people who are calories deficient (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) AliI, 2, 3 and 4 (E) None of these 2. Who amongst the following economists gave the concept of 'economies of scale', which says 'many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series' ? (A) Edward C. Prescott (B) Amartya Sen (C) Gary S. Becker (D) Edmund S. Phelps (E) Paul Krugman 3. As per the recent report which of the following countries emerged as India's top trading partner during 2008-09 ? (A) Russia (B) Brazil (C) USA (D) China (E) None ofthese 4. In its mid term review of the economy the Reserve Bank of India pegged the country's economic growth for fiscal year 2008-09 at which of the following levels? (A) 6% (B) 6.5% (C) 7% (D) 7.7% (E) 8.7% 5. Which of the following countries has elected Joe Biden as its Vice President in its 88

general elections held in November 2008 ? (A) Britain (B) Canada (C) Australia (D) USA (E) None of these 6. Very often we read in newspapers / magazines about 'Sovereign Wealth Funds'. Which of the following is / are the correct description of the same? 1. These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns. 2. These are the funds, which were accumulated by some/ people over the years buf were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years. 3. The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailouts packages are known as sovereign funds. (A) Both 2 and 3 only (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 (E) None of these 7. The Govt. of India has decided to declare which of the following rivers a National River? (A) Brahmaputra (B) Yamuna (C) Ganga (D) Kaveri (E) None of these 8. Very often we read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in news-papers. What was the purpose of promoting SEZs in India? a. They are established to pro-mote exports. b. They are established to attract investments from foreign countries. c. They are established to help poorest of the poors in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only for poors and those living below poverty line. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only3 (D) Both 1 and 2 only (E) None of these 9. The Asian Cooperation Dialogue Conference of 31 nations was organized in October 2008 in-

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(A) New Delhi (B) Seoul (S. Korea) (C) Beijing (China) (D) Dhaka (Bangladesh) (E) Astana (Kazakhastan) 10. The White Tiger is a book written by(A) Arnitav Ghosh (B) Arundhati Roy (C) V. S. Naipaul (D) Kiran Desai (E) Aravind Adiga 11. The Ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with RBI is known as(A) Liquidity Ratio (B) SLR (C) CRR (D) Net Demand & Time Liability (E) None of these 12. A Rs. 35000 crore JSW Steel Plant was inaugurated in November 2008 in(A) Kota (B) Nandigram (C) Pune (D) Jamshedpur (E) Salboni 13. The Govt. of India in order to provide some relief to the exporters announced a relief package ofRs.(A) 1000 crores (B) 2500 crores (C) 4000 crores (D) 5000 crores (E) 7000 crores 14. Which of the following awards/ honours was conferred upon Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently? (A) Man of the year (B) Kala Shikhar Samman (C) Dada Saheb Phalke Award (D) Kalidas Samman (E) Bharat Ratna 15. Which of the following Space Craft was launched recently to prepare a 3 dimensional Atlas of the lunar surface and also for chemical mapping of entire lunar surface?

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(A) PSLV-II (B) Chandrayan II (C) Chandrayan III (D) Chandrayan-I (E) None of these 16. As per new revised rules now Foreign Direct Investment in Insurance sector is possible upto the limit ofA) 26% (B) 40% (C) 49% (D) 70% (E) None of these 17. Who amongst the following players recently became the first ever Indian to win a World Championship in Badminton? (A) P. Gopichand (B) Saina Nehwal (C) Aparna Popat (D) Nandu M. Natekar (E) None of these 18. Which of the following countries got Wan chuck as its fifth King recently? (A) Bhp.tan (B) Nepal (C) Japan (D) Spain (E) None of these 19. As per the news reports members of the SAARC agreed to establish a 'SAARC Food Bank' to ensure food security for members in case of any emergency. Which of the following nations agreed to provide maximum quantity of food for the bank ? (It will provide 1,53,200 tonnes) PDI August/2009/316 (A) India (B) Bhutan (C) Sri Lanka (D) Pakistan (E) None of these 20. The availability of Cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as(A) Cash crunch (B) Liquidity (C) Credit (D) Marketability

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(E) None of these 21. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries so that they are allowed to deal smoothly with the problem of fishermen who cross International Maritime Boundary Line? (A) Bangladesh (B) Sri Lanka (C) Pakistan (D) Myanmar (E) None of these 22. The World Development Report 2009 was released recently. Who publishes the World Development Report every year? (A) Asian Development Bank (B) World Bank (C) International Monetary Fund (D) United Nations Organizations (E) None of these 23. The 3rd IBSA Summit took place in New Delhi in October 2008. Which of the following statements about the same is / are correct? 1. Leaders agreed to set a trilateral trade target of US$ 25 million by 2015. 2. Leaders adopted a 50 point Delhi Summit Declaration which has their views on global governance. 3. IBSA agreed to provide its membership to China and Russia from 2011 (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these

24. As per newspaper reports India's Trade gap is showing a negative growth since last few months 'Trade Gap' means what? (A) Gap between total GDP and total consumption (B) Gap between total Imports and total Exports (C) Gap between available liquidity and expected demand in next five months (D) Gap between budgeted revenue collection and actual collection of the same (E) None of these 25. Mr. Kgalema Motlanthe who was on a visit to India in October 2008 is the(A) President of South Africa (B) Prime Minister of South Africa (C) President of Kenya (D) Prime Minister of Kenya (E) Deputy Director General of UNO

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26. As per the reports published in newspapers India allowed to open Cross-LaC Trade after a gap of about 60 years. Which of the following routes was thrown open for the same? (A) Srinagar-Muzaffarabad (B) Kolkata-Dhaka (C) Varanasi-Kathmandu (D) Imphal-Yangon (E) None of these 27. Who amongst the following scored his 40th century in the Test cricket while playing against Australia in Nagpur in November 2008? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Ani! Kumble (C) M. S. Dhoni (D) Harbhajan Singh (E) None of these 28. Mr. Mohammed Anni Nasheed's name was in news in recent past as he has taken over as President of(A) Bangladesh (B) Maldives (C) Malaysia (D) Indonesia (E) None of these 29. The financial turmoil all over the world in recent past has also put some effect on Indian economy. What measures RBI had taken to improve the situation? 1. SLR has been reduced by one percentage points and at present is 24% 2. An advance of Rs. 25,000 crore provided to banks / financial institutions under the Agricultural debt waiver and Debt Relief Schemes. 3. RBI allowed banks to raise their capital by issuing Investment Bonds. Almost all big banks have issued such bond in recent past. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 & 3 (E) Only 1 & 2 both 30. Shivraj Chauhan has taken over as the Chief Minister of(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Rajasthan (C) Bihar (D) Chhattisgarh (E) Delhi 93

31. 'Jnanpith Award' is given for excellence in the field of(A) Music (B) Literature (C) Sports (D) Films (E) Social Services 32. Who amongst the following recently announced his Retirement from the cricket world? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) M. S. Dhoni (C) Harbhajan Singh (D) Rahul Dravid (E) None of these 33. The second 'BIMSTEC Summit' was organized in November 2008 in(A) Dhaka (B) Kathmandu (C) Thirnpu (D) New Delhi (E) None of these 34. The Govt. of India recently signed an agreement with Malaysia to facilitate employment of workers between the two countries. Which of the following was/were the reason(s) owing to which both the nations decided to make an agreement for the same? 1. Malaysia is an important destination for Indian workers as Malaysia has almost 1.5 lakh Indian workers. 2. Most of the Indians are employed with the plantation and construction sectors where they were not getting a fair treatment. 3. In the last few years there was a strong opposition to employ Indians as the unemployment rate in Malaysia is almost 30% (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2 only (E) None of these 35. Besides USA and France, India has also a Civil Nuclear Deal with(A) Britain (B) Russia (C) Germany (D) Canada (E) Australia 36. Which of the following countries signed an agreement with Russia so that, the

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country did not attack on it in future and Russia also did not do the same? (A) Georgia (B) Croatia (C) Slovakia (D) Tajikistan (E) Mangolia 37. The third Commonwealth Youth Games were organized in October 2008 in(A) Chandigarh (B) Bangalore (C) Pune (D) Lucknow (E) Jaipur 38. Miss Karla Paula Henry won which of the following titles 'when she participated in an event in November 2008 in Philippines? (A) Miss Earth (B) Miss World (C) Miss Universe (D) Miss Asia Pacific (E) None of these 39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'Development as Freedom' ? (A) Arnartya Sen (B) C. Rangarajan (C) Y. V. Reddy (D) Bimal Jalan (E) None of these 40. Who amongst the following cine star of India became the first upon whom Malaysian title 'Datuk' was conferred recently? (A) Arnitabh Bachchan (B) Akshay Khanna (C) Salman Khan (D) Shah Rukh Khan (E) None of these 41. Mr. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the(A) President of New Zealand (B) President of Australia (C) President of Sweden (D) President of Canada (E) None of these 42. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is observed on which of the following days?

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(A) 9th March (B) 9th February (C) 9th January (D) 19th February (E) 19th January 43. Gold Mines in India are located mainly in(A) Kolar (B) Raniganj (C) Jadugoda (D) Veeranam (E) None of these 46. Ms. Kiran Desai is the author of which of the following books ? (A) God of small things (B) The inheritance of loss (C) Midnight's children (D) A House for Mr. Biswas (E) None of these 47. Which of the following is the duration of the present Five-Year Plan ? (A) 2008-12 (B) 2009-13 (C) 2007-12 (D) 2006-11 (E) None of these 48. Which of the following Ministries was Mr. Shivraj Patil looking after immediately prior to his resignation from the cabinet? (A) Foreign Affairs (B) Home Affairs (C) Rural Development (D) Agriculture (E) None of these 49. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India provides a guaranteed 100 days l employment to rural employment seekers in India ? (A) Bharat Nirman (B) Swarnjayanti Grameen Rozgar Yojana (C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (D) National Food for Work Programme (E) None of these 50. 'Satyam' which was in news recently was operating in which of the following areas ? (A) Textile (B) Mining (C) Pharma

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(D) Automobiles (E) None of these

Answers: 1. (C) 2. (E) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (E) 11. (C) 12. (E) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (E) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (D) 41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (E)

(Paper) LIC AAO General Knowledge Paper (2008)
LIC AAO 2008 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PAPER
1. In which of the following years the Government of India nationalised the general insurance business under the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act? (1) 1970 (2) 1972 (3) 1976 (4) 1973 (5) 1981 2. When was the Kalka-Shimla Railway Line added to the UNESCO's World Heritage List? (1) April 18.2008 (2) July 8. 2008 (3) August 15, 2007 (4) January 26,2008 (5) March 23, 2008 3. The famous Kailasanath Temple at Kanchiwasbuiltby was built by: (1) Mahendravarman I (2) Narasimhavarman II (3) Nandivarman II (4) Dantivarman (5) None of these

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4. Shivaji ceded the forts to the Mughals by which treaty? (1) Chittor (2) Pune (31 Purandar (4) Toma (5) None of these 5. The Life Insurance Corporation of India was established in September 1956 under an Act of the Indian Parliament. The Government of India invested a capital of ------ in this corporation. (1) Rs.5 •crore (2) Rs. 4 crore (3) Rs. 7 crore (4) Rs. (3 crore. (5) None otthese 6. Bindusara sent Asoka to quell the rebellion in.. (1) Swamagiri (2) Taxila (3) Uijain (4) Tosali (5) None of these 7. 'Royal Asiatic Society' was founded by (1) Sir William Jones (2) Sir John Marshall (3) R. D. BaneIjee (4) Sir William Bentick (5) None of these 8. The first Sultan of Delhi. who attempted the conquest of South India was (1) gutb-ud-din Mubarak (2) Nasir-ud-din Khusrav Shah I (3) Ala-ud-din Khilji (4) Jala-ud-din Firoz (5) None of these 9. Which of the following countries in February 2008 lifted a ban on Islamic headscarves at varsities? (1) Turkey (2) Germany (3) Kuwait (4) Afghanistan (5) indonesia 10. Mahaballpuramis an important city that reveals the interest in arts of...

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(1) Pallavas (2) Cheras (3) Pandyas (4) Chalukyas (5) None of these 11. The renowned musician duo: Tansen and Baiju Bawra, flourishec during the reign of (1) Jehangir (2) Bahadur Shah zafar (3) Akbar (4) ShahJahan (5) None of these 12. Lord Mahavira died at (1) Saravana Belagola (2) Lumbini Garden (3) KaIugumaIai (4) Pavapuri (5) None of these 13. The Indus people knew the use of Weights and Measures, which is proved by the discoveiy of the seal at (1) KaIibangan (2) Harappa (3) Chanhudaro (4) Lothal (5) None of these 14. Which language was mostly used for• the propagation of Buddhism? (I) Sanskrit (2) Prakrit (3) Pall (4) Sauraseni (5) None of these 15. The 11 th National Conference on e-Governance was held in February 2008 at 1) Chennai (2) Guwahati (3) Jaipur (4) Chandigarh (5) None of these 16. Which of the following statements about Kharif and Rabi is not-correct? (1) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in late Spring (2) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in Autumn

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(3) Rabi season begins in Autumn after the rains and harvested in late Spring. (4) Important Kharif crops are rice, millets. jute, maize and cotton; important Rabi crops are wheat, gram. barley and linseed (5) None of these 17. Raniganj Coal Mine is situated in (1) Bihar (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) West Bengal (4) Maharashtra (5) None ofthes~ 18. Bosnia-Herzegovina formed the parts of (1) Czechoslovakia (2) Yugoslavia (3) Bulgaria (4) Azerbaijan (5) None of these 19. Major producer of sugar is (1) Australia (2) Cuba (3) India (4) Mauritius (5) None of these 20. In the north-east of the Deccan plateau is? (1) Chhola Nagpur plateau (2) Malawa plateau (3) Deccan plateau (4) Vindhyan Range (5) None of these

Answers: 1. 1 2. 2 3.2 4.3 5.1 6.3 7.1 8. 3 9. 1 10. 1 11. 3

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12. 4 13. 2 14. 3 15. 4 16. 1 17. 3 18. 2 19. 2 120.1

(Paper) SBI Management Executive Exam Paper (General Awareness)
These are the General Awareness Questions of SBI (State Bank of India) Previous year exams. Keep visiting for the next slot of questions. Q1. Which of the following car companies in India announced a special savings scheme________ ‘Happy Customer Offer’ - in December 2007? (a) Hyundai (b) Tata (c) Ford (d) Maruti Suzuki Answer: (d) Maruti Suzuki Q2. Whom did Zubin Kumar beat in the finals to win the youth boys’ crown in the National youth and junior table tennis championship in Indore on December 21 2007? (a) Raj Mondal (b) G. Sathiyan (c) Devesh Karia (d) Satyajit Prasanna Answer: (c) Devesh Karia Q3. The Eleventh Plan Document approved by the National Development Council (NDC) on December 19, 2007 envisages a growth of _____ percent during 2001-12 the terminal year of plan period. (a) Eight (b) Nine (c) Ten (d) Eleven Answer: (c) Ten

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Q4. The _________ based Prudentail Finance (INC (PFI), on December 4, 2007 announced an asset management joint venture with real estate giant DLF with which it already has a life insurance partnership. (a) USA (b) Canada (c) South Africa (d) Singapore Answer: (a) USA Q5. Who, among the following golfers, won the Target World Challenge Cup in Thousand Oaks on December 16, 2007? (a) Zach Johnson (b) Lee Westwood (c) Tiger Woods (d) HenrikStenson Answer: (c) Tiger Woods Q6. Which of the following countries, on December 17, 2007, expressed its interest in investments by Indian corporates for construction and promotion of budget hotels in the island nation ? (a) Sri Lanka (b) Mauritius (c) Maldives (d) Tuvalu Answer: (a) Sri Lanka Q7. The American cyclist, stripped of his 2006 Tour de France title for doping, who was banned from all competitions in France by the country’s anti-doping agency AFLD, on December 19, 2007 is ___________ . (a) Fabio Lefebore (b) John Carragher (c) Desmond Capello (d) Floyd Landis Answer: (d) Floyd Landis Q8. In December 2007, Nasdaq opened an office in the Asian capital-city of _________aimed at stepping up efforts at attracting more firms to list on the exchange and forging deeper ties with bourses and regulators. (a) Seoul (b) Beijing

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(c) Tokyo (d) Manila Answer: (b) Beijing Q9. The French Minister for Foreign and European Affairs who visited India in December 2007 to prepare the ground for French President Nicolas Sarkozy’s visit in January 2008 is . (a) Bernard Kouchner (b) Andrei Strahler (c) William Tarbuck (d) Philip Randell Answer: (a) Bernard Kouchner Q10. Which of the following teams was defeated by Chennai Superstars to win the ICL (Indian Cricket Leagure) Twenty-20 final in Panchkula on December 16, 2007? (a) Kolkata Tigers (b) Chandigarh Lions (c) Hyderabad Heroes (d) Delhi Jets Answer: (b) Chandigarh Lions Q11. Hollywood star in box-office hits like ‘Monster-in-Law’, fitness guru and activist who turned seventy years old on December 21, 2007 is ___________. (a) Olivia Silverstone (b) Lisa Marigold (c) Jane Fonda (d) Elizabeth Turner Answer: (c) Jane Fonda Q12. The editor of Jaipur-based monthly journal, “Sharad Krishi” who was on December 18, 2007 presented the prestigious Atmaram Prize for developing scientific and technical literature in Hindi is . (a) Mahendra Madhup (b) Anupam Shrivastava (c) Dhirendra Singh Parmar (d) Gaurav Bainsala Answer: (a) Mahendra Madhup Q13. The former British Prime Minister who, in December 2007, was welcomed into Britain’s Catholic community after his/ her conversion to the the Catholic Church is___________.

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(a) John Major (b) Tony Blair (c) Rowan Williams (d) Margaret Thatcher Answer: (b) Tony Blair Q14. After16, months of marathon hearing the inquiry into the 1985 Kanishka bombing ended in Toronto on December 13, 2007. The bombing of the Air India flight killed _________ people. (a) 117 (b) 233 (c) 329 (d) 409 Answer: (c) 329 Q15. Thousands of workers in which of the following countries, on December 15, 2007 march through the national capital to protest against the pressures on life and fuel and food prices due to the failure of the political leaders to form a government after the June 2007 general elections? (a) Belgium (b) Czech Republic (c) Romania (d) Slovakia Answer: (a) Belgium Q16. The former managing editor of SAGE India and longtime Doordarshan news reader who died in Landour (above Mussorie) on December 16, 2007 is . (a) Pakaj Singh (b) Rajesh Sharma (c) Tajeshwar Singh (d) Mohanlal Chaturvedi Answer: (c) Tajeshwar Singh Q17. In which of the following capital cities, of Gulf Cooperation Council countries, did Union Bank of India open its representative office in December 2007? (a) Riyadh (b) Doha (c) Kuwait City (d) Abu Dhabi Answer: (d) Abu Dhabi

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Q18. The Supreme Court of ___________ sentenced the former President, Alberto . K. Fujimori, on December 11, 2007 sentenced the former President K. Fujimori to six years in prison for ordering an illegal search as his government was collapsing in 2000. (a) Peru (b) Chile (c) Colombia (d) Mexico Answer: (a) Peru Q19. The United States and China, in December 2007, held the Sino-U. S. Strategic Economic Dialogue (SED) in . (a) New York (b) Beijing (c) Oslo (d) Seattle Answer: (a) Beijing

Q20. Which of the following countries on December 23, 2007 conclude the annual central rural work conference with a pledge to improve rural infrastructure, promote stable development of agriculture and facilitate a sustained income growth for farmers in the year 2008? (a) Brazil (b) Canada (c) China (d) Argentina Answer: (c) China

General English
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Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone. The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on. The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off. The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you
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didn’t give me anything !” His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead. The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?” “You’ll get it when you go far away.” “But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?” His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.” 41. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Why did the woman's second son travel ? He was restless by nature He did not want to stay at home He was rich and could afford to travel His job was such that he had to travel None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ? (A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home (B) He had quarrelled with his mother (C) His wife did not allow him to return home (D) His job prevented him from taking leave (E) None of these 43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ? 1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours. 2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance. 3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked

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after so that he wouldn’t be bored. (A) None (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 1 and 2 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ? 1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats. 2. He pestered his mother to give him a present. 3. He stood at the door with servants. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 3 (D) Only 3 (E) None of these 45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ? (A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly (B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age (C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time (D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy (E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad 46. What did the boy receive from his mother ? (A) She taught him the value of patience (B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers (C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts (D) She gave him a hug to express her love (E) None of these

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47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ? (A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son (B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad (C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her (D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants (E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 48. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 49. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Left Gone Quit Remaining Disappeared Forgot Packed Filled Squeezed Crowd Collected Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage. (A) Calmly (B) Happily (C) Willingly (D) Fortunately (E) Softly Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is

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any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) 51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E) 52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E) 53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E) 54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E) 55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E) Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer. 56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager— (A) Every loan (B) Each one of the loan
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(C) Any of the loan (D) All of the loan (E) No correction required 57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week— (A) Taking place at (B) Taken after (C) Being taken in (D) Taken up at (E) No correction required 58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project. (A) had asked (B) having asked about (C) was asked that (D) is asking (E) no correction required 59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early— (A) While considering (B) Consideration of (C) Considering (D) Being considerate to (E) No correction required 60. his (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate employees to achieve— That known when Who knows how Which knows how Knowing what No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful

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paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain. (2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families. (3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley. (4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied. (5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains. (6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb. 61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5) 62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (6) (B) (5) (C) (4) (D) (3) (E) (2) 63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3)
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(D) (4) (E) (5) 64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5) 65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5) Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer. 66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)

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67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E) 68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E) 69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E) 70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E) Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.

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71. (B) (C) (D) (E) 72. (B) (C) (D) (E) 73. (B) (C) (D) (E) 74. (B) (C) (D) (E) 75. (B) (C) (D) (E) 76. (B) (C) (D) (E) 77. (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) forward towards backward up around (A) went sent visited travelled gone (A) cared occupy guarded taught played (A) them whom this now which (A) expensive deserving helping demanding valuable (A) opportunity ability use encouragement achievement (A) distance extent time limits degrees

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78. (B) (C) (D) (E) 79. (B) (C) (D) (E) 80. (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) activity hope hobby duty worship (A) despite though by instead of while (A) sell read exchange invest buy

Answers: 41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C) 51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’. 52. (E) 53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’. 54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’. 55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’. 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. 66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80.

(B) (B) (D) (E) (E)

General Awareness (SBI) 1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of 116

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ANS

films Literature Sports Politics Status (A)

2. Which of the following is not a food crop ? (A) Wheat (B) Barley (C) Maize (D) Gram (E) Cotton ANS (E) 3. Union Budget always presented first in (A) The Loksabha (B) The Rajyasabha (C) Joint session of Parliament (D) Meeting of the Union cabinet (E) The State Assemblies ANS (A) 4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of the following sections of the society ? (A) Children who are bonded labour (B) Persons working in hazardous industries (C) Farmers (D) People living below poverty line (E) None of these ANS (E) 5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of (A) France (B) Argentina (C) Spain (D) New zealand (E) Italy ANS (C) 6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in (A) Jakarta (B) Bali (C) New Delhi (D) Tokyo (E) Islamabad ANS (B) 7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for reckless lending ? (A) G-7 117

(B) (C) (D) (E) ANS

G-8 SAARC World Bank IMF (E)

8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the (A) Prime Minister of Iraq (B) President of Iran (C) Prime Minister of Iran (D) President of Iraq (E) None of these ANS (B) 9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ? (A) Islamabad (B) Karanchi (C) Dhaka (D) Kathmandu (E) None of these ANS (C) 10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian sub-continent ? (A) Bhutan (B) China (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (E) Sri Lanka ANS (A) 11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ? About (A) 6 % (B) 6.5 % (C) 7 % (D) 7.5 % (E) 9 % ANS (E) 12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the (A) Governor of Karnataka (B) Chief Minister of Karnataka (C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh (D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh

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(E) None of these ANS (B) 13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and compulsory education for all those who are of the age of (A) 3 Years (B) 5 Years (C) 6-14 Years (D) 12-20 Years (E) Upto 21 Years ANS (C) 14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ? (A) Ist May (B) 10th May (C) 21st May (D) 31 st May (E) 1st June ANS (D) 15. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ANS Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous Social Work Politician Sportsman Play Wright None of these (D)

16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full form of GM ? (A) Genetically Marketed (B) Genetically Modified (C) Green & Moisturious (D) Globally Marketed (E) None of these ANS (B) 17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ? (A) UK (B) USA (C) France (D) Italy (E) None of these ANS (B) 18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in which former US Vice President Al Gore has 119

featured as a narrator ? (A) An inconvenient truth (B) The Sea (C) Road to prediction (D) Remember My Name (E) None of these ANS (A) 19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following places to discuss security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ? (A) Beijing (B) New Delhi (C) Singapore (D) Kuala Lumpur (E) None of these ANS (C) 20. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ANS 21. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ANS Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ? Serena Williams Katarina Srebotnik Andy Murray Nichlas Almagro Ricky Ponting (E) The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in Kolkat New Delhi Pune Ahmedabad None of these (E) Mumbai

22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ? (A) Nasdaq (B) Nikkei (C) Kospi (D) Dow (E) Combix ANS (E) 23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full form of 'ECB'? (A) Essential Commercial Borrowing (B) Essential Credit & Borrowing (C) External Credit & Business

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(D) External Commercial Borrowing (E) None Of These ANS (D) 24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was reshuffled recently ? (A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer (B) Rahul Gandhi (C) Priyanka (D) Jyotiraditya Scindia (E) None of these ANS (D) 25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ? (A) Manik Sarkar (B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay (C) P.Longon (D) K.Shankaranarayanan (E) None of these ANS (E)

SBI Clerk Sample Question Paper (General Awareness)
1. Which of the following places was known as a centre of learning in ancient India? (1) Nalanda (2) Ujjain (3) Allahabad (4) None of these 2. The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of the particles themselves is called. (1) conduction (2) convection (3) radiation (4) None of these 3. Only zero and one are used for operating (1) Calculator (2) Computer (3) Abacus (4) Typewriter 4. Transistor is (1) semi-conductor (2) inductor (3) modulator (4) demodulator 5. Computer cannot (1) send message (2) abstract thought 121

(3) read files (4) play music 6. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? (1) Wax (2) Starch (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose 7. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness? (1) Vit. B (2) Vit. C (3) Vit. A (4) Vit. E 8. Which of the following is the vaccine for tuberculosis? (1) OPT (2) BCG (3) Salk vaccine (4) Rubella vaccine 9. Horns, nails and hair are (1) soluble fats (2) insoluble carbohydrates (3) keratin proteins (4) complex lipids 10. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections? (1) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. (2) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (3) Chief Election Commissioner (4) Governor of the State concerned 11. Which is an ore of aluminum? (1) Chromite (2) Cuprite (3) Bauxite (4) Siderite 12. Kalidas was (1) a poet during the Gupta period. (2) a dramatist during Harshvardhana’s reign. (3) an astronomer during Gupta period. (4) None of these 13. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles? (1) Plain (2) Convex (3) Concave (4) Spherical 14. The compilation Meri Ekyawan Kavitayen is by (1) A.N. Vajpayee (2) Harivanshrai Bachchan (3) Dharam Vir Bharti

122

(4) Shiv Mangal Singh Suman 15. ‘Equinox’ means (1) days are longer than nights. (2) days and nights are equal. (3) days are shorter than nights (4) None of these 16. Who was known as “Nightingale of India”? (1) Vijaylaxmi Pandit (2) Sarojini Naidu (3) Suraiya (4) None of these 17. Gaya is associated with Lord Buddha, where he (1) was born (2) attained enlightenment (3) died (4) delivered his first sermon 18. Chemical change does not take place in (1) souring of milk into curd (2) rusting of iron in atmosphere (3) burning of magnesium ribbon in air (4) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire 19. Who is the highest wicket-taker in Indian Cricket team? (1) Javagal Srinath (2) Anil Kumble (3) Maninder Singh (4) Kapil Dev 20. Which country leads in production of aluminum and aluminum goods? (1) Austriala (2) The US (3) Russia (4) Japan 21. The Nathu La Pass, which has increased Indian trade with a neighbour, lies between India and which country? (1) Pakistan (2) Bhutan (3) Nepal (4) China (5) Tibet 22. The Banking Codes and Standards Boards has been formed to provide fair treatment to: (1) Employees’ Unions (2) Member Banks (3) Officers (4) SBI (5) Customers 23. In India, the CRR at present is approximately:

123

(1) less than 5% (2) 10% to 15% (3) 5% to 10% (4) 20% (5) 35% 24. The present salary of an MP is (Rs per month) (1) 2,500 (2) 5,000 (3) 7,500 (4) 15,000 (5) 16,000 25. Which river was recently found to be the longest? (1) Amazon (2) Nile (3) Mississippi (4) Ganga (5) Yangtze Kiang 26. The highest Indian mountain-peak is: (1) Mt Everest (2) Nanga Parbat (3) Dhaulagiri (4) Godwin Austin (5) Annapurna 27. Basel II norms will lead to: (1) Capital A/c convertibility (2) Better Stock Exchanges (3) Better CRR (4) Increased savings (5) None of these 28. Rice is which kind of crop? (1) Rabi (2) Evergreen (3) Kharif (4) Inter-seasonal (5) Monsoon 29. ‘Jog falls’ are in: (1) Kerala (2) J & K (3) U.P. (4) Uttaranchal (5) Karnataka 30. The capitals of the new States Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttaranchal are: (1) Raipur, Ranchi, Dehradun (2) Ranchi, Patna, Nainital (3) Raniganj, Patna, Dehradun

124

(4) Patna, Raipur, Nainital (5) None of the above ANSWER KEY 1) (1), 2) (1), 3) (2), 4) (1), 5) (2), 6) (1), 7) (3), 8) (2), 9) (3), 10) (3) 11) (3), 12) (1), 13) (2), 14) (1), 15) (2), 16) (2), 17) (2), 18) (4), 19) (2), 20) (2) 21) (4), 22) (5), 23) (2), 24) (5), 25) (1), 26) (2), 27) (1), 28) (5), 29) (5), 30) (1) *1. *Which of the following places was known as a centre of learning in ancient India? (1) Nalanda (2) Ujjain (3) Allahabad (4) None of these *2. *The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of the particles themselves is called. (1) conduction (2) convection (3) radiation (4) None of these *3. *Only zero and one are used for operating (1) Calculator (2) Computer (3) Abacus (4) Typewriter *4. *Transistor is (1) semi-conductor (2) inductor (3) modulator (4) demodulator *5. *Computer cannot (1) send message (2) abstract thought (3) read files (4) play music *6. *Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? (1) Wax (2) Starch (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose *7. *Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness? (1) Vit. B (2) Vit. C (3) Vit. A (4) Vit. E *8. *Which of the following is the vaccine for tuberculosis? (1) OPT (2) BCG (3) Salk vaccine

125

(4) Rubella vaccine *9. *Horns, nails and hair are (1) soluble fats (2) insoluble carbohydrates (3) keratin proteins (4) complex lipids *10. *Who conducts the State Assembly Elections? (1) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. (2) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (3) Chief Election Commissioner (4) Governor of the State concerned *11. *Which is an ore of aluminum? (1) Chromite (2) Cuprite (3) Bauxite (4) Siderite *12. *Kalidas was (1) a poet during the Gupta period. (2) a dramatist during Harshvardhana’s reign. (3) an astronomer during Gupta period. (4) None of these *13. *Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles? (1) Plain (2) Convex (3) Concave (4) Spherical *14. *The compilation Meri Ekyawan Kavitayen is by (1) A.N. Vajpayee (2) Harivanshrai Bachchan (3) Dharam Vir Bharti (4) Shiv Mangal Singh Suman *15. *‘Equinox’ means (1) days are longer than nights. (2) days and nights are equal. (3) days are shorter than nights (4) None of these *16. *Who was known as “Nightingale of India”? (1) Vijaylaxmi Pandit (2) Sarojini Naidu (3) Suraiya (4) None of these *17. *Gaya is associated with Lord Buddha, where he (1) was born (2) attained enlightenment (3) died (4) delivered his first sermon *18. *Chemical change does not take place in (1) souring of milk into curd (2) rusting of iron in atmosphere (3) burning of magnesium ribbon in air (4) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire *19. *Who is the highest wicket-taker in Indian Cricket team? 126

(1) Javagal Srinath (2) Anil Kumble (3) Maninder Singh (4) Kapil Dev *20. *Which country leads in production of aluminum and aluminum goods? (1) Austriala (2) The US (3) Russia (4) Japan *21. *The Nathu La Pass, which has increased Indian trade with a neighbour, lies between India and which country? (1) Pakistan (2) Bhutan (3) Nepal (4) China (5) Tibet *22. *The Banking Codes and Standards Boards has been formed to provide fair treatment to: (1) Employees’ Unions (2) Member Banks (3) Officers (4) SBI (5) Customers *23. *In India, the CRR at present is approximately: (1) less than 5% (2) 10% to 15% (3) 5% to 10% (4) 20% (5) 35% *24. *The present salary of an MP is (Rs per month) (1) 2,500 (2) 5,000 (3) 7,500 (4) 15,000 (5) 16,000 *25. *Which river was recently found to be the longest? (1) Amazon (2) Nile (3) Mississippi (4) Ganga (5) Yangtze Kiang *26. *The highest Indian mountain-peak is: (1) Mt Everest (2) Nanga Parbat (3) Dhaulagiri (4) Godwin Austin (5) Annapurna *27. *Basel II norms will lead to: (1) Capital A/c convertibility (2) Better Stock Exchanges (3) Better CRR 127

(4) Increased savings (5) None of these *28. *Rice is which kind of crop? (1) Rabi (2) Evergreen (3) Kharif (4) Inter-seasonal (5) Monsoon *29. *‘Jog falls’ are in: (1) Kerala (2) J & K (3) U.P. (4) Uttaranchal (5) Karnataka *30. *The capitals of the new States Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttaranchal are: (1) Raipur, Ranchi, Dehradun (2) Ranchi, Patna, Nainital (3) Raniganj, Patna, Dehradun (4) Patna, Raipur, Nainital (5) None of the above *ANSWER KEY* 1) (1), 2) (1), 3) (2), 4) (1), 5) (2), 6) (1), 7) (3), 8) (2), 9) (3), 10) (3) 11) (3), 12) (1), 13) (2), 14) (1), 15) (2), 16) (2), 17) (2), 18) (4), 19) (2), 20) (2) 21) (4), 22) (5), 23) (2), 24) (5), 25) (1), 26) (2), 27) (1), 28) (5), 29) (5), 30) (1)

General Awareness Sample Paper: SSC Audit Sept 2007
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for (a) equality before law. (b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. (c) abolition of titles. (d) abolition of untouchability. 2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for (a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir. (b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland. (c) special provisions in respect of Manipur. (d) provisions in respect of financial emergency. 3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council? (a) Three (b) Five

128

(c) Six (d) Four 4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an (a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy (c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity. 5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by (a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau. (b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel. (c) Mill, Bentham and Plato. (d) Locke, Mill and Hegel. 6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the (a) President (b) Prime Minister. (c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament. (d) Members of the Lok Sabha. 7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'? (a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus (c) Justin (d) Pliny 8. The Vedas are known as (a) Smriti. (b) Sruti. (c) Jnana. (d) Siksha. 9. The members of Estimate Committee are (a) elected from the Lok Sabha only. (b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only. (c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor? (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. (b) Chief Minister. (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (d) President. 11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called (a) Scarce currency. (b) Soft currency.

129

(c) Gold currency. (d) Hot currency. 12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development? (a) GDP (b) Disposable income (c) NNP (d) Per capita income 13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in (a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector. (c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors. 14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is (a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade. (c) International trade. (d) Free trade. 15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the (a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) (b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) (c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74) (d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79) 16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which (a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public. (b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks. (c) Government loans are floated. (d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers. 17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called (a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods. (c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods. 18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by (a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson (c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall 19. Smoke is formed due to (a) solid dispersed in gas. (b) solid dispersed in liquid.

130

(c) gas dispersed in solid. (d) gas dispersed in gas. 20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography? (a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide (c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride. 21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains (a) Methane. (b) Ethane and butane. (c) propane and butane. (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene. 22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process (a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation (c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis 23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow? (a) Blue (b) Green (c) Orange (d) Red 24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its (a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition. (c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost. 25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes? (a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata (c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini 26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting? (a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement (c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation. 27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye? (a) Purandar Das 131

(b) Shyamal Bhatt (c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar 28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease? (a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis (c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria 29. What is the principal ore of aluminium? (a) Dolomite (b) Copper (c) Lignite (d) Bauxite 30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government? (a) The US (b) Norway (c) India (d) The UK 31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the (a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council (c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry 32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for (a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing" (c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing" 33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007? (a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha (c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi 34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with (a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate. (c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate. 35. India's biggest enterprise today is (a) the Indian Railways. 132

(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System. (c) the India Power Sector. (d) the India Telecommunication System. 36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is (a) Indian Statistical Institute. (b) Reserve Bank of India. (c) Central Statistical Organisation. (d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research. 37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India? (a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission (c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India 38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called. (a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit (c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit 39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its (a) production. (b) production and sale. (c) Production and transportation. (d) Production, transportation and sale. 40. In the US, the President is elected by (a) The Senate. (b) Universal Adult Franchise. (c) The House of Representatives. (d) The Congress. 41. Fascism believes in (a) Peaceful change (b) Force (c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual 42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur? (a) Supervision (b) Management (c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing

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43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as (a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital. (c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital. 44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently? (a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km (c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km 45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in (a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir. 46. M. Damodaran is the (a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India. (b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India. (c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India. (d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India. 47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously? (a) BrahMos (b) Chetak (c) Astra (d) Tejas 48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain? (a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw (c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown. 49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in (a) France. (b) China. (c) Germany. (d) South Africa. 50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy

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(c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon 51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is (a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida (b) Whither Secular India? (c) Ayodhya and Aftermath (d) Shining India and BJP. 52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"? (a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum (c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara 53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse (b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance (d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878 54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by (a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon. (c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon. 55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was (a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life. (c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society. 56. Name the capital of Pallavas. (a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi. (c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram. 57. The Home Rule League was started by (a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak (c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang 58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because (a) it sought tocurb civil liberties. (b) it proposed to partition India. 135

(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation. (d) it proposed measures for nationalism. 59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during (a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones (c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse. 60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with (a) The Montagu Decleration. (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms. (c) The Morley-Minto Reforms. (d) The Rowlatt Act. 61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by (a) counting the number of branches. (b) measuring the height ,of the tree. (c) measuring the diameter of the trunk. (d) counting the number of rings in the trunk. 62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are (a) Viruses (b) Bacteria (c) Algae d) Fungi 63. What is an endoscope? (a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal (b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats (c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders (d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles. 64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as (a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus (c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis 65. The President of India is elected by (a) members of both Houses of the Parliament. (b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures. (c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies. (d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies. 66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is (a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants. 136

(c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms. 67. Diamond and Graphite are (a) allotropes (b) isomorphous (c) isomers (d) isobars 68. Kayak is kind of (a) tribal tool. (b) boat. (c) ship. (d) weapon. 69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value? (a) Carbohydrates (b) fats (c) Proteins (d) Vitamins. 70. Rotation of crops means (a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility. (b) some crops are growing again and again. (c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity. (d) None of these. 71. Suez Canal connects (a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean. (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea. (c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie. (d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario. 72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland? (a) Kandla (b) Kochi (c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam. 73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to (a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation. (c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation. 74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is (a) excessive fuel wood collection. (b) excessive soil erosion.

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(c) floods. (d) construction of roads. 75. Recharging of water table depends on (a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area. (c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation. Answers Part - I 1. (d) 6. (d) 11. (d) 16. (a) 21. (a) 26. (c) 31. (c) 36. (d) 41. (d) 46. (c) 51. (c) 56. (b) 61. (a) 66. (a) 71. (d) 2. (d) 7. (b) 12. (a) 17. (d) 22. (b) 27. (c) 32. (c) 37. (b) 42. (a) 47. (d) 52. (d) 57. (c) 62. (a) 67. (b) 72. (d) 3. (b) 8. (b) 13. (a) 18. (a) 23. (b) 28. (d) 33. (c) 38. (a) 43. (b) 48. (d) 53. (d) 58. (d) 63. (a) 68. (b) 73. (a) 4. (c) 9. (a) 14. (b) 19. (a) 24. (a) 29. (d) 34. (a) 39. (a) 44. (a) 49. (b) 54. (b) 59. (c) 64. (d) 69. (a) 74. (d) 5. (a) 10. (b) 15. (c) 20. (b) 25. (d) 30. (a) 35. (c) 40. (b) 45. (c) 50. (a) 55. (a) 60. (d) 65. (d) 70. (b) 75. (a)

Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous Year Question Paper 2007 (II Numerical Ability)
Directions (51-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? 51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=? (1) 196.153 (2) 149.153 (3) 169.153 (4) 176.135 (5) None of these

138

52. ? x 19 = 7828 (1) 411 (2) 412 (3) 413 (4) 414 (5) 415 53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ? (1) 200.04 (2) 201.04 (3) 200.14 (4) 202.14 (5) 203.04 54. 734 / ? = 91.75 (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 10 (5) None of these 55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ? (1) 105 (2) 115 (3) 70 (4) 35 (5) None of these 56. 5938+4456+2891 = ? (1) 15255 (2) 14285

139

(3) 13285 (4) 12385 (5) None of these 57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=? (1) 1585.91 (2) 1286.94 (3) 1950.02 (4) 1950.11 (5) 1951.01 58. 434 x 645=? (1) 27840 (2) 297930 (3) 279903 (4) 279930 (5) None of these 59. 7 x ? =29.05 (1) 4.05 (2) 4.15 (3) 3.95 (4) 4.28 (5) None of these 60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ? (1) 16 (2) 29 (3) 12 (4) 18 (5) None of these

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61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ? (1) 314 (2) 313 (3) 312 (4) 311 (5) None of these 62. 806 / 26 =? (1) 30 (2) 32 (3) 34 (4) 36 (5) None of these 63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16 (1) 92.05 (2) 95.25 (3) 93.15 (4) 94.35 (5) None of these 64. ((337 +146) x 8)=? (1) 3884 (2) 1515 (3) 3864 (4) 1505 (5) 3846 65. (1) (2) 141

(3) (4) (5) 66. 4758-2782-1430=? (1) 356 (2) 396 (3) 486 (4) 546 (5) None of these 67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =? (1) 423.25 (2) 68.25 (3) 593.775 (4) 472.5 (5) None of these 68. (1) 43 (2) 45 (3) 47 (4) 49 (5) 51 69. (1) 1444 (2) 1442 (3) 1448 (4) 1456 (5) 1460 142

70. (1) 25 (2) 64 (3) 8 (4) 7.5 (5) None of these 71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ? (1) 192 (2) 202 (3) 212 (4) 239 (5) 242 72. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 73. (1) 1511 (2) 1531 (3) 1515 (4) 1553 (5) 1521 74. 484 of + 366 of = ? (1) 663 143

(2) 844 (3) 668 (4) 848 (5) 666 75. 280% of 460 =? (1) 1188 (2) 1284 (3) 1288 (4) 1280 (5) None of these 76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246? (1) 118 x 13+209 x 42 (2) 174 x 10+222 x 19 (3) 173 x 12+221 x 24 (4) 169 x 16+167 x 50 (5) None of these 77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar? (1) Rs. 3.377 (2) Rs. 4.473 (3) Rs. 4.377 (4) Rs. 4.743 (5) Rs. 4.347 78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus? (1) 343 km (2) 283 km (3) 353 km (4) 245 km 144

(5) 340 km 79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number? (1) 410 (2) 820 (3) 420 (4) 220 (5) None of these 80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square? (1) 20 (2) 21 (3) 22 (4) 23 (5) None of these 81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three? (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 13 (4) 16 (5) None of these 82. Find the average of the following set of scores: 118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229 (1) 148 (2) 152 (3) 156 (4) 160 (5) 175

145

83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples? (1) Rs. 216 (2) Rs.108 (3) Rs. 189 (4) Rs. 225 (5) Rs. 162 84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth? (1) 43 (2) 48 (3) 55 (4) 53 (5) 62 85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number? (1) 59 (2) 58 (3) 57 (4) 56 (5) None of these 86. What is 184 times 156? (1) 28704 (2) 29704 (3) 30604 (4) 27604 (5) None of these 87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

146

5989

48 11=?

(1) 1375 (2) 1370 (3) 1372 (4) 1368 (5) 1365 88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get? (1) Rs. 206 (2) Rs. 210 (3) Rs. 204 (4) Rs. 218 (5) Rs. 212 89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ? (1) 2408 (2) 2426 (3) 7310 (4) 7130 (5) 2139 90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit? (1) Rs. 1,530 (2) Rs. 1,540 (3) Rs. 1,200 (4) Rs. 1,180 (5) None of these

147

91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot? (1) Rs. 2,091 (2) Rs. 1,981 (3) Rs. 1,991 (4) Rs. 1,891 (5) None of these 92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number? (1) 95 (2) 100 (3) 105 (4) 108 (5) 112 93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly? (1) 45 years (2) 40 years (3) 35 years (4) 30 years (5) 25 years 94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers? (1) 120 (2) 124 (3) 140 (4) 144 (5) 150

148

95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy? (1) Rs. 24 (2) Rs. 29 (3) Rs. 30 (4) Rs. 15 (5) Rs. 20 96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x? (1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5.5 (4) 6.5 (5) None of these 97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job? (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) (4) (5) 98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set? (1) Rs. 9,200 (2) Rs. 7,200 (3) Rs. 8,600 (4) Rs. 9,800 (5) Rs. 10,000

149

99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination? (1) 86 (2) 88 (3) 84 (4) 90 (5) None of these 100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?

(1) 126 (2) 124 (3) 130 (4) 132 (5) 136 ANSWERS 51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1) 61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4) 71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2) 81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5) 91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)

Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous Year Question Paper 2007 (III Clerical Aptitude)
CLERICAL APTITUDE Directions (101-135): In each question below a combination of Name and Address is given in the first column at the left followed by four such combinations one each under the columns 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to find out the combination which is exactly the same as the combination in the first column. The number of that column which contains that combination is the answer. If all the combinations are different, the answer is '5'

150

1 101 Naresh Jain Naresh Jain Phool Galli, 27 Phool Galli, Ujjain 489650 72 Tikam Haryanwi 211, Sector 19'B' Hamirpur-26 103 Komal Shirali Venkatesh Chowk Nampalli-74 104 Lynette Montiero D'mello Road Goa-11 105 Sohail Hassan Firdosi Baug Fatehpur-588 D.S. Patra Tikam Haryanwi 112, Sector 19'B'

2 Naresh Jani Phool Galli, 27 Tikam Haryanwi 211, Sector 19'B'

3 Naresh Jain Phool Galli, 27 Tikam Haryanwi 211, Sector 19'B'

4 Naresh Jain Phool Galli, 27 Tikam Haryanwi 211, Sector 19'D'

5 Non e

Ujjain 489650 Ujjain 489650 Ujjain 489650 Ujjain 849650 102 Non e

Hamirpur-26 Hamirpur-26 Hamirpur-62 Hamirpur-26 Kamal Shirali Komal Shirali Komal Shirali Komal Shirali Non e Venkatesh Venkatesh Venkatesh Venkatesh Chowk Chowk Chowk Chowk Nampalli-74 Nampalli-47 Nompalli-74 Nampalli-74 Lynette Montiero Lynette Montiero Lynette Montiro Lvnette Montiero Non e

D'mello Road Demello Road Goa-11 Goa-11

D'mello Road D'mello Road Goa-11 Goa-11 Sohail Hasan Non Firdosi Baug e Fatehpur-588 D.S. Patra 16/309, M.I.Road Sihora 369705 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Pavagarh-(N) Tel-321963 Limaye & Sons Gate No. . 63 Fax3511310 Faria Fereira Non e

106

Sohail Hassan Sohail Hassan Sohail Firdost Baug Firdosi Baug Hassansh Fatehpur-588 Fathepur-588 Firdosi Baug Fatehpur-588 D.S. Pitra D.S. Patra D.S. Patra 26/309, M.I.Road Sihora 369705 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Pevagarh-(N) Pin-321963 Limaye & Sons Shop No. 63 Fax3511310 Maria Pereira 16/309, N.I.Road Sihora 369705 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Pavagarh-(N) Pin-321963 Limbaye & Sons Shop No. 63 Fax3511310 Faria Pereira

16/309, 16/309, M.I.Road Sihora M.I.Road Sihora -369705 369705 107 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Dr. Gandhi Pavagarh-(N) N.V. Pin-321963 Pavagarh-(N) Pin-321963 Limaye & Sons Limaye & Shop No. 63 Sons Shop Fax-3511310 No. 63 Tel3511310 Faria Pereira Faria Pereira

Non e

108

Non e

109

Non e 151

Mogra Pada Raurkela -27 110

Mogra Pada Mogra Panda Mogra Pada Mogra Pada Raurkela -27 Raurkela -27 Raurkela -17 Raurkela -27 Ketki Doshi H.No. 133,IV Lane Rajkot36531 R.K. Kukreja Jr. Stores Offil Chamba-26 Mahendra Raji Panchouli Pin-180095 Lali Da Dhaba Ludhiana29/4 Pin269863 Samantha Dias St. Angelos Towers Tel. 24967353 Paparasi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel66114282 Yehangoor Nayyar Champagar Road Kerala 21 Collector House Sect. 14, Main Rd. Panipat -27 Samaira Saloon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Vangar Ketki Doshi Q.No. 133,IV Lane Rajkot36531 R.K. Kukreja Sr. Stores Offil Chhamba-26 Mahendra Ragi Panchouli Pin-180095 Lali Da Dhaba Ludhiana24/9 Pin268963 Samantha Daiz St. Angoles Towers Tel. 24967353 Paparazi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel66141282 Yelangoor Nayyer Chompagar Road Kerala 21 Collectral House Sect. 14, Main Rd. Panipat -17 Samaira Salon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Vangar Ketki Doshi H.No. 133,V Lane Rajkot36531 R.K. Kukreja Sr. Stores Offil Chamba-26 Mahendra Ragi Panchouli Pin-180195 Bali Da Dhaba Ludhiana24/9 Pin269863 Samantha Daiz St. Angelos Towers Ph. 24967353 Papparazi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel66114282 Yehangoor Nayyar Chompagar Road Kerala 21 Collector House Sect. 14, Main Rd. Panipat -17 Samaira Salon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Vangar Non e

111

112

113

114

115

116

117

118

119

Ketki Doshi Ketki Roshi H.No. 133,IV H.No. 133,IV Lane RajkotLane Rajkot36531 36531 R.K. Kukreja Sr. K.R. Kukreja Stores Offil Sr. Stores Chamba-26 Offil Chamba-26 Mahendra Ragi Mahendra Panchouli Pin- Ragi 180095 Panchouli Tel-180095 Lali Da Dhaba Lali Da Ludhiana-24/9 Dhaba Pin-269863 Ludhiana24/9 Pin269863 Samantha Daiz Samantha St. Angelos Daiz St. Towers Tel. Angelos 24967353 Towers Tel. 24967353 Paparazi Snacks Paparazi Chotu Lane-02 Snacks Chotu Tel-66114282 Lane-02 Tel66114282 Yehangoor Yehangoor Nayyar Nayyar Chompagar Chompagar Road Kerala 21 Road Kerala 12 Collector House Collector Sect. 14, Main House Sect. Rd. Panipat -17 41, Main Rd. Panipat -17 Samaira Salon Samaira Shalimar Centre Salon Tel 26115975 Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Vangar Optics Vanjar Optics

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non

152

Kashmira Baug Kashmira Nampalli 58 Baug Nampalli 58 120 Van de Trust II/B 906 Cap Trichur 06 Ganpat Wakhde Vinayak Travels Ph 24630978 Labade Estates Lobade Kaladhan House Estates Mb-942042002 Kaladhan House Mb942042002 Gujjar Gujjar Enterprises Lane Enterprise 3, S.M. Marg Lane 3, S.M. Samanagar 41 Marg Samanagar 41 Loko Roko toys Roko Roko A Golden toys A Towers Choksi- Golden 39 Towers Choksi-39 Kossum Karkera Kussum Chief Ex PHLD Karkera Chief Ex PHLD Mob 9672135914 Mob 9672135914 Chamgadar Chamjadar Tiles Shaman Tiles Shaman Street Tiruvalli Street 62 Tiruvalli 62 Pankaj Dhillion Pankaj Brime Testiles Dhillion Tel- 27854392 Brime Testile Tel27854392 Bob Baxklund Bob (Dir) Pheonix Baxklund Ltd. Ph(Dir) Pheonix Van de Troost II/B 906 Cap Trichur 06 Ganpat Wakhde Vinayak Travels Ph 24630978

121

122

123

124

125

126

127

128

Optics Optics Kashmira Kashmira Baug Baug Nampalli 58 Nampalli 85 Van de Troost Van de Troost I/B 906 Cap II/B 906 Cap Trichur 06 Trichur 06 Ganpat Ganpat Wahkhde Wakhde Vinayak Vinayak Travels Ph Travels Tel 24630978 24630978 Labade Labade Estates Estates Kaladhar Kaladhan House MbHouse Mob942042002 942042002 Gujjar Gujjar Enterprises Enterprises Lane 2, S.M. Lane 3, S.M. Marg Marg Samanagar 41 Samanagar 41 Loko Roko Loko Roko toys A toys A Golden Golden Tawers Towers Choksi-39 Choksi-93 Kossum Kossum Karkara Chief Karkera Chief Ex PHLD Ex PHLD Mob Mob 9672135914 9672135914 Chamgadar Chamgadar Tiles Shaman Tiles Shaman Street Street Tiruvalli 62 Tirovalli 62 Pankaj Pankoj Dhillion Dhillion Brime Brime Testiles Ph- Testiles Tel27854392 27854392 Bob Backlund Bob (Dir) Pheonix Baxklund Ltd. Ph(Dir) Pheenix

Optico Kashmira Baug Nampalli 58 Van de Troost II/D 906 Cap Trichur 06 Ganpat Wakhde Vinayak Trovels Ph 24630978 Labade Estates Kaladhan House Mb942042002 Gujjar Enterprises Lane 3, S.M. Marg Samanagar 14 Loko Roko toys A Golden Towers Choksi-39 Kossum Karkera Chief Ex PHLD Mob 96722131914 Chamgadar Tiles Shaman Street Tiruvalli 26 Pankaj Dhillion Brime Testiles Tel27854392 Bob Baxklund (Dir) Pheonix

e

Non e Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

Non e

153

8297541 129 Flickr Logos Bulls Outgate Orissa-32 Makamur Cakes Hilton Street-02 Shimoga-31 Orix Mall Inertia Lane Ph26834500 Baltar Hardware Pestwmji Road14 Shahpur-06

130

131

132

133

Hussain Ekbaan Jama Swetts Tel-3578626 Janaki Travels Op Bekar Cinema S V R D. Dadar (W) Sonal Ganjawala CB Constructions Fax- 2271349

134

135

Ltd. Ph8297541 8297541 Flickr Logos Flickr Logos Bulls Bulls Outgate Outgates Orissa-32 Orissa-32 Makamur Mokamur Cokes Hilton Cakes Hilton Street-02 Street-02 Shimoga-31 Shimoga-31 Orix Mall Orex Mall Inertia Lanes Inertia Lane Ph-26834500 Ph-26834500 Baltor Baltar Hardware Hardware Pestwmji Pestwmji Road-14 Road-14 Shahpur-06 Shahpur-06 Hussain Hussain Ekban Jama Ekbaan Jame Swetts Tel- Swetts Tel3578626 3578626 Janaki Janaki Travels Op Travels Opp Bekar Cinema Bekar Cinema S V R D. S V R D. Dadar (W) Dadar (W) Sonam Sonal Ganjawala Ganjewala CB CB Constructions Constructions Fax- 2271349 Fax- 2271349

Ltd. Ph8297541 Flickr Logos Bulls Outgate Orissa-23

Ltd. Tel8297541 Flickr Logos Non Bolls Outgate e Orissa-32

Makamur Makamur Non Cakes Hilton Cakes Hilton e Street-02 Street-02 Shimoga-31 Shimoga-31 Orix Mall Orix Mall Non Inertia Lane Inertia Lanes e Ph-26834500 Ph-26834500 Baltar Baltar Non Hardware e Hardware Pestwmji Pestwmji Road-14 Road-41 Shahpur-60 Shahpur-06 Hussain Non Hussain Ekbaan Jama Ekbaan Jama e Swetts Tel- Swetts Ph3578626 3578626 Janaki Janoki Non Travels Op Travels Op e Bekar Cinema Bekar Cinema S N R D. S V R D. Dadar (W) Dadar (W) Non Sonal Sonal Ganjawala e Ganjawala BC CB Constructions Constructions Fax- 2271349 Fax- 2271349

Directions (136-140): The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas: (1) Social Issues (2) Science and Health (3) Politics (4) Sports and (5) Miscellaneous 136. It is time for profit of the 'business class', its Diwali! 154

(1) Social Issues (2) Science and Health (3) Politics (4) Sports and (5) Miscellaneous 137. The CSB Party will began its election campaign next week. (1) Social Issues (2) Science and Health (3) Politics (4) Sports and (5) Miscellaneous 138. A study shows traumatic childhood leads to learning disorders. (1) Social Issues (2) Science and Health (3) Politics (4) Sports and (5) Miscellaneous 139. A girl constantly being eve teased for over a year commits suicide. (1) Social Issues (2) Science and Health (3) Politics (4) Sports and (5) Miscellaneous 140. India white washes Sri Lanka in the fair game of cricket. (1) Social Issues (2) Science and Health (3) Politics

155

(4) Sports and (5) Miscellaneous Directions (141-145): Below in each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary? 141. (1) Revolve (2) Rewind (3) Rotate (4) Restart (5) Restore 142. (1) Marine (2) Merchant (3) Merchandise (4) Machine (5) Mechanic 143. (1) Cement (2) Centenary (3) Century (4) Cigar (5) Census 144. (1) Soluble (2) Solvent (3) Solution (4) Solve (5) Salt 145. (1) Mouse (2) Mole (3) Mould (4) Mount 156

(5) Mountain Directions (146-150): The letter group in each question is to be codified in the following codes: Letters S Number 6 P 2 C 7 N 1 H 9 J 5 V 4 X 0 B 3 K 8

You have to find out which of the answers (1),(2), (3) or (4) has the correct coded form of the given letters and indicate it on the answer sheet. If none of the coded form is correct mark (5) as answer. 146. VSBCHNX (1) 4673910 (2) 4637910 (3) 4673091 (4) 4670931 (5) None of these 147. HCKNPXJ (1) 9781205 (2) 9871025 (3) 9718205 (4) 9871205 (5) None of these 148. JKPHVBN (1) 5892431 (2) 5824931 (3) 5821439 (4) 5824391 (5) None of these 149. KXPJVNS (1) 8025461 (2) 8024561

157

(3) 8025416 (4) 8024516 (5) None of these 150. CVHSXBP (1) 749032 (2) 7496302 (3) 7490632 (4) 7496032 ANSWERS 101. (3), 102. (2), 103. (4), 104. (1), 105. (1), 106. (4), 107. (3), 108. (2), 109. (5), 110. (2) 111. (4), 112. (3), 113. (1), 114. (1), 115. (1), 116. (4), 117. (4), 118. (3), 119. (2), 120. (3), 121. (2), 122. (4), 123. (3), 124. (4), 125. (3), 126. (2), 127. (4), 128. (1), 129. (2), 130. (4) 131. (3), 132. (5), 133. (3), 134. (1), 135. (4), 136. (5), 137. (3), 138. (2), 139. (1), 140. (4) 141. (1), 142. (5), 143. (2), 144. (3), 145. (4), 146. (2), 147. (1), 148. (5), 149. (3), 150. (4)

Computer Awareness – Sample Paper for Bank PO Recruitment
1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit? a. Printer b. Key board c. Mouse d. Arithmetic & Logic unit e. None 2. CAD stands for a. Computer aided design b. Computer algorithm for design

158

c. Computer application in design d. All of the above e. None 3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics? a. Ink-jet b. Daisy Wheel c. Laser d. Dot-matrix e. None 4. A program written in machine language is called? a. Assembler b. Object c. Computer d. Machine e. None 5. The father of Modern Computer is a. Charles Babbage b. Von-nuumann c. Danies Ritchel d. Blaise Pascal e. None 6. The Word FTP stands for a. File Translate Protocol b. File Transit Protocol c. File Transfer protocol d. file typing protocol e. None

159

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called a. BASIC b. FORTRAN c. Machine Language d. COBOL e. None 8. Best Quality graphics is produced by a. Dot Matix b. Laser Printer c. Inkjet Printer d. Plotter e. None 9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as a. Corrupted b. Volatile c. Non-Volatile d. Non-Corrupted e. None 10. The linking of computers with a communication system is called a. Networking b. Pairing c. Interlocking d. Assembling e. Sharing 11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has a. 16 address lines b. 16 Buses

160

c. 16 Data lines d. 16 routes e. None 12. Data going into the computer is called a. Output b. algorithm c. Input d. Calculations e. flow chart 13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network? a. LAN b. DSL c. RAM d. USB e. CPU 14. Microsoft Office is a. Shareware b.Public domain software c. Open-sourse software d. A vertical market application e. An application suite 15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer a. None b. One c. Two d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer e. It depends on the speed of the computer's processor

161

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called a. Operating System b. Computer c. Office d. Compiler e. Interpreter 17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can a. run faster b. go on line c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment d. E-mail e. None 18. Information travels between components on the mother board through a. Flash memory b. CMOS c. Bays d. Buses e. Peripherals 19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet? a. Lines & spaces b. Layers & Planes c. Height & Width d. Rows & Columns e. None 20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the a. mouse b. logo 162

c. hand d. palm e. cursor 21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as a. Boot b. Bug c. Biff d. Strap e. None 22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________ a. Bug b. Vice c. Lice d. Worm e. None 23. A _______ is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has two stable states. a. Multivibrator b. Flip-flop c. Logic gates d. laten e. None 24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known as a. Spam b. Trash c. Calibri d. Courier

163

e. None 25. DOS stands for a. Disk Operating System b. Disk operating session c. Digital Operating System d. Digital Open system e. None 26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft a. Babbage b. Bill Gates c. Bill Clinton d. Bush e. None 27. Which of the following are input devices. a. Keyboard b. Mouse c. Card reader d. Scanner e. All of these 28. Examples of output devices are a. Screen b. Printer c. Speaker d. All of these e. None 29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer a. Control unit

164

b. Central Processing unit c. Arithmatic and language unit d. Monitor e. None 30. IBM stands for a. Internal Business Management b. International Business Management c. International Business Machines d. Internal Business Machines e. None 31.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line a. Compiler b. Interpreter c. Linker d. Loader e. None 32. ___________ is an OOP principle a. Structured programming b. Procedural programming c. Inheritance d. Linking e. None 33. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications a. Commercial b. Scientific c. Space d. Mathematical

165

e. None 34. RAM stands for a. Random origin money b. Random only memory c. Read only memory d. Random access memory e. None 35. 1 Byte = ? a. 8 bits b. 4 bits c. 2 bits d. 9 bits e. None 36. SMPS stands for a. Switched mode power supply b. Start mode power supply c. Store mode power supply d. Single mode power supply e. None 37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as a. Modem b. Multiplexer c. Modulator d. Demodulator e. None 38. VDU is also called a. Screen

166

b. Monitor c. Both 1 & 2 d. printer e. None 39. BIOS stands for a. Basic Input Output system b. Binary Input output system c. Basic Input Off system d. all the above e. None 40. Father of 'C' programming language a. Dennis Ritchie b. Prof Jhon Kemeny c. Thomas Kurtz d. Bill Gates e. None ANSWERS 1. dabaa, 6. ccdba, 11. ccaec, 16. accde, 21. bdbaa, 26. bedbc, 31. bcada, 36. aacaa

Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper
1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code? (1) %4$# (2) $3%# (3) $64% (4) %3$# 167

(5) None of these 2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said ‘She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita? (1) Sister (2) Niece/ daughter (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) Pineapple (2) Guava (3) Grapes (4) Papaya (5) Pear 5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end? (1) S (2) B (3) A (4) K (5) None of these

168

6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code? (1) DIBJS (2) SBJID (3) SHBGD (4) SJBID (5) None of these 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) FH (2) KM (3) PR (4) CE (5) JM 8. If ‘ P Q' means ‘P is wife of Q', ‘P+Q' means ‘P is father of Q' and ‘P Q' means ‘P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G related to D? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Mother (3) Niece (4) Aunt (5) None of these 9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

169

(1) 17 (2) 19 (3) 23 (4) 29 (5) 27 11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three ' means ‘x', $ means ‘+', # means ‘ ' and ‘©' means ‘-‘ then what is the value of↔12. If ‘ 360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48? (1) 253 (2) 242 (3) 247 (4) 285 (5) None of these 13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric? (1) green (2) yellow (3) red (4) pink (5) None of these 14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second

170

letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y. (1) A (2) E (3) L (4) X (5) Y 15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row? (1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 18 (5) None of these Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows: ‘A © B' means ‘A is smaller than B' ‘A # B' means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B' ‘A « B' means ‘A is greater than B' ‘A $ B' means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B' ‘A @ B' means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B' In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.

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16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J Conclusions: I. V © L II. S © J 17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H Conclusions: I. M #H II. R © H 18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M Conclusions: I. H «M II. H «G 19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L Conclusions: I. R @ T II. J @ l 20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F Conclusions: I. W $ K II. W @ K Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows. Give answer (5) if both I and II follow. 21. Statements: Some pens are books. All books are pencils.

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All pencils are jars. Conclusions: I. All books are jars. II. Some pens are pencils. 22. Statements: Some bowls are spoons Some spoons are forks All forks are plates. Conclusions: I. Some bowls are forks. II. Some spoons are plates. 23. Statements: Some bottles are jars. All jars are buckets. All buckets are tanks. Conclusions: I. All jars are tanks. II. Some buckets are tanks. 24. Statements: Some phones are mobiles. Some mobiles are computers. Some computers are keys. Conclusions: I. Some phones are keys. II. Some computes are phones. 25. Statements: All papers are files.

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Some files are folders. All folders are bags. Conclusions: I. Some files are bags. II. Some papers are folders. Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita? I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita. II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita. 27. What is the code for ‘Play' in the code language? I. In the code language ‘play and dance' is written as ‘ka to pe' II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as ‘pe jo ra'. 28. How many children are there in the class? I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom. II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top. 29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta? I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.

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II. Neeta is not the tallest. 30. How many sons does Ramesh have? I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh. II. R is brother of H. Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow: 5DGE«79$F16R%LIAJ3B#4@KP8UM2 31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) $9F (2) R6% (3) 8PU (4) #B4 (5) 3BJ 32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left? (1) L (2) R (3) 6 (4) I (5) None of these 33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? EDH 9 « 7 I$F ? (1) 6RI (2) %R6 (3) R16 (4) %6R

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(5) None of these 34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement? (1) K (2) @ (3) P (4) # (5) None of these 35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions. Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N. 36. Who is to the immediate left of L? (1) Q (2) O (3) K (4) N (5) None of these 37. Who is to the immediate left of K? (1) N (2) J

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(3) Q (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 38. Which of the following is the correct position of N? (1) Second to the right of K (2) To the immediate left of K (3) To the immediate right of M (4) To the immediate right of K (5) None of these 39. Who is third to the right of P? (1) L (2) J (3) Q (4) N (5) None of these 40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two? (1) PJO (2) OPJ (3) OPM (4) MPO (5) None of these Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

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Answers for Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper: 1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5), 11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1), 21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5), 31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2), 41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)

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Sample Questions – English Vocabulary for Entrance Exams
Directions (Q 1-10): Pick out the synonym of the lead word in each case. 1. ANODYNE 1. annihilated 2. soothing 3. eidolon 4. not necessary 2. AMBROSIA 1. poison 2. plentiful 3. scarcity 4. elixir 3. AMULET 1. symbol 2. charm 3. hole 4. none of these 4. ASSUAGE 1. scare 2. allay 3. enhance 4. surrender 5. ACCLIVITY 1. declivity 2. proclivity 3. upwards 4. slanting 6. APHASIA 1. garrulity 2. loquacity 3. reticence 4. remembrance 7. ANNUL 1. encourage 2. commiserate 3. mummify 4. rescind 8. APOTHECARY 1. doctor 2. hunter 3. vagabond 4. pharmacist 9. AU REVOIR 1. welcome 2. appellation 3. good-bye 4. superb 10. APLOMB 1. poise 2. diffidence 3. circuitous 4. tumult Directions (Q 11-20):Pick out the antonym of the lead word in each case. 11. AMELIORATE 1. enervate 2. deteriorate 3. stultify 4. none of these 12. ASININE 179

1. brilliant 2. vulpine 3. feline 4. leonine 13. APPARITION 1. real 2. unreal 3. joint 4. enhancement 14. SANGUINE 1. red 2. morose 3. suffering 4. approaching 15. SAGGY 1. taut 2. sagacious 3. delinquent 4. developing 16. SURLY 1. curly 2. amazon 3. bilious 4. pugilist 17. SOPHISTRY 1. polemics 2. urbanity 3. pertinence 4. didactics 18. SOBRIQUET 1. snout 2. cognomen 3. genuine 4. bouquet 19. SUFFRAGE 1. suffering 2. celibacy 3. forestry 4. franchise 20. SATED 1. suave 2. inadept 3. contented 4. ruffled up

Directions (Q 21-25): Pick out the best analogy in each case. 21. ASSORTED: SEBACEOUS 1. firm: supple 2. sultry: azure 3. subaltern: hoi polloi 4. stratified: layered 22. ANACONDA: SERPENTINE 1. ape: simian 2. cat: asinine 3. milk: cutaneous 4. amen: amenine 23. SALACIOUS: SCANDALOUS 1. piquant: bland 2. sylvan: urban 3. sham: veracious 4. sultry: humid 24. SENTENTIOUS: SUMMARY 1. senile: dotage 2. abrasive: praise 3. ablutions: dirt 4. avaricious: truthful 180

25. AVUNCULAR: UNCLE 1. salubrious: climate 2. annotation: anthology 3. screech: scrub 4. stately: king Directions (Q 26-30): Pick out the word with incorrect spellings in each case. 26. 1. apotheosize 2. abjure 3. appelate 4. apiary 27. 1. sanctimionious 2. sepulchral 3. spectre 4. Samaritan 28. 1. alveolar 2. apnea 3. autoarchy 4. anarchy 29. 1. silviculture 2. Socratic 3. somnambulism 4. sinuous 30. 1. suffused 2. sandwitched 3. sayonara 4. surmise Directions (Q 31-40): Mentally unjumble the following words so as to arrange them in the right order and tell which letter comes at the last of the word so formed 31. N I M A N R E S V O I N A D 32. T S I E Y A B R 33. E I M Y T S 34. E C I P S S U O 35. S U O I M S B A E T 36. O A T R I D 37. G A I N R R A 38. S H I U Q U A E M 39. B A R L A E 40. D A M U D E N D Directions (Q 41-50): Fill in the blanks with suitable choices out of those given after each word. 41. The article written by the philosopher was so ______ that I could not get a thing out of it. 1. avuncular 2. adroit 3. apposite 4. abstruse 42. The language used by you must be easily understandable by all if you wish to reach out to the common man, it must not be ______ . 1. stultified 2. stilted 3. supplicate 4. surly

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43. Nobody expected him to win, yet he scraped through, it must have been some ______ on his part. 1. artifice 2. arroyo 3. attenuation 4. avarice 44. Her ______ manners in the face of difficulty impressed me most of all. 1. sacrilegious 2. sangfroid 3. supernumerary 4. surrogate 45. Such legal ______ is pretty common, in when the truth is shown as the utmost wrong and vice-versa. 1. skepticism 2. surreptitiousness 3. skullduggery 4. acme 46. He was a teetotaller and strictly believed in observing _____ 1. sanguinary 2. sentry 3. sobriety 4. succulence 47. The child looked very ______ and its innocent pranks endeared it to everyone in the house. 1. seraphic 2. sedulous 3. specious 4. staunch 48. Indira Gandhi was the most ______ speaker I had ever heard until I came to know Atal Behari Vajpayee. 1. artless 2. arcane 3. articulate 4. accoutred 49. Such an ______ meeting I never expected to take place. 1. adventitious 2. audacious 3. serene 4. supernal 50. It does not look ______ if you do not go there on such a solemn occasion. 1. sabbatical 2. salubrious 3. senile 4. seemly Directions (Q 51-60): Pick out the synonym of the lead word in each case. 51. ARTLESS 1. lacking art 2. boring 3. dexterous 4. innocent 52. SUPERNAL 1. superb 2. eternal 3. chimerical 4. trash 53. SUBTERFUGE 1. underground 2. legerdemain 3. joining 4. separation 54. SABBATICAL 1. clergy-related 2. study leave 3. ecumenical 4. narrow

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55. ADMONISH 1. admire 2. take back 3. reprimand 4. encourage 56. ADVERT 1. insinuate 2. eulogize 3. scold 4. lucky 57. SUPERCILIOUS 1. haughty 2. modest 3. truthful 4. voracious 58. ACRID 1. aromatic 2. pungent 3. sonorous 4. pulchritudinous 59. SCOURGE 1. nemesis 2. secure 3. suffering 4. suffrage 60. ANNIHILATE 1. destroy 2. wither 3. tolerate 4. exterminate Directions (Q 61-70): Pick out the antonym of the lead word in each case. 61. SYBARITE 1. ascetic 2. conceited 3. chilling 4. sultry 62. SURMOUNT 1. overcome 2. surrender 3. get off 4. remonstrate 63. ACCENTUATE 1. extenuate 2. attenuate 3. supplicate 4. slanting 64. SQUEAMISH 1. cordial 2. juxtaposed 3. quixotic 4. queasy 65. ABSTEMIOUS 1. parsimonious 2. abstinent 3. Epicurean 4. Samaritan 66. SMUG 1. contented 2. discontented 3. cool 4. hot 67. AGNOSTIC 1. atheist 2. touching 3. unsure 4. sure

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68. ARRAIGN 1. answer 2. exonerate 3. covet 4. demit 69. SALUBRIOUS 1. salutary 2. negative 3. stratified 4. wayward 70. SPORADIC 1. intermittent 2. weekly 3. continuous 4. contumacious Directions (Q 71-75): Pick out the best analogy in each case. 71. SOPHOMORE: ADEPT 1. sophisticated: clumsy 2. intern: veteran 3. apiary: aviary 4. inane: pertinent 72. SUBLIMINAL: ABSTRUSE 1. encomium: eclectic 2. recondite: reconnaissance 3. subconscious: arcane 4. none of these 73. SERENDIPITY: DESCRY 1. meticulous: plan 2. surrogate: suborn 3. deviancy: delinquency 4. veracity: plenty 74. SANGFROID: SURLY 1. abrogate: renounce 2. rescind: repeal 3. aromatic: acrid 4. adventitious s: lucky 75. SIMILE: SULLIED 1. halcyon: veracious 2. appellation: title 3. sensual: sensuous 4. subjugate: vanquish Directions (Q 76-90): Pick out the word with incorrect spellings in each case. 76. 1. adumberate 2. adduce 3. adulterate 4. adjudicator 77. 1. ancillary 2. anecedote 3. anguine 4. annuity 78. 1. annotate 2. annul 3. anneel 4. anoint 79. 1. squall 2. sputter 3. squailid 4. stallion 80. 1. suasion 2. subrogation 3. sucide 4. suite 81. 1. somersault 2. superfluous 3. supererogation 4. sovereignity 82. 1. syanagogue 2. synergism 3. strut 4. stubble 83. 1. stodgy 2. statueseque 3. stentorian 4. stereochiometry 84. 1. splurge 2. spitoon 3. spondylitis 4. spontaneity 184

85. 1. splutter 2. sepulchral 3. sphygmomanometre 4. spermatozoa 86. 1. adversary 2. aetiology 3. aeronautics 4. affronted 87. 1. assiduous 2. agnomen 3. anaemia 4. aservate 88. 1. animadevrt 2. anomaly 3. animous 4. antediluvian 89. 1. antithetical 2. anthropomorphism 3. antilope 4. antenatal 90. 1. aperception 2. apostasy 3. apprentice 4. apposition Directions (Q 91-95): Mentally unjumble the following words so as to arrange them in the right order and tell which letter comes at the last of the word so formed 91. P O R O S A P 92. P A P S R I E 93. C I D A S M P S O 94. X I H P S N 95. T E I P S Directions (Q 96-100): Fill in the blanks with suitable choices out of those given after each word. 96. His ______ tastes often led to his being dubbed as a maverick. 1. sovereign 2. sartorial 3. sobriquet 4. soporific 97. However sacred a person, may be, but he must not be ________ 1. sanctimonious 2. slithering 3. sickly 4. skittish 98. He was very scared of his father and therefore tried to ________ himself. 1. sire 2. soliloquize 3. shrug 4. skulk 99. The achievements made in the field of science during the last century were ________ indeed, not a fraction of this progress had been made in the 19 centuries preceding it. 1. Seminal 2. Semitic 3. Simian 4. seething 100. Most of the stories regarding the miracles performed by various religious prophets are ________ , there is no historical evidence to support them. 1. apocalyptic 2. antediluvian 3. apocryphal 4. aphasic ANSWERS REVISING VOCAB -01 1. 24423

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6. 34431 11. 21121 16. 31243 21. 21414 26. 3131 31. NEESS 36. TNHEM 41. 42123 46. 31314 51. 41223 56. 11234 61.12243 66. 24123 71. 23131 76. 12333 81. 41223 86. 14331 91. APROPOS, APPRISE, SPASMODIC, SPHINX, SPITE 96. 21313

Bank IT/Specialist/Computer Officer Exam Sample Paper
Syllabus for Bank IT Officer Exams 1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null. (a) entity integrity rule (b) referential integrity constraint (c) action assertion 186

(d) composite attribute (e) None of these 2. An applet __________ (a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client (b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website (c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client (d) collects data from visitors to a Website (e) None of these 3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk. (a) system virus (b) Trojan horse virus (c) file virus (d) macro virus (e) None of these 4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? (a) Simply parity check (b) Checksum (c) Two-dimensional parity check (d) CRC (e) None of these 5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___. (a) Disk Crash (b) Mother Board Crash (c) Corruption of program (d) Deletion of files (e) None of these

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6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model(a) Transport (b) Network (c) Data Link (d) Physical (e) All of these 7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse? (a) Subject-oriented (b) Integrated (c) Time-variant (d) Updateable (e) None of these 8. Which of the following is true ? (a) Logical design is software-dependent (b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location (c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model (d) Logical design is software independent (e) None of these 9. A range check _____ (a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field (b) verifies that all required data is present (c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit (d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical (e) None of these 10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is(a) HTTP (b) Browser

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(c) WWW (d) B2B (e) None of these 11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer. (a) carries out, the details of an object for (b) hides, the details of an object from (c) reveals, the details of an object to (d) extends, the details of an object beyond (e) None of these 12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____ (a) firewall (b) proxy server (c) IP address (d) domain name (e) None of these 13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key? (a) Join index (b) Bitmap index (c) B + Tree (d) Hierarchical index (e) None of these 14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what? (a) Data integrity (b) The type of database (c) The user's perspective (d) The business practices and policies (e) None of these 189

15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines. (a) Modem (b) Router (c) Gateway (d) Bridge (e) All of these 16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___. (a) executed (b) referenced (c) imported (d) declared (e) None of these 17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___. (a) begin the line with a # sign (b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /) (c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-) (d) indent the line (e) None of these 18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____ (a) 4GLs (b) macro languages (c) object-oriented languages (d) visual programming languages (e) None of these 19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.

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(a) Unauthorized Attacks (b) Virus Attacks (c) Data Driven Attacks (d) Fire Attacks (e) All of these 20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user(a) Interrupt request (b) Forward DNS lookup (c) Data-Link layer (d) File Transfer Protocol (e) Common gateway interface 21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__. (a) Schema, Base and Table (b) Base, Table and Schema (c) Key, Base and Table (d) Schema, Table and View (e) None of these 22. Data are ________ in client/server computing. (a) never sent to the client machine (b) sent in very large sections to save processing time (c) sent only upon the client's request (d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort (e) sent from the client to the server for processing 23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value? (a) Define the attribute as required (b) Define subtypes (c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank 191

(d) Define supertypes (e) None of these 24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk. (a) Root (b) Base (c) Sub (d) Case (e) None of these 25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails. (a) Channel bank (b) Cluster (c) Tiger team (d) Serverless backup (e) Logical unit ANSWERS 1. (a) (c) (e) (b) (b) 6. (e) (d) (a) (c) (a) 11. (b) (c) (b) (b) (a) 16. (c) (b) (d) (a) (e) 21. (d) (c) (d) (c) (b)

How to Solve Questions Based on Number Series – Reasoning
We conducted a poll asking for "What would you like to read?". The results were in favour of Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude. Thank you for your votes, and here we are to prove that your opinion counts. This is our first post on Mental Ability covered under the Topic Reasoning.

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How to Solve Questions Based on Number Series (FOR BANK PO, SSC, B. Ed. ASPIRANTS)
Most of the number series can be solved by addition and subtraction (Multiplication and Division being the Supersets for these). In plain English that means you need to find what to add or subtract to find the next (or missing) number in the series. We will understand the concept by solving a few questions and then you can attempt some on your own. Example 1: Find the next number in the series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, __ Answer: Looking at the series we find that the series is an "INCREASING" sequence. So we try to find what is being added. Here the series is 1, 1+2, 1+2+3, 1+2+3+4 or Add 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on to the last number. 1+2 =3, 3+3 = 6, 6+4 = 10, 10+5 = 15 So the answer is 15+ 6 = 21. Practice Question 1: 21, 25, 33, 49, 81, __ (a) 145 (b) 129 (c) 113 (d) 97 Ans (a) Example 2: Find the next number in the series: 87, 80, 74, 69, 65, __ Answer: Looking at the series we find that the series is a "DECREASING" sequence. So we try to find what is being subtracted. The series is 87, 87 - 7 = 80, 80 - 6 = 74, 74 - 5 = 69, 69 - 4 = 65

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So the answer is 65 - 3 = 62 Practice Question 2: 66, 36, 21, __ (a) 13.5 (b) 14.5 (c) 13 (d) 14 Ans (a) Example 3: Find the next number in the series: 40, 15, 30, 25, 20, 35, __ Answer: Looking at the series we find that the series is a "MIXED" sequence. By mixed series we mean that it is composed of two different series. i.e. 40, 30, 20, ... (decreasing) and 15, 25, 35, .. (increasing) The trick here is to know which series will give us the answer. We see that the missing number belongs to the decreasing series. Ignoring the other series the answer is 20 - 10 = 10 Practice Question 3: 7.5, 5, 15, 4, 30, 3, 60, 2, __ (a) 1 (b) 75 (c) 120 (d) 135 Ans (c) Some Sample Questions (Easy to Difficult, No Options Given for Now, you don't need them) 1. 8, 20, 32, 44, __ 2. 55, 44, 33, 22, __ 3. 63, 57, 52, 48, __ 4. 100, 85, 75, 70, __ 5. 96, 102, 114, 132, __

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6. 17, 26, 44, 80, __ 7. 10, 13, 12, 15, 14, __, __ (two missing numbers) 8. 12, 7, 18, 10, 24, 13, __ 9. 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, __ 10. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, __

SBI Clerk Sample Question Paper (General Awareness)
Here is a sample paper for SBI Clerk Recruitment 2009 that will give you an idea about type of questions asked in the GJ section of the exam. 1. Which of the following places was known as a centre of learning in ancient India? (1) Nalanda (2) Ujjain (3) Allahabad (4) None of these 2. The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of the particles themselves is called. (1) conduction (2) convection (3) radiation (4) None of these 3. Only zero and one are used for operating (1) Calculator (2) Computer (3) Abacus (4) Typewriter 4. Transistor is (1) semi-conductor (2) inductor (3) modulator (4) demodulator 5. Computer cannot (1) send message (2) abstract thought (3) read files (4) play music 6. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? (1) Wax (2) Starch (3) Sucrose 195

(4) Maltose 7. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness? (1) Vit. B (2) Vit. C (3) Vit. A (4) Vit. E 8. Which of the following is the vaccine for tuberculosis? (1) OPT (2) BCG (3) Salk vaccine (4) Rubella vaccine 9. Horns, nails and hair are (1) soluble fats (2) insoluble carbohydrates (3) keratin proteins (4) complex lipids 10. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections? (1) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. (2) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (3) Chief Election Commissioner (4) Governor of the State concerned 11. Which is an ore of aluminum? (1) Chromite (2) Cuprite (3) Bauxite (4) Siderite 12. Kalidas was (1) a poet during the Gupta period. (2) a dramatist during Harshvardhana’s reign. (3) an astronomer during Gupta period. (4) None of these 13. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles? (1) Plain (2) Convex (3) Concave (4) Spherical 14. The compilation Meri Ekyawan Kavitayen is by (1) A.N. Vajpayee (2) Harivanshrai Bachchan (3) Dharam Vir Bharti (4) Shiv Mangal Singh Suman 15. ‘Equinox’ means (1) days are longer than nights. (2) days and nights are equal. (3) days are shorter than nights (4) None of these

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16. Who was known as “Nightingale of India”? (1) Vijaylaxmi Pandit (2) Sarojini Naidu (3) Suraiya (4) None of these 17. Gaya is associated with Lord Buddha, where he (1) was born (2) attained enlightenment (3) died (4) delivered his first sermon 18. Chemical change does not take place in (1) souring of milk into curd (2) rusting of iron in atmosphere (3) burning of magnesium ribbon in air (4) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire 19. Who is the highest wicket-taker in Indian Cricket team? (1) Javagal Srinath (2) Anil Kumble (3) Maninder Singh (4) Kapil Dev 20. Which country leads in production of aluminum and aluminum goods? (1) Austriala (2) The US (3) Russia (4) Japan 21. The Nathu La Pass, which has increased Indian trade with a neighbour, lies between India and which country? (1) Pakistan (2) Bhutan (3) Nepal (4) China (5) Tibet 22. The Banking Codes and Standards Boards has been formed to provide fair treatment to: (1) Employees’ Unions (2) Member Banks (3) Officers (4) SBI (5) Customers 23. In India, the CRR at present is approximately: (1) less than 5% (2) 10% to 15% (3) 5% to 10% (4) 20% (5) 35% 24. The present salary of an MP is (Rs per month)

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(1) 2,500 (2) 5,000 (3) 7,500 (4) 15,000 (5) 16,000 25. Which river was recently found to be the longest? (1) Amazon (2) Nile (3) Mississippi (4) Ganga (5) Yangtze Kiang 26. The highest Indian mountain-peak is: (1) Mt Everest (2) Nanga Parbat (3) Dhaulagiri (4) Godwin Austin (5) Annapurna 27. Basel II norms will lead to: (1) Capital A/c convertibility (2) Better Stock Exchanges (3) Better CRR (4) Increased savings (5) None of these 28. Rice is which kind of crop? (1) Rabi (2) Evergreen (3) Kharif (4) Inter-seasonal (5) Monsoon 29. ‘Jog falls’ are in: (1) Kerala (2) J & K (3) U.P. (4) Uttaranchal (5) Karnataka 30. The capitals of the new States Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttaranchal are: (1) Raipur, Ranchi, Dehradun (2) Ranchi, Patna, Nainital (3) Raniganj, Patna, Dehradun (4) Patna, Raipur, Nainital (5) None of the above ANSWER KEY 1) (1), 2) (1), 3) (2), 4) (1), 5) (2), 6) (1), 7) (3), 8) (2), 9) (3), 10) (3) 11) (3), 12) (1), 13) (2), 14) (1), 15) (2), 16) (2), 17) (2), 18) (4), 19) (2), 20) (2) 21) (4), 22) (5), 23) (2), 24) (5), 25) (1), 26) (2), 27) (1), 28) (5), 29) (5), 30) (1)

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General Awareness Sample Paper: SSC Audit Sept 2007
This is in series of the past year Question Papers for SSC (Commercial Audit) Examination. We have divided the Question Paper in four sections. In Part I we will cover General Knowledge. Please read this carefully. Part I : General Awareness 1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for (a) equality before law. (b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. (c) abolition of titles. (d) abolition of untouchability. 2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for (a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir. (b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland. (c) special provisions in respect of Manipur. (d) provisions in respect of financial emergency. 3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council? (a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) Four 4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an (a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy (c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity. 5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by (a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau. (b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel. (c) Mill, Bentham and Plato. (d) Locke, Mill and Hegel. 6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the (a) President (b) Prime Minister. (c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament. (d) Members of the Lok Sabha. 7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'? (a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus (c) Justin (d) Pliny

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8. The Vedas are known as (a) Smriti. (b) Sruti. (c) Jnana. (d) Siksha. 9. The members of Estimate Committee are (a) elected from the Lok Sabha only. (b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only. (c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor? (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. (b) Chief Minister. (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (d) President. 11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called (a) Scarce currency. (b) Soft currency. (c) Gold currency. (d) Hot currency. 12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development? (a) GDP (b) Disposable income (c) NNP (d) Per capita income 13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in (a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector. (c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors. 14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is (a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade. (c) International trade. (d) Free trade. 15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the (a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) (b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) (c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74) (d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

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16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which (a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public. (b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks. (c) Government loans are floated. (d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers. 17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called (a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods. (c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods. 18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by (a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson (c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall 19. Smoke is formed due to (a) solid dispersed in gas. (b) solid dispersed in liquid. (c) gas dispersed in solid. (d) gas dispersed in gas. 20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography? (a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide (c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride. 21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains (a) Methane. (b) Ethane and butane. (c) propane and butane. (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene. 22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process (a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation (c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis 23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow? (a) Blue (b) Green (c) Orange (d) Red

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24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its (a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition. (c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost. 25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes? (a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata (c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini 26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting? (a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement (c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation. 27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye? (a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt (c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar 28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease? (a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis (c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria 29. What is the principal ore of aluminium? (a) Dolomite (b) Copper (c) Lignite (d) Bauxite 30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government? (a) The US (b) Norway (c) India (d) The UK 31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the (a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council

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(c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry 32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for (a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing" (c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing" 33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007? (a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha (c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi 34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with (a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate. (c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate. 35. India's biggest enterprise today is (a) the Indian Railways. (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System. (c) the India Power Sector. (d) the India Telecommunication System. 36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is (a) Indian Statistical Institute. (b) Reserve Bank of India. (c) Central Statistical Organisation. (d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research. 37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India? (a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission (c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India 38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called. (a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit (c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit 39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its (a) production. 203

(b) production and sale. (c) Production and transportation. (d) Production, transportation and sale. 40. In the US, the President is elected by (a) The Senate. (b) Universal Adult Franchise. (c) The House of Representatives. (d) The Congress. 41. Fascism believes in (a) Peaceful change (b) Force (c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual 42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur? (a) Supervision (b) Management (c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing 43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as (a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital. (c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital. 44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently? (a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km (c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km 45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in (a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir. 46. M. Damodaran is the (a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India. (b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India. (c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India. (d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

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47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously? (a) BrahMos (b) Chetak (c) Astra (d) Tejas 48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain? (a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw (c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown. 49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in (a) France. (b) China. (c) Germany. (d) South Africa. 50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy (c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon 51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is (a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida (b) Whither Secular India? (c) Ayodhya and Aftermath (d) Shining India and BJP. 52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"? (a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum (c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara 53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse (b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance (d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878 54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by (a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon. (c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon.

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55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was (a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life. (c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society. 56. Name the capital of Pallavas. (a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi. (c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram. 57. The Home Rule League was started by (a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak (c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang 58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because (a) it sought tocurb civil liberties. (b) it proposed to partition India. (c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation. (d) it proposed measures for nationalism. 59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during (a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones (c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse. 60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with (a) The Montagu Decleration. (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms. (c) The Morley-Minto Reforms. (d) The Rowlatt Act. 61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by (a) counting the number of branches. (b) measuring the height ,of the tree. (c) measuring the diameter of the trunk. (d) counting the number of rings in the trunk. 62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are (a) Viruses (b) Bacteria (c) Algae d) Fungi 63. What is an endoscope? (a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal 206

(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats (c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders (d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles. 64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as (a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus (c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis 65. The President of India is elected by (a) members of both Houses of the Parliament. (b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures. (c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies. (d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies. 66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is (a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants. (c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms. 67. Diamond and Graphite are (a) allotropes (b) isomorphous (c) isomers (d) isobars 68. Kayak is kind of (a) tribal tool. (b) boat. (c) ship. (d) weapon. 69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value? (a) Carbohydrates (b) fats (c) Proteins (d) Vitamins. 70. Rotation of crops means (a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility. (b) some crops are growing again and again. (c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity. (d) None of these.

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71. Suez Canal connects (a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean. (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea. (c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie. (d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario. 72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland? (a) Kandla (b) Kochi (c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam. 73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to (a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation. (c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation. 74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is (a) excessive fuel wood collection. (b) excessive soil erosion. (c) floods. (d) construction of roads. 75. Recharging of water table depends on (a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area. (c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation. Answers Part - I 1. (d) 6. (d) 11. (d) 16. (a) 21. (a) 26. (c) 31. (c) 36. (d) 41. (d) 46. (c) 51. (c) 56. (b) 61. (a) 2. (d) 7. (b) 12. (a) 17. (d) 22. (b) 27. (c) 32. (c) 37. (b) 42. (a) 47. (d) 52. (d) 57. (c) 62. (a) 3. (b) 8. (b) 13. (a) 18. (a) 23. (b) 28. (d) 33. (c) 38. (a) 43. (b) 48. (d) 53. (d) 58. (d) 63. (a) 4. (c) 9. (a) 14. (b) 19. (a) 24. (a) 29. (d) 34. (a) 39. (a) 44. (a) 49. (b) 54. (b) 59. (c) 64. (d) 5. (a) 10. (b) 15. (c) 20. (b) 25. (d) 30. (a) 35. (c) 40. (b) 45. (c) 50. (a) 55. (a) 60. (d) 65. (d)

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66. (a) 71. (d)

67. (b) 72. (d)

68. (b) 73. (a)

69. (a) 74. (d)

70. (b) 75. (a)

Thank you for you suggestion in improving and correcting the sample paper.

Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous Year Question Paper 2007 (IV English)
Exam Name: Clerical Recruitment Conducted By: Andhra Bank Conducted in: Dec 2007 Topic: Part IV (ENGLISH LANGUAGE) Number of Questions: 50 Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help mankind with it. Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa. He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that 209

grew anxious to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to London and buried in West-minister with full honour. 151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following? (1) For expanding his empire (2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent (3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals (4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature (5) None of these 152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone? (1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society (2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river (3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous (4) It badly affected his health (5) None of these 153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous? (1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him (2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses (3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses (4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional (5) None of these 154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa? (1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs (2) Its territory was covered with dense forests (3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals (4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved (5) None of these 155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?

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(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world (2) A person with religious mindset (3) A social reformer (4) A warmhearted medical practitioner (5) A famous priest popular among the British 156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone? (a) A river in Western Luanda (b) Scotland (c) The origin of river Nile (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a) only (5) (b) only 157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following? (a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body. (b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone. (c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world. (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) only (5) (c) only 158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result (a) People in the world lost contact with him (b) His whereabouts were not known. (c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.

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(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only (5) None of these 159. In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others? (1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense forests (2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the world (3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes (4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population (5) None of these Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 160. REST (1) remainder (2) relax (3) respite (4) discovery (5) most 161. EXPLORATION (1) execution (2) cultivation (3) foundation (4) discovery (5) assimilation

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162. TURNED (1) rotated (2) twisted (3) spinned (4) revolved (5) arrived Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 163. DENSE (1) crowed (2) dark (3) sparse (4) transparent (5) opaque 164. BARREN (1) uncultivated (2) fertile (3) forest (4) unlevelled (5) marshy 165. VAST (1) miniature (2) magnified (3) enormous (4) gigantic (5) small Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is

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the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). 166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the crime. (4)/ No error (5) 167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not be proved. (4)/ No error (5) 168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it. (4)/ No error (5) 169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly. (4) /No error (5) 170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point. (4)/ No error (5) 171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5) 172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person dealings. (4)/ No error (5) 173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees. (4)/ No error (5) 174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5) 175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the father. (4)/ No error (5) Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________. (1) obvious (2) uncertain (3) definite (4) regular (5) essential 177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.

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(1) demand (2) abundance (3) peak (4) excessive (5) dearth 178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very aggressively. (1) rude (2) obedient (3) docile (4) intolerant (5) immature 179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession. (1) buy (2) work (3) submit (4) pay (5) decide 180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget. (1) that (2) who (3) whom (4) which (5) those Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and

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(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer. 181. (1) Discloser (2) Indifference (3) Cooperative (4) Irreversible (5) All Correct 182. (1) Repetition (2) Conservative (3) Acceptability (4) Innovative (5) All Correct 183. (1) Vigilant (2) Judilee (3) Receptive (4) Possessive (5) All Correct 184. (1) Decisive (2) Destructive (3) Accommodation (4) Pioneer (5) All Correct 185. (1) Compromising (2) Enthusiasm (3) Dislocation (4) Immigration (5) All Correct

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Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations. (b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted. (c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects. (d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values. (e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects. (f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days. 186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B 187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B 188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B

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189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B 190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192) organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular, have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works. Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/ Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him. In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200). 191. (1) famous (2) magnificent (3) decisive (4) renewed (5) glorious 192. (1) insecure (2) absolute

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(3) overt (4) incompetent (5) efficient 193. (1) creating (2) developing (3) encouraging (4) holding (5) appointing 194. (1) magnifying (2) growing (3) improving (4) judging (5) deciding 195. (1) prospered (2) won (3) acquired (4) made (5) donated 196. (1) analysed (2) appreciated (3) cooperated (4) recommended (5) curtailed 197. (1) given (2) registered (3) conferred (4) passed

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(5) dictated 198. (1) aspires (2) enjoys (3) dedicates (4) believes (5) continues 199. (1) reason (2) aim (3) perspective (4) way (5) essence 200. (1) fame (2) respect (3) reputation (4) disregard (5) limelight ANSWERS 151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1) 161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2) 171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3) 181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4) 191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
*1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? (a) 1982 (b) 1989 220

(c) 1984 (d) 1992 Ans (c) 2. Shatabdi Express train was started in (a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985 Ans (b) 3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established? (a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi Ans (b) 4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways? (a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway Ans (c) 5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is (a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum Ans (c) 6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called (a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform Ans (c) 7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done? (a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954 Ans (b) 8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established? (a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967 Ans (b) 9. Railway Staff College is situated at (a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara Ans (d) 10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated? (a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi Ans (a) 11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true? (a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad (b) Central railway - Bhopal (c) South Railway - Chennai (d) North Railway - New Delhi Ans (b) 12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started? (a) from Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane (c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras 221

Ans (b) 13. When was the first train in Indian started? (a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854 Ans (c) 14. In which Governor-General's reign railway lines in India was established?(a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie Ans (d) 15. A station where the rail lines end, is called (a) junction station (b) way-side-station (c) block station (d) terminal station Ans (d) 16. How much distance was traveled by first train of India? (a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km Ans (c) 17. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Ans (d) 18. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)? (a) 4300 Km (b) 3700 Km (c) 4290 km (d) 5298 km Ans (b) 19. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi Ans (c) 20. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established? (a) 15th Jan, 1958 (b) 15th Jan, 1955 (c) 2nd Jan, 1956 (d) 14th April, 1952 Ans (a) 21. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is (a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati) (c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur Ans (b) 22. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai Ans (c) 23. General Manger is responsible for (a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry (c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry (d) None of these Ans (a) 24. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai (c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central) Ans (c) 25. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at

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(a) New Delhi (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) Mumbai (V.T) Ans (a) 26. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at (a) Calcutta (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai Ans (b) 27. In which institution the training of electric work is being given? (a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (c) Railway Staff College (d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Ans (b) 28. Who invented the railway engine? (a) Charles Babbage (b) Isaac Newton (c) James Watt (d) George Stephenson Ans (d) 29. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated? (a) Nasik (b) Baroda (c) Jamalpur (d) Pune Ans (c) 30. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States? (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu Ans (c) 31. The zone with the minimum length is (a) North-Eastern Railway (b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway (c) South-East Railway (d) South-Central Railway Ans (b) 32. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated? (a) Pune (b) Chennai (c) Nasik (d) Sikandrabad Ans (a) 33. How many training institutions of Railways are in India? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six Ans (c) 34. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Forth Ans (b) 35. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas? (a) Broad gauge (b) Meter gauge (c) Narrow gauge (d) Special gauge Ans (c) 36. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station? (a) Jammutavi (b) Amritsar (c) Pathancoat (d) Guwahat Ans (a) 37. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology? 223

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Ans (b) 38. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at (a) Perambur (b) Varanasi (c) Kapurthala (d) Bangalore Ans (b) 39. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in (a) 1974 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1973 Ans (c) 40. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places? (a) Kapurthala (b) Chittranjan (c) Perambur (d) Bangalore Ans (c) 41. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions? (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 10 Ans (b) 42. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project? (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans (a) 43. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in (a) 1988 (b) 1972 (c) 1982 (d) 1965 Ans (c) 44. When was the Central Railway established? (a) 5th Nov 1951 (b) 14th Nov 1951 (c) 14th April 1951 (d) 16th August, 1951 Ans (a) 45. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones? (a) Northern region (b) Western region (c) North-Western region (d) Central Region Ans (b) 46. The largest national enterprise of India is (a) Indian Railway (b) Indian Shipyard (c) Airways (d) None of these Ans (a) 47. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on (a) November 1950 (b) October 1950 (c) September 1949 (d) October 1954 Ans (a) 48. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated? (a) Chittranjan (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) Perambur Ans (c) 49. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway? (a) 1965 (b) 1963 (c) 1967 (d) 1965 Ans (d) 50. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated? 224

(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Mumbai (Church Gate) (c) Gwalior (d) Gorakhpur Ans (a) Current General Awareness 1. Who amongst the following has selected for Udyog Ratna Award for the year 2008? (a) Bhawanishankar Sharma (b) Azim Premji (c) Anil Ambani (d) Sunil Bharti Mittal Ans: (a) 2. Who amongst the following has selected Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award forMedical Sciences for the year 2008? (a) Dr Ravinder Goswami (b) Dr G P S Raghava (c) Dr Pradeep Thalappil (d) Dr Ranjan Kumar Mallik Ans: (a) 3. As per the recent study conducted by the US Census Bureau and Boston Consulting Group, by the year 2020, the world will face deficit of around 56 million skilled manpower but India would be the only country with a surplus of ……….. youth. (a) 47 million (b) 57 million (c) 45 million (d) 37 million Ans: (a) 4. Which of the following is the Union minister of state for labour and employment

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(a) Oscar Fernandes (b) Antony (c) George Fernandes (d) Shivraj Patil Ans: (a) 5. The new policy is ready and will be placed before the Union Cabinet for approval soon. The new policy aims at empowering all individuals through improved skills, knowledge and internationally recognised qualifications to enable them access to decent employment and to promote inclusive national growth. Name the new policy ? (a) National Skill Development Policy (b) National Development Policy (c) Indian Skill Development Policy (d) None of these Ans: (a) 6. Recently, MOSTLY MEN, were crushed to death and several others injured in a stampede caused by a rush of devotees in the …………………. temple in the 15th century Mehrangarh Fort on a hillock on the first day of Navaratri festival. (a) Chamunda Devi (b) Naina Devi (c) Nanda Devi (d) None of these Ans: (a) 7. Jagdish Khattar, former Maruti MD, announced his foray into the organised multi-brand car sales and service business with an investment of Rs 1,000 crore over the next five years. The new company, ………………… is backed by Rs 80-crore investment from Wipro chairman Azim Premji’s PremjiInvest and Rs 28 crore from IFCI Venture Capital Funds.

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(a) Carnation Auto India Ltd (b) Carnation Automobile Ltd (c) Carnation India Ltd (d) None of these Ans: (a) 8. What is the full form of “NPPA” (a) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (b) National Product Pricing Authority (c) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Agency (d) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Administration Ans: (a) 9. DRUG price regulator ………………………. has slashed prices of three bulk drugs, including salbutamol sulphate used for the treatment of bronchial asthma. (a) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (b) National Product Pricing Authority (c) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Agency (d) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Administration Ans: (a) 10. Which of the following is used for treatment of malaria ? (a) sulphamethoxazole (b) salbutamol sulphate (c) potassium penicillin V (d) benzathine penicillin G Ans: (a) 11. Recently, Mr Fernandes released a Blue Book on ITIs ………………………. and Skill Gap Studies in the key sectors of construction, retail, health, automotive and finance at the CII Global Summit on Skills Development. (a) Getting Started, Unleashing Skilled India: Transforming ITIs together 227

(b) India: Transforming ITIs together (c) Unleashing Skilled India: Transforming ITIs together (d) None of these Ans: (a) 12. Which of the following is the MD of SBI Life Insurance (a) Uday Shankar Roy (b) Sriprakash Jaiswal (c) Shivshankar Menon (d) JM Panchal Ans: (a) 13. According to the recent ET-Brand Finance India’s Top 50 Most Valuable (Company) Brands 2008 study, ……………………….. emerged as the most valuable financial services brand value at Rs 16,595 crore. (a) State Bank of India (b) Allahabad Bank (c) Union Bank of India (d) United Bank of India Ans: (a) 14. HOURS after issuing an advisory to which of the following states asking them to contain the anti-Christian violence, the Centre recently dashed off a separate and far sterner advisory describing the communal developments there as a ‘breach of the Constitution and law of the country’ and directing the state to ‘urgently’ take necessary steps to restore peace and normalcy. (a) Karnataka and Orissa (b) Jharkhand and Orissa (c) Karnataka and Jharkhand (d) West Bengal and Maharashtra Ans: (a)

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15. Who is the foreign secretary of India. (a) Uday Shankar Roy (b) Sriprakash Jaiswal (c) Shivshankar Menon (d) JM Panchal Ans: (c) 16. Who is the US secretary of state (a) Condoleezza Rice (b) Sriprakash Jaiswal (c) Shivshankar Menon (d) JM Panchal Ans: (a) 17. What is the full form of “NHRC” (a) National Human Rights Commission (b) National Human Role Commission (c) National Home Rule Commission (d) National Human Rights Consideration Ans: (a) 18. EXPRESSING concern over the National Human Rights Commission’s (NHRC) report over the atrocities committed by the counter-Naxalite Salwa Judum movement in ………………, the Supreme Court recently asked the state government to come up with its stand on the remedial measures. (a) Chhattisgarh (b) West Bengal (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans: (a) 19. …………. will start mobile operations in the North East recently. It will initiate its Rs 200-crore rollout in a phased manner, starting with Assam. 229

(a) Tata Teleservices (b) Reliance Communication (c) BSNL (d) MTNL Ans: (a) 20. Which of the following telecom operator has around 3 million subscribers in the East and enjoys around 10% market share ? (a) Tata Teleservices (b) Reliance Communication (c) BSNL (d) MTNL Ans: (a) 21. In the Kolkata circle, Tata Teleservices enjoys ……… market share of subscribers. (a) 15.5% (b) 16% (c) 10% (d) 10.5% Ans; (a) 22. Name the America’s fourth-largest i-bank which filed for bankruptcy recently. (a) Lehman Brothers (b) World Bank (c) Bank of America (d) None of these Ans: (a) 23. Who is the CHIEF minister of West Bengal ? (a) Buddhadeb Bhattacharjee (b) Jyoti Basu

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(c) Mamata Banerjee (d) Somen Mitra Ans: (a) 24. Recently, the CHIEF minister of West Bengal exercised the provisions of “Rule 25(4)(b) in Para III of Rules of Business of the Government” to direct that the licence of ……………….. under the West Bengal Agricultural Produce Marketing (Regulation) Act, 1972 be renewed immediately. (a) Metro Cash & Carry India Pvt Ltd (b) Cash & Carry India Pvt Ltd (c) Big Bazaar (d) Kolkata Bazaar Ans: (a) 25. Who is the principal issuing authority of licence under Rule 6 (1) of the West Bengal Agricultural Produce Marketing (Regulation) Rules, 1982 to Metro Cash & Carry India Pvt Ltd? (a) the secretary, South 24-Parganas Regulated Market Committee (b) the president, South 24-Parganas Regulated Market Committee (c) the chairman, South 24-Parganas Regulated Market Committee (d) None of these Ans: (a) 26. As per the recent study conducted by the US Census Bureau and Boston Consulting Group, which of the following country will be the only country to have surplus skill power? (a) India (b) China (c) USA (d) Germany

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Ans: (a) 27. Who is the present Governor of Reserve Bank of India ? (a) Bimal Jalan (b) Sriprakash Jaiswal (c) D. Subbarao (d) Y.V.Reddy Ans: (c) 28. As per the recent study conducted by the US Census Bureau and Boston Consulting Group, by the year ………., the world will face deficit of around 56 million skilled manpower but India would be the only country with a surplus of manpower. (a) 2020 (b) 2011 (c) 2019 (d) 2015 Ans: (a)

India at Olympics – General Awareness for Bank PO and SSC INDIA AT OLYMPICS
India' first participation in Olympics was in 1900.We have been associated with Olympics for last 21 games. Today Abhinav Bindra has made the nation proud by wining the GOLD medal for 10 m Air Rifle Shooting. It is a very special victory as it brings a Gold Medal after a gap of 28 Long Years. He is also the Only Indian to win an individual gold at Olympics. Here is India's performance at Olympics over the years. MEDALS IN DIFFERENT SPORTS Sport Hockey Shooting Tennis Weightlifting Wrestling - Freestyle Gold 8 0 0 0 0 Silver 1 1 0 0 0 Bronze 2 0 1 1 1 Total 11 1 1 1 1

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Total

8

2

5

15

CHRONOLOGICAL LIST OF MEDALS

Year 1928 1932 1936 1948 1952 1956 1960 1964 1968 1972 1980 1996 2000 2004 Total

Gold 1 (H) 1 (H) 1 (H) 1 (H) 1 (H) 1 (H) 0 1 (H) 0 0 1 (H) 0 0 0 8

Silver 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 (H) 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 (S) 2

Bronze 0 0 0 0 1 (W) 0 0 0 1 (H) 1 (H) 0 1 (T) 1 (WL) 0 5

Total 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 15

(H) - Hockey Team (W) - Wrestling, won by Kha-Shaba Jadav in Helsinki (T) - Tennis, won by Leander Paes at Atlanta (WL) - Weight Lifting, won by Karnam Malleshwari at Sydney (S) - Shooting, won by Rajyawardhan Singh Rathore at Athens We hope we will get the honour to add more names to this list in coming days!! We wish all the luck to the Indian Olympic Contingent competing at Beijing!!

CLAT Entrance: Legal Aptitude Sample Question Paper
This sample question paper on Legal Aptitude is based on previous questions papers for law and LLB entrance exams. This is based on the pattern specified for CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) conducted by institutes like NALSAR. 1. "No action lies against the Government for injury done to an individual in the course of exercise of its sovereign functions". All of the following actions are covered by the above provision, except

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1. improper arrest, negligence or trespass by police officers. 2. loss of movables from government custody owing to negligence of its officers. 3. injury due to the negligence of servants of the government employed in a railway or a dockyard. 4. administration of justice. 2. To secure the enrichment of Hindi, the Constitution, among other things, directs the State to give-primary importance to one of the languages included in the VIII Schedule for the purpose of drawing upon it. This language is 1. Bengali 2. Marathi 3. Sanskrit 4. Urdu 3. Disagreement between the two Houses of Indian Parliament is finally resolved through 1. a joint committee of the two Houses for the purpose. 2. mediatory efforts by the presiding officers of the two Houses. 3. a joint committee of the two Houses for the purpose. 4. mediation by the President. 4. Which of the following Articles of Constitution cannot be amended by a simple majority in both the Houses of Parliament? 1. Article 2 2. Article 3 3. Article 4 4. Article 15 5. Which one of the following Directive Principles is a socialistic principle? 1. Equal pay for equal work to all 2. Protection of the health of workers 3. Prevention of concentration of wealth and the means of production 4. All of these

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6. Originally it was laid down in the Constitution that English shall continue to be used for all the official purposes of the union for a period of 1. 15 years 2. 20 years 3. 25 years 4. 30 years 7. As per Article 100(3), the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is 1. one-fourth of the total number of members of that House. 2. one-fifth of the total number of members of that House. 3. one-tenth of the total number of members of that House. 4. one-third of the total number of members of that House. 8. The age of retirement of a Judge of a High Court in India is 1. 58 years 2. 60 years 3. 62 years 4. 65 years 9. The Rule of Law means 1. existence of written rules to regulate the conduct of government officials. 2. that no person can be punished unless his guilt is established by a fair trial. 3. that the power to make laws vests in the elected representatives of the people. 4. independence of the Judiciary 10. In a particular case, the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers is sent back by the President for reconsideration. If the Council of Ministers adhere to their earlier advice, the President 1. can ask for reconsideration of the advice once more 2. can ask for reconsideration of the advice any number of times 3. has no option but to accept such advice 4. must seek the advice of the Supreme Court before rejecting the advice.

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11. The writ by which a High Court or the Supreme Court can secure the body of a person who has been imprisoned to be brought before it is 1. Certiorari 2. Habeas Corpus 3. Mandamus 4. Quo Warranto 12. The number of writs that can be prayed for and issued by the Supreme Court and/or a High Court is 1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 6 13. The term of which of the following Lok Sabha was extended beyond the normal period of five years laid down in the Constitution? 1. Fourth Lok Sabha 2. Fifth Lok Sabha 3. Sixth Lok Sabha 4. Seventh Lok Sabha 14. The High Courts at Bombay, Calcutta and Madras were established under the 1. Indian High Courts Act, 1861 2. Indian High Courts Act, 1865 3. Indian High Courts Act, 1911 4. Government of India Act, 1919 15. In which of the following situations can the President promulgate an Ordinance? 1. There is disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over a bill. 2. Both Houses have refused to pass a Bill sponsored by Government with the previous sanction of the President. 3. A Bill has been pending in Parliament for a long period. 4. Parliament is not in session

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16. Which of the following events made Gandhiji to launch, for the first time, Civil Disobedience Movement? 1. Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919 2. Killing of peaceful agitators at Chauri Chaura by the British troops in 1922 3. Promulgation of the Rowlatt Act of 1919 4. Failure of talks with the Cripps Mission in 1942 17. Dyarchy as the form of Government at the provincial level was introduced by the 1. Government of India Act, 1919 2. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms 4. Government of India Act, 1935 18. Which of the following Acts of British Parliament envisaged for the first time a closer association of Indians with the administration? 1. Indian Councils Act, 1861 2. Indian Councils Act, 1892 3. Indian Councils Act, 1909 4. Government of India Act, 1919 19. For how long can the President's rule in a State imposed initially? 1. One year 2. Six months 3. Two years 4. Three months 20. In accordance with the provisions of our Constitution, new all-India Services can be created only by the 1. Parliament 2. Process of amendment of the Constitution 3. Union Government in consultation with the U.P.S.C. 4. President on the advice of the Council of Ministers

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21. Who presides over the joint session of Parliament? 1. The Speaker 2. The Vice-President 3. The President 4. The deputy chairman of the Rajya Sabha 22. The reference to Hindus in Article 25 of the Constitution does not include 1. Parsees 2. Sikhs 3. Jains 4. Buddhists 23. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is 1. nominated by the President 2. elected by the two Houses of Parliament 3. elected by Parliament and the legislatures of the States jointly 4. elected by the members of Rajya Sabha 24. In India, a tax on agricultural income can be levied by 1. both the Central and State Governments 2. neither the Central nor the State Governments 3. only the State Governments 4. only the Central Government 25. By which amendment, were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens added to the Constitution? 1. Forty-forth Amendment 2. Forty-third Amendment 3. Forty-second Amendment 4. Forty-first Amendment 26. Financial allocation for Education was made for the first time by the Charter Act of 1. 1833 238

2. 1813 3. 1793 4. 1773 27. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of 1. the Chief Justice of a High Court 2. the Chief Justice of India 3. the Governor 4. the Vice-President 28. In the event of non-enforcement of Directive Principles of the State by the Government, a citizen of India can move the 1. District Court 2. High Court 3. Supreme Court 4. None of these 29. The member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after an enquiry has been conducted by the 1. Supreme Court of India 2. High Court of the State 3. committee appointed by the President 4. committee appointed by the Governor of the State 30. Who can recommend abolition or creation of the Legislative Council in a State? 1. Governor of the State 2. Advocate-General of the State 3. Legislative Assembly of the State 4. The State Council of Ministers 31. The purpose of the Ilbert Bill was 1. to take away the right of the native magistrates to try Europeans and Englishmen 2. to take away the right of the European magistrates to try Indians

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3. to remove an anomaly in the Criminal Procedure Code of 1873, according to which no magistrate or sessions judge could try a European or British subject unless he was himself of European birth 4. None of the above 32. The Constitution of India borrowed the concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy from the Constitution of 1. Ireland 2. USA 3. UK 4. Canada 33. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 1. There is no provision of referendum in the Indian Constitution 2. The State Legislatures do not possess the right to initiate the amendment of the Constitution 3. The proposal for amending the Constitution can only be initiated in Lok Sabha 4. The Indian Constitution is partly flexible and partly rigid 34. Which one of the following Articles has declared untouchability in any form as unconstitutional? 1. Article 14 2. Article 17 3. Article 44 4. Article 45 35. Which one of the following is not among the sources of revenue for the Union? 1. Land revenue 2. Custom duties including export duties 3. Duties of excise on tobacco and other goods manufactured or produced in India, except alcoholic liquors, opium, Indian, except alcoholic liquors, opium, Indian hemp and other narcotic drugs 4. Taxes on income other than agricultural income 36. Under which one of the following Articles, the Supreme Court has been given the powers to review any judgement pronounced or order made by it previously? 240

1. Article 130 2. Article 137 3. Article 138 4. Article 139 37. A member elected to Lok Sabha as a candidate of a party crosses the floor of the House. In such a case, 1. his continued membership of the House is not affected in any way 2. he ceases to be a member of the House whether or not he resigns his membership 3. he can continue to be a member of the House if the party on whose symbol he was elected has no objection 4. he will continue to be a member of the House if the Speaker permits 38. The Right to Property was excluded from the Fundamental Rights during the tenure of the Government headed by 1. Charan Singh 2. Morarji Desai 3. Indira Gandhi 4. Rajiv Gandhi 39. Which of the following statements in regard to the Directive Principles of State Policy is correct? 1. Fundamental Rights constitute limitations upon State action, while Directive Principles are in the nature of instruction to the Government to achieve certain ends 2. They are justiciable in certain respects 3. They enjoin on the State to secure a living wage to all workers within a specified period 4. The courts can compel the State to implement some of the important directives 40. The First Official Language Commission, as required under Article 344 of the Constitution, was constituted by the President in 1. 1950 with K.M. Munshi as its Chairman 2. 1955 with B.G. Kher as its Chairman 3. 1960 with M.C. Chhagla as its Chairman

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4. 1965 with Humayun Kabir as its Chairman Answer Key 1. 3 2. 3 3. 1 4. 4 5. 4 6. 1 7. 3 8. 4 9. 2 10. 3 11. 2 12. 3 13. 2 14. 1 15. 4 16. 3 17. 1 18. 3 19. 2 20. 1 21. 1 22. 1 23. 2 24. 3 25. 3 26. 2 27. 3 28. 4 29. 2 30. 3 31. 3 32. 1 33. 3 34. 2 35. 1 36. 2 37. 2 38. 2 39. 4 40. 2

BANK CLERK GENERAL AWARENESS SAMPLE PAPER
1 At present the salary of President of India is - (a) Rs. 50,000 (b) Rs. 75,000 (c) Rs. 85,000 (d) Rs. 1,00,000 2 What is the minimum age prescribed in India for citizen to cast their vote ? (a) 18 years (b) 21 years (c) 16 years (d) 20 years 3 Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not ? (a) President (b) Prime minister (c) Finance Minister (d) Speaker of the lok sabha 4 The World Press Freedom Day is observed on (a)12TH December (b) 03RD May (c) 15TH September (d) 01ST December 5 Who was the last viceroy of India ? (a) Lord linlithgow (b) Lord Mountbatten (c) Lord Wavell (d) Clement Attlee 6 The world trade organization was formed in (a) 1991 (b) 1995 (c) 1997 (d) 1999 7 Who had estimated national income in India first (a) V.K.R.V. Rao (b) Dadabhi Naoroji (c) R.C. Dutt (d) D.R. Gadgil 8 Cuscuta is a (a) Partial stem parasite (b) Complete stem parasite (c) Partial root parasite (d) Complete root parasite 9 The function unit of the kidney is (a) Neuron (b) Glomerolus (c) Nephron (d) Ureter 10 Copper is refined by (a) Roasting (b) Oxidation (c) Electrolysis (d) Zone refining 11 The important unit of a microprocessor is (a) ALU (b) Array of registers

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(c) Control unit (d) All of these 12 Who was the first actress to be conferred with the honors of Padma Shree (a) Kanan Davi (b) Devika Rani (c) Sulochana (d) Nargis Dutt 13 What is the net profit percentage of SBI during the year 2007-08 ? (a) 26.5 % (b) 30.25 % (c) 34.34 % (d) 48.18 % 14 The union cabinet has decided to increases the number of judges in the supreme court including the chief justice from 26 to (a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 31 15 The union government has recently banned the export of which of the following cereals ? (a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Maize (d) None of these 16 Chine has hiked its defense expenditure by ……. Per cent to raise it to $ 57.22 billion (a) 17.6 (b) 18.5 (c) 20.2 (d) 22.5 17 Who has bagged the 53rd filmfare awards for best actress (a) Aishwarya Rai (b) Preity Zinta (c) Rani Mukherjee (d) Kareena Kapoor 18 What slogan has been given by the UNESCO for the international year of languages 2008 ? (a) Revive lost Language (b) Language matter (c) Language unit US (d) Language our lifelines 19 What is the name of the latest book by Jhunpa Lahiri (a) Namesake (b) Unaccustomed earth (c) Unpredictable earth (d) Reconcilation 20 What is the Name of Delhi’s Cricket Team for IPL cricket Tournament (a) Dare Devils (b) Knight Riders (c) a & b (d) none of these 21 A rear view mirror for driving is (a) plain (b) concave (c) convex (d) none 22 The government of India derives its single largest source of revenue from (a) Direct Tax (b) Customer Duties (c) Deficit Financing (d) Union Excise Duties 23 Rath temple at Mahabalipuram were built in the reign of which Pallava ruler ? (a) Mahendraverman 1 (b) Narsinghavarman 1 (c) a & b (d) none 24 The staple food of the vedic Aryan was (a) barley & rice (b) milk & its product (c) rice & pulses (d) none of these 243

25 Who has bagged the Indu Sharma Katha Samman for the year 2007 ? (a) Mahasweta Devi (b) Nirupama Subramaniam (c) Nasira Sharma (d) Nilanjana Bose ANSWER KEY *1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 d a d b b b c b b c d d d d a 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 a b b b b c d a b c*

*RRB ASM General Knowledge Solved Paper*
1. Which of the following countries is a land locked country in south America? a. Ecuador b. Peru c. Uruguay d. Bolivia Ans : d 2. Canary Islands belongs to a. Norway b. Spain c. New Zealand d. Portugal Ans : b 3. Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet a. Mercury b. Venus c. Saturn d. Neptune Ans : c 4. Which of the following planets rotates clock wise? a. Pluto b. Jupiter c. Venus d. Mercury Ans : c 5. A difference of 1 degree in longitude at the Equator is equivalent to nearly a. 101 km b. 111 km c. 121 km d. 125 km Ans : b 6. The earliest known Indian script is a. Mori b. Devanagari c. Brahmi d. Kharosti Ans : c 7. How many times the preamble was amended 244

a. once b. twice c. thrice d. four times Ans : a 8. The term socialist was added in the Preamble by the...amendment a. 40th b. 42nd c. 44th d. 49th Ans : b 9. The state with the lowest population in India is a. Goa b. Tripura c. Mizoram d. Sikkim Ans : d 10. Which person or organisation received the Nobel Prize three times so far? a. Medame Curie b. Linus Pauling c. Alexender Flemming d. International Committee of the Redcross Ans : d 11. The Finance Commission is appointed for every... year a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Ans : c 12. Under which five year plan did agriculture show a negative growth? a. 1st plan b. 2nd plan c. 3rd plan d. 4th plan Ans : c 13. Who is the founder of the Capital city of Agra? a. Akbar b. Babar c. Sikinder Lodi d. Mubarak Shah Sayyad Ans: c 14. The first tide generated electricity project was established at a. Vizhinjam, Kerala b. Mangalore, Karnataka c. Paradeep, Orissa d. Vishakapattanam Ans : a 15. National Institute of Oceanography is located in : a. Calcutta 245

b. Chennai c. Mangalore d. Panaji Ans : d 16. The 2004 Olympics were held in : a. Bangkok b. Rome c. Athens d. Nagasaki Ans : c 17. Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War ? a. Gen. V. P. Malik b. Gen. S. K. Sinha c. K. Subramanyam d. K. C. Panth Ans : c 18. The C. K. Nayudu Trophy is related to the sport of a. cricket b. Hockey c. Football d. Chess Ans : a 19. New York is situated on the river a. Hudson b. Thames c. Danube d. Tigris Ans : a 20. "The Woman of the Millennium" selected by the British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) is a. Margaret Thacher b. Hillary Clinton c. Chandrika Kumaratunga d. Indira Gandhi Ans : d 21. The General Assembly of United Nations meets a. Once a year b. twice a year c. thrice a year d. Once in five years Ans : a 22. The "Common Wealth Games 2002" will be held in a. Toranto b. Manchester c. Tokyo d. Canberra Ans : b 23. All India Radio commenced operations in a. 1926 b. 1936 c. 1945 d. 1947 Ans : b 246

24. The "Killer Instinct" is written by a. Sulakshan Mohan b. M.K.Santanam c. O.P.Sabharwal d. Subash Jain Ans : c 25. The Secretary-General of UN is appointed by the a. Security Council b. Trusteeship Council c. General Assembly d. World Bank Ans : c 26. Postal Voting is other wise called: a. external voting b. secret voting c. plural voting d. proxy voting Ans : d 27. The Common Wealth of Independent states (CIS) consists of....republica? a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13 Ans : c 28. Which of the following harbours is considered as the world's finest natural harbour? a. Sydney harbour b. Toronto harbour c. New Jersy harbour d. Singapore harbour Ans : a 29. Who invented Radar? a. Henrey Backquerel b. Max Planck c. Robert Watson Watt d. Humphrey Davy Ans : c 30. Sandal Wood trees are mostly found in... a. Trophical Evergreen Forests b. Tropical most Decidous c. Alpine forests d. Trophical Thorn Forests Ans : d 31. The first country to legalise medically assisted suicide is a. Switzerland b. New Zealand c. USA d. Netherlands Ans : d 31. India's newsprint industry is mainly located in a. Indore 247

b. Dehradun c. Nepanagar d. Nagpur Ans : c 32. The tomb of Babur is at a. Kabul b. Lahore c. Multan d. Larkhana Ans : a 33. The joint session of the two houses is presided by a. the speaker b. the president c. chairman of Rajyasabha d. none of these Ans : a 34. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the a. Greeks b. Shakas c. persians d. Kushans Ans : a 35. The Simon Commission was appointed in a. 1927 b. 1928 c. 1929 d. 1930 Ans : c 36. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the year ? a. 1972 b. 1973 c. 1974 d. 1975 Ans : d 37. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ? a. Rajaraja Chola b. Mahendra Varman c. Narsimha Varman d. Narsimha Chola Ans : c 38. The 189th member of United Nations is a. Palau b. Tuvalu c. Soloman Islands d. Nauru Ans : b 39. When was Burma separated from India a. 1947 b. 1942 c. 1937 c. 1932 Ans : c 40. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 248

lakes? a. Poland b. Denmark c. Finland d. Norway Ans : c

*CURRENT GENERAL AWARENESS *
1. Who amongst the following has been appointed as Governor of Reserve Bank of India on 2nd September , 2008 ? (a) Y.V.Reddy (b) Bimal Jalan (c) Duvvuri *Subbarao* (d) Amartya Sen Ans (c) 2. Which of the following city is very recently renamed? (a) Puducherry (b) Kolkata (c) Gaya (d) Bangaluru Ans (d) 3. Which of the following is not recognized by UNO as an International Year of 2008? (a) Planet Earth (b) Aids (c) Potato (d) Sanitation Ans (b) 4. Who is the winner of Slaka Samman for the year 2008? (a) Prabhash Joshi (b) Nazma Hepthullah (c) Ashok Chakradhar

249

(d) Rehman Rahi Ans (a) 5. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards are given for the person who shown exemplary performance in the field of __________ (a) Sports (b) Politics (c) Science & Technology (d) Literature Ans (c) 6. What was the controversial issue for getting the confidence of Lok Sabha by the U.P.A. Government on 22nd July, 2008? (a) Increase of prices (b) Fall of Share Market (c) Increase of inflation (d) Nuclear Treaty with US Ans (d) 7. Who amongst following is not named for one time Life Time Achievement Awards on the occasion of 60th Anniversary of India’s Independence? (a) Dilip Kumar (b) Dev Anand (c) Saroja Devi (d) Tapan Sinha Ans (b) 8. What is the estimated G.D.P. rate in 11th Five Year Plan? (a) 8.8% (b) 8.9% (c) 9.0% (d) 9.5% Ans (c) 250

9. What is the range of Agni-3 Ballistic Missile which was launched by DRDA on 7th May, 2008? (a) 1500 (b) 2000 (c) 3000 (d) 4500 Ans (c) 10. The agricultural growth rate in 2006-07 was (a) 1.75% (b) 2.00% (c) 2.6% (d) 3.6% Ans (c) 11. Who is the present Chief Minister of Bihar? (a) R.L.Bhatia (b) Rabri Devi (c) Nitish Kumar (d) Ram Vilash Paswan Ans (c) 12. Who won the First Gold Medal in Beijing 2008 Olympic games For India in the individual category 10 metre rifle shooting ? (a) Vijyendra Kumar (b) Sushil Kumar (c) Abhinav Bindra (d) Anju Bobby George Ans (c) 13. What was the major issue for the Left Parties (CPI and CPM) to withdraw support to UPA Government? (a) To protect the secularism

251

(b) To protect the interest of the left parties (c) Against the Nuclear Treaty with USA (d)All the above Ans (c) 14. Where was held the WTO (World Trade Organization) Ministerial Conference in July 2008 ? (a) New Delhi (b) Jakarta (c) Beijing (d) Jeneva Ans (d) 15. Who is the chairman of U.P.A..? (a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Manmohan Singh (c) Pranav Mukherjee (d) Shivraj Patil Ans (a) 16. What is the objective of eleventh Five Year plan (200712) ? (a) Removal of Unemployment (b) Inclusive growth (c) Growth with social- justice (d) Development of minorities ANS (b) 17. Where will be held the first Youth Olympic Games in 2010 ? (a) Beijing (b) New Delhi (c) Singapore (d) London

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Ans (c) 18. Where will be held the 30th Olympic Games in 2012 ? (a) Beijing (b) Kualalumpur (c) Singapore (d) London Ans (d) 19. The name of Thaksin Shinawatra's is associated with which of the follwing countries ? (a) USSR (b) Kazakistan (c) Thailand (d) Soth Korea Ans (c) 20. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Enchantress of Florence’ ? (a) Benajir Bhutto (b) Salman Rushdie (c) Laxmi Sehgal (d) L.K.Advani Ans (b) 21. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award given away in August 2008 ? (a) Sanjeev Singh (b) Prabhjot Singh (c) Mahendra Singh Dhoni (d) Rahul Dravid Ans (c)

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22. Rafael Nadal who won Wimbledon Open 2008 Tennis Championship is a citizen of— (a) Spain (b) France (c) Russia (d) USA Ans (a) 23. The Hiroshima Day was observed on which of the following days ? (a) 6th August (b) 14th November (c) 19th September (d) 2nd October Ans (a) 24. Who amongst the following is NOT a recipient of the Dhyan Chand Award given away in August 2008 ? (a) Sanjeeva Kumar Singh (b) Mukh Bain Singh (c) Hokam Singh (d) Gyan Singh Ans (a) 25. Who amongst the following is NOT a recipient of the Dronacharya Awards for the year 2007 given away in August 2008 ? (a) Sanjeeva Kumar Singh (b) GE Sridharan (c) Jagdish Singh (d) Prabhjot Singh Ans (d) 26. Who amongst the following is a recipient of V.V.Giri Memorial Award for the year 2008? 254

(a) K.P.Kannan (b) Megha Patekar (c) Depak Chawla (d) B.B.Tondon Ans (a)

*Dadasaheb Phalke Award Winners*
*Year / Winner / Occupation / State* 1969 Devika Rani actress Andhra Pradesh 1970 B. N. Sircar producer West Bengal 1971 Prithviraj Kapoor actor (posthumous) Punjab 1972 Pankaj Mullick composer (music director) West Bengal 1973 Ruby Myers (Sulochana) actress Maharashtra 1974 Bomireddi Narasimha Reddy Director Andhra Pradesh 1975 Dhirendranath Ganguly actor, director West Bengal 1976 Kanan Devi actress West Bengal 1977 Nitin Bose cinematographer, director, writer, West Bengal, Maharashtra 1978 Rai Chand Boral composer, director West Bengal 1979 Sohrab Modi actor, director, producer Maharashtra 1980 Paidi Jairaj actor, director Andhra Pradesh 1981 Naushad Ali composer (music director) Uttar Pradesh 1982 L. V. Prasad actor, director, producer Andhra Pradesh 1983 Durga Khote actress Maharashtra 1984 Satyajit Ray director West Bengal 1985 V. Shantaram actor, director, producer Maharastra 1986 B. Nagi Reddy producer Andhra Pradesh 1987 Raj Kapoor actor, director Punjab 1988 Ashok Kumar actor West Bengal, Maharashtra 1989 Lata Mangeshkar singer Maharashtra 1990 A. Nageswara Rao actor Andhra Pradesh 1991 Bhalji Pendharkar director, producer, writer Maharashtra 1992 Bhupen Hazarika composer (music director) Assam 1993 Majrooh Sultanpuri lyricist 1994 Dilip Kumar actor Peshawar, Pakistan 1995 Dr. Rajkumar actor Karnataka 1996 Sivaji Ganesan actor Tamil Nadu 1997 Pradeep lyricist 1998 B.R. Chopra director, producer Punjab 1999 Hrishikesh Mukherjee director West Bengal, Maharashtra 2000 Asha Bhosle singer Maharashtra 2001 Yash Chopra director, producer Punjab 2002 Dev Anand actor, director, producer Punjab 2003 Mrinal Sen director West Bengal 2004 Adoor Gopalakrishnan director Kerala 2005 Shyam Benegal director Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka 2006 not anounced 2007 Ravi Tandon director 255

*Gandhi Peace Prize Recipients **No /Year / Name / Recipient /Description *1. 1995 Julius Nyerere 1st President of Tanzania 2. 1996 A. T. Ariyaratne Founder of Sarvodaya Shramadana Movement 3. 1997 Gerhard Fischer 4. 1998 Ramakrishna Mission Founded by Swami Vivekananda 5. 1999 Baba Amte Social Worker 6. 2000 Nelson Mandela (co-recipient) Former President of South Africa 7. 2000 Grameen Bank (co-recipient) Founded by Mohammad Yunus 8. 2001 John Hume Northern Irish Politician 9. 2002 Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan 10. 2003 Václav Havel 11. 2004 Coretta Scott King Widow of Martin Luther King 12. 2007 Desmond Tutu *Bharat Ratna Awardees S.No Name Birth / death /Awarded /Notes /Indian state or country* 1. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan 1888–1975 1954 Second President, First Vice President, Philosopher. Tamil Nadu 2. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari 1878–1972 1954 Last GovernorGeneral, Freedom Fighter. Tamil Nadu 3. C. V. Raman 1888–1970 1954 Nobel-prize winning Physicist Tamil Nadu 4. Bhagwan Das 1869–1958 1955 Literature, Freedom Fighter Uttar Pradesh 5. Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvarayya 1861–1962 1955 Civil Engineer Karnataka 6. Jawaharlal Nehru 1889–1964 1955 First Prime Minister, Freedom Fighter, Author. Uttar Pradesh 7. Govind Ballabh Pant 1887–1961 1957 Freedom Fighter, Home Minister Uttar Pradesh 8. Dhondo Keshav Karve 1858–1962 1958 Educationist, Social Reformer, Awarded in his birth centenary year. Maharashtra 9. Dr. B. C. Roy 1882–1962 1961 Physician, Politician, Former Chief Minister of West Bengal West Bengal 10. Purushottam Das Tandon 1882–1962 1961 Freedom Fighter, Educationist Uttar Pradesh 11. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 1884–1963 1962 First President, Freedom Fighter, Jurist Bihar 12. Dr. Zakir Hussain 1897–1969 1963 Former President, Scholar. Andhra 256

Pradesh 13. Pandurang Vaman Kane 1880–1972 1963 Indologist and Sanskrit scholar Maharashtra 14. Lal Bahadur Shastri 1904–1966 1966 Posthumous, Second Prime Minister, Freedom Fighter Uttar Pradesh 15. Indira Gandhi 1917–1984 1971 Former Prime Minister Uttar Pradesh 16. V. V. Giri 1894–1980 1975 Former President, Trade Unionist. Andhra Pradesh 17. K. Kamaraj 1903–1975 1976 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, Chief Minister-Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu 18. Mother Teresa 1910–1997 1980 Nobel Laureate (Peace, 1979). West Bengal 19. Acharya Vinoba Bhave 1895–1982 1983 Posthumous, Social Reformer, Freedom Fighter. Maharashtra 20. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 1890–1988 1987 First noncitizen, Freedom Fighter. Pakistan 21. M. G. Ramachandran 1917–1987 1988 Posthumous, Chief Minister-Tamil Nadu, Actor. Tamil Nadu 22. B. R. Ambedkar 1891–1956 1990 Posthumous, ArchitectIndian Constitution Maharashtra 23. Nelson Mandela b. 1918 1990 Second non-citizen and first non-Indian, Leader of Anti-Apartheid movement. South Africa 24. Rajiv Gandhi 1944–1991 1991 Posthumous, Former Prime Minister New Delhi 25. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 1875–1950 1991 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, First Home Minister of India. Gujarat 26. Morarji Desai 1896–1995 1991 Former Prime Minister, Freedom Fighter. Gujarat 27. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 1888–1958 1992 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, First Education Minister of India West Bengal 28. J. R. D. Tata 1904–1993 1992 Industrialist and philanthropist. Maharashtra 29. Satyajit Ray 1922–1992 1992 Film Director ,Oscar winner West Bengal 30. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam b. 1931 1997 Former President, Scientist. Tamil Nadu 31. Gulzarilal Nanda 1898–1998 1997 Freedom Fighter, former Prime Minister. Punjab 32. Aruna Asaf Ali 1908–1996 1997 Posthumous, Freedom 257

Fighter. West Bengal 33. M. S. Subbulakshmi 1916–2004 1998 Classical singer. Tamil Nadu 34. Chidambaram Subramaniam 1910–2000 1998 Freedom Fighter, Minister of Agriculture (Father of Green revolution). Tamil Nadu 35. Jayaprakash Narayan 1902–1979 1998 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, Social Reformer. Bihar 36. Pandit Ravi Shankar b. 1920 1999 Classical sitar player. Uttar Pradesh 37. Amartya Sen b. 1933 1999 Nobel Laureate (Economics, 1998), Economist. West Bengal 38. Gopinath Bordoloi 1890–1950 1999 Posthumous, freedom fighter Assam 39. Lata Mangeshkar b. 1929 2001 Play back singer. Maharashtra 40. Ustad Bismillah Khan 1916-2006 2001 Classical Shehnai Maestro Uttar Pradesh

*SBI CLERK MODEL QUESTION *
*NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST * 1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is: a. 199999 b. 201110 c. 211110 d. 1099999 e. None of these 2. Value of 112 * 54. is : a. 6700 b. 70000 c. 76500 d. 77200 e. None of these 3. 1399*1399 a. 1687401 b. 1901541 258

c. 1943211 d. 1957201 e. None of these 4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is a. 41625 b. 42135 c. 42515 d. 42735 e. None of these 5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least. a. 0 b. –n c. 2n d. n2 e. None of these 6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is : a. 0 b. -3 c. -4 d. -5 e. None of these e. None of these 7. The least prime no. is : a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of these 259

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is: a. 199 b. 201 c. 211 d. 272 e. None of these 9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is : a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. None e. None of these 10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5. a. 40 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120 e. None of these 11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is: a. 0 b. 2 c. 6 d. 8 e. None of these 12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is : a. 1035 b. 1280 c. 2070 d. 2140

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e. None of these 13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is : a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 e. None of these 14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11 a. 235641 b. 245642 c. 315624 d. 415624 e. None of these 15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is: a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 120 e. None of these 16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by: a. 3 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. None of these 17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

261

a. 10 b. 20 c. 35 d. 80 e. None of these 18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is : a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of these 19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687: a. 98928 b. 99479 c. 99615 d. 100166 e. None of these 20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is a. 6 b. 12 c. 14 d. 18 e. None of these 21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99: a. 99909 b. 99981 c. 99990 262

d. 99999 e. None of these 22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be a. 1 b. 2 c. 7 d. 21 e. None of these 23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is : a. 240 b. 270 c. 295 d. 360 e. None of these 24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is : a. 4236 b. 4306 c. 4336 d. 5336 e. None of these 25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is : a. 9947 b. 9987 c. 9989 d. 9996

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e. None of these *ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION : * 1) a 2) 1120000/16 = b 3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d 4) 555555/13 = d 5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c 14)d 15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c 22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b

*SBI BANK CLERK NUMERICAL ABILITY
*1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.? (a) 30 minutes (b) 25 minutes (c) 28 minutes (d) 34 minutes 2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ? (a) 4096 (b) 8192 (c) 512 (d) 1024 3. Find the number missing at question mark: 10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149 (a) 100 (b) 103 (c) 78 264

(d) 128 4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from 'Trivandrum' and reaches 'Attingal' in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance? (a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes 5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure? (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6 6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18 7. One fourth percent of 180 is: (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45 8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I? (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150 9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ............... (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14 10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase? (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17 11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ............. (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400 12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%? (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210 13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125? (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

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14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long? (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds 15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be ....... (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds 16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams? (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40 17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work? (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6 18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050 19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops: (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m 20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2 21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ........ (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3 (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution 22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years? (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15% 266

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5 25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400 26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes 27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes 28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is: (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300 29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them? (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days 30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number? (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27 31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit? (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 % 32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is: (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2

267

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0 34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks? (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450 35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the (a) Interior of the triangle (b) Midpoint of the diameter (c) Exterior of the triangle (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle 36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle? (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180 37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle? (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre 38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is 'r' what is its slant height? (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) •5r (d) •3r 39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas? (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6 40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3•2, 6, 6•2 ? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) •2 (d) •3 41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects? (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45 268

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr 43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer? (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32 44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm. (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm 45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ...... (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57 46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is: (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30 47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 = (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21 48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30 (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750 49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B? (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510 50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number: (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31 *Answers* 1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 269

2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B 10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

*BANK CLERK NUMERICAL ABILITY*
1. Minimum number that should be added to 23087 to make it completely divisible by 8 is ...... (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Ans (a) 2. The angles ABC are 5x0, 7x0 and 6x0 respectively. What is the measure of the Ð BCA? (a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 700 (d) cannot decide Ans (c) 3. 390× 1000 × 201 × 34 = ? (a) 895 (b) 1540 (c) 1620 (d) 1780 Ans (c) 4. Ratio of costs of a table and a chair is 5:3 . If the tables cost Rs. 500 more than the cost of chair's, what is the chair's cost? (a) Rs. 1250 (b) Rs. 1750 (c) Rs. 1450 (d) Rs. 750 Ans (d) 5. 1646 − 13 × 18 + 249 = ? + 875 (a) 786 (b) 687 (c) 2486 (d) 2356 Ans (a) 6. A number when divided by 5 leaves the remainder 3. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5? (A) 9 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 4 Ans (d) 7. 12% 650 + ? % of 400 = 110 (a) 25 (b) 18 (c) 8 (d) 80% Ans (c) 8. train 'A' crosses a 160 m standing train 'B' in 15 sec and a standing person in 9 sec. What is its speed? (a) 96 km/hr (b) 72 km/hr (c) 84 km/hr (d) 92 km/hr Ans (a)

270

9. The type of matrix •2 0 0 0 •3 0 0 0 •2 is? (a) Scalar (b) Unit (c) Diagonal (d) Transpose Ans (c) 10. The value of log 10000 is (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 6 Ans (a) 11. The sum of all numbers between 800 and 1100 which are divisible by 79 is (a) 2846 (b) 2844 (c) 3844 (d) 3584 Ans (b) 12. The difference between the squares of any two consecutive integers is equal to (a) Product of two numbers (b) Sum of two numbers (c) Difference of two numbers (d) An even number Ans (b) 13. 74 is divided into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the others part are together equal to 454. Then the parts are (a) 14,60 (b) 60,14 (c) 30,44 (d) 20,34 Ans (b) 14. If 4 workers can make 42 toys in 6 days, how many toys can 12 workers make in 3 days? (a) 63 (b) 28 (c) 252 (d) 7 Ans (a) 15. The price of 349 coconuts are Rs 2094. What will be the price of 26 dozens of coconuts? (a) Rs 1662 (b) Rs 1562 (c) Rs 2062 (d) Rs 1872 Ans (d) 16. The area of a rectangular field is 10 times of its length. If the breadth of the field is 10m, what is its length? (a) 40m (b) 25m (c) 20m (d) data inadequate Ans (d) 16. The salary of an employee was reduced by 40% first and then was increased by 50%. How much percent did he lose? (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 10% (d) 12% Ans (c) 17. If 9 men & 15 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, then 39 men and 10 women will complete the same work in (a) 7 days (b) 6 days (c) 5 days (d) 4 days Ans (c) 18. One person took a loan of Rs. 5000 for 3 yrs on simple interest. After three years he paid back Rs. 6200 including the principal and the interest 271

accrued. Calculate the rate of interest. (a) 6% (b) 7% (c) 8% (d) 7.5% Ans (c) 19. The smallest number which when added to the number 1154 makes it a perfect square is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Ans (b) 20. The present age of Ramesh is ¼ of his father's age. After 4 years, the sum of their ages will be 68. What is the present age of Ramesh? (a) 10 yrs (b) 15 yrs (c) 16 yrs (d) 12 yrs Ans (b) 21. Sheet metal required to make a hollow cone of height 24 cm and radius 7 cm is (a) 407 cm2 (b) 250 cm2 (c) 704 cm2 (d) 400 cm2 Ans (c) 22. If 42 men can do a work in 15 days, how many men are required to complete it in 21 days? (a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 30 (d) none of these Ans (a) 23. Average marks in Maths in a class of 40 students is 45. Average of all the 30 boys is 50. Then the average marks obtained by the girls is (a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) none of these Ans (a) 24. The largest angle of a quadrilateral is two times the smallest angle. If the angles form a series (a, a+d, a+2d, a+3d), the other two angles would be (a) 600, 1200 (b) 800, 1000 (c) 900, 1000 (d) 700, 900 Ans (b) 25. A mixture of 20 kg of spirit and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to this mixture to raise the percentage of water to 25% (a) 4 kg (b) 5 kg (c) 8 kg (d) 30 kg Ans (a) 26. A shopkeeper bought locks at the rate of 8 locks for Rs. 34 and sold them at 12 locks for Rs. 57. The number of locks he should sell to have a profit of Rs. 900 is (a) 1400 (b) 1600 (c) 1800 (d) 2000 Ans (c) 27. A person travels equal distance with speed of 3 km/hr; 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr. and takes a total time of 47 minutes. The total distance (in km) is (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 272

Ans (a) 28. The perimeter of a circular and another square field are equal. Find the area in sq.m of the circular field if the area of the square field is 484 sq.m. (a) 888 (b) 770 (c) 616 (d) None of these Ans (c) 29. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 yrs at 10% annum is Rs. 2100, the simple interest on it at the same rate for 2 yrs will be. (a) Rs. 1700 (b) Rs. 1800 (c) Rs. 1900 (d) Rs. 2000 Ans (d) 30. The diagonal of a square A is x + y. The diagonal of a square 'B' with twice the area of A is (a) 2(x + y) (b) x + 2y (c) •2 (x + y) (d) 2x + 4y Ans (c) 31. If 10x+3y : 5n+2y = 9:5, then x : y is (a) 3:5 (b) 5:3 (c) 2:5 (d) 1:2 Ans (a) 32. A conical tent of radius 12m and height 16m is to be made. Find its cost if canvas is Rs. 10 per m2 (a) Rs 7543 (b) Rs 7445 (c) Rs 7342 (d) 7600 Ans (a) 33. 1, 5, 14, 30, ?, 91 (a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 46 (d) 60 Ans (b) 34. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 10, 10, ?, 13 (a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12 Ans (c) 35. 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ? (a) 210 (b) 216 (c) 200 (d) 160 Ans (a)

*NUMERICAL ABILITY : BANK PO*
*Directions*—(Q. 1 to 2) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? 1. 73% of 8523 + 32% of 6245 = ? (A) 8042·21 (B) 8136·28 (C) 8625·35 (D) 8220·19 (E) None of these 2. 8226 ÷ 15 ÷ 5 = ? (A) 2156 (B) 109·68 273

(C) 185·56 (D) 2742 (E) None of these 3. 1 9 48 260 1590 ? (A) 11130 (B) 11172 (C) 11135 (D) 11137 (E) None of these 4. 4 10 33 136 685 ? (A) 3430 (B) 4110 (C) 4116 (D) 3435 (E) None of these 5. 25 27 30 34 39 ? (A) 45 (B) 44 (C) 47 (D) 43 (E) None of these *Directions*—(Q. 6 to 10) What *approximate* value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 6. 182·225 ´ 21·652 ´ 33·584 = ? (A) 132507 (B) 149428 (C) 120426 (D) 106438 (E) 112642 7. 63·5% of 8924·2 + ?% of 5324·4 = 6827·5862 (A) 36 (B) 22 (C) 17 (D) 31 (E) 9 8. 11/7 + 22/3 + 18/5 = ? (A) 21 (B) 8 (C) 25 (D) 13 (E) 30

274

9. (9%of86) X (6.5%of144) =? A) 340.1664 B) .325.1664 C) 3.333.3333 D) 4.328.0065 E).None of these 10. 9546324 ÷ 4584 = ? (A) 2149 (B) 1986 (C) 2083 (D) 2247 (E) 1805 *Directions*—(Q. 11 to 15) Study the information carefully and answer the questions that follow— A school has a total of 1200 students. The ratio of girls to boys in the school is 3 : 2. All the students have enrolled in hobby classes *viz*. Singing, Dancing, Martial Arts and Cooking. One-twelfth of the boys have enrolled in only cooking classes. 25 per cent of the girls have enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes to-gether. Number of boys enrolled in only Martial Arts classes is 150 per cent of the number of girls enrolled in the same. Number of students enrol-led in only Dancing is 26 per cent of the total number of students. 5 per cent of the girls have enrolled in only Martial Arts classes. One-third of the boys enrolled in only Dancing classes. 35 per cent of the girls enrolled in Singing, Dancing and Martial Arts together and the remaining enrolled in only Cooking. 15 percent of the boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together and the remaining enrolled in Singing, Dancing and Martial Arts classes together. 11. Number of boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together is what per cent of the girls enrolled in the same ? (A) 48 (B) 36 (C) 20 (D) 25 (E) None of these

275

12. What is the total number of students learning Martial Arts ? (A) 90 (B) 496 (C) 342 (D) 128 (E) None of these 13. How many girls are enrolled in only Cooking classes ? (A) 280 (B) 252 (C) 154 (D) 100 (E) None of these 14. How many boys learn Singing ? (A) 226 (B) 184 (C) 72 (D) 96 (E) None of these 15. What is the respective ratio of girls to boys enrolled in only Dancing classes ? (A) 8 : 7 (B) 14 : 17 (C) 19 : 20 (D) 12 : 7 (E) None of these 16. 4 men, 5 women and 3 children together can complete a piece of work in 16 days. In how many days can 10 women alone com-plete the piece of work if 10 men alone complete the work in 24 days ? (A) 18 (B) 15 (C) 12 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these 17. What will be the difference bet-ween the simple interest and compound interest earned on a sum of Rs. 985 @ 14 p.c.p.a. at the end of two years ? (A) Rs. 16·408

276

(B) Rs. 14·214 (C) Rs. 19·218 (D) Rs. 17·405 (E) None of these *Directions*—(Q. 18 and 19) Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow— A basket contains 3 blue, 2 green and 5 red balls. 18. If three balls are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is red ? (A) 1/2 (B) 7/12 (C) 11/12 (D) 1/5 (E) None of these 19. If four balls are picked at random, what is the probability that two are green and two are blue ? (A) 1/8 (B) 1/70 (C) 3/5 (D) 1/2 (E) None of these 20. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FLEECED’ be arranged ? (A) 840 (B) 2520 (C) 1680 (D) 49 (E) None of these *ANSWERS :* 1. (d 2. (b) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (B) 10. (c) 11. (e) 12. (a) Total no. of students learning Martial Arts = 36 + 54 = 90 13. (e) No. of girls enrolled in only Cooking classes = 468 14. (A) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (e) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a) 277

*SBI BANK CLERK MODEL QUESTIONS*
*NUMERICAL ABILITY*
1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to a. 11 b. 14 c. 20 d. 21 Answer-d 2. Answer d 3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is a. -1 b. 0 c. 1 d. 2 Answer -b 4. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to a. 0.148148148 .... b. 0.777 .... c. 0.121212 .... d. 1.333 .... Answer-a 5. Answer-d 6. Answer-c 7. Answer-c 8. Answer-c 9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get a. 96 b. 104 c. 108 d. 109 Answer-d 10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27 a. 54 b. 64 c. 81 d. 91 Answer-d 278

11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is a. 125m b. 135 m c. 159 m d. 175 m Answer-c 12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B? a. 7 min & 15 sec b. 7 min & 45 sec c. 8 min & 5 sec d. 8 min & 15 sec Answer-d 13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water? a. 7:5 b. 1:2 c. 2:1 d. 6:5 Answer-a 14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car? a. 45 km/hr b. 50 km/hr c. 55 km/hr d. 65 km/hr Answer-c 15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in Answer-a 16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was a. 450 km 279

b. 675 km c. 337.5 km d. 1350 km Answer-b 17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C is a. Rs. 84 b. Rs. 147 c. Rs. 196 d. Rs. 240 Answer-a 18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is a. Rs. 3500 b. Rs. 3000 c. Rs. 2500 d. Rs. 4000 Answer-c 19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to complete the work is Answer-b 20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is a. Rs. 1700 b. Rs. 1800 c. Rs. 2000 d. Rs. 2200 Answer-c 21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in a. 48 days b. 60 days c. 75 days d. 90 days Answer-d 22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 280

sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is a. 1848 cm3 b. 1232 cm3 c. 1078 cm3 d. 980 cm3 Answer-c 23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is a. 30 cm b. 60 cm c. 72 cm d. 108 cm Answer-b 24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field isa. 125 sq. cm b. 112.5 sq. cm c. 110 sq. cm d. 100•2 sq. m Answer-b 25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is a. 10 cm b. 24 cm c. 26 cm d. 27.5 cm Answer-b 26.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same as a. 4 : 1 b. 2 :1 c. 7 : 5 d. 7 :10 Answer-a 27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is a. •• : •6 b. •• : •6 c. •• : •3 d. •6 : •• Answer-d 28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the 281

table? a. Rs. 2400 b. Rs. 2160 c. Rs. 2100 d. Rs. 2052 Answer-d 29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain percent in the deal isAnswer-b 30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 16• % Answer-c 31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer-b 32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years? a. Rs. 1,20,000 b. Rs. 1,92,000 c. Rs. 1,24,000 d. Rs. 96,000 Answer-b 33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is a. 10% b. 15% c. 12½% d. 25% Answer-d 34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell the other radio? 282

Answer-a 35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was a. 30 dozen b. 40 dozen c. 50 dozen d. 60 dozen Answer-d 36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is a. Rs. 370 b. Rs. 385 c. Rs. 390 d. Rs. 400 Answer-c 37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to a. Rs. 950 b. Rs. 980 c. Rs. 1010 d. Rs. 1040 Answer-d 38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is a. 24 b. 36 c. 17 d. 72 Answer-d 39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is a. 15 b. 12 c. 10 d. 20 Answer-a 40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so 283

that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500? a. Rs. 300 b. Rs. 350 c. Rs. 375 d. Rs. 475 Answer-d

*QUANTITATIVE TEST : BANK PO/BANK CLERK*
1. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be (a) 56.25 per cent (b) 25.56 per cent (c) 50.25 per cent (d) 54.25 per cent 2. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the hemisphere, its height is (a) 21 cm. (b) 26 cm. (c) 28 cm. (d) 30 cm. 3. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the triangle and the circle is (a) 11 sq. cm. (b) 10.95 sq. cm. (c) 10 sq. cm (d) 10.50 sq. cm 4. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their respective volumes is (a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3 (c) 1:3:2 (d) 3:1:2 5. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two 284

successive discounts of 36 per cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is (a) zero (b) Rs. 1.93 (c) Rs. 2.00 (d) Rs. 7.20 6. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay for the shirt? (a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 650 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 620 7. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is (a) 135 (b) 90 (c) 60 (d) 140 8. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is (a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:4:6 (c) 6:4:5 (d) 8:12:15 9. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is (a) 2:3:4 (b) 3:4:2 (c) 4:6:3 (d) 6:4:3 10. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is (a) 1200 (b) 961 (c) 744 (d) 612 11. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of all the five is 49 years. How old is E? 285

(a) (b) (c) (d)

25 40 45 64

years years years years.

12. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of some more milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it was (a) 20 liters. (b) 40 liters. (c) 60 liters. (d) 80 liters. 13. Two trains A and B are running at the speeds of 45 KMPH and 25 KMPH respectively in the same direction. The faster train i.e. train A crosses a Man sitting in the slower train B in 18 secs. Find the length of the train A? (A) 100 metres (B) 120 metres (C) 150 meters (D) 180 meters Ans (A) 14. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is (a) 1600 (b) 3600 (c) 6400 (d) 14400 15. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is (a) (b) (c) (d) 215 220 225 235

16.The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are (a) 55, 77 (b) 44, 88 (c) 33, 99 (d) 22,110

286

17. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11 numbers is 20. The last number is (a) 56 (b) 52 (c) 60 (d) 50 18. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is (a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.5 19. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for the test were (a) 400 (b) 480 (c) 500 (d) 580 20. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is (a) 30 liters. (b) 35 liters. (c) 40 liters. (d) 45 liters. 21. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20 per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is (a) 1 per cent loss. (b) 2 per cent loss. (c) 4 per cent loss. (d) 1 per cent gain. 22. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:7 then the triangle is ______ (A) acute angled (B) obtuse angled (C) right angled

287

(D) isosceles Ans (D) 23. Two sides of a triangle are 8cm and 11cm then the possible third side is____ (A) 1 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 3 cm (D) 4 cm Ans (D) 24. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by (a) 50 per cent (b) 75 per cent (c) 100 per cent (d) 125 per cent 25. A , B and C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000 for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s share of profit is (a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 45,900 (c) Rs. 40,500 (d) Rs. 41,500 Answers 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d)

*Mathematical Aptitude * *Bank PO,Bank Clerk,*
1. Two numbers are respectively 25% and 20% less than a third number. What percent is the first number of the second. (A) 5.85% (B) 75.85% (C) 80.60% (D) 93.75% Ans (D) 2. A pump can fill a tank with water in two hours. Because

288

of a leak in the tank it was taking two 1/3 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water off the tank in. (A) 8 hours (B) 7 hours (C) 13/3 hours (D) 14 hours Ans (D) 3. A can do a peace of work in 4 hours. B and C can do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in two hours. How long will B take to do it? (A) 10 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 8 hours (D) 24 hours Ans (B) 4. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% rate of interest p.a. for two years is Rs.15. Then the sum is _____ (A) Rs.6500 (B) Rs.5500 (C) Rs.6000 (D) Rs.7000 Ans (C) 5. A sum borrowed under compound interest doubles itself in 10 years. When will it become four fold of itself at the same rate of interest? (A) 15 years (B) 20 years (C) 24 years (D) 40 years ()Ans (B) 6. The students in three classes are in the ratio of 2:3:5 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 originally the total number of students was _______ (A) 100 (B) 180 (C) 200 (D) 400 Ans (C) 7. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 5:3 and that of their expenditure is 9.5. Find the income of each person if they save Rs.1300 and Rs.900 respectively. (A) Rs.4000, Rs.2400 289

(B) Rs.3000, Rs.1800 (C) Rs.5000, Rs.3000 (D) Rs.4500, Rs.2700 Ans (A) 8. A fort has provision for 50 days if after 10 days they are strengthen by 500 men and the remaining food lasts 35 days. How many men were there in the fort initially? (A) 3500 (B) 3000 (C) 2500 (D) 4000 Ans (A) 9. A number is increased by 20% and then it is decreased by 10%. Find the net increase or decrease in % (A) 10% increase (B) 10% decrease (C) 8%increase (D) 8% decrease Ans (C) 10. The product of two positive numbers is 2500 if one number is 4 times the other, the sum of the two numbers is ______ (A) 25 (B) 125 (C) 225 (D) 250 Ans (B) 11. Which of the following is the largest number which is exactly devisable by 7,9 and 15? (A) 9450 (B) 9765 (C) 9865 (D) 9550 Ans (B) 12. What percent of 5/8 is 8/5? (A) 100 (B) 64 (C) 256 (D) 1024 Ans (C) 13. 2.3 + 6.5 - 7.1 + 4.9 -1.4 + 8.6 - 5.3? (A) 8.5 (B) 8.6 (C) 8.7 (D) 8.4 Ans (A) 14. Example of a mathematical statement is ______ (A) (10+8)-9 (B) 2x+3=5 (C) 5<9+3 290

(D) x+3 Ans (C) 15. If 4x = 10 then X=? (A) 10-4 (B) 10 X 4 (C) 10 +4 (D) 10/4 Ans (D) 16. a and b are two numbers. The property of a = b then b=a is called _______ (A) Reflexive property (B) Transitive property (C) Symmetric property (D) Associative property Ans (C) 17. "10 added to 5 times x is equal to 20" in symbolic form is _______ (A) 5(x+10)=20 (B) 5x+10=20 (C) x/5+10=20 (D) 5x-10=20 Ans (B) 18. The point equidistant from the vertices of a triangle is its_____ (A) Orthocentre (B) Centroid (C) circumcentre (D) Incentre Ans (C) 19. The centroid of a triangle is the point of concurrence of its (A) angle bisectors (B) perpendicular bisector (C) altitudes (D) medians Ans (D) 20. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:7 then the triangle is ______ (A) acute angled (B) obtuse angled (C) right angled (D) isosceles Ans (D) 21. Two sides of a triangle are 8cm and 11cm then the possible third side is____ (A) 1 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 3 cm (D) 4 cm Ans (D) 22. A triangle always has exactly 291

(A) one acute angle (B) at least two acute angles (C) exactly one right angle (D) exactly two acute angles Ans (B) 23. Two trains A and B are running at the speeds of 45 KMPH and 25 KMPH respectively in the same direction. The faster train i.e. train A crosses a Man sitting in the slower train B in 18 secs. Find the length of the train A? (A) 100 metres (B) 120 metres (C) 150 meters (D) 180 meters Ans (A) 24. A circular road runs round a circular ground. If the difference between the circumference of the outer circle and inner circle is 44 meters, find the width of road. (A) 8 meters (B) 7 meters (C) 17 meters (D) 9 meters Ans (B) 25. A and B started a business in partnership. A invested Rs.2000/- for six months and B invested Rs.1500 for 8 months. What is the share of A in total profit of Rs.510? (A) Rs.250 (B) Rs.255 (C) Rs.275 (D) Rs.280 Ans (B)

*SBI BANK CLERK MODEL QUESTIONS* *GENERAL ENGLISH*
1. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) (a) You would not have used (b) such an insulting language (c) if you would 292

have been accompanied (d) by your elder brother. (e) No error Answer - c 2.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) All the furnitures have been (a)/ replaced by the owner of the house (b)/ before shifting. (c)/ No error. (d) Answer - a 3.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) As soon as I shall reach New Delhi (a)/ I shall send you the file (b)/ you have asked for. (c)/ No error. (d) Answer - a 4.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. He does not suffer from any ....... disease at all. a. Acute b. Chronic c. Temporary d. Irregular Answer - b 5.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. We are not sure if their business is strictly ......... a. Prudent b. Honest c. Judicious d. Legitimate Answer - a 6.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. The claims made by the manufacturer of the product are so extravagant that 293

only the ...... will accept them on face value. a. Cynical b. Gullible c. Rich d. Indifferent Answer - b 7.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. Justice should be ..... even-handedly. a. Discharged b. Performed c. Declared d. Administered Answer - d 8.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. The leader of the opposition party condemned the communal riots in ... terms. a. Unambiguous b. Unparliamentary c. Unequivocal d. Uncontrollable Answer - c 9.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. They should spend less time ... about and more with their children. a. Gallivanting b. Gravitating c. Frisking d. Flirting Answer - c 10.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most 294

appropriate for the blank space. The Government's handling of the situation led to ...... violations of human rights. a. Tumultuous b. Obvious c. Ostensible d. Flagrant Answer - d 11.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. A bullet ........ his cheek. a. Grazed b. Glazed c. Grasped d. Screamed Answer - a 12.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. The injured man was still groggy and could only give a ..... account of the accident. a. Garish b. Gangling c. Garbled d. Garrulous Answer - c 13. In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space. The teacher's counsel had a ........ effect on the mischievous student's conduct. a. Memorable b. Salutary c. Sudden d. Forceful Answer - b 14.In these questions, pick out the most effective word from 295

the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The majority of village folk in India are illiterate and .... superstitious. (a) Overtly (b) Delicately (c) Stubbornly (d) Covertly (e) Critically Answer - c 15.In these questions, pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. I must admit, my parents stood by me in my times of ...... . (a) Passion (b) Duress (c) Involvement (d) Development (e) Criticism Answer - b **

*General English*
Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the 296

supply and the demand side. Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return. Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied. They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if 297

financial in clusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that selfcontrol problems need to be addressed by having commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically. 41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ? (A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor (B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor (C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor (D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor (E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor 42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to— (A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion (B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion (C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful (D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries (E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion 43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ? 1. Demand for such products was high. 2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders. 3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs. (A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3 (E) None of these 44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ? 1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks. 2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor. 298

3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal. (A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3 (E) None of these 45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ? (A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder (B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology. (C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts (D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs (E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts 46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor ? 1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services. 2. Documentation required before availing of banking services. 3. Lack of self-control. (A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) None of these 47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ? (A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks (B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs (C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of interest (D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor (E) None of these 48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ? (A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India (B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures (C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households (D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking 299

services to the poor in rural areas (E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa 49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ? 1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders. 2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save. 3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures. (A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these 50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ? (A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated constantly (B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit (C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor (D) Products with commitment features will not be successful (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 51. purely : (A) morally (B) honestly (C) completely (D) perfectly (E) cleanly 52. demonstrate : (A) protest (B) occur (C) estimate (D) appear (E) prove 53. remedy : (A) medicine (B) solve (C) restore (D) therapy (E) heal Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 54. optional : (A) voluntary (B) compromise 300

(C) pressure (D) mandatory (E) free 55. accessible : (A) convenient (B) unavailable (C) unfavourable (D) unpleasant (E) formal Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the necessary funds. No error. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this year. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in New Delhi. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the parent company. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on foreign / investment in real estate. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the policy.No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and diligence. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve their target. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error 301

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer. 66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity. (A) Led to (B) Will lead towards (C) And has led in (D) Which has led to (E) No correction required 67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression. (A) You delay to take (B) If you delay taking (C) Your delay in taking (D) To delay by taking (E) No correction required 68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries offered to them are low. (A) Student itself is (B) Students themselves are (C) Students have (D) Student himself has (E) No correction required 69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project. (A) Absent of (B) In the absence of (C) Because of the absence (D) Without being absent (E) No correction required 70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed. (A) Can never claim (B) Being claimed (C) Not able to claim (D) Have not any claim (E) No correction required Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt 302

and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer. 71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and customer preferences. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their applications. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father. (A) set, following (B) voted, subsequent (C) selected, despite (D) approved, because (E) decided, after 77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week. (A) According, important (B) Duly, urgent (C) Owing, entire (D) Added, crucial (E) Admitting, special 78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net profit. (A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise (C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss 303

(E) growth, advance 79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women and senior citizens. (A) approximate, held (B) nearly, authorised (C) over, maintain (D) above, open (E) around, operated 80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online. (A) announced, benefits (B) offered, course (C) imparted, risks (D) sanction, skills (E) provided, how Answewrs With Explanation : 41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e) 51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) In C part not is redundant. 57. (e) 58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’. 59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’. 60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism of the two sentences. 61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence. 62. (e) 63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb. 64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular. 65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’. 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a) 71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective. 72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate. 73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’. 74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’. 75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’. 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E) *General English * Directions (Question 1 to 10) Read the list of words given below and choose from the options the word that is the nearest in meaning to the given word. 1. Exiguous a) tall 304

b) large c) wide d) scanty e) broad 2. Recreancy a) recreation b) recuperation c) bravery d) cowardice e) obstinate 3. Proscribe a) to nominate b) to be supportive of c) to give early warning signals d) outlaw e) none of these 4. Ingest a) enrage b) invigorate c) to absorb d) burn up completely e) to stir up 5. Monticule a) a small river b) a small hut c) a lane d) a small hill e) a small plane 6. Compendious a) comprehensive b) illustrative c) unbearable d) elaborate e) none of the above 7. Nadir a) asylum b) heaven c) depth d) nebulous e) none of the above 8. Somnambulistic a) sleepwalking b) ghost dancing c) women’s group activity d) colourful scenario e) over-eating 9. primordial a) feeling of elation b) original c) elementary d) daunting e) none of the above 10. Somber a) Causing sleep 305

b) Squalid c) Gloomy d) Complacent e) Malicious Directions (Question 11 to 20) Against each key word are given by alternative meanings. Choose the one that is the opposite in meaning to the given word. 11. Sanctimonious a) holy b) Realistic c) Humble d) Callous e) Pessimistic 12. Munificent a) Miserly b) Faulty c) Perplexing d) Rudimentary e) Grandiose 13. Opaque a) Vague b) Firm c) Transparent d) Poor e) None of the above 14. Restive a) Unrestrained b) Communicate c) Peaceful d) Quarrel e) Disturbing 15. Catapult a) Reach great heights b) Downfall c) Caterpillar d) Gaining e) Losing 16. Enigmatic a) Industrious b) Mysterious c) Enthusiastic d) Straightforward e) Sincere 17. Traipse a) Walk b) Stroll c) Crawl d) Run e) None of the above 18. Piquant a) Jovial b) Merry 306

c) Blunt d) Rigorous e) Shocking 19. Bigoted a) Dignified b) Tolerant c) wide d) Contrite e) Sincere 20. Obliquity a) Thin b) Frank c) Self-righteous d) Depreciation e) Conformity Directions (Question 21 to 25) In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is given in bold letters. Five alternative meanings of the bold part of the sentence are given below. Choose the correct one. 21. The soldiers had been shut up for a long time; they painted the town red when they were let out. a) ran about wildly trying to kill people b) decided to shun fighting and shedding blood c) caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making d) were asked to be ready for any emergency e) were advised not to incur troubles by thoughtless actions. 22. John used very ugly words against his kind uncle; he threw down the gauntlet before him. a) he behaved as if he was a very great and important person b) he put several conditions for negotiations c) he abused and insulted uncle’s son d) he showed his readiness to leave the place e) he threw the challenge 23. He is a strange fellow and it is very difficult to deal with him; it seems that he has a bee in his bonnet. a) an obsession about something b) peculiar habit of confusing others c) unreliable and inconsistent way of behaving d) to face problems as a result of his senseless actions e) an achievement to be proud of 24. I am reasonably sure that all his schemes will end in smoke. a) will produce good results b) bear no fruits c) benefit the poor and the downtrodden d) motivate the employees to produce more e) be severely criticized by the public 25. The dacoits took to their heels when the police arrived. 307

a) took shelter in the thick jungle b) opened indiscriminate fire c) took to flight d) unconditionally challenged e) renewed their resolve to fight Answers 1. scanty 2. cowardice 3. none of the above (proscribe means to prohibit or ban) 4. to absorb 5. a small hill 6. comprehensive 7. depth 8. sleepwalking 9. elementary 10. gloomy 11. callous 12. miserly 13. transparent 14. peaceful 15. downfall 16. straightforward 17. crawl 18. jovial 19. dignified 20. conformity 21. caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making 22. he threw the challenge 23. an obsession about something 24. bear no fruits 25. took to flight

SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL ENGLISH SOLVED PAPER
1. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'e'. The dog let out (a)/ a blood chilling (b)/ howling when it was it was (c)/ given the injection (d)/ No error. (e) ANS (c) 2. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'e'. It being an important (a)/ letter, the draft had to be (b)/ seen by the Governor (c)/ itself for approval. (d)/ No error. (e) ANS (d) 3. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'e'. Asha could not defeat her (a)/ opponents contrary to their 308

(b)/ good preparation and (c)/ long practice. (d)/ No error. (e) ANS (b) 4. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'e'. Pratiksha expected good marks (a)/ in the examination (b)/ but she was very disappointed (c)/ when the results came. (d)/ No error. (e) ANS (e) 5. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'e'. Irrespective of either (a)/ Vijay or Sanjay goes (b)/ the overdue payment (c)/ cannot be collected. (d)/ No error. (e) ANS (a) 6. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'e'. Some people consider Kama (a)/ to be the valorous (b)/ hero of all the (c)/ characters in the Mahabharat. (d)/ No error. (e) ANS (b) 7. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'e'. Victor, along with (a)/ a group of friends (b)/ was going on picnic (c)/ when the accident happen. (d)/ No error. (e) ANS (d) 8. Out of the four given responses, choose the one that can be a substitute for the sentence expression. A ruling body or class of rich men. (a) plutocracy (b) meritocracy (c) aristocracy (d) oligarchy ANS (a) 9. Out of the four given responses, choose the one that can be a substitute for the sentence expression. One who works for the welfare of mankind (a) communist (b) socialist (c) philanthropist (d) egalitarian ANS (c) 10. Out of the four given responses, choose the one that can be a substitute for the sentence expression. A person who attacks traditional or established beliefs, principles, ideas, institutions etc. (a) militant (b) anarchist (c) sceptic (d) iconoclast ANS (d) 11. Out of the four given responses, choose the one that can be a substitute 309

for the sentence expression. One who always hopes for the best in life. (a) pacifist (b) optimist (c) socialist (d) evangelist ANS (b) 12. Out of the four given responses, choose the one that can be a substitute for the sentence expression. One who loves books (a) biographer (b) bibliographer (c) bibliophile (d) orthographer ANS (c) 13. Out of the four choices given, choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the idiom/phrase printed in bold. The poor boy found it difficult to make up his deficiency in English. (a) recover (b) correct (c) remove (d) improve ANS (d) 14. Out of the four choices given, choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the idiom/phrase printed in bold. A Prime Minister cannot ride roughshod over his ministerial colleagues for long. (a) deal unkindly with (b) take for granted (c) be ham handed with (d) exploit willfully ANS (a) 15. Out of the four choices given, choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the idiom/phrase printed in bold. The Opposition charged the Government with playing havoc with the banking system. (a) disturbing (b) disorganizing (c) degrading (d) destroying ANS (d) 16. Out of the four choices given, choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the idiom/phrase printed in bold. Very soon the election campaigns on the part of different political parties will be in full swing. (a) engaging (b) exciting (c) active (d) hectic ANS (c) 17. Out of the four choices given, choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the idiom/phrase printed in bold. Pain, anguish and shame come in the wake of the scandals in high places. (a) accompany (b) follow (c) characterise (d) signify ANS (b) 68. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: 310

(a) Crescendo (b) Cresendo (c) Crecendo (d) Crascendo ANS (a) 19. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Langor (b) Langour (c) Languour (d) Languor ANS (d) 20. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Reclammation (b) Reclaimation (c) Reclamation (d) Reclaimmation ANS (c) 21. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Indispensible (b) Indispensable (c) Indispensale (d)Indespensabe ANS (b) 22. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Consummation (b) Consummetion (c) Consumation (d) Consumetion ANS (a) 23. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Unparalelled (b) Unparalleled (c) Unparallelled (d) Unparaleled ANS (b) 24. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Consience (b) Conscience (c) Concience (d) Consciense ANS (b) 25. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Manuvre (b) Manovre (c) Manoeuvre (d) Manouever ANS (c) 26. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Concupiscent (b) Concupisent (c) Concupicent (d) Concupescent ANS (a) 27. Choose the correctly spelt word in each of the sets given below: (a) Bunglow (b) Bangalow (c) Banglow (d) Bungalow ANS (d) 28. Out of the four responses given, choose the one that is opposite in meaning to the word. Timid (a) awesome (b) eager (c) bold (d) critical ANS (c) 29. Out of the four responses given, choose the one that is opposite in meaning to the word. Prosecute (a) acquit (b) discharge (c) relieve (d) release 311

ANS (a) 30. Out of the four responses given, choose the one that is opposite in meaning to the word. Amiable (a) careless (b) crude (c) crafty (d) cruel ANS (d) 31. Out of the four responses given, choose the one that is opposite in meaning to the word. Decent (a) conceited (b) wild (c) vulgar (d) ridiculous ANS (c) 32. Out of the four responses given, choose the one that is opposite in meaning to the word. Ancient (a) recent (b) urban (c) progressive (d) modern ANS (d) 33. Choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the word, from the four alternatives given. Wholesome (a) strong (b) healthy (c) handsome (d) valuable ANS (b) 34. Choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the word, from the four alternatives given. Elucidate (a) express (b) expand (c) clarify (d) qualify ANS (c) 35. Choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the word, from the four alternatives given. Inquisitive (a) curious (b) bold (c) adventurous (d) complex ANS (a) 36. Choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the word, from the four alternatives given. Induce (a) direct (b) control (c) instruct (d) cause ANS (d) 37. Choose the one that is the nearest in meaning to the word, from the four alternatives given. Speculate (a) reflect (b) know (c) guess (d) forecast ANS (c) 38. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: Her ....... remark proved that she was really naive and unsophisticated 312

(a) unparliamentary (b) uninhibited (c) ingenuous (d) indifferent ANS (c) 39. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: He ....... devoted himself to the task of completing his book in time (a) ingeniously (b) assiduously (c) deliberately (d) exceptionally ANS (b) 40. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: Because he was a ........ he shunned human society. (a) misogynist (b) misfit (c) cynic (d) misanthrope ANS (d) 41. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: He was ...... in his colourful dress uniform. (a) attired (b) outfitted (c) resplendent (d) bedecked ANS (c) 42. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: He is not the man to permit anyone to encroach ....... his rights. (a) upon (b) in (c) into (d) against ANS (a) 43. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: The Govt. has in principle ..... the privatisation of power generation and its distribution in the country. (a) asserted (b) accepted (c) affirmed (d) confirmed ANS (d) 44. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: Candidates securing marks above seventy five percent are ..... for this scholarship. (a) worthy (b) competent (c) eligible (d) permissible ANS (c) 45. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: The easier the job, the ..... you do it. (a) longer (b) later (c) faster (d) lazier ANS (c) 46. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in 313

each case: We need to take urgent action to control the ..... of the dreaded AIDS. (a) rise (b) spread (c) development (d) outbreak ANS (b) 47. Fill in the blanks selecting one out of the four choices provided in each case: I shall ..... from the bank tomorrow the money we need for our work. (a) withdraw (b) recover (c) receive (d) take ANS (a) 48. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'd'. Many people are of the opinion (a)/ that the sudden outburst of the speaker (b)/ was surprising and unseemly, to say the least. (c) /No error (d) ANS (d) 49. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'd'. Everything depends on him (a)/ putting the right amount of (b)/ hard at the right time, (c)/ No error (d) ANS (a) 50. Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no error, mark 'd'. There is Mr. Hussain (a)/ whom they say (b)/ is the best painter in the town. (c)/ No error (d) ANS (b)

Computer General Knowledge : Bank PO
1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT: A. hackers. B. spam. C. viruses. D. identity theft. Answer: B 2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends. A. data mining B. data selection C. POS D. data conversion Answer: A 3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often

314

connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems. A. Data B. Point-of-sale (POS) C. Sales D. Query Answer: B 4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop. A. PSS B. POS C. inventory D. data mining Answer: A 5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called: A. robotics. B. simulation. C. computer forensics. D. animation. Answer: C 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer? A. gathering data B. processing data into information C. analyzing the data or information D. storing the data or information Answer: C 7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the animal’s movements. A. POS B. RFID C. PPS D. GPS Answer: B 8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known as: A. robotics. B. computer forensics. C. simulation. D. forecasting. Answer: A 9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be: 315

A. proprietary. B. open. C. experimental. D. in the public domain. Answer: A 10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers. A. Nanoscience B. Microelectrodes C. Computer forensics D. Artificial intelligence Answer: A 11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do. A. Nanoscience B. Nanotechnology C. Simulation D. Artificial intelligence (AI) Answer: D 12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion. A. A process B. Software C. Storage D. Information Answer: D 13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called: A. programming. B. processing. C. storing. D. organizing. Answer: B 14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data. A. present B. input C. output D. store Answer: B 15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered: A. data. B. output. C. input. D. the process. Answer: B 316

16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data. A. processing B. kilobyte C. binary D. representational Answer: C 17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with: A. multimedia. B. words. C. characters. D. numbers. Answer: D 18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of: A. eight bytes. B. eight kilobytes. C. eight characters. D. eight bits. Answer: D 19. The term bit is short for: A. megabyte. B. binary language. C. binary digit. D. binary number. Answer: C 20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a: A. megabyte. B. byte. C. kilobyte. D. gigabyte. Answer: B 21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes. A. kilobyte B. bit C. gigabyte D. megabyte Answer: C 22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes. A. gigabyte B. kilobyte C. megabyte D. terabyte Answer: C 23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch. A. Hardware B. A device C. A peripheral D. An application Answer: A 317

24. The components that process data are located in the: A. input devices. B. output devices. C. system unit. D. storage component. Answer: C 25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a: A. scanner. B. mouse. C. keyboard. D. printer. Answer: D 26. Which of the following is an example of an input device? A. scanner B. speaker C. CD D. printer Answer: A 27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT: A. hard disk drives. B. printers. C. floppy disk drives. D. CD drives. Answer: B 28. The ____________, also called the “brains” of the computer, is responsible for processing data. A. motherboard B. memory C. RAM D. central processing unit (CPU) Answer: D 29. The CPU and memory are located on the: A. expansion board. B. motherboard. C. storage device. D. output device. Answer: B 30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of: A. application software. B. system software. C. operating system software. D. platform software. Answer: A 31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks. A. An instruction B. Software C. Memory D. A processor 318

Answer: B 32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ____________ software to work together. A. management B. processing C. utility D. application Answer: D 33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different: A. platforms. B. applications. C. programs. D. storage devices. Answer: A 34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems. A. languages B. methods C. CPUs D. storage devices Answer: C 35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a: A. network. B. mainframe. C. supercomputer. D. client. Answer: A 36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses. A. supercomputers B. clients C. laptops D. mainframes Answer: D 37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly. A. Servers B. Supercomputers C. Laptops D. Mainframes Answer: B 38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection. A. network B. wireless C. slow 319

D. broadband Answer: D 39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the: A. digital divide. B. Internet divide. C. Web divide. D. broadband divide. Answer: A 40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale. A. Nanotechnology B. Micro-technology C. Computer forensics D. Artificial intelligence Answer: A 41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer? A. Process à Output à Input à Storage B. Input à Outputà Process à Storage C. Process à Storage à Input à Output D. Input à Process à Output à Storage Answer: D 42. ____________ bits equal one byte. A. Eight B. Two C. One thousand D. One million Answer: A 43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s). A. 8 B. 2 C. 1,000 D. 1 Answer: B 44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data. A. bit B. binary digit C. character D. kilobyte Answer: C 45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer. A. The platform B. The operating system C. Application software D. The motherboard Answer: B 320

46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software. A. communication B. application C. system D. word-processing software Answer: C 47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat. A. Servers B. Embedded computers C. Robotic computers D. Mainframes Answer: B 48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called: A. instructions. B. the operating system. C. application software. D. the system unit. Answer: A 49. The two broad categories of software are: A. word processing and spreadsheet. B. transaction and application. C. Windows and Mac OS. D. system and application. Answer: D 50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the: A. system unit. B. CPU. C. mainframe. D. platform. Answer: A Fill in the Blank: 51. Between PCs and Macs, the ____________ is the platform of choice for graphic design and animation. Answer: Mac 52. The ____________ is the program that manages the hardware of the computer system, including the CPU, memory, storage devices, and input/output devices. Answer: operating system 53. The type of operating system software you use depends on your 321

computer’s ____________. Answer: platform 54. ____________software helps you carry out tasks, such as typing a document or creating a spreadsheet. Answer: Application 55. ____________are the fastest and most expensive computers. Answer: Supercomputers 56. A ____________ is approximately 1,000 bytes. Answer: kilobyte 57. Input devices are used to provide the steps and tasks the computer needs to process data, and these steps and tasks are called ____________. Answer: instructions 58. A computer gathers data, processes it, outputs the data or information, and ____________ the data or information. Answer: stores 59. The binary language consists of two digits: ____________ and ____________. Answer: 0 and 1 60. A string of ____________ 0s and 1s is called a byte. Answer: eight (8) 61. The devices you use to enter data into a computer system are known as ____________ devices. Answer: input 62. The devices on a computer system that let you see the processed information are known as ____________ devices. Answer: output 63. ____________ is the set of computer instructions or programs that enables the hardware to perform different tasks. Answer: Software 64. When you connect to the ____________, your computer is communicating with a server at your Internet service provider (ISP). Answer: Internet 65. ____________ are computers that excel at executing many different computer programs at the same time. Answer: Mainframes 66. ____________is the application of computer systems and techniques to gather legal evidence. Answer: Computer forensics 67. ____________ is the science that attempts to create machines that will emulate the human thought process. Answer: Artificial intelligence (AI) 68. Macintosh computers use the Macintosh operating system 322

(Mac OS), whereas PCs generally run ____________ as an operating system. Answer: Microsoft Windows 69. A process known as ____________ tracks trends and allows retailers to respond to consumer buying patterns. Answer: data mining 70. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of ____________ devices. Answer: storage 71. You would use ____________ software to create spreadsheets, type documents, and edit photos. Answer: application 72. ____________ are computers that support hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously. Answer: Mainframes 73. ____________ is the term given to the act of stealing someone’s identity and ruining their credit rating. Answer: Identity theft 74. Surgeons are using ____________ to guide robots to perform delicate surgery. Answer: computers 75. Patient ____________ are life-sized mannequins that have a pulse and a heartbeat and respond to procedures just like humans. Answer: simulators True and False 76. Currently, the performance of tasks by robots is based on preprogrammed algorithms. Answer: True 77. Data can be a number, a word, a picture, or a sound. Answer: True 78. Strictly defined, a computer is a data processing device. Answer: True 79. The discrepancy between the “haves” and “have-nots” with regard to computer technology is commonly referred to as the digital society. Answer: False (digital divide) 80. One of the benefits of becoming computer fluent is being a savvy computer user and consumer and knowing how to avoid viruses, the programs that pose threats to computer security. Answer: True 81. Trend-spotting programs, developed for business, have 323

been used to predict criminal activity. Answer: True 82. Employers do not have the right to monitor e-mail and network traffic on employee systems used at work. Answer: False 83. Clicking on an icon with the mouse is a form of giving an instruction to the computer. Answer: True 84. Output devices store instructions or data that the CPU processes. Answer: False (memory) 85. The CPU and memory are located on a special circuit board in the system unit called the motherboard. Answer: True 86. Nanostructures represent the smallest human-made structures that can be built. Answer: True 87. The main difference between a supercomputer and a mainframe is that supercomputers are designed to execute a few programs as quickly as possible, whereas mainframes are designed to handle many programs running at the same time (but at a slower pace). Answer: True 88. Being computer fluent means that you should be able to build a computer yourself. Answer: False 89. Embedded computers are self-contained computer devices that have their own programming and do not receive input. Answer: True 90. A Web browser is a special device that is installed in your computer that allows it to communicate with other devices on a network. Answer: False (network adapter) 91. With a wireless network, it is easier to relocate devices. Answer: True 92. The most common type of memory that the computer uses to process data is ROM. Answer: False (RAM) Matching: 324

93. Match the following terms with their approximate size: I. kilobyte A. one million bytes II. byte B. eight bits III. gigabyte C. one thousand bytes IV. megabyte D. one billion bytes V. terabyte E. one trillion bytes Answer: C, B, D, A, E 94. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. printer A. storage device II. scanner B. output device III. RAM C. input device IV. CPU D. a type of memory V. CD drive E. processor Answer: B, C, D, E, A 95. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. mainframe A. the most expensive computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly II. supercomputer B. a computer that provides resources to other computers connected to a network III. embedded computer C. a large, expensive computer that supports hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously IV. PDA D. a self-contained computer device that usually performs preprogrammed functions such as temperature control V. server E. a small mobile computing device Answer: C, A, D, E, B 96. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. software A. transforming data into information II. hardware B. data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion III. operating system C. any part of the computer that you can physically touch IV. processing D. a set of computer programs that enables hardware to perform different tasks V. information E. the most common type of system software, it controls the way in which the computer system functions Answer: D, C, E, A, B 97. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. system software A. the set of programs that enables computer hardware devices and application software to work together II. application software B. the kind of operating system software you will use depends on this

325

III. platform C. operating system software generally used on PCs IV. Microsoft Windows D. a set of programs used to accomplish a specific task V. Mac OS E. operating system software used on the Apple Macintosh Answer: A, D, B, C, E 98. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. data A. the main circuit board in the system unit II. memory B. the representation of a fact or idea (unprocessed information) III. output C. processed data or information IV. storage D. holds instructions or data that the CPU processes V. motherboard E. data or information that can be accessed again Answer: B, D, C, E, A 99. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. bit A. the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale II. binary language B. the case that contains the system components III. instructions C. consists of 0s and 1s IV. system unit D. short for binary digit V. nanotechnology E. steps and tasks necessary to process data into usable information Answer: D, C, E, B, A 100. Match the following fields to the related computer technology: I. medicine A. Internet research and virtual tours II. business B. data mining III. law enforcement C. robotics and simulation IV. education D. computer forensics V. archeology E. digital recreations of ruins Answer: C, B, D, A, E

Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam, Computer General Awareness
1. A passive threat to computer security is— (1) Malicious Intent (2) Sabotage (3) Accident Errors (4) Espionage Agents (5) None of these 2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification— (1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that 326

guarantees a user or Web site is legitimate (2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server (3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server (4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems (5) None of these 3. ……………allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail— (1) TCP/IP (2) Ethernet (3)WAP (4) Token ring (5) None of these 4. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have— (1) A Boot Record (2) A File Allocation Table (3) A Root Directory (4) Virtual Memory (5) BIOS 5. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to— (1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition (3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition (4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition (5) None of these 6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a— (1) repository (2) data warehouse (3) RAD (4) CASE (5) None of these 7. The……………….component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database. (1) data extraction (2) end-user query tool (3) end-user presentation tool (4) data store (5) None of these 8. A(n)…………….allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server. 327

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

single-user license agreement network site license end-user license agreement business software license None of these

9. A polymorphic virus— (1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file (2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains (3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program (4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program (5) None of these 10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is— (1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable (2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable (3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available (4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available (5) None of these 11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy? (1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open (2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files. (3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data. (4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters. (5) None of these 12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is— (1) Biometrics (2) Compression (3) Encryption (4) Ergonomics (5) None of these

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13. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

The word FIP stands for— File Translate Protocol File Transit Protocol File Typing Protocol File Transfer Protocol None of these

14. Voice mail— (1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet (2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet (3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party (4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations (5) None of these 15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is— (1) Bridge (2) Gateway (3) Router (4) Modem (5) All of these 16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web? (1) VB Script (2) Java Script (3) CSS (4) Java (5) None of these 17. This.............tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data. (1) Client (2) Applications/Web server (3) Enterprise server (4) DBA (5) None of these

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18. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

RSA is— Symmetric Cryptosystem Asymmetric Cryptosystem Block Cypher Digital Signature None of these

19. A DVD-RAM is similar to a………………except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB. (1) CD-R (2) floppy disk (3) CD-RW (4) hard disk (5) None of these 20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration? (1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse (2) The length of the mouse cord (3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with (4) The number of buttons the mouse has (5) None of these 21. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) How is power supplied to a low-power USB device? Through a power cable From an external power supply Directly from the computer's power supply Through the USB cable None of these

22. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except— (1) each computer must have a network card (2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices (3) there must be at least one connecting device (4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information (5) None of these 23. The………….data mining technique derives rules from realworld case examples. (1) Rule discover (2) Signal processing (3) Neural nets (4) Case-based reasoning (5) None of these 24. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website. (1) Cookies (2) Plug-ins (3) Scripts 330

(4) ASPs (5) None of these 25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action? (1) Servlet Request (2) Http Servlet Request (3) Servlet Response (4) Http Servlet Response (5) None of these Answers : 1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) (4) (1) 14. 19. 24. 5. (1) 10. (4) (3) 15. (2) (3) 20. (3) (1) 25. (3)

Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam, General Awareness
1. Nav Krishi is a programme by— (1) Door Darshan (2) All India Radio (3) NIC (4) ICRISAT (5) MANAGE 2. One Acre is equal to…………..hectare. (1) 0.0541 (2) 0.8032 (3) 0.1082 (4) 0.2514 (5) 0.4047 3. SRI technology is practiced for the cultivation of— (1) Fruits (2) Vegetables (3) Flowers (4) Rice (5) Wheat 4. If the soil pH 9.2, then the soil is— (1) Acidic (2) Neutral (3) Alkaline (4) Saline (5) Sodic 5. …………..is used for the reclamation of acidic soil— (1) Lime (2) Gypsum (3) Sulphur

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(4) Calcium Chloride (5) Ferrous Sulphate 6. 2008 is declared as International Year of— (1) Rice (2) Wheat (3) Sugarcane (4) Potato (5) Apple 7. Golden revolution refers to the development of— (1) Oilseeds (2) Pulses (3) Horticulture (4) Cereals (5) Fodder 8. The most important rabi pulse crop in India is— (1) Chickpea (2) Soyabean (3) Pigeon pea (4) Green gram (5) Black gram 9. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is— (1) Growth promoter (2) Molecular marker (3) Growth retardent (4) Herbicide (5) Germicide 10. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) National Commission on Farmers was chaired by— Sri Som Pal Sri Y.C. Nanda Dr C. Rangarajan Dr M.S. Swaminathan Sri Sharad Pawar

11. Global Positioning Systems are useful for— (1) Determining precise location (latitude and longitude) based on radio signal (2) Determining precise distance based on radio signal (3) Determining general pest system (4) Determining disease forecast (5) Determining area of farm 12. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends— (1) Comfort Price (2) State Advised Price (3) Minimum Support Price (4) Minimum Export Price (5) Statutory Minimum Price

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13. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus) is— Pest Pathogen Bio pesticide Bio fungicide Bio control agent

14. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation is known as— (1) NIAM (2) NAFED (3) MARKFED (4) NACMF (5) NACOM 15. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 16. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Which insect is known as farmers' enemy No.1? Bollworm Desert locust Aphids Stem borer Fruit fly Indian Institute of Forest management is located at— Chennai Bhopal Hissar Dehradun Imphal

17. In India forests account for about …………..of land surface. (1) 11% (2) 22% (3) 33% (4) 14% (5) 25% 18. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 19. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 20. (1) (2) (3) VAM is an alternative to inorganic fertilizer. VAM is— Azospirillum Mycorrhiza Phosphate solubilising bacteria Nitrogen fixing bacteria Azotobacter An example of Single Cell Protein is— agar agar spirulina rhizobium acetobacter salmonella Major producer of mulberry silk in India— Karnataka Jammu and Kashmir Jharkhand 333

(4) Assam (5) Himachal Pradesh 21. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Bird flu affects— Cattle Poultry Sheep Prawn Silkworm

22. Minor irrigation scheme comprises several types of works with capacities to irrigate upto— (1) 2000 acre (2) 2000 ha (3) 1000 ha (4) 1000 acre (5) 2500 ha 23. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 24. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Ideal NPK ratio for Indian soils is— 8 : 4 : 2 4 : 2 : 1 9 : 5 : 3 2 : 1 : 0.5 10 : 4 : 2 Which of the following is a bio diesel plant? Jatropha Rose Pepper Noni Teak

25. National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at— (1) Nagpur (2) New Delhi (3) Mumbai (4) Kolkata (5) Chennai Answers : 1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (3)8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

CURRENT GENERAL AWARENESS 2008 BANK PO, UPSC,MBA,STATE PSC,B.ED.,TC,ASM

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1. Who has authored the book “To A Hunger Free World “ ? (a) Amartya Sen (b) C.Rangrajan (c) M.S. Swaminathan (d) Manmohan Singh Ans: (c) 2. The First Five Year Plan in India was launched in the year __ (a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1950 (d) 1951 Ans: (d) 3. ………….. received the National Award for the Best Performing Bank in North East Region under REGP Scheme of KVIC for the year 2007-08. (a) State Bank of India (b) United Bank of India (c) Allahabad Bank (d) Corporation Bank Ans: (b) 4. Who is the Chairman and Managing Director of United Bank of India ? (a) P. K. Gupta (b) K R Periya Karuppan (c) KC Chakrabarty (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (a) 5. The National Award for the Best Performing Bank in North East Region under REGP Scheme of KVIC for the year 2007-08 is organized by which of the following ministries ? (a) Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (b) Ministry of Commerce (c) Ministry of Finance (d) Central Government Ans : (a) 6. P.Chidambaram Hon`ble Minister of Finance, Govt. of India recently launched the ……………………… for BPL population with reduced premium and enhanced benefits at Karaikudi. The families of Shankarapuram Village were issued the new policy, in the function held at Alagappa University. (a) Revised Universal Health Insurance Scheme (b) Central Health Insurance Scheme

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(c) National Health Insurance Scheme (d) Indira Gandhi Health Insurance Scheme Ans: (a) 7. Who is the Chairman and Managing Director of Punjab National Bank? (a) P. K. Gupta (b) K R Periya Karuppan (c) KC Chakrabarty (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (c) 8. Who is the Chairman and Managing Director of BSNL? (a) Kuldeep Goyal (b) K R Periya Karuppan (c) KC Chakrabarty (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (a) 9. Punjab National Bank and BSNL jointly launched BSNL bill payment facility recently through ……….. at Corporate Office of BSNL, New Delhi. (a) PNB ATMs (b) SBI ATMs (c) ICICI ATMs (d) e-banking Ans: (a) 10. Who is the Chairman and Managing Director of Allahabad Bank? (a) Kuldeep Goyal (b) K.R. Kamath (c) KC Chakrabarty (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (b) 11. Which of the following bank recently unveiled the book on “Banking Principles & Operations “? (a) ICICI Bank (b) HDFC Bank (c) HSBC Bank (d) Axis Bank Ans: (a) 12. Who is the Managing Director & CEO of ICICI Bank? (a) Kuldeep Goyal (b) K.R. Kamath (c) K.V.Kamath (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (c)

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13. Who has authored the book “Banking Principles & Operations “ (a) Kuldeep Goyal (b) K.R. Kamath (c) K.V.Kamath (d) M. N. Gopinath Ans: (d) 14. The book “Banking Principles & Operations “focuses on which of the following ? (a) the various aspects of banking and prepares the student for a career in banking (b) the various aspects of marketing of banking industries. (c) the deposit rates of various banks in recent times. (d) None of these. Ans: (a) 15. Which of the following bank recently has sanctioned credit limits of Rs.14.35 Crores to the city based nonprofit NGO Annapurna Pariwar for lending to urban poor from slums of Pune & Mumbai. (a) Indian Overseas Bank (b) United Bank of India (c) Allahabad Bank (d) Corporation Bank Ans: (a) 16. Who is the Chairman and Managing Director of IOB? (a) Kuldeep Goyal (b) Suhas Bhat (c) KC Chakrabarty (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (b) 17. WITH credit growth of 71% (estimates for FY09), the Union Territory of Dadra & Nagar Haveli’s Silvassa town is top in market size growth at ………… (a) 23%. (b) 24% (c) 25% (d) 26% Ans: (a) 18. Recently OVER a dozen churches and prayer halls of different Christian sects were simultaneously attacks allegedly by Bajrang Dal activists in ………… injuring at least half a dozen people. (a) districts of Mangalore, Udupi and Chikmagalur

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(b) districts of Mangalore, Udupi and Mysore (c) districts of Mangalore, Udupi and Gulbarga (d) districts of Gulbarga, Mysore and Chikmagalur Ans: (a) 19. Who is the MD & CEO of Hero Honda Motors? (a) Kuldeep Goyal (b) PAWAN MUNJAL (c) VENU SRINIVASAN (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (b) 20. Who is the CEO of Genpact? (a) Kuldeep Goyal (b) PRAMOD BHASIN (c) VENU SRINIVASAN (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (b) 21. Who is the chairman of Dabur India? (a) ANAND BURMAN (b) PRAMOD BHASIN (c) VENU SRINIVASAN (d) J.M. Garg Ans: (a) 22. Who is the chairman of Maruti? (a) ANAND BURMAN (b) PRAMOD BHASIN (c) VENU SRINIVASAN (d) R C BHARGAVA Ans: (d) 23. Who is the MD of Bharti Enterprises? (a) ANAND BURMAN (b) PRAMOD BHASIN (c) MD RAJAN MITTAL (d) R C BHARGAVA Ans: (c) 24. Who is the MD of JSW Steel? (a) ANAND BURMAN (b) PRAMOD BHASIN (c) SAJJAN JINDAL (d) R C BHARGAVA Ans: (c) 25. Who is the MD of TVS Motor? (a) ANAND BURMAN (b) VENU SRINIVASAN (c) SAJJAN JINDAL (d) R C BHARGAVA Ans: (b)

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26. Who has been appointed as the new Indian Hockey Coach (Men's) in the month of September 2008 ? (a) Pargat Singh (b) Dhanraj Pillai (c) Maharaj Kishan Kaushik (d) Ashok Kumar Ans: (b)

Reasoning Test Bank PO , MBA, Bank Clerk
Directions—(Q. 1-5) In the following each question there are two statements and two conclusions I and II there-after are given. Accept the given statements as true even if they are inconsistent with known facts and ignoring the universally known facts find out which conclusion follows logically from the given statements. Give answer (A) if only the conclusion I follows. Give answer (B) if only the conclusion II follows. Give answer (C) if either the conclusion I or the II follows. Give answer (D) if neither the conclusion I nor the II follows. Give answer (E) if the conclusions I and II both follow. 1. Statements: All faxes are alligators. Some alligators are jackals. Conclusions: I. Some faxes are jackals. II. All faxes are jackals. Ans : (D) 2. Statements: Some pen are fire-works. All fire-works are toys. Conclusions: I. Some toys are men. II. Some toys are fire-works. Ans : (E) 3. Statements: All herons are parrots. No parrot is swan. Conclusions: I. No heron is swan. II. Some swans are herons. Ans : (A) 4. Statements: Some bats are cats. Some cats are dogs. Conclusions: I. Some bats are dogs. 339

II. Some dogs are bats. Ans : (D) 5. Statements: All writers are novelists. Some novelists are dramatists. Conclusions: I. Some writers are dramatists. II. Some dramatists are novelists. Ans : (D) 6. Introducing Priyanka, Saroj says that her mother is the only daughter of my mother. How is Saroj related to Priyanka ? (A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Daughter (D) Aunt (E) None of these Ans : (A) 7. Pointing to a picture of a child Narendra says, "The brother of this child's mother, is the only son of my mother's father." How is Narendra related to the mother of the child? (A) Daughter (B) Sister (C) Maternal grand mother (D) Aunt (E) None of these Ans : (E) 8. Pointing to a lady in the photograph Kaushal said, "She is the daughter of the daughter of the only son of my grand father." How is the lady related to Kaushal ? (A) Sister (B) Maternal aunt (C) Niece (D) Cousin (E) None of these Ans : (C) 9. Pointing to Manju, Gaurav said, "She is the wife of the only son of my father's father." How is Manju related to Gaurav ? (A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Aunt (D) Sister-in-law (E) None of these Ans : (A)

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10. A lady pointing to a man in photograph says, "The father of his brother is the only son of my maternal grand father." How is the man related to that lady? (A) Husband (B) Son (C) Father (D) Maternal uncle (E) None of these Ans : (E) 11. A lady pointing to a man in a photograph says, "The sister of the son of this man is my mother-in-law." How is the husband of the lady related to the man in the photograph? (A) Maternal grand son (B) Nephew (C) Son (D) Maternal grand father (E) None of these Ans : (A) 12. Kamini says, "Rajeev's grand father is the only son of my father." How is Kamini related to Rajeev ? (A) Daughter (B) Sister (C) Niece (D) Grand mother (E) None of these Ans : (D) 13. Introducing a man, a woman says, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How is the man related to the woman ? (A) Uncle (B) Father (C) Maternal uncle (D) Uncle (E) None of these Ans : (C) 14. Pointing a woman, Mahendra says, "The only son of her mother is my father." How is Mahendra related to the woman ? (A) Nephew (B) Brother (C) Son (D) Grandson (E) None of these Ans : (A)

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15. Pointing to Kalpna, Arjun says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is Kalpna related to Arjun ? (A) Daughter (B) Niece (C) Wife (D) Daughter-in-law (E) None of these Ans : (C) 16. Pointing to a man Snehlata says, "He is the only son of my father's father." How is Snehlata related to the man ? (A) Mother (B) Grand daughter (C) Niece (D) Sister (E) None of these Ans : (E) 17. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Madhurendra said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is Madhurendra related to the lady? (A) Nephew (B) Uncle (C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother (E) None of these Ans : (D) 18. If P x Q means— 'P is the brother of Q', P ÷ Q means 'P is the son of Q' and 'P – Q' means 'P is the sister of Q' , then which of the following relations will show that Q is the maternal uncle of P ? (A) Q x R ÷ P (B) Q ÷ R – P (C) P x R – Q (D) P ÷ R – Q (E) None of these Ans : (D) 19. A lady pointing to a woman in a photograph says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is the woman related to the lady? (A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Friend (D) Aunt

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(E) None of these Ans : (E) 20. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says, "Her mother's mother is the mother of my father." How is the man related to the woman in a photograph? (A) Uncle (B) Maternal cousin (C) Nephew (D) Grand son (E) None of these Ans : (B) 21. If x means –, – means x, + means ÷ and ÷ means + then— 13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100 = ? (A) 1/1760 (B) 76 (C) 176 (D) 186 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 22. If – means ÷, ÷ means –, + means x and x means +, then— 12 – 4 x 7 + 8 ÷ 5 = ? (A) 51 (B) 45 (C) 34 (D) 64 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 23. If + means x, x means +, – means ÷ and ÷ means –, then— 16 x 2 ÷ 4 + 7 – 8 = ? (A) 31 (B) 29/2 (C) 43/2 (D) 15 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 24. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means x and x means +, then— 64 + 8 ÷ 6 – 4 x 2 = ? (A) 34 (B) 16 (C) –14 (D) 24 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 25. If + means –, – means x, x means ÷ and ÷ means +, then— 48 x 4 ÷ 7 + 8 – 2 = ? (A) 3 (B) –5 343

(C) (D) (E) Ans

35 16 None of these : (A)

(Questions asked in Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam, 2008 & Professional Knowledge Section of Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam., 2008)
1. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called— (1) Metasearch engines (2) Webcrawlers (3) Spiders (4) Hits (5) None of these 2. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system include— (1) use-case, class, and state diagrams (2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams (3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams (4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams (5) None of these 3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the— (1) database is structured (2) database is well-designed (3) database has no data (4) database is relatively small (5) database is relatively large 4. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hardware? (1) Bootstrap memory (2) Volatile memory (3) Exteranl mass memory (4) Static memory (5) Random access memory 5. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use? (1) ARP (2) RARP (3) ICMP (4) PING (5) PONG

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6. What is Internet 2? (1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks (2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access (3) A new standard for Internet browsers (4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology (5) None of these 7. The term, "hypertext", means— (1) Non-sequential writing (2) Hypermedia (3) Blinking text (4) Text with heavy formatting (5) None of these 8. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information? (1) Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy. (2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information. (3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there. (4) Use the wayback machine. (5) None of these 9. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas? (1) Cipher (2) Warded (3) Device (4) Tumbler (5) Typelock 10. A……………..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk. (1) system virus (2) trojan horse virus (3) file virus (4) macro virus (5) None of these 11. (1) (2) (3) Carbon credit is meant for— Deforestation Protection of environment Rural infrastructure

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(4) Diamond trading (5) Precision farming 12. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 13. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 14. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 15. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Acetic acid is present in— Vinegar Curd Lime Fish Rancid butter Deep litter and cage systems are associated with— Dairy development Pig farming Poultry growing Quali farming Sheep rearing When milk is churned, the cream is separated due to— Gravitational force Centrifugal force Frictional force Electro magnetic effect None of the above Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peace— Dr Norman E. Borlaug Dr M.S. Swaminathan Dr Hargovind Khorana Dr Chandrasekhar Dr Watson

16. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged under— (1) WTO (2) Food Bill (3) AEZ (4) Essential commodities Act (5) Warehouse Bill 17. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd is— Oxidation Dehydration Hydrogenation Fermentation Hydration

18. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations of— (1) Committee on Financial Inclusion (2) Vaidyanathan Committee (3) Forward Market Commission (4) Working Group on Agriculture (5) National Commission on Farmers

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19. The Head Quarters of CFTRI—the leading institute for research on various food products is located at— (1) Mysore (2) New Delhi (3) Mumbai (4) Gurgaon (5) Jammu 20. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storages— Neon Freon Crypton Argon Ice

21. Who among the following is the author of the novel ‘Two Lives’? (1) Salman Rushdie (2) Vikram Seth (3) Arundhati Roy (4) Ruskin Bond (5) Dhruv Sawhney 22. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India? (1) Vijay Shankar (2) T.N. Seshan (3) Wajahat Habibullah (4) Mathew Varghese (5) M.H. Baig 23. On which of the following dates is World AIDS Day observed? (1) December 9 (2) December 1 (3) November 30 (4) October 24 (5) December 30 24. Which of the following is India’s first indigenous animation film? (1) Hanuman (2) Ramayana (3) Harry Potter (4) Mughal-e-Azam (5) Ram Sita 25. Who among the following has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashimir? (1) Mufti Mohammed Sayeed (2) Ghulam Nabi Azad (3) Omar Abdullah 347

(4) M.H. Baig (5) T. N. Seshan ANSWERS: 1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (5) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) (5) (4) 14. 19. 24. 5. (1) 10. (1) (2) 15. (1) (1) 20. (2) (1) 25. (2)

Reasoning Ability Test For Forthcomming Exam Bank PO'S,Bank Clerk, CAT,MBA,RRB TC, RRB ASM , BBA, B.ED
Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term. 1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to ... ? (A) ADFH (B) CFHJ (C) CDEF (D) CEGI Ans : (B) 2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to ... ? (A) FGKJ (B) HILM (C) HIKJ (D) HIML Ans : (B) 3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to ... ?

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(A) CEXV (B) CXFU (C) EVFU (D) EWCX Ans : (B) 4. 'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to— (A) UQSERA (B) QUSERA (C) UQSAER (D) QSUERA Ans : (A) 5. 'JKLM' is related to 'XYZA' in the same way as 'NOPQ' is related to— (A) RSTU (B) YZAB (C) DEFG (D) BCDE Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative responses. Select the correct response. 6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney? (A) Nose (B) Blood (C) Urine (D) Lung Ans : (D) 7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother? (A) Child

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(B) Boy (C) Adult (D) Nephew Ans : (D) 8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ? (A) Nylon (B) Rayon (C) Silk (D) Terylene Ans : (C) 9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure? (A) Direct (B) Order (C) Initiate (D) Fascinate Ans : (D) 10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone? (A) Accident (B) Rain (C) Earthquake (D) Damage Ans : (C) 11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ? (A) Doctor (B) Blacksmith (C) Teacher (D) Lawyer

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Ans : (B) 12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ? (A) Obstruction (B) Drain (C) Pipe (D) Tap Ans : (A) 13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue? (A) Sky (B) Dark (C) Green (D) Bright Ans : (C) 14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ? (A) Pleasant (B) Feel (C) Anxiety (D) Satisfy Ans : (C) 15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ? (A) Light (B) Metre (C) Hour (D) Watt Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two questions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill up the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alternative. 351

16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ? (A) Disguise, Modest (B) Capacity, Woman (C) Man, Feminine (D) Brave, Mrs. Ans : (C) 17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ? (A) Blue, Swim (B) Bird, Water (C) Open, Hook (D) Tree, Colour Ans : (B) 18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ? (A) Brother, Brought-up (B) Father, Aunt (C) Cousin, Beautiful (D) Aunt, Father Ans : (D) 19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ? (A) Columbo, India (B) Kathmandu, Capital (C) India, Paris (D) Island, Harbour Ans : (D) 20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ? (A) White, Hunt (B) Elephant, Horn (C) Huge, Rare (D) Costly, Scarce

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Ans : (B) Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of question marks. 21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ? (A) Furniture, Tea (B) Student, Horse (C) Wood, Hot (D) Chair, Plate Ans : (D) 22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ? (A) Sweet, Sour (B) Energy, Machine (C) Sugarcane, Milk (D) White, Sweet Ans : (C) 23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ? (A) Moon, Rainbow (B) Light, Cloud (C) Sky, Wet (D) Day, Night Ans : (B) 24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ? (A) Skull, Tongue (B) Hat, Lips (C) Hair, Voice (D) Turban, Saliva Ans : (A) 25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ? (A) Hand, Know

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(B) Experience, Feeling (C) Skin, Hear (D) Hair, Dirt Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each group of individuals which are common to each member of that group. Column I Column II FHIJ TW IJK PT IJLM SUW GHIKM RV GHI QRV FGI PR HIJ QTW IJL QSUW GIJ PQS 26. Which individual has all the above characteristics? (A) J (B) I (C) H (D) M Ans : (B) 27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M? (A) P, Q, T (B) P, Q, R, S (C) Q, R, S, T (D) U, V, T 354

Ans : (A) 28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M? (A) S (B) B (C) Q (D) R Ans : (C) 29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K? (A) P, Q (B) Q, W (C) Q, R (D) R, W Ans : (B) 30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both? (A) Q (B) U (C) S (D) V Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are given with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer. 31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ? (A) Delhi (B) Kanpur (C) Chennai (D) Sholapur

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Ans : (C) 32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot? (A) Blush (B) Raven (C) Ash (D) Rust Ans : (C) 33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ? (A) Knife (B) Spoon (C) Fork (D) Bowl Ans : (D) 34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release? (A) Ignore (B) Pardon (C) Liberate (D) Quit Ans : (C) 35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose? (A) Bed (B) Violet (C) Plant (D) Red Ans : (C) Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to 40. 36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ? (A) Draft (B) Cow

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(C) Earth (D) Dry Ans : (D) 37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother? (A) Baby (B) Father-in-law (C) Son (D) Son-in-law Ans : (C) 38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green? (A) Tree (B) Purple (C) Grass (D) Leaf Ans : (B) 39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys? (A) Heart (B) Intestines (C) Testis (D) Neck Ans : (A) 40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten? (A) Window (B) Door (C) Block (D) Iron Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are given. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of 357

which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternative is your answer. 41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck (A) Speed (B) Rooms (C) Wheels (D) Transport Ans : (D) 42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer (A) Meat eater (B) Jungles (C) Mammals (D) Cruel Ans : (C) 43. Sword, Gun, Pistol (A) Arms (B) Constable (C) Bullet (D) War Ans : (A) 44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred (A) Destruction (B) Envy (C) Human Characteristics (D) Quality Ans : (C) 45. Novel, Epic, Drama (A) Subject (B) Literature 358

(C) Poetry (D) Knowledge Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are given. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word. 46. Wheat, Barley, Rice (A) Food (B) Gram (C) Cereal (D) Agriculture Ans : (C) 47. Coal, Iron, Mica (A) Rock (B) Minerals (C) Gold (D) Earth Ans : (B) 48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability (A) Quality (B) Dependability (C) Charter (D) Nicety Ans : (A) 49. Cap, Coat, Trousers (A) Smart (B) Shirt (C) Dress (D) Tailor 359

Ans : (C) 50. Stool, Table, Chair (A) Bench (B) Furniture (C) Carpet (D) Office Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question. 51. Resignation : Office :: (A) Competition : Game (B) Illness : Hospital (C) Abdication : Throne (D) Moisture : Rain (E) Appointment : Interview Ans : (C) 52. Bunch : Key :: (A) Hound : Pack (B) Team : Competition (C) Beehive : Bee (D) Examination : Subject (E) Bouquet : Flower Ans : (E) 53. Profit : Loss :: (A) Success : Failure (B) Rupee : Paisa (C) Whole : Part 360

(D) Multiplication : Addition (E) Adult : Child Ans : (A) 54. Sapling : Tree :: (A) Horse : Mare (B) Student: Teacher (C) Bud : Flower (D) Tree : Furniture (E) River : Brook Ans : (C) 55. Supervisor : Worker :: (A) Junior : Senior (B) Superior : Inferior (C) Elder : Younger (D) Debtor : Creditor (E) Officer : Clerk Ans : (E) 56. Malaria : Mosquito :: (A) Poison : Death (B) Rat : Plague (C) Epidemic : Bacteria (D) Cholera : Water (E) Medicine : Disease Ans : (D) 57. Paisa : Rupee :: (A) Kilogram : Quintal (B) Metre : Centimetre (C) Coin : Money (D) Weight : Ton

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(E) Rupee : Wealth Ans : (A) 58. Poet : Verse :: (A) Prose : Novelist (B) Author : Book (C) Novel : Prose (D) Publication : Editor (E) Summary : Paraphrase Ans : (B) 59. Water : Thirst :: (A) Food : Hunger (B) Sun : Energy (C) Appetite : Meal (D) Ice-cream : Cold (E) Poison : Death Ans : (A) 60. Pulp : Paper :: (A) Wood : Table (B) Cloth : Shirt (C) Yarn : Fabric (D) Iron : Steel (E) Wood : Sawdust Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two words and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning. 61. Trees and Forest (A) Ocean (B) Page

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(C) Books (D) Study (E) Library (F) Ship (G) Boys (H) Classes Ans : (C, E) 62. Constable and Police (A) Clerk (B) Hospital (C) Medicine (D) Mother (E) Girl (F) Doctor (G) File (H) House Ans : (B, F) 63. Brother-in-law and Sister (A) I (B) Youth (C) Female-companion (D) Wife (E) My (F) Beautiful Woman (G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law Ans : (B, G) 64. Cold and Hot (A) January (B) Monday (C) Year (D) June (E) March (F) Thursday (G) Month (H) August Ans : (A, D) 65. High and Low (A) Far (B) Rent (C) Next (D) Near (E) Distance (F) Fair (G) Last (H) Clean Ans : (A, D) 66. Unsuccess and Laziness

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(A) Study (B) Success (C) Day (D) School (E) Labour (F) Lazy (G) Game (H) Honesty Ans : (E, B) 67. Car and Garage (A) Horse (B) Grass (C) Bird (D) Water (E) Man (F) Stable (G) Animal (H) Hive Ans : (A, F) 68. Hand and Fingers (A) Foot (B) Eyes (C) Hat (D) Teeth (E) Head (F) Stomach (G) Nose (H) Hair Ans : (E, H) 69. Oxygen and Man (A) Petrol (B) Stool (C) Carpenter (D) Sky (E) Driver (F) Wood (G) Water (H) Fish Ans : (G, H) 70. Neat and Clean (A) Dirty (B) Tidy (C) Route (D) White (E) Wise (F) Ravi (G) Foul (H) Beauty Ans : (A, G)

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Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of three words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below each question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups of that pair. Column I (A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato (B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit (C) Mother, Sister, Female (D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker (E) Stool, Furniture, Table Column II (P) Apple, Banana, Fruit (Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals (R) Doctor, Painter, Father (S) Cow, Mammal, Animal (I) Soldier, Army, Civilian 71. (A) BP (B) AQ (C) CR (D) EP Ans : (D) 72. (A) BR (B) AT (C) CS (D) DP Ans : (C) 73. (A) DR (B) BR (C) ET

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(D) CS Ans : (A) 74. (A) BS (B) AT (C) AQ (D) DQ Ans : (B) 75. (A) CR (B) EQ (C) BQ (D) DS Ans : (B)

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam. Solved Paper Computer General Knowledge
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word. (A) red (B) green (C) blue (D) black (E) None of these Ans (A) 2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions. (A) Search (B) Cut (C) Document (D) Undo (E) None of these Ans (D) 3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___ (A) a formula (B) text (C) a name (D) a title (E) None of these Ans (B) 4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on 366

rows and columns of data. (A) Word processing (B) Presentation graphics (C) Database Management Systems (D) Electronic Spreadsheet (E) None of these Ans (C) 5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations. (A) kilobyte (B) megabyte (C) gigabyte (D) terabyte (E) None of these Ans (C) 6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells. (A) Formatting (B) Merging (C) Embedding (D) Splitting (E) None of these Ans (B) 7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software. (A) communication (B) application (C) system (D) word-processing (E) None of these Ans (C) 8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____ (A) Primary-clicking (B) pointing (C) Double-clicking (D) Secondary-clicking (E) None of these Ans (C) 9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___ (A) cells (B) sheets (C) block lines (D) gridlines (E) None of these Ans (D) 10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion point. (A) press the left mouse key (B) double-click the right mouse key 367

(C) press the BACKSPACE key (D) press the delete key (E) None of these Ans (D) 11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT: A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer. B manage the central processing unit (CPU). C manage memory and storage. D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing. Ans (D) 12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files. A CD B. BIOS C. CPU D. DVD AnS (B) 13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen. A GUIs B Icons C Menus D Windows Answer: C 14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time. A Multitasking B Streamlining C Multiuser D Simulcasting Answer: A 15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an: A action. B event. C interrupt. D activity. Answer: C 16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention. A CPU B slice of time C stack D event Answer: B 17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as: 368

A application programming interfaces (APIs). B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS). C device drivers. D bootstrap loaders. Answer: A 18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system. A point-and-click B user-friendly C command-driven D Mac Answer: C 19. An interrupt handler is a(n): A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts. B peripheral device. C utility program. D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request. Answer: D 20. A spooler is a(n): A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out. B print job. C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print. D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed. Answer: C 21. Virtual memory is typically located: A on a floppy disk. B in the CPU. C in a flash card. D on the hard drive. Answer: D 22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to: A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer. B hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM. C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment. D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously. Answer: B 23. The definition of thrashing is: A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently. B insufficient hard disk space. C too many processors being managed by the operating system. D inaccurate information stored in the registry. Answer: A 24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT: 369

A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode. B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons. C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors. D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices. Answer: B 25. Verification of a login name and password is known as: A configuration. B accessibility. C authentication. D logging in. Answer: C 26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s: A CPU. B platform. C BIOS. D CMOS. Answer: B 27. The following message generally means: A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive. B the CD drive is not functioning. C the BIOS is corrupted. D there is a problem loading a device. Answer: A 28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process? A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system Answer: B 29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT: A load the operating system into RAM. B the power-on self-test. C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS). D load application programs. Answer: D 30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM. A BIOS 370

B API C device driver D supervisor program Answer: A 31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in: A RAM. B ROM. C the CPU. D the hard drive. Answer: B 32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process. A configuration B CMOS C POST D ROM Answer: C 33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the: A registry. B API. C CMOS. D kernel. Answer: D 34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the poweron self-test (POST)? A The ScanDisk utility begins to run. B The video card and video memory are tested. C The BIOS identification process occurs. D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly. Answer: A 35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT: A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory. B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed. C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file). D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive. Answer: A 36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT: A files. B folders. D drives. D systems. Answer: D 37. All of the following statements concerning windows are 371

true EXCEPT: A windows are an example of a command-driven environment. B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop. C more than one window can be open at a time. D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows. Answer: A 38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT: A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference. B Files can be generated from an application. C Files are stored in RAM. D Files should be organized in folders. Answer: C 39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates: A an open folder. B the folder contains subfolders. C a text file. D a graphics file. Answer: B 40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view. A List B Thumbnails C Details D Icon Answer: C

Practice Test : Computer General Awareness Bank Clerk
1. A ____ is a named location on a disk where files are stored. A folder B pod C version D none of the above Ans (A) 2. The ____ allows you to choose where to go and is located below the Standards Buttons toolbar. A System menu B Address bar C Menu bar D none of the above Ans (B)

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3. A ____ is a set of computer instructions that carry out a task on the computer. A program B database C memory file D none of the above Ans (A) 4. An operating system version designed for home use is Microsoft Windows XP ____. A Home Edition B Media Center Edition C Tablet PC Edition D none of the above Ans (A) 5. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be ____. A user-happy B user-simple C user-friendly D none of the above Ans (C) 6. When you press and release the secondary mouse button you are ____. A Right-clicking B Left-clicking C either a. or b. D neither a. nor b. Ans (A) 7. Another term for hyperlink is ____. A link B source C bar D none of the above Ans (A) 8. A ____ is a flash memory storage device that plugs into a USB port. A USB snap drive B USB flash drive C USB memory maker drive D none of the above Ans (B) 9. An operating system version designed for use with a Media Center PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____. A Home Edition B Media Center Edition C Tablet PC Edition 373

D none of the above Ans (B) 10. A graphical user interface displays ____. A graphics B text C both (A) and (B). D neither (A) nor (B). Ans (C) 11. When you quickly press and release the left mouse button twice, you are ____. A Primary-clicking B Double-clicking C pointing D none of the above 12. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to as a ____. A hyperlink B menu C source drive D none of the above Ans (A) 13. The ____ program compresses larger files into a smaller file. A WinZip B WinShrink C WinStyle D none of the above Ans (A) 14. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____. A Home Edition B Media Center Edition C Tablet PC Edition D none of the above Ans (C) 15. The ____ displays the name of every computer user on the computer. A Wish list screen B Command screen C Welcome screen D none of the above Ans (C) 16. The ____ contains commands associated with the My computer window. A Standards menu B Start menu 374

C System menu D none of the above Ans (C) 17. Press the ____ button to have the window fill the entire screen. A Close B Maximize C Minimize D none of the above Ans (B) 18. The ____ is the drive containing the files to be copied. A source drive B destination drive C USB drive D none of the above Ans (A) 19. A ____ allows you to write on screen with a digital pen and convert that writing into characters that the PC can process. A monitor RS B tablet PC C database manager D media center Ans (B) 20. A ____ is a pointing device. A monitor B mouse C keyboard D none of the above Ans (B)

Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam. General Awareness
1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front? (A) Prakash Karat (B) A.B.Bardhan (C) D.Raju (D) T.J.Chandrachoodan (E) M.Veerappa Moily Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader. 2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States? (A) Maharashtra

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(B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Gujarat (D) Rajasthan (E) None of these Ans (C) 3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ? (A) 7% (B) 7.5% (C) 8% (D) 8.5% (E) None of these Ans (C) 4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ? (1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere (2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen (3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI (A) Only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) Only 2 & 3 Ans (A) 5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ? (A) West Bengal (B) Keral (C) Orissa (D) Karnataka (E) None of these Ans (B) 6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___ (A) Britain (B) U.S.A. (C) Japan (D) Canada (E) China Ans (B) 7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man 376

Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ? (1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time (2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs (3) Nuclear deal with USA (A) Only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2 (E) Only 2 & 3 Ans (C) 8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ? (A) South Korea (B) Iran (C) China (D) North Korea (E) None of these Ans (D) 9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ? (A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) (B) Bank Rate (C) Repo Rate (D) Reserve Repo Rate (E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) Ans (E) 10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship" ? (A) North Korea (B) South Korea (C) Japan (D) Russia (E) All of these Ans (C) 11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ? (A) Venezuela (B) Russia 377

(C) Uganda (D) Tanzania (E) None of these Ans (B) 12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ? (A) IDBI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) Bajaj Capitals (D) ICICI Bank (E) None of these Ans (B) 13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____ (A) Lebanon (B) Cuba (C) Yemen (D) Zambia (E) Turkey Ans (A) 14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ? (1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence (2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same (3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme (A) Only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (A) 15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ? (A) Iran (B) Indonesia (C) Kuwait (D) Saudi Arabia (E) None Of these Ans (B) 16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is _______ (A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks (B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population (C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery (D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently (E) None of these Ans (C) 378

17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______ (A) 2.5 % (B) 3 % (C) 4.5 % (D) 5 % (E) 6.33 % Ans (C) 18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ? (A) Oil (B) Gas (C) Sugar (D) Foodgrain (E) None of these Ans (A) 19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ? (1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India (2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs (3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions (A) Only 1 (B) only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (A) 20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____ (A) Rs. 20,000/(B) Rs. 25,000/(C) Rs. 23,000/(D) Rs. 33,000/(E) Rs. 48,000/Ans (D) 21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______ (A) Katrina Srebtnik (B) Dinara Safina (C) Virginia Ruano Pascual (D) Victoria Azarenka 379

(E) None of these Ans (B) 22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days? (A) 5TH October (B) 5TH August (C) 5TH July (D) 5TH June (E) None of these Ans (D) 23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"? (A) L. N. Mittal (B) Anil Ambani (C) Kumar Mangalam Birla (D) Mukesh Ambani (E) Ratan Tata Ans (A) 24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank? (A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society (B) Accident insurance cover (C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques (D) Free cheque book (E) All are value Added services Ans (D) 25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008 ? (A) Rs.10,000 Crore (B) Rs.25,000 Crore (C) Rs.45,000 Crore (D) Rs.72,000 Crore (E) Rs.83,000 Crore Ans (D) 26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ? (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Goa (E) Delhi Ans (E) 27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in ____ (A) China (B) South Korea (C) North Korea (D) Japan 380

(E) USA Ans (D) 28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China? (A) Indian (B) Air India (C) Kingfisher (D) Jet Airways (E) None of these Ans (D) 29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ? (A) Arab League Summit (B) G-8 Summit (C) G-15 Summit (D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members (E) None of these Ans (A) 30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ? (A) China (B) Bangladesh (C) Nepal (D) Bhutan (E) Myanmar Ans (E) 31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ? (A) Retail Banking (B) Merchant Banking (C) Institutional Banking (D) Social Banking (E) Corporate Banking Ans (A) 32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector? (A) SLR (B) NPA (C) Credit Rating (D) Fixed (E) PURA Ans (E) 33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors? (A) Agriculture Sector (B) Service Sector (C) Manufacturing (D) Industrial Sector (E) None of these Ans (B) 34. An account in which trading of shares in their 381

electronic form is done is known as _____ (A) Demat Account (B) NRI Account (C) NRIO Account (D) Current Account (E) None of these Ans (A) 35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ? (A) CRR (B) RTGS (C) SLR (D) Deposit Insurance (E) All are the measures of risk management Ans (B) 36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______ (A) 50 % (B) 100% (C) 125 % (D) 200 % (E) 250 % Ans (C) 37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004-2009 ? (A) Foreign Trade Policy (B) 11th Five Year Plan (C) 10th Five Year Plan (D) National Rural Guarantee Act (E) None of these Ans (A) 38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ? (A) EEG (B) Narco Test (C) ELISA Test (D) Mind mapping (E) DOPE tEST Ans (E) 39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress? (A) Shamita Shetty (B) Rani Mukherjee (C) Priyanka Chopra (D) Konkana Sen (E) Kareena Kapoor Ans (E) 382

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ? (A) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam (B) Ashok Lahiri (C) Amartya Sen (D) M.S.Swaminathan (E) None of these Ans (D) 41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema? (A) Kalidas Samman (B) Dronacharya Award (C) Arjun Award (D) Kalinga Award (E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award Ans (E) 42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ? (A) Chad (B) Uganda (C) Libya (D) Lebanon (E) None of these Ans (A) 43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society? (A) Kareena Kapoor (B) Jaya Bachchan (C) Shabana Azmi (D) Sridevi (E) None of these Ans (E) Nafisa Ali 44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ? (A) NIMI (B) IGNOU (C) CAPART (D) NPCIL (E) ICRP Ans (C) 45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in ____ (A) Russia (B) Middle East (C) Africa (D) Europe (E) Canada Ans (B) 46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which 383

was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year? (A) V.S.Naipaul (B) Indra Sinha (C) William Darlymple (D) Bill Clinton (E) John Banville Ans (B) 47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ? (A) 55th (B) 80th (C) 100th (D) 120th (E) None of these Ans (D) According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position. 48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ? (A) Grand Slam (B) Half Nelson (C) Ashes (D) Screen (E) Love Ans (C) 49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following? (A) Global Energy (B) China Sea (C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists (D) Nuclear installation in China (E) None of these Ans (D) 50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ? (A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP) (B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM) (C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP) (D) ANNAPURNA (E) Desert Development Programme (DDP) Ans (D)

SBI BANK CLERK MODEL QUESTIONS NUMERICAL ABILITY

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1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to a. 11 b. 14 c. 20 d. 21 Answer-d 2. Answer d 3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is a. -1 b. 0 c. 1 d. 2 Answer -b 4. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to a. 0.148148148 .... b. 0.777 .... c. 0.121212 .... d. 1.333 .... Answer-a 5. Answer-d 6. Answer-c 7. Answer-c 8. Answer-c 9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get a. 96 b. 104 c. 108 d. 109 Answer-d 10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27 a. 54 b. 64 c. 81 d. 91 Answer-d 11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is a. 125m

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b. 135 m c. 159 m d. 175 m Answer-c 12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B? a. 7 min & 15 sec b. 7 min & 45 sec c. 8 min & 5 sec d. 8 min & 15 sec Answer-d 13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water? a. 7:5 b. 1:2 c. 2:1 d. 6:5 Answer-a 14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car? a. 45 km/hr b. 50 km/hr c. 55 km/hr d. 65 km/hr Answer-c 15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in Answer-a 16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was a. 450 km b. 675 km c. 337.5 km 386

d. 1350 km Answer-b 17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C is a. Rs. 84 b. Rs. 147 c. Rs. 196 d. Rs. 240 Answer-a 18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is a. Rs. 3500 b. Rs. 3000 c. Rs. 2500 d. Rs. 4000 Answer-c 19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to complete the work is Answer-b 20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is a. Rs. 1700 b. Rs. 1800 c. Rs. 2000 d. Rs. 2200 Answer-c 21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in a. 48 days b. 60 days c. 75 days d. 90 days Answer-d 22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface 387

area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is a. 1848 cm3 b. 1232 cm3 c. 1078 cm3 d. 980 cm3 Answer-c 23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is a. 30 cm b. 60 cm c. 72 cm d. 108 cm Answer-b 24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field isa. 125 sq. cm b. 112.5 sq. cm c. 110 sq. cm d. 100•2 sq. m Answer-b 25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is a. 10 cm b. 24 cm c. 26 cm d. 27.5 cm Answer-b 26.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same as a. 4 : 1 b. 2 :1 c. 7 : 5 d. 7 :10 Answer-a 27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is a. •• : •6 b. •• : •6 c. •• : •3 d. •6 : •• Answer-d 28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an 388

additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table? a. Rs. 2400 b. Rs. 2160 c. Rs. 2100 d. Rs. 2052 Answer-d 29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain percent in the deal isAnswer-b 30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 16• % Answer-c 31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer-b 32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years? a. Rs. 1,20,000 b. Rs. 1,92,000 c. Rs. 1,24,000 d. Rs. 96,000 Answer-b 33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is a. 10% b. 15% c. 12½% d. 25% Answer-d 34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had sold one radio at 25% gain, then

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at what percent loss did he sell the other radio? Answer-a 35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was a. 30 dozen b. 40 dozen c. 50 dozen d. 60 dozen Answer-d 36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is a. Rs. 370 b. Rs. 385 c. Rs. 390 d. Rs. 400 Answer-c 37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to a. Rs. 950 b. Rs. 980 c. Rs. 1010 d. Rs. 1040 Answer-d 38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is a. 24 b. 36 c. 17 d. 72 Answer-d 39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is a. 15 b. 12 c. 10 390

d. 20 Answer-a 40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500? a. Rs. 300 b. Rs. 350 c. Rs. 375 d. Rs. 475 Answer-d

General Awareness (SBI)
1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of (A) films (B) Literature (C) Sports (D) Politics (E) Status ANS (A) 2. Which of the following is not a food crop ? (A) Wheat (B) Barley (C) Maize (D) Gram (E) Cotton ANS (E) 3. Union Budget always presented first in (A) The Loksabha (B) The Rajyasabha (C) Joint session of Parliament (D) Meeting of the Union cabinet (E) The State Assemblies ANS (A) 4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of the following sections of the society ? (A) Children who are bonded labour (B) Persons working in hazardous industries (C) Farmers (D) People living below poverty line (E) None of these ANS (E)

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5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of (A) France (B) Argentina (C) Spain (D) New zealand (E) Italy ANS (C) 6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in (A) Jakarta (B) Bali (C) New Delhi (D) Tokyo (E) Islamabad ANS (B) 7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for reckless lending ? (A) G-7 (B) G-8 (C) SAARC (D) World Bank (E) IMF ANS (E) 8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the (A) Prime Minister of Iraq (B) President of Iran (C) Prime Minister of Iran (D) President of Iraq (E) None of these ANS (B) 9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ? (A) Islamabad (B) Karanchi (C) Dhaka (D) Kathmandu (E) None of these ANS (C) 10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian sub-continent ? (A) Bhutan (B) China (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh

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(E) Sri Lanka ANS (A) 11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ? About (A) 6 % (B) 6.5 % (C) 7 % (D) 7.5 % (E) 9 % ANS (E) 12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the (A) Governor of Karnataka (B) Chief Minister of Karnataka (C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh (D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh (E) None of these ANS (B) 13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and compulsory education for all those who are of the age of (A) 3 Years (B) 5 Years (C) 6-14 Years (D) 12-20 Years (E) Upto 21 Years ANS (C) 14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ? (A) Ist May (B) 10th May (C) 21st May (D) 31 st May (E) 1st June ANS (D) 15. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ANS Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous Social Work Politician Sportsman Play Wright None of these (D)

16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the 393

full form of GM ? (A) Genetically Marketed (B) Genetically Modified (C) Green & Moisturious (D) Globally Marketed (E) None of these ANS (B) 17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ? (A) UK (B) USA (C) France (D) Italy (E) None of these ANS (B) 18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in which former US Vice President Al Gore has featured as a narrator ? (A) An inconvenient truth (B) The Sea (C) Road to prediction (D) Remember My Name (E) None of these ANS (A) 19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following places to discuss security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ? (A) Beijing (B) New Delhi (C) Singapore (D) Kuala Lumpur (E) None of these ANS (C) 20. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) ANS Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ? Serena Williams Katarina Srebotnik Andy Murray Nichlas Almagro Ricky Ponting (E)

21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in (A) Kolkat (B) New Delhi

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(C) (D) (E) ANS

Pune Ahmedabad None of these (E) Mumbai

22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ? (A) Nasdaq (B) Nikkei (C) Kospi (D) Dow (E) Combix ANS (E) 23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full form of 'ECB'? (A) Essential Commercial Borrowing (B) Essential Credit & Borrowing (C) External Credit & Business (D) External Commercial Borrowing (E) None Of These ANS (D) 24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was reshuffled recently ? (A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer (B) Rahul Gandhi (C) Priyanka (D) Jyotiraditya Scindia (E) None of these ANS (D) 25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ? (A) Manik Sarkar (B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay (C) P.Longon (D) K.Shankaranarayanan (E) None of these ANS (E)

SBI Clerk Exam, : General English (Fully Solved) General English
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer 395

the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone. The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on. The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off. The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !” His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead. The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?” “You’ll get it when you go far away.” “But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?” His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.” 396

41. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Why did the woman's second son travel ? He was restless by nature He did not want to stay at home He was rich and could afford to travel His job was such that he had to travel None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ? (A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home (B) He had quarrelled with his mother (C) His wife did not allow him to return home (D) His job prevented him from taking leave (E) None of these 43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ? 1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours. 2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance. 3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored. (A) None (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 1 and 2 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ? 1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats. 2. He pestered his mother to give him a present. 3. He stood at the door with servants. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 3 (D) Only 3 (E) None of these 45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ? (A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly (B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age (C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time (D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy (E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad 46. What did the boy receive from his mother ? (A) She taught him the value of patience (B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers

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(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts (D) She gave him a hug to express her love (E) None of these 47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ? (A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son (B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad (C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her (D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants (E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 48. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 49. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Left Gone Quit Remaining Disappeared Forgot Packed Filled Squeezed Crowd Collected Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage. (A) Calmly (B) Happily (C) Willingly (D) Fortunately (E) Softly Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) 51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)

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52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E) 53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E) 54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E) 55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E) Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer. 56. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager— Every loan Each one of the loan Any of the loan All of the loan No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week— (A) Taking place at (B) Taken after (C) Being taken in (D) Taken up at (E) No correction required 58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project. (A) had asked (B) having asked about (C) was asked that (D) is asking (E) no correction required 59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early— (A) While considering (B) Consideration of (C) Considering

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(D) Being considerate to (E) No correction required 60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve— (A) That known when (B) Who knows how (C) Which knows how (D) Knowing what (E) No correction required Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain. (2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families. (3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley. (4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied. (5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains. (6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb. 61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5) 62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (6) (B) (5) (C) (4) (D) (3) (E) (2) 63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) 400

(D) (4) (E) (5) 64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5) 65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5) Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer. 66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E) 67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E) 68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E) 69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E) 70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E) 401

Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly. 71. (B) (C) (D) (E) 72. (B) (C) (D) (E) 73. (B) (C) (D) (E) 74. (B) (C) (D) (E) 75. (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) forward towards backward up around (A) went sent visited travelled gone (A) cared occupy guarded taught played (A) them whom this now which (A) expensive deserving helping demanding valuable 402

76. (B) (C) (D) (E) 77. (B) (C) (D) (E) 78. (B) (C) (D) (E) 79. (B) (C) (D) (E) 80. (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) opportunity ability use encouragement achievement (A) distance extent time limits degrees (A) activity hope hobby duty worship (A) despite though by instead of while (A) sell read exchange invest buy

Answers: 41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C) 51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’. 52. (E) 53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’. 54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’. 55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’. 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. 66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80.

(B) (B) (D) (E) (E)

(Questions asked in Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam & Professional Knowledge Section of Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam.)
1. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several

403

search engines simultaneously are called— (1) Metasearch engines (2) Webcrawlers (3) Spiders (4) Hits (5) None of these 2. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system include— (1) use-case, class, and state diagrams (2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams (3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams (4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams (5) None of these 3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the— (1) database is structured (2) database is well-designed (3) database has no data (4) database is relatively small (5) database is relatively large 4. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hardware? (1) Bootstrap memory (2) Volatile memory (3) Exteranl mass memory (4) Static memory (5) Random access memory 5. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use? (1) ARP (2) RARP (3) ICMP (4) PING (5) PONG 6. What is Internet 2? (1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks (2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access (3) A new standard for Internet browsers (4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology (5) None of these 7. The term, "hypertext", means— (1) Non-sequential writing (2) Hypermedia (3) Blinking text (4) Text with heavy formatting (5) None of these 404

8. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information? (1) Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy. (2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information. (3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there. (4) Use the wayback machine. (5) None of these 9. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas? (1) Cipher (2) Warded (3) Device (4) Tumbler (5) Typelock 10. A……………..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk. (1) system virus (2) trojan horse virus (3) file virus (4) macro virus (5) None of these 11. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 12. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 13. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Carbon credit is meant for— Deforestation Protection of environment Rural infrastructure Diamond trading Precision farming Acetic acid is present in— Vinegar Curd Lime Fish Rancid butter Deep litter and cage systems are associated with— Dairy development Pig farming Poultry growing Quali farming Sheep rearing

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14. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 15. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

When milk is churned, the cream is separated due to— Gravitational force Centrifugal force Frictional force Electro magnetic effect None of the above Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peace— Dr Norman E. Borlaug Dr M.S. Swaminathan Dr Hargovind Khorana Dr Chandrasekhar Dr Watson

16. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged under— (1) WTO (2) Food Bill (3) AEZ (4) Essential commodities Act (5) Warehouse Bill 17. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd is— Oxidation Dehydration Hydrogenation Fermentation Hydration

18. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations of— (1) Committee on Financial Inclusion (2) Vaidyanathan Committee (3) Forward Market Commission (4) Working Group on Agriculture (5) National Commission on Farmers 19. The Head Quarters of CFTRI—the leading institute for research on various food products is located at— (1) Mysore (2) New Delhi (3) Mumbai (4) Gurgaon (5) Jammu 20. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storages— Neon Freon Crypton Argon Ice

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21. Who among the following is the author of the novel ‘Two Lives’? (1) Salman Rushdie (2) Vikram Seth (3) Arundhati Roy (4) Ruskin Bond (5) Dhruv Sawhney 22. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India? (1) Vijay Shankar (2) T.N. Seshan (3) Wajahat Habibullah (4) Mathew Varghese (5) M.H. Baig 23. On which of the following dates is World AIDS Day observed? (1) December 9 (2) December 1 (3) November 30 (4) October 24 (5) December 30 24. Which of the following is India’s first indigenous animation film? (1) Hanuman (2) Ramayana (3) Harry Potter (4) Mughal-e-Azam (5) Ram Sita 25. Who among the following has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashimir? (1) Mufti Mohammed Sayeed (2) Ghulam Nabi Azad (3) Omar Abdullah (4) M.H. Baig (5) T. N. Seshan ANSWERS: 1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (5) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) (5) (4) 14. 19. 24. 5. (1) 10. (1) (2) 15. (1) (1) 20. (2) (1) 25. (2)

SBI - English Paper held on July 2008.

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Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. There was a girl who sang beautifully at the temple every morning. The music master used to happily recall, “One day when I went into the woods to pluck flowers, I found this baby under a pipal tree.” He picked her up carefully, raised her lovingly as if she was his daughter and taught her to sing before she spoke her first word. The music master grew old and didn’t see too well. The girl tended to him caringly. Many people including young men travelled from far and wide to hear her sing. This made the music master’s heart quake with fear. “You will choose one of them as your husband. What is to become of me ?” The girl replied, “I shall not be apart from you.” But on a full moon night during the harvest festival, the master’s chief disciple touched his feet reverently and said, “Master grant me your permission for your daughter has agreed to marry me.” The master’s tears flowed freely, “She has chosen well. Go and fetch her, let me hear you sing the first of many melodies that you will sing together.” The two began to sing in harmony. But the song was interrupted by the arrival of the royal messenger. “Your daughter is very fortunate-the king has sent for her,” the messenger said. At the palace the Queen summoned the girl to her and said, ”I place upon you the honour of making sure my daughter is never unhappy at her husband’s home.” There wasn’t a single tear in the girl’s eyes but she thought of the master and her heart was heavy.

That very night the princess began her journey to Kambhoj. The princess’s royal chariot led the procession and the girl’s palanquin followed close behind carrying trunks of silks, jewellry and precious stones. It was covered with a velvet sheet and had soldiers on both sides. As the procession passed, the master and his disciple Kumarsen stood still by the wayside. A collective sigh escaped the crowd gathered there wishing that the princess wouldn’t feel homesick in her faraway home.

1. Which of the following can be said about the girl ? (1) She was brought up by her father as her mother had died when she was a baby. (2) She was a talented singer who had learnt to sing at an early age.

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(3) She was only allowed to sing with the master’s permission. (A) Only (1) (B) Both (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) (D) All (1), (2) and (3) (E) None of these

2. What was the girl’s reaction to leaving home ? (A) She was honoured to be serving the princess (B) Sadness at leaving the master. (C) She entrusted the task of looking after the music master to Kumarasen (D) She was thrilled to be living in luxury (E) None of these

3. What task was entrusted to the girl by the Queen ? (A) Seeing that her daughter reached Kambhoj safely (B) Entertaining the princess on her journey to Kambhoj (C) Protecting the princess and reporting to the queen if she was unhappy (D) Ensuring the princess’ happiness (E) None of these

4. What was the master’s reaction to the girl’s decision to marry his disciple ? (A) He was upset and cried (B) He promised to give his permission if the couple sang well together (C) He was sad because she would be going to Kambhoj which was far away (D) He was pleased with her choice of husband

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(E) None of these

5. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ? (1) The girl was leaving the master and going to Kambhoj once she was married. (2) The king sent for the girl because she was a good singer. (3) The master did not let the girl study any other subject except music. (A) Only (1) (B) Both (1) and (2) (C) All (1), (2) and (3) (D) Both (1) and (3) (E) None of these

6. Why was the princess going on a journey ? (1) She was going to her prospective husband’s home to get engaged. (2) Her parents wanted her to visit the kingdom of which she would be the future queen. (3) To take expensive gifts for the rulers of the Kambhoj who were well known to her parents. (A) None (B) Only (2) (C) Only (1) (D) Both (1) and (2) (E) Both (2) and (3)

7. Why was the master afraid ? (A) He felt the princess would treat the young girl unkindly (B) He would be all alone after the girl’s marriage (C) The girl may not be able to adapt to her new home 410

(D) He was slowly going blind. (E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 8–9) Choose the word which is MOST NEARLY theSAME in MEANING as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

68. fortunate (A) rich (B) liked (C) happy (D) successful (E) lucky

9. raised (A) nurtured (B) lifted (C) grew (D) built (E) high

10. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the wordCollective as used in the passage— (A) alone (B) separately (C) united (D) partial (E) single

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. 411

If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

11. In present the (A)/ prices of food grains (B)/ are high all (C)/ over the world. (D) No error (E)

12. Majority of the banks (A)/ today uses technology (B)/ to reach out to those (C)/living in rural areas. (D) No error (E)

13. I will give (A)/ you the advance (B)/ if you repay it as (C)/ soon as possibly. (D) No error (E)

14. Though he is very (A)/ wealthy and powerful (B)/ he has any(C)/ concern for the poor. (D) No error (E)

15. Mala has the (A)/ ability t o handle (B)/ many tasks at (C)/ the same time. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrases given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Finding himself in financial difficulty, he came forward me for help and advice— (A) came across (B) is come upto (C) came to (D) comes with (E) No correction required

17. Deepak having been over eighteen years of age, is entitled to vote—

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(A) has been of (B) being over (C) who is having over (D) who is been (E) No correction required

18. The magazine that we subscribe to is published monthly— (A) which is subscribed (B) we are subscribed (C) whom we subscribe (D) whichever we subscribe (E) No correction required

19. Among of his many good qualities, that I remember is his honesty— (A) All of his (B) Some of the (C) Only of his (D) One of his (E) No correction required

20. Many of our clients have deposit of this foreign bank— (A) have deposits in (B) had deposited (C) with deposits (D) have deposited (E) No correction required

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21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5)

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5)

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5)

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25. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be eitherwrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. Theletter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

26. We have incurred

(A) an expense

(B) of over fifty thousands

(C) this year alone.

(D) All correct (E)

27. World Earth Day is celeberated

(A) as a means 415

(B) to make people aware

(C) about the environment.

(D) All correct (E)

28. The key issue (A) discused (B) at the meeting was how toresolve

(C) the food crisis. (D) All correct (E)

29. He deserves (A) some recognition (B) for working diligently (C) for the passed (D) five years. All correct (E)

30. There are many employment (A) opportunities (B) for freshgraduates (C) in the market (D) today. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I had …(31)… to become a multipurpose manager. I took three steps to accomplish this. First, I took very …(32)… part in professional associations. I …(33)… the National President of the Indian Society for Training and Development–one of the …(34)… organizations for HR professionals. This helped me to grow professionally. My communication skills …(35)…. It also taught me …(36)… to conduct meetings in an effective manner. My job …(37)… me to different parts of the country and I …(38)… believe that …(39)…provided me with an education. I also wrote a lot. Newspaper editors often approached me with …(40)… to write articles for their publications.

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31. (A) achieved (B) aim (C) try (D) dreamed (E) wanted

32. (A) selected (B) active (C) interesting (D) often (E) joint

33. (A) elected (B) voted (C) became (D) applied (E) decided

34. (A) respected (B) status (C) impressed (D) aged (E) common

35. (A) lacked (B) grown (C) learnt (D) improved (E) earned

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36. (A) that (B) why (C) how (D) never (E) anyhow

37. (A) saw (B) showed (C) posted (D) discovered (E) took

38. (A) quiet (B) firmly (C) strong (D) first (E) not

39. (A) travelling (B) journey (C) visit (D) migrating (E) shift

40. (A) wish (B) offer (C) appointments (D) requests

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(E) commands

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) The sailor was told it was placed there as warning signal to sailors to warn them of the danger. (2) He returned to the spot a few years later as captain of his own ship. (3) The ship was at sea for many days and finally anchored near the coastline. (4) The night was stormy and without a warning signal his ship was wrecked on that very rock. (5) One of the sailors on board saw a bell tied to a dangerous submerged rock. (6) As a joke the sailor decided to steal the bell and hide it despite being informed of this.

Answers : 1.(C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (B)

6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (A) Write ‘At’ in place of ‘In’. 12. (B) Write ‘use’.13. (D) Write ‘possible’.14. (C) Write ‘no’ in place of ‘any’.15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (E) 19. (D)20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (D)25. (B) 26. (C) Write change ‘thousands’ to ‘thousand’.27. (A) Write ‘celebrated’. 28. (B) Write ‘discussed’. 29. (D) Write ‘past’. 30. (E) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A)35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (D)

Test of English Language paper - Indian Bank 2009.

held on June

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English Language: Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there was a rich merchant who had four wives. He loved the fourth wife the most and adorned her with rich robes and treated her to delicacies. He took great care of her and gave her nothing but the best. He also loved the third wife very much. He was very proud of her and always wanted to show her off to his friends. However, the merchant was always in great fear that she might run away with some other men. He loved his second wife too. She was a very considerate person, always patient and in fact was the merchant’s confidant. Whenever the merchant faced some problems, he always turned to his second wife and she would always help him out and tide him through difficult times. Now, the merchant’s first wife was a very loyal partner and had made great contributions in maintaining his wealth and business as well taking care of the household. However, the merchant did not love the first wife and although she loved him deeply, he hardly took notice of her.

One day, the merchant fell ill. Before long, he knew that he was going to die soon. He thought of his luxurious life and told himself, “Now I have four wives with me. But when I die, I’ll be alone. How lonely I’ll be !” Thus, he asked the fourth wife, “I loved you most, endowed you with the finest clothing and showered great care over you. Now that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No way !” replied the fourth wife and she walked away without another word. The answer cut like a sharp knife right into the merchant’s heart. The sad merchant then asked the third wife, “I have loved you so much for all my life. Now that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No !” replied the third wife, “Life is so good over here ! I’m going to remarry when you die !” The merchant’s heart sank and turned cold. He then asked the second wife. “I always turned to you for help and you’ve always helped me out. Now I need your help again. When I die, will you follow me and 420

keep me company ?” “I’m sorry, I can’t help you out this time !” replied the second wife. “At the very most, I can only send you to your grave.” The answer camelike a bolt of thunder and the merchant was devastated. Then a voice called out, “I’ll leave with you. I’ll follow you no matter where you go.” The merchant looked up and there was his first wife. She was so skinny, almost like she suffered from malnutition. Greatly grieved, the merchant said, “I should have taken much better care of you while I could have !”

Actually, we all have four wives in our lives. The fourth wife is our body. No matter how much time and effort we lavish in making it look good, it’ll leave us when we die. Our third wife is our possessions, status and wealth. When we die, they all go to others. The second wife is our family and friends. No matter how close they had been to us when we’re alive, the furthest they can stay by us is up to the grave. The first wife is in fact our soul, often neglected in our pursuit of material wealth and sensual pleasure. It is actually the only thing that follows us wherever we go. Perhaps it’s a good idea to cultivate and strengthen it now rather than to wait until we’re on our deathbed to lament.

1. What did the merchant want to do with his third wife ? (A) To buy good clothes for her (B) To give her away to his friends (C) To show her off to his friends (D) To share his problems with her (E) None of these

2. What was the second wife’s quality ? (A) She helped the merchant during tough times (B) She helped the merchant in his business (C) She made the merchant feel proud (D) She contributed to the merchant’s wealth (E) None of these

3. What does the phrase ‘cut like a sharp knife’ as used in the passage mean ? 421

(A) Injure (B) Bleed (C) Dangerous (D) Hurt (E) None of these

4. Which of the following is possibly NOT a characteristic of the first wife as given in the passage ? (A) Caring (B) Beautiful (C) Thin (D) Loyal (E) All of the above are characteristics of the first wife

5. What fear did the merchant have about his third wife ? (A) That she would kill him (B) That she would not accompany him when he died (C) That she would run away with all his money (D) That she would not look beautiful anymore (E) None of these

6. What explanation did the fourth wife give for not accompanying the merchant when he was dying ? (A) She wanted more money (B) She did not give any explanation (C) She wanted to marry someone else after the merchant’s death (D) She was afraid to go with him (E) None of these

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7. Why did the first wife offer to go with the merchant when he died ? (A) Because she loved him (B) Because she was afraid to stay alone (C) Because she hated the other wives (D) Because she was undernourished and was going to die anyway (E) None of these

8. The author has compared the merchant’s fourth wife to our ……… (A) Soul (B) Wealth (C) Friends (D) Status (E) None of these

9. What does the author have to say about our soul ? (A) That it is well taken care of (B) That it can give us company only till our death (C) That it has been ignored in the chase for worldly pleasures (D) That it belongs to someone else after our death (E) None of these

10. What does the phrase ‘like a bolt of thunder’ used in the passage mean ? (A) like a very bright light (B) like a pleasant feeling (C) like a loud noise (D) like a shock (E) None of these 423

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. adorned (A) spent (B) dressed (C) tried (D) carried (E) necklace

12. showered (A) bestowed (B) cleaned (C) pleased (D) bathed (E) threw

13. lament (A) fear (B) tell (C) grieve (D) care (E) forget

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. considerate

424

(A) ignorant (B) lazy (C) angry (D) thoughtful (E) insensitive

15. furthest (A) longest (B) closest (C) greatest (D) shortest (E) wildest

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in boldin the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. I woke up early in the morning and had a steamer cup of coffee. (A) has a steamer (B) has a steaming (C) had a steaming (D) had a steam (E) No correction required

17. Tired of being harassed by the goons, I finally called the police and complained— (A) in being harassed (B) of being harass (C) in be harassed

425

(D) of be harass (E) No correction required

18. A friendship founded on business is best than a business founded on friendship. (A) is good than (B) is better than (C) is bestest than (D) is better then (E) No correction required

19. Right action cannot came out of nothing, it must be preceded by thought. (A) come out of (B) came out off (C) come off (D) coming out of (E) No correction required

20. One of the base laws of nature is that adaptability is the price of survival. (A) basis laws of (B) basic law of (C) base law of (D) basic laws of (E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be eitherwrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. Theletter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are 426

correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Oportunities (A) multiply (B) when they are seized (C) and die(D) when they are not. All correct (E)

22. He realized (A) he was alone (B) in the house and rushed (C) to bolt (D) all the doors and windows. All correct (E)

23. The information (A) provided (B) to the staff was notadecuate (C) and everyone retaliated. (D) All correct (E)

24. Worried (A) that he will fail in the exams, Satish stayed (B) up the whole kinght (C) and studied. (D) All correct (E)

25. Thomas could not cook (A) very well and thus had to stay (B) food from (C) a restaurant. (D) All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) She eased out something from her waist folds. (2) Maganlal welcomed a customer early in the day. (3) Once visible, Maganlal realized it was a pair of gold bangles. (4) The woman carefully counted the money and then left. (5) He took the bangles and placed some money in the woman’s palm. (6) This customer was a peasant woman wearing a discoloured sari and old anklets.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 427

(B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?

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(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Progress is impossible (A) / without change, and those (B) / who cannot change their minds (C) / cannot change nothing. (D) No error (E)

32. She was allergic (A) / to some medicines (B) / and informed (C) / the doctor about it. (D) No error (E)

33. He walked as faster (A) / as he could so that (B) / he would not (C) / miss the train to work. (D) No error (E)

34. She shared (A) / all her secrets with (B) / Suman as they had been (C) / friends with childhood. (D) No error (E)

35. Gautam did not care (A) / so many about (B) / anything else as much (C) / as he cared for his dog. (D) No error (E)

36. You cannot change (A) / people, but you (B) / can definitely (C) / change own. (D) No error (E)

37. Veena wanted to (A) / become a surgeon (B) / and worked very hardly (C) / to achieve this. (D) No error (E)

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38. Krishna ran to the (A) / nearing grocery store to (B) / buy biscuits as his parents (C) / were expecting guests. (D) No error (E)

39. As soon so (A) / he came home, (B) / he showered and got (C) / ready to go out again. (D) No error (E)

40. She failed to remember (A) / that it was Rema’s birthday (B) / and did not buy (C) / a present for her. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One of the good things that happened to me …(41)… in Patliputra, …(42)… the friendship of the farmer’s daughter. This nine year old girl …(43)… became very fond of me and her parents …(44)… her that she could keep me forever as her toy. She was very good at needlecraft and …(45)… clothes for her doll. In fact, on my first night there and …(46)… the rest of my stay in the farmer’s house, I slept in her doll’s cradle. That first night, they put the cradle on …(47)… of a shelf far away from the danger of rats. As I slowly got to learn their language, I was …(48)… to talk to the girl and let her know my needs and she was able to make me …(49)… comfortable. She made me seven shirts and was my teacher of the language. When I pointed to anything, she would …(50)… it by name, and soon I was able to talk easily with her.

41. (A) waiting (B) truly (C) till (D) still (E) while

42. (A) for

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(B) was (C) because (D) is (E) it

43. (A) soon (B) had (C) was (D) has (E) forever

44. (A) handled (B) worried (C) taught (D) promised (E) carried

45. (A) tore (B) tearing (C) making (D) wore (E) make

46. (A) to (B) as (C) for (D) of (E) if

431

47. (A) bottom (B) top (C) coating (D) height (E) wide

48. (A) possible (B) happiness (C) eagerly (D) able (E) request

49. (A) every (B) thorough (C) total (D) high (E) more

50. (A) call (B) ask (C) throw (D) help (E) hit

1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (E) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (E) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (E) 22. (E) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (D)

432

32. (E) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (E)

41. (E) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (E) 50. (A)

Punjab National Bank - English Language

- January 2009

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

We should recognise the indebtedness of the country to its farm families who toil to safeguard national food security. Loan waiver is the price we have to pay for the neglect of rural India over the past several decades. There has been a gradual decline in investment in key sectors related to agriculture such as infrastructure, marketing, post harvest technology etc. The four crore farmers whose debt is to be relieved will be eligible for institutional credit for their cultivation expenses during Kharif 2008. The challenge is to prevent them from getting into the debt trap again. For this purpose the Central and various State governments should set up an Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium, comprising scientists, panchayat raj officials and others relevant to assisting farmers to improve the profitability and productivity of their farms in an environmentally sustainable manner. The smaller the farm, the greater is the need for marketable surplus to reduce indebtedness.

The Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium should aim to get all the four crore farmers all the benefits of the government schemes such as the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas

433

Yojana, Irrigation Benefit Programme and others. If this is done, every farm family released from the debt trap should be able to produce at least an additional half tonne per hectare of foodgrains. This should help increase food production by about 20 million tonnes by 2008-10. At a time when global and national food stocks are dwindling and prices are rising, this will be atimely gain for our national food security. We need to ensure that the outcome of the debt waiver is enhanced farmers’ income and production. The prevailing gap between potential and actual yields in the crops of rainfed areas such as pulses and oilseeds is over 200 per cent even with the necessary technologies on the shelf. We are now importing without duty large quantities of pulses and oilseeds. If helped, farmers can produce these at a lower cost.

Opportunities for assured and remunerative marketing are essential if loan waiver is not to become a recurring event leading to the destruction of the credit system. This is why the Minimum Support Price is necessary for all, not just for a few crops which is the case at present. This is the single most effective step to make loan waivers history. There is another urgent step which needs to be taken. The loan waiver does not cover those who borrow from moneylenders. It will not be possible for the government to scrutinise the veracity of such private deals but steps can be taken such as giving them Smart Cards which will entitle them to essential inputs like seeds and fertilizers. The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying these farmers so that there is transparency in the process and elimination of the chances for falsification and corruption. Fear of occasional misuse should not come in the way of enabling millions of poor farmers who have borrowed from informal sources if we are to achieve the goal of four per cent growth in agriculture.

1. What is the likely impact of ensuring farmers’ benefit from government schemes ? 1. They can use the credit from these schemes to repay moneylenders. 2. The government can control the price rise. 3. Increased agricultural production. (A) Both 1 and 2 (B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 3

434

(D) Both 2 and 3 (E) None of these

2. Why does the author feel that rural India has been overlooked in the past ? 1. Institutional credit was only made available for Kharif crops. 2. Drop in investment in central areas related to agriculture. 3. Records of those eligible for loan waivers have not been maintained over time. (A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these

3. How can small farmers avoid debt ? (A) They need to acquire additional land holdings (B) They need to take advantage of both government schemes as well as credit from moneylenders (C) They have to ensure a sufficient amount of their farm produce is sold (D) The Government should provide periodic loan waivers (E) None of these

4. What is the objective of the Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium ? (A) It is a support group for the families of indebted farmers (B) It has to devise new government schemes for farmers (C) It has to track farmers eligible for government schemes (D) It has to evaluate government schemes and weed out the inefficient ones 435

(E) None of these

5. What does the author mean by the phrase “indebtedness of the country to its farm families” ? (A) If farmers are in debt it impacts the entire country (B) Citizens should be grateful to farmers and their families for the hardships borne by them to cultivate crops (C) India’s food production has fallen causing it to be in debt since it has to import food (D) The number of farmers’ descendants taking up agriculture has fallen. (E) None of these

6. What is the author’s opinion of recurring loan waivers ? (A) They are beneficial to farmers (B) They are detrimental to the system of lending. (C) They will reduce the need for a Minimum Support Price for agricultural products (D) Farmers will no longer be in debt to moneylenders (E) None of these

7. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ? (A) The Minimum Support Price for agricultural products is yet to be implemented (B) Loan waiver is a permanent solution to indebtedness of farmers (C) Current agricultural growth is below four per cent (D) India’s food production has increased in 2008 (E) Moneylenders benefit from loan waivers

8. Why does the loan waiver not cover credit taken from moneylenders ?

436

1. It is difficult to verify these contracts between farmers and moneylenders. 2. It will increase the deficit in the budget. 3. There is a risk that the funds may be misappropriated. (A) Both 1 and 3 (B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 1 and 2 (E) None of these

9. Why is there a vast gap in actual and potential yields of crops in rainfed areas ? (A) The government prefers to import these crops at a lower rate (B) No technological advances have been made to improve the growth of crops in these areas (C) There is no Minimum Support Price available for these crops (D) Farmers are forced to sell these crops at a low rate (E) None of these

10. How does the government intend to ensure transparency in the Smart card issuance process ? (A) Screening private players involved in the scheme (B) Granting access to those farmers who register with their local moneylenders (C) Providing cards which cannot be forged (D) Regularly rotating members of the gram sabha so there is no corruption (E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

437

11. assured (A) insured (B) definite (C) doubted (D) confident (E) reliance

12. relieved (A) exempted (B) backed (C) supported (D) calmed (E) substituted

13. gap (A) hole (B) break (C) pause (D) difference (E) interruption

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. timely (A) young (B) lately (C) overdue (D) aged

438

(E) slowly

15. elimination (A) authority (B) forgiveness (C) attack (D) provision (E) protection

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correcton is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. In order to control rising prices the government has restricted the export of certain commodities. (A) For control of raised (B) In control of raised (C) To control the rise (D) By controlling rising (E) No correction required

17. Over two crores will be required to renovate the building being damaged during the cyclone. (A) that was damage (B) which was damaged (C) has been damaged (D) been damaged (E) No correction required

18. Small investors often suffer because of delays in getting its grievance redressed. 439

(A) their grievances redressed (B) the grievances redress (C) to redress grievance (D) this grievances redressed (E) No correction required

19. With the failure of the investment bank, the public’s confidence in the banking sector has been how badly shaken. (A) so badly shaken (B) that much shaky (C) badly shaken (D) too badly shaky (E) No correction required

20. A consultant is been appointed to advise us on the viability of the project. (A) appointed (B) has been appointing (C) will be appointed (D) to be appointed (E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) Expansion of retail banking especially has a lot of scope, since retail assets are just 22 per cent of the total banking assets. (2) Where they do not find it viable to open branches they may open satellite offices in these areas. (3) There is tremendous scope for the expansion of banking in India.

440

(4) Banks can also diversify beyond cities to semi-urban and rural areas. (5) In these ways a transition from class banking to mass banking can take place. (6) They can also collaborate with local stakeholders in order to extend microcredit services to those living there.

21. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

22. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

23. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

24. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? 441

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

25. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Decades ago, China …(26)… the concept of ‘barefoot doctors’. They were community healthcare workers who successfully …(27)… the health of China’s villages. Following this example, many African, Asian and Latin American countries have started …(28)… programmes. The largest of such community health efforts is India’s National Rural Health Mission. In …(29)… over three years, the programme has mobilized over fifty thousand new community health workers, each …(30)… as ‘Asha’. This is short for ‘Accredited Social Health Activist’ and translated into Hindi is the word …(31)… hope.

Today technology companies and foundations are also joining the …(32)… to support community health workers. Mobile phone companies are …(33)… these workers with phones and support systems to obtain up to date medical information, call ambulances etc. In the …(34)… years, community health workers can thus help…(35)… the spread of many devastating but curable diseases.

442

26. (A) gives (B) researches (C) introduced (D) originates (E) enlightened

27. (A) improved (B) entrusted (C) fought (D) cured (E) dealt

28. (A) thousands (B) alike (C) imitated (D) similar (E) naming

29. (A) course (B) less (C) approximate (D) period (E) just

30. (A) referred (B) known (C) perceived (D) regarded

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(E) called

31. (A) denotes (B) describes (C) for (D) explains (E) means

32. (A) business (B) membership (C) scope (D) effort (E) purpose

33. (A) provided (B) buying (C) equipped (D) supplied (E) empowering

34. (A) coming (B) next (C) past (D) few (E) previous

35. (A) overlook (B) curb (C) protect

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(D) enrich (E) neglect

Answers : 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (E) 4. (C) 10. (E) 11. (B) 12. 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (C) (E) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A) (A) 20. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (E) 16 (E) (C) 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (E) 24. 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (C)

31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (A) 35. (B)

Oriental Bank of Commerce English Paper on January 2009.
Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Emperor’s brother-in-law was also his Prime Minister and his avourite courtier. He was not liked by the other courtiers as a result. Jealous of the Emperor’s brotherinlaw the courtiers once said, “Your Majesty, why don’t you appoint one of us as Prime Minister ? Subjectus to a test to see who is truly the right person to be Prime Minister.” At the time the Prime Minister was out hunting with another courtier. In pursuit of their prey they mistakenly rode into the neighbouring kingdom. As they were strangers and had weapons they were arrested as spies by the soldiers there and were certain to be sentenced to death by the ruler, King Amir.

The courtier was petrified and bowed his head in prayer. The Prime Minister pretending to be praying whispered something in his ear. The two of them then began arguing. “I should be the one to die first !” each of them said. Those present were astonished to hear their argument. The soldiers brought 445

the two before King Amir. He was astonished to hear of their strange behaviour. “Tell me why you are so eager to die ?” Pretending to be reluctant to reveal the reason the Prime Minister bowed respectfully and said, “Sir, our Emperor has a secret wish of annexing your kingdom. If you kill us the Emperor can attack your kingdom on the pretext of avenging our deaths. The Emperor has also promised us a great reward for our sacrifice. We felt that in case you changed your mind and set one of us free to return home he would not get the reward.” King Amir was worried when he heard this. Concerned that the lives of his subjects would be lost in war, King Amir refused to kill either of the two and sent them home. When they heard about the incident the Emperor’s courtiers bowed their heads. They were ashamed. They realised the Emperor had made a wise choice in selecting his Prime Minister.

1. Why were the courtiers not on good terms with the Emperor’s brother-in-law ? (A) The Emperor used to only heed his brother-in-law’s advice (B) He was cleverer than they were and he would remind them of it (C) He was empowered to take decisions on behalf of the Emperor (D) He had more power and prestige and earned more than they did (E) None of these

2. Why did the Emperor’s two courtiers enter the neighbouring kingdom ? (A) The Emperor had asked them to deliver a message to its king (B) They wanted to spy on the neighbouring kingdom (C) They had accidentally wandered into neighbouring territory (D) The other courtiers had set a trap for them (E) Their curiosity about the kingdom led them to enter it

446

3. Why was the Emperor’s brotherin-law not afraid when faced with death ? 1. He felt that if he told King Amir the truth his life would be spared. 2. He was confident that he would be rescued. 3. He had prayed fervently asking God to save them. (A) None (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) Only 3

4. Which of the following can be said about the Emperor ? (A) He reserved important posts for his family members (B) He had chosen a worthy Prime Minister (C) He was ruthless and wanted to conquer the neighbouring kingdom (D) He treated all his courtiers shabbily except his brother-inlaw (E) He deliberately endangered the lives of his courtiers in order to test them

5. Why did the two courtiers begin to argue with each other ? (A) They wanted to distract the soldiers so they could escape (B) It was a delaying tactics till they were rescued (C) They blamed each other for the predicament they were in (D) The Prime Minister wanted to stop the other courtier from divulging the Emperor’s plan to the enemy (E) None of these

6. What surprised King Amir about the courtiers’ behaviour ?

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1. They were very respectful to him although he had condemned them to death. 2. Each was volunteering to be killed first. 3. They had managed to convince the soldiers to set them free. (A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 (E) None of these

7. Why did King Amir set the two courtiers free ? (A) He believed their story that the Emperor was planning to attack (B) He had great respect for their courage (C) He had ascertained they were not spies so he set them free (D) He was impressed by the wisdom of the Emperor’s courtiers (E) None of these

8. Which of the following does not describe the Emperor’s reaction to the courtiers’ request to appoint one of them as Prime Minister ? 1. He thought about asking his brother-in-law to resign. 2. He tested his brother-in-law to prove he was best suited for the post of Prime Minister. 3. He disregarded it completely and punished the courtiers. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 (C) Both 1 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these

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9. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ? (A) King Amir was concerned about the welfare of his people (B) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw had enemies at court (C) King Amir set the Emperor’s brother-in-law free on account of his bravery (D) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw was deserving of the post of Prime Minister (E) The Prime Minister was a quick thinker

10. What was the courtiers’ reaction when they heard about the Prime Minister’s safe return ? (A) They were disappointed because their plan had failed (B) They were ashamed of their plot to kill him (C) They were upset to hear about his bad experience (D) They bowed in respect and praised his wisdom (E) None of these

Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. subject (A) topic (B) undergo (C) expose (D) citizen (E) accountable

12. pretext (A) excuse

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(B) guess (C) crime (D) example (E) fraud

13. petrified (A) panic (B) scared (C) feared (D) alarming (E) terror

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most oppositein meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. right (A) immoral (B) unsuitable (C) inaccurate (D) inconvenient (E) error

15. reveal (A) secret (B) darken (C) disclose (D) hide (E) invisible

450

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. In these circumstances, they will not be able to meet the assign target to them. (A) targeted assignment (B) assigned target (C) assigning of target (D) target assigned (E) No correction required

17. Banks must be ensured that 18 per cent of their loans is given to the agricultural sector. (A) are ensured (B) have to ensure (C) being ensured (D) should be ensured (E) No correction required

18. The government has announced several initiatives benefiting to factory workers. (A) beneficial (B) for benefiting to (C) which will benefit (D) benefited to (E) No correction required

19. A date for the committee meeting to discuss the details of the proposal has yet to be decided. (A) will be yet decided 451

(B) is been decided yet (C) have not been still decided (D) is not yet been decided (E) No correction required

20. With the raining heavily the multi-storey office building was badly damaged and collapsed. (A) Owing to the heavy rains (B) Because of raining heavily (C) Since heavily it rained (D) In raining heavily (E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed inbold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Since petroleum products are taxed (A) heavily they are a majar(B) source (C) of revenue (D) for the government. All correct (E)

22. Even though the proposal appearrs (A) practical (B) the committee should discuss (C) it at length. (D) All correct (E)

23. The Indian stock market has been one of the well (A)performing (B) markets globally (C) during the current (D) year. All correct (E)

24. Had the scheme been allowed (A) to continue (B) it would havegenerated (C) attracted (D) returns. All correct (E) 452

25. People should constantly (A) upgrade their skills (B) in order to be effective (C) and efficient. (D) All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. 1. With all this experimentation he incurred an expenditure of over a million dollars before success smiled on him. 2. Edison invented the long lasting electric light bulb. 3. To find a fibre to burn inside a bulb he experimented with over two thousand items. 4. We thus owe the miracle of light as much to his perseverance as to his genius. 5. However he did not invent it overnight. 6. His friends too travelled all over the world from South America to India in search of a suitable fibre.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4

453

(D) 5 (E) 6

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31 to 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

454

31. Senior citizens prefer (A) / banks which (B) / branches are located (C) / near their homes. (D) No error (E)

32. In the latest statistics (A) / China supplies more than (B) / ninety per cent of the (C) / steel imported by India. (D) No error (E)

33. We shall be calling a meeting (A) / next week to assess (B) / the causes of frequently (C) / delays in infrastructure projects. (D) No error (E)

34. Although it has received (A) / clearance from RBI the bank (B) / has decided not to open (C) / their office in Hongkong. (D) No error (E)

35. Most of the tribals (A) / in the region (B) / are depended on the forest (C) / to earn their livelihoods. (D) No error (E)

36. After graduating from college (A) / having an engineering degree (B) / he received a job offer (C) / from a reputed American firm. (D) No error (E)

37. In order for (A) / the scheme to be (B) / successful we require as (C) / much as twenty investors. (D) No error (E)

38. The insurance company has plans (A) / to hire 30,000 agents (B) / at a time when (C) / most companies are cutting jobs. (D) No error (E)

39. One of the important lesson (A) / he taught me was to save (B) / at least thirty per cent (C) / of my gross income. (D) No error (E)

40. Due to the financial crisis (A) / the price of foodgrains (B) / has risen sharply (C) / over the past few months. (D) No error (E)

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Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day an expert in time management was …(41)… to a group of business management students and to drive home a point he used and …(42)… they will never forget. As he stood in front of a group of brilliant students he said, “Okay it’s …(43)… for a quiz.” He then pulled out a one gallon jar and set it on the table in front of him. He also …(44)… a dozen fist sized rocks and carefully placed them one at a time into the jar. When the jar was filled to the top and …(45)… more rocks would fit inside, he asked, “Is the jar full ?” Everyone in the class …(46)… said ‘Yes!’

The professor said nothing. He then …(47)… under the table and pulled out a bucket of gravel. He dumped some gravel into the jar and shook it …(48)… pieces of gravel to work themselves down into the spaces between the big rocks. He asked the group once more, “Is the jar full ?” ‘Probably not.’ some answered. ‘Good !’ he said and began…(49)… sand to the contents in the jar. The sand fitted into the spaces between the rocks and gravel. He also poured water into the jar. “What was the point of this exercise ?” he asked. “The point is that no matter how busy your schedule is you can always manage to fit something in.” replied one student. ‘No’ said the professor, “The truth is if you don’t fit in the rocks which symbolize the …(50)…things in your life like your family and your dreams first, you’ll never have time for them.”

41. (A) addressing (B) conveying (C) speaking (D) discussing (E) expressing

42. (A) imagination (B) impression (C) expression 456

(D) emblem (E) illustration

43. (A) ready (B) usual (C) opportunity (D) time (E) scheduled

44. (A) made (B) produced (C) dug (D) constructed (E) ploughed

45. (A) any (B) no (C) few (D) some (E) much

46. (A) definite (B) forcibly (C) convince (D) positive (E) emphatically

47. (A) reached (B) hid

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(C) gone (D) searching (E) found

48. (A) making (B) until (C) causing (D) while (E) resulting

49. (A) filling (B) pushing (C) substituting (D) adding (E) stuffing

50. (A) important (B) necessarily (C) vitally (D) ideal (E) expensive

Answers from 26 to 50 are as follows:

1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (E) 20. (A) 21. (C) 36. (D) (B) 29. (B) 44. 22. (E) 37. (B) (A) 30. (D) 45. 23. (C) 38. (B) (E) 31. (D) 46. 24. (B) 39. (E) (D) 32. (A) 47. 25. (A) 40. (A) (E) 33. (A) 48. 26. (C) 41. (C) (B) 34. (C) 49. 27. (D) 42. (D) (D) 35. (E) 50. 28. (C) 43. (A) 458

English Language - Bank of India Clerk Exam -2008
Join our Orkut Community & Share Bank Exam tips / Model papers

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in batttle. The elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory, gold and precious stones taken from the conquered kingdom of Karnat. They would be a part of the victory parade for his subjects. On his way back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to the goddess and turned to leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester were his only companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by the wayside, they spied some children play. The King said, “Let me go and see what they are playing.”

The children had lined up two rows of clay dolls and were playing warriors and battles. The King asked, “Who is fighting whom ?” They said, “Karnat is at battle with Kanchi.” The King asked, “Who is winning and who is the loser ?” The children puffed their chests up and said, “Karnat will win and Kanchi will lose.” The Minister froze in disbelief, the King was furious and the jester burst into laughter.

The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still immersed in their game. The King commanded, “Cane them hard.” The children’s parents came running from the nearby village and said, “They are naive, it was just a game, please grant them pardon.” The King called his commander and ordered, “Teach these children and the village a lesson so that they never forget the King of Kanchi.” He went back to his camp. 459

That evening the Commander stood before the King. He bowed low in shame and said, “Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas and vultures, all lie silent in the village.” The Minister said, “His Majesty’s honour has been saved.” The priest said, “The goddess has blessed our King.” The jester said, “Your Highness, please grant me leave to go now.” The King asked, “But why ?” The jester said, “I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God’s gift of life.” Trembling in the face of the king’s anger he bravely continued, “If I stay in your Majesty’s court, I shall become like you and I shall forget how to laugh.”

1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ? (A) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward (B) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious (C) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his kingdom as a sign of victory (D) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler (E) None of these

2. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ? (A) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious (B) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple (C) To show other devotees that he was king (D) The priest requested him to do so (E) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple

3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ? 1. He was not a loyal subject of the king. 2. He was afraid of the king’s temper. 3. He did not support the king’s war against Karnat. 460

(A) Both 1 and 3 (B) Only 1 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these

4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ? (A) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes (B) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle (C) They were upset that their army had lost (D) They were in the habit of lying (E) None of these

5. Why did the jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ? 1. They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle. 2. Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king. 3. He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the king. (A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) None of these

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ? (A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered (B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for the king

461

(C) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the children (D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat (E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple

7. Why did the jester resign from his post ? (A) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister (B) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children (C) He did not want to accompany the king on his war campaign (D) He was no longer able to make the king laugh (E) None of these

8. Which of the following describes the Minister ? 1. He was jealous of the jester. 2. He was the king’s most valuable advisor. 3. He did not have a good sense of humour. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 (C) Both 1 and 3 (D) Both 1 and 2 (E) None of these

9. Which of the following was/were the outcome(s) of the soldiers beating the children ? 1. The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers. 2. The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy. 3. The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple. (A) Only 1 462

(B) All 1, 2 and 3 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Only 2 (E) None of these

10. Why was the king angry with the children ? (A) Because the game they were playing was dangerous (B) They had lied to him (C) They did not recognize him as king (D) They had unknowingly insulted him (E) They were rude to him

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. froze (A) cold (B) numb (C) shivered (D) stood still (E) chill

12. leave (A) holiday (B) transfer (C) exit (D) permission (E) farewell

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13. spied (A) noticed (B) keep watch (C) followed (D) spot (E) caught

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. immersed in (A) safe from (B) distracted from (C) boring (D) drowning in (E) entertained by

15. pardon (A) punishment (B) excuse (C) convict (D) intolerance (E) imprison

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

464

16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work. (A) is dependable (B) depends on (C) being dependent (D) going to depend (E) No correction required

17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job. (A) was fearful of (B) was feared to (C) was afraid to (D) had been afraid to (E) No correction required

18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants. (A) any of the place convenient (B) at places convenient (C) from a place of convenience (D) to a place convenient (E) No correction required

19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates. (A) sharper rise of (B) as sharp a rise (C) sharp rises in (D) sharply rising (E) No correction required

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20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI. (A) were required to submit (B) required for submission (C) are required to submit (D) requirement of submitting (E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—

1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I came to the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?

2. ‘Yes’, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are significant even if all you do is greet them.”

3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?

4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.

5. I have never forgotten this lesson.

6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would count for assessment.

21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1

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(B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6 (E) 5

23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

467

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. ‘All correct’.

26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the organization. All correct (E)

27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern (D) . All correct (E)

28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents (D) in the long run. All correct (E)

29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done strictly (C) on merit (D). All correct (E)

30. There will be a decline (A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike (C) in oil prices (D). All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

468

31. The revised government’s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers (C) / taking place among banks. (D) No error (E)

32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No error (E)

33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C) / many cultural programmes. (D) No error (E)

34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from RBI. (D) No error (E)

35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products and(C) /efficient managing staff. (D) No error (E)

36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily (C) / than we expected. (D) No error (E)

37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease his boss. (D) No error (E)

38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre of petrol that they sell. (D) No error (E)

39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary true. (D) No error (E)

40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing management. (D) No error (E)

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Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one. As a leader, he …(41)… the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never …(42)… focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. …(43)… to everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in …(44)… time. He was …(45)… that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was …(46)… the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich …(47)… when the plant was commissioned.

Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(48)… all his senior people to be ‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of Management, which allows its professors to …(49)… their own business. This made their lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the …(50)… of the Institute’s success.

41. (A) achieved (B) implemented (C) visualised (D) persevered (E) aimed

42. (A) moved (B) shifts (C) missed (D) changes (E) lost

43. (A) Contrary (B) Opposite

470

(C) Yet (D) Obedient (E) Different

44. (A) any (B) mean (C) short (D) no (E) less

45. (A) known (B) calculating (C) certain (D) dreamt (E) surely

46. (A) operational (B) install (C) use (D) produced (E) new

47. (A) supply (B) diversity (C) rewards (D) pay (E) knowledge

48. (A) thought

471

(B) tried (C) wished (D) encourage (E) wanted

49. (A) expand (B) function (C) chose (D) run (E) risk

50. (A) responsibility (B) secret (C) guarantee (D) prize (E) value

Answers with Hints

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (A) 21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) Correct spelling is ‘goal’. 27. (C) Correct spelling is ‘cause’. 28. (D) Correct spelling is ‘dividends’. 29. (E) 30. (B)

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31. (A) Write ‘the government’s revised’. 32. (B) Write ‘which of the’. 33. (C) Write ‘the government is organizing’. 34. (C) Write ‘without obtaining’. 35. (D) Write ‘efficient managerial staff’. 36. (C) Change ‘very easily’ to ‘more easily’. 37. (C) Write ‘even though it would’. 38. (C) Write ‘each in place of ‘all’. 39. (D) Write ‘necessarily true’. 40. (B) Delete ‘my’. 41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)

Andhra Bank – English Language Test held on June 2009 ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST:
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The great sage once had a group of disciples. They were all very bright and eager students and the sage had all the reasons to be proud of them. One day the sage realized that he had imparted enough knowledge to his disciples. Now they were all very learned. There was only one thing the sage had not taught them, and that was the special verse that could bring the dead back to life. The sage knew that such knowledge was too wonderful and could prove to be a dangerous thing in the hands of someone who was not very wise. The sage pondered over this for a long time. But he also knew that if he did not pass on this secret verse, it could die with him. So, at last he called his cleverest

473

disciple aside and said “I am going to teach you a very special verse. If you chant this you can bring to life a dead person or animal. Use only when you need it to and never misuse or test your powers vainly.” He then called all the disciples together and said, “I am sending you all into the forest for forty days. Go together and come back together. Each one of you has to guide one another and do good things.”

So the disciples started out together into the forest. They were all united. But the clever disciple who knew the verse wanted to show he was better than the others. As they walked into the forest, they came across a dead tiger on the way. It was huge and looked wickedly fierce even when dead. The clever disciple stopped and said to the others. “Now I am going to show you what our teacher has taught me alone. He has taught me how to bring life back into the dead.” The others would not believe him and he said, “I would prove it to you by bringing this tiger back to life. “But other disciple said “do not do anything to prove your knowledge vainly. Moreover, if you put life into this tiger, it will only turn on us and kill us all. This will not be a wise thing to do.”

But the clever disciple had decided to prove himself and prepared to recite the verse. But before he did so, the other disciples scrambled up to the topmost branches of a big tree nearby. The disciple then recited the magical verse. The tiger slowly began to breathe. “Its working” cried the disciple in excitement and joy. The tiger opened its eyes and saw him jumping and shouting in front of him. Roaring loudly, the tiger pounced on the poor disciple and killed him.

The other disciples on the tree watched helplessly as the tiger threw down the dead body of the disciple and went away into the forest. After some time the disciples came down, took the body and went to the sage. The sage looked at them and said, “Now you see what can happen if you don’t use your learning wisely. Let this be a lesson for you.” With that, the sage uttered the magic verse and brought the dead disciple back to life. The sage then taught the verse to all his disciples and sent them into the world to do good. He was sure that after such a lesson, they would be wiser and use their knowledge and learning only for doing good.

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1. Why did the other disciples climb the highest branches of the nearby tree ? (A) To save their lives from the tiger (B) They disliked the clever disciple and were hiding away from him (C) To enjoy watching the tiger kill the disciple from a safe distance (D) Because the sage had not taught the other disciples the secret verse (E) None of these

2. Why did the sage send his disciples to the forest ? (A) He wanted to get rid of them (B) He had imparted all the knowledge he had and was left with nothing to teach (C) He wanted them to be killed by a tiger so that he could test his secret verse (D) So that the disciples could practice his secret verse on the wild animals (E) None of these

3. Which of the following morals can be drawn from the above passage ? (A) A teacher must pass on all his knowledge to others before he dies (B) Advice of true friends should always be taken (C) Teachers should always be impartial and should impart knowledge to all uniformly (D) The knowledge and learning gained should never the misused (E) None of these

4. Why did the sage decide to pass on his secret verse to his disciples ?

475

(A) So that the cleverest of the disciples may teach other disciples as well (B) He did not want the verse to die with him (C) So that the tiger may eat the cleverest disciple (D) So that he could prove his genius to his disciples (E) None of these

5. What did the sage say to his disciple while teaching his secret verse ? (A) Never to misuse the power achieved with the help of the verse (B) Not to use it on the wild animals (C) Not to share it with other disciples (D) To practice it on animals before humans (E) None of these

6. How did the other disciples react when the clever disciple decided to bring the tiger back to life ? (A) They felt jealous of him (B) They all felt that it was a wise thing to do (C) They felt sorry for the tiger (D) They tried to stop him as he could put their lives in danger (E) None of these

7. Why was the sage proud of his disciples ? (A) Because they had agreed to go to the forest for a long period of 40 days (B) Because they had fought against the tiger very bravely (C) Because they could bring the dead tiger back to life (D) Because they were very bright and eager students (E) None of these

476

8. Who/what is described as wicked and fierce by the author ? (A) The clever disciple (B) The sage (C) The tiger (D) The forest (E) None of these

9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ? (A) The clever disciple was brought back to life by the sage (B) The sage wanted his disciples to use their learning only for doing good (C) The sage was biased towards the clever disciple and disliked others (D) The sage ultimately taught the secret verse to all his disciples (E) All are true

10. Why did the clever disciple recite the verse to the dead tiger ? (A) So that the other disciples may be eaten up by the tiger (B) To flaunt the power of the verse to the other disciples (C) Because the sage told him to do so (D) So that he could himself to the sage (E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. pondered

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(A) guessed (B) puzzled (C) studied (D) thought (E) attended

12. pounced (A) climbed (B) looked (C) roared (D) plunged (E) jumped

13. cried (A) wept (B) screamed (C) protested (D) tearful (E) saddened

Directions—(Q. 14 –15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in boldas used in the passage.

14. bright (A) dim (B) soft (C) dull (D) faint (E) vague

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15. fierce (A) timid (B) emotional (C) civilized (D) pleased (E) domesticated

Directions—(Q. 16 –20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentences should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No Correction is Required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. He wants a start a new business but he did not have any money. (A) Thought to start (B) Want to started (C) Wanted to start (D) Wants for start (E) No Correction Required

17. As Rohan was already late, he had his breakfast while walk down the road. (A) walking down the (B) walking at the (C) walked on the (D) walked down the (E) No Correction Required

18. The poor bullock do not move since the cart was overloaded with heavy goods. 479

(A) can not move (B) unable to move (C) was not moved (D) could not move (E) No Correction Required

19. He covered the expensive furniture at sheet before he started painting the ceiling. (A) with sheet ahead (B) with sheet before (C) in sheet prior (D) in sheet earlier (E) No Correction Required

20. The smoke if inhaled proves to be more fatal than the burn itself. (A) be most fatal (B) kill more fatal (C) be additional fatal (D) be greater fatal (E) No Correction Required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentences with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriatein the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Indian peoples (A) invest (B) as much (C) in gold as in bank savings accounts. (D) All correct (E)

480

22. The issues (A) of hunger and poorty (B) are left behind (C) as we have progressed (D) in technology. All correct (E)

23. Rajan would (A) pick (B) up his children from (C) the school and superwise (D) their homework. All correct (E)

24. A good (A) leader is of prime (B) importance for develop (C) of any organisation. (D) All correct (E)

25. The milk vendor (A) studied hard (B) for four years before topped (C) the national level (D) exam. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them— 1. The emperor was impressed with me and rewarded me suitably. 2. He then asked me to make it shorter without erasing its ends. 3. One fine day the king decided to test my intelligence. 4. By doing so, I could make the line shorter without erasing the ends. 5. After thinking over it for some time, I drew longer lines on both the ends of the line that the emperor had drawn. 6. He drew a line on the floor with the help of a chalk

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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(E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3

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(D) 4 (E) 5

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. She considered herself (A) / very fortunate to (B) / have had a (C) / very good education. (D) No error (E)

32. A lot number of people (A) / donate money to the organisation (B) / at this time (C) / of the year. (D) No error (E)

33. The leader of the opposition (A) / is in the danger (B) / of lost his seat (C) / in the next elections. (D) No error (E)

34. He is the same (A) / ice-cream vendor (B) / which sold ice-creams (C) / when we were kids. (D) No error (E)

35. The police received (A) / tremendous support from (B) / the general public (C) / over that issue. (D) No error (E)

36. I have bought for my sister (A) / a bottle of perfume (B) / on her birthday (C) / and I hope she liked it. (D) No error (E)

37. Throughout his tenure (A) / at the office he (B) / have proven himself to be a (C) / talented and hard-working employee. (D) No error (E)

38. The committee did not (A) / approve the plan (B) / since it were (C) / neither practical nor efficient. (D) No error (E)

483

39. The bus driver drove rashly (A) / and we had (B) / a narrow escape (C) / on a number of occasions. (D) No error (E)

40. He never remember (A) / to pick up the (B) / milk bottles while (C) / picking up the newspaper. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Thesenumbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The visit to the planet earth museum is always exciting and teaches some interesting …(41)… about the world we live in.

Forests are home to nearly half of the world’s plants and animals. Trees clean the air and …(42)… oxygen for us to breathe. Everyday we cut …(43)… trees and destroy more than 36 football fields of forests.

Rivers collect rainwater and …(44)… it to the oceans. Farms and factories pollute the rivers with pesticides and chemicals. This is harmful to the marine animals and the humans …(45)… drink it.

At the opposite ends of the worlds, Arctic and the Antarctic are freezing cold. So cold that they are …(46)… covered in ice. The fuel we use makes the climate …(47)… It melts the ice and the water level rises which …(48)… to floods.

Out planet is …(49)…. We must conserve it by using as much renewable sources of energy as possible. Every individual must play his part to …(50)… to the protection of the environment.

41. (A) concept

484

(B) observation (C) facts (D) experience (E) struggles

42. (A) take (B) acquire (C) display (D) filter (E) produce

43. (A) down (B) lots (C) much (D) through (E) thousands

44. (A) throw (B) dispenses (C) merges (D) carry (E) combines

45. (A) which (B) who (C) whom (D) that (E) those

485

46. (A) never (B) once (C) most (D) equally (E) always

47. (A) colder (B) uncomfortable (C) heated (D) warmer (E) burning

48. (A) leads (B) results (C) leading (D) grows (E) develop

49. (A) indestructible (B) intense (C) precious (D) expensive (E) lavish

50. (A) help (B) contribute (C) afford (D) result (E) leading

486

Answers : 1. (A), 2. (E) ,3. (D), 4. (B), 5. (A) ,6. (D) ,7. (D) ,8. (C) ,9. (C) ,10. (B). 11. (D) ,

12. (E) ,13. (B) 14. (C) ,15. (A). 16. (C), 17. (A), 18. (D), 19. (B),

20. (E) 21. (A), 22. (B) ,23. (D), 24. (C) ,25. (E) 26. (C) ,27. (E) ,

28. (B) ,29. (D), 30. (A) 31. (B) ,32. (A), 33. (C), 34. (C) ,35. (E),

36. (D) ,37. (C) ,38. (C) ,39. (E), 40. (A). (E) ,43. (A),

41. (C), 42.

44. (D), 45. (B) ,46. (E) ,47. (D), 48. (B) ,49. (C), 50. (A)

English Language - Dena Bank Clerk Exam - March-2009.
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Bhaskar was a wealthy, wordly wise merchant. On his deathbed, he called his only son, Nakul, and gave him some advice. “When you do business and travel to an unknown land, make sure you know the local culture well. Try to gain as much information as you can. This and presence of mind will come to your rescue.” Bhaskar died a few days later and Nakul began looking after the business. Once, he travelled by ship to a distant country where he stayed at an inn. He 487

began talking to the owner and ended up telling him all about his life and the business had come to conduct.

The following day, Nakul was heading to the bustling market when a one armed man rushed up to him and said, “Your father took one of my arms as a loan. You must return it to me.” Not knowing what to do, Nakul asked the man to meet him the next day. A little later, a woman came upto Nakul and said, “Your father married me and would send me money every month. This responsibility is now yours.” Again Nakul asked for a day’s respite and walked on. On the way he stopped at a tavern and ate breakfast. While paying for his meal the owner said, “The only payment I want is for you to make me happy.” Though he had to pay only two coins, Nakul gave the man five, but the man still maintained that he was unhappy. That evening Nakul met a man who invited him to a game of dice. Unaware they were playing with a trick dice, he lost every game. The winner set him an unusual condition, “Drink all the water in the sea or give me all the goods on your ship.” Nakul said he would give him his decision the next day. That night as Nakul lay on his bed, he remembered his father’s words, “In a foreign land only your wits will come to your aid.”

The next morning, as soon as he reached the marketplace, the one armed man appeared. Nakul smiled when he saw him and said, “My father took many such loans and our house is full of hands. I shall take your other arm, find the matching one and repay you.” The man ran away petrified. He then approached the woman who claimed to have been married to his father. “My father was wrong not to tell us about you. Come home with me and help my mother in the fields.” The woman left without a word. Next, Nakul went to the tavern and standing outside shouted, “Hail the King ! Your king is great !” “I am happy to hear you say that”, was the only response the tavern owner could give.“ If you are happy,” continued Nakul, “I have paid for my meal.” Nakul then sought out the man who had won at dice the previous night. “I shall gladly drink all the water in the sea provided you bring me the water in jugs.” The man made a quick getaway when he heard this. Nakul returned home after conducting much business. He was far richer in wisdom too.

1. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ? (1) Nakul preferred sailing to working in the fields with his mother.

488

(2) Bhaskar’s second wife was a greedy woman. (3) Bhaskar did not have faith in Nakul’s ability to successfully run the business. (A) None (B) Only (1) (C) Both (1) & (3) (D) Both (2) & (3) (E) Only (2)

2. Why did Nakul visit a far-away country ? (A) It was his father’s final request (B) To acquire knowledge about a different culture (C) To mee some of his father’s acquaintances (D) To trade and do business (E) None of these

3. How did Nakul manage to deal with the people who tried to swindle him ? (1) His father provided him with the solution in a dream. (2) He threatened them with dire punishment. (3) He gave into their demands and paid them off. (A) None (B) Only (2) (C) Only (3) (D) Both (1) & (2) (E) None of these

4. Why wasn’t Nakul able to win any of the games while gambling ? (A) He was not a skilful player (B) He was distracted while playing 489

(C) The other players were cheating with a trick dice (D) He was not well versed with local rules (E) None of these

5. Which of the following best describes the one armed man’s reaction when he met Nakul for the second time ? (A) He was upset because Nakul refused to honour the debt his father owed him (B) He was angry at Nakul for laughing at his plight (C) He was frightened since Nakul had threatened to cut-off his remaining arm (D) He was worried about what action Nakul would take against him for trying to cheat him (E) He admired Nakul for outwitting him.

6. Why did Nakul confide in the innkeeper ? (A) The innkeeper was an old friend of his father (B) He was drunk and unaware he was confiding in a stranger (C) He was still upset by his father’s death and wanted to talk to someone (D) By confiding in the innkeeper he hoped to get information about the local customs (E) None of these

7. Why did Nakul pay the tavern owner five coins instead of two ? (A) Not being familiar with the foreign currency he made a mistake (B) Nakul did not have the exact change (C) He left a tip to show his appreciation for a good meal (D) He thought the extra money would make the innkeeper happy (E) He wanted to create a favourable impression

490

8. Which of the following can be said about Nakul’s father ? (A) He was adventurous and had travelled all over the world (B) He was rich and experienced in the ways of the world (C) He was prosperous because he had duped a lot of people (D) He favoured Nakul among all his children (E) He was poor and knew about various cultures

9. Why did Nakul have a good opinion of the King of the faraway country ? (1) He encouraged trade and his subjects were prosperous. (2) He ensured that visitors were treated with hospitality. (3) There were many facilities for entertainment there. (A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Both (1) & (3) (D) Only (3) (E) None of these

10. What was Nakul’s overall experience in the far-away country ? (A) It was an unpleasant one and he decided it would be his last trip (B) It was a profitable one and he learnt a lot (C) It was stressful and he was glad to return home (D) It was sad since people kept recounting memories of his father (E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR inEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. conduct 491

(A) behaviour (B) handle (C) action (D) habits (E) guide

12. respite (A) stop (B) part (C) delay (D) rest (E) relax

13. unknown (A) undecided (B) anonymous (C) renowned (D) unidentified (E) unfamiliar

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITEin MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. appeared (A) evaporated (B) died (C) invisible (D) vanished (E) faded

492

15. matching (A) duplicate (B) dissimilar (C) original (D) identical (E) single

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e., ‘All Correct.’

16. To find a solution (A) to the problem, we met (B) daily after work and contributed (C) our ideals. (D) All Correct (E)

17. After the presentation (A) it was clearly (B) that they were notinterested (C) in financing (D) the project. All Correct (E)

18. In my opinion it will be difficult (A) to persuade (B) the employees to accept (C) these changes (D) in the rules. All Correct (E)

19. This is the first time that he has been selected (A) to give aspeech (B) at the anual (C) conference. (D) All Correct (E)

20. Inspite of my attempts (A) to encourage (B) him to continue(C) studying (D) he decided to take up a job All Correct (E)

493

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) At seventy-eight her fingers became too stiff to hold a needle so she began painting. (2) I decided to tell this boy the story of Ann Moses. (3) “She began a career at eighty, so if you believe in yourself anything is possible.” I ended. (4) At the age of twenty-seven, a boy was discouraged about his career. (5) She struggled hard to raise five children by doing embroidery and working on a farm. (6) She went on to paint over 2,000 pictures which became famous.

21. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E) (6)

22. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5)

23. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?

494

(A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5)

24. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E) (6)

25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (5) (E) (6)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of (D) given below should replace the following sentence to make meaningful and correct. If the and No Correction is Required,

the phrases (A), (B) (C) and the phrase given in bold in the sentence grammatically sentence is correct as it is mark (E) as the answer.

26. During the meeting he discussed each of the suggestions andhow they are could be implemented. (A) that they are (B) why they could (C) how it could 495

(D) when there can (E) No Correction Required

27. When he finished his studies, there was a lot of pressure by him joining our family business. (A) on him joining (B) in his joining (C) on him to join (D) joining (E) No Correction Required

28. It is disappointment that the majority of farmers who took loans last year have failed to repay them. (A) is disappointment in (B) is disappointing that (C) is to disappoint (D) has disappointed to (E) No Correction Required

29. When I studied engineering thirty years ago, there was less asten female students in my class. (A) were smaller than (B) was little as (C) was lower than (D) were less than (E) No Correction Required

30. Once the manager approves the plans, it was easy convincedthe rest of the team. (A) was easily convinced (B) will be easy to convince

496

(C) has easily convinced (D) being easy to convince (E) No Correction Required

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. It is sad that in (A) / our country education is (B) / available only to those (C) / whom can afford it. (D) No Error (E)

32. I was determined (A) / to learn everything (B) / I could from the people (C) / off the village. (D) No Error (E)

33. During the holidays (A) / I am often worked (B) / in my uncle’s shop to (C) / earn some pocket money. (D) No Error (E)

34. Most banks did not taken (A) / her plan to set up (B) / a factory in (C) / the area seriously. (D) No Error (E)

35. Every year we have (A) / a function where (B) / the children of our staff (C) / is awarded scholarships. (D) No Error (E)

36. Many of the funds (A) / I needed to buy (B) / my own house were (C) / given by my father. (D) No Error (E)

37. Since he was from (A) / the district and able to (B) / speak the language locally, (C) / they trusted him. (D) No Error (E)

497

38. Every month he would (A) / meet the employees to (B) / discuss their problems (C) / and answer their questions. (D) No Error (E)

39. I had to work full time (A) / so I could not devote (B) / as much time as (C) / I wanted to playing cricket. (D) No Error (E)

40. He did not even (A) / have no property (B) / to sell to (C) / cover his losses. (D) No Error (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I was born and …(41)… up in a village by my grandparents. We had two granaries to …(42)… the rice that we grew. …(43)… the better quality ‘white’ rice was kept in the granary in the front of the house, the …(44)… quality ‘red’ rice was kept in the granary at the back. We never had …(45)… money in the house, so those who came to ask for alms were given rice. My grandmother would send me to the front granary to bring rice for them, but when she cooked for …(46)… of us she would use the red rice. I was …(47)… by her behaviour.

One day, I asked her why she did this ? She …(48)… and said something I will never forget. “…(49)… whenever you give something to somebody, give the best in you, never the second best.” …(50)… director of a foundation, if I help people today, it is because of this lesson she taught me.

41. (A) raised (B) adopted (C) grown (D) brought (E) grew

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42. (A) pick (B) save (C) supply (D) cultivate (E) store

43. (A) Instead (B) While (C) Yet (D) Therefore (E) For

44. (A) less (B) worse (C) defective (D) inferior (E) best

45. (A) plenty (B) vast (C) lots (D) sufficiently (E) much

46. (A) all (B) remaining (C) gathering (D) none

499

(E) those

47. (A) puzzled (B) confusing (C) worrying (D) frightened (E) angry

48. (A) pleased (B) shouted (C) smiled (D) advised (E) hugged

49. (A) remember (B) pray (C) memorise (D) think (E) appeal

50. (A) when (B) since (C) only (D) perhaps (E) as

Answers

500

1. (E) 2. (D) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (E) 13. (E) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (D) Change ‘ideals’ to ‘ideas’. 17. (B) Change ‘clearly’ to ‘clear’. 18. (E) 19. (C) Change ‘anual’ to ‘annual’. 20. (D) Change ‘studying’ to ‘study’. 21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) Change ‘how they are could ‘to’ how it ‘could’. 27. (C) Change ‘by him joining’ to ‘on him to join’. 28. (B) Change ‘is disappointment that’ to ‘is disappointing that’. 29. (D) Change ‘was less as’ to ‘were less then’ 30. (B) Change ‘was easy convinced’ to ‘will be easy to convince’. 31. (D) Change ‘whom’ to ‘who’ 32. (D) Change ‘off’ to ‘of’. 33. (B) Change ‘am often worked’ to ‘often work’. 34. (A) Change ‘did not taken’ to ‘did not take’. 35. (D) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’. 36. (A) Change ‘Many’ to ‘Most’. 37. (C) Change ‘the language locally’ to ‘the local language’. 38. (E) 39. (D) Change ‘playing’ to ‘to play’. 40. (A) Delete ‘did not’ It is redundant. 41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (E)

Economic and Banking General Awarness 2009 GK
1. Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2007 has replaced— (A) VAT 501

(B) MRTPC (C) Securities Contracts (Regulation) Bill, 2005 (D) Electricity Act, 2003

2. A bill has been introduced in the Parliament to raise SBI authorised capital from Rs. 20 crore to— (A) Rs. 50 crore (B) Rs. 1000 crore (C) Rs. 2000 crore (D) Rs. 5000 crore 3. The total Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during 2008-09 has been targeted at— (A) $ 25 billion (B) $ 35 billion (C) $ 45 billion (D) $ 50 billion 4. National Electricity Policy envisages elimination of power shortage by 2012 through addition of …… during 10th and 11th plan periods. (A) 50000 MW (B) 75000 MW (C) 100000 MW (D) 125000 MW 5. ‘Priyadarshini Project’ is related to— (A) Empowerment of Rural women (B) Survival of Girl Child (C) Free Education to all girls (D) None of the above 6. ‘Pratibha Kiran Yojana’ is a new scheme to promote higher education among girls introduced by— (A) Karnataka (B) Bihar (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh 7. To which service, the government has notified Service Tax Refund Scheme for exporter ? (A) Port services (B) Railway service (C) Road service (D) All of these 8. ‘Laadli Laxmi Yojana’ has been launched by………government for supporting 502

girls of all religion and caste upto their marriage. (A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Gujarat 9. The Contract of Expressway Project in Uttar Pradesh has been awarded to— (A) JP Associates (B) JM Infra (C) Jointly to (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 10. 13th ASEAN Summit was held between November 18 to 22, 2007 in— (A) Thailand (B) Malaysia (C) Singapore (D) Philippines 11. (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. 09) (A) (B) (C) (D) ‘Innovation Lab’ has been launched by— Tata Consultancy Services Infosys Tech Reliance Industries Anil’s Reliance Communications Dr. Ganesh Natrajan has been appointed Chairman (2008for— CII NASSCOM FICCI SEBI

13. Which country was honoured at China International Travel Mart 2007 with Best Participating and Excellent Advertisement Awards ? (A) Singapore (B) Thailand (C) India (D) Nepal 14. APEC group leaders have decided to take up new membership issue after a few years and as a result India and other ten countries have to wait for APEC membership till— (A) 2009 (B) 2010 (C) 2011 (D) 2012 15. Government has extended Mid Day Meal Scheme to cover the students upto class— (A) 6th 503

(B) 7th (C) 8th (D) 10th 16. (A) (B) (C) (D) 17. (A) (B) (C) (D) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. has been renamed as— Reliance Sanchar Nigam Ltd. Tata Sanchar Nigam Ltd. Tata Communication Ltd. Bharti Communication Ltd. Government is going to merge Annapurna Scheme with— Mid Day Meal Scheme National Old Age Pension Scheme National Food for Work Programme Antyodaya Anna Yojana

18. For attaining 9% growth rate during 11th plan (20072012), investment level has been estimated to be— (A) 34•8% of GDP (B) 32•4% of GDP (C) 30•9% of GDP (D) 36•7% of GDP 19. Government adopted the new funding pattern (Centre State Share) for Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan as— (A) 50 : 50 (B) 55 : 45 (C) 60 : 40 (D) 65 : 35 20. National Food Security Mission targets to increase the production of wheat, rice and pulses in next four years to— (A) 10, 8 and 2 million tonne respectively (B) 8, 10 and 2 million tonne respectively (C) 8, 12 and 2 million tonne respectively (D) 8, 10 and 4 million tonne respectively 21. (A) (B) (C) (D) The most densely populated country in South Asia is— Bangladesh India Maldives Sri Lanka

22. Revenue Deficit as a per cent of GDP in Budget 2009-10 has been estimated at— (A) 1•0% (B) 4•0% (C) 4•4% (D) 4•8%

504

23. Which country among the following gets the highest HDI ranking in Human Development Report 2007 ? (A) Iceland (B) USA (C) United Kingdom (D) Japan 24. ‘Aam Admi Bima Yojana’ is an insurance scheme for rural landless households introduced by— (A) National Insurance Co. (B) Life Insurance Co. (C) UTI (D) ICICI Life Prudential Co. 25. NOAPS has been renamed as Indira Gandhi Old Age Pension Scheme with its extended scope. Now this scheme will include all old age persons— (A) Living below poverty line (B) Above 60 years age (C) Above 65 years age (D) Both (A) and (C) *Answers* 1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (A) (B) (C) (D) The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is— Secretary of Finance Ministry General Secretary of Lok Sabha Secretary of Planning Commission Vice Chairman of Planning Commission

27. For charters and cargo services, what is the new FDI ceiling announced by the government ? (A) 100% (B) 74% (C) 26% (D) 49% 28. In National Mineral Policy (1993) which mineral was allowed for having investment from private sector— (A) Coal (B) Iron (C) Gold (D) Platinum

505

29. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is— (A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 80% 30. (A) (B) (C) (D) Minimum Support Price is decided by— ICAR State Government Ministry of Agriculture CACP

31. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ? (A) 28·5% (B) 29·5% (C) 30·5% (D) 31·5% 32. Which state possesses the maximum percentage of SC population ? (A) U.P. (B) M.P. (C) Kerala (D) Punjab 33. Government has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP)— (A) Upto January 1, 2008 (B) Upto March 31, 2008 (C) w.e.f. April 1, 2008 (D) w.e.f. April 1, 2009 34. (A) (B) (C) (D) What is ‘NIKKEI’ ? Share Price Index of Tokyo Share Market Name of Japanese Central Bank Japanese name of Country’s Planning Commission Foreign Exchange Market of Japan

35. Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission ? (A) It is not defined in Indian Constitution (B) Members and Vice-Chairman of it do not have fixed working duration (C) Members do not require any minimum education (D) All of these 36. Which State of the following has not yet adopted VAT (Value Added Tax) ? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Uttar Pradesh

506

(C) Gujarat (D) None of the above 37. Service Tax revenue collection for 2008–09 (Budget estimates) was proposed at— (A) Rs. 64,460 crore (B) Rs. 52,603 crore (C) Rs. 50,200 crore (D) Rs. 74,460 crore 38. (A) (B) (C) (D) 39. (A) (B) (C) (D) NABARD was established on the recommendation of— Public Account Committee Shivaraman Committee Narsimham Committee None of these Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana was launched on— 1st April, 2001 25th Sept., 2001 30th Sept., 2001 No scheme of such title has yet launched

40. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell One’ to the consumers ? (A) MTNL (B) BSNL (C) Reliance Infocom (D) Bharti Tele 41. (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. (A) (B) (C) (D) VAT is imposed— Directly on consumer On final stage of production On first stage of production On all stages between production and final sale The newly appointed person as Chairman of CBDT is— S. Sridhar S. S. N. Moorti Rajiv Chandrashekhar Venugopal Dhoot

43. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with— (A) Promoting cottage industry in villages (B) Promoting employment among rural unemployed youth (C) Providing electricity to rural families living below the poverty line (D) All of these 44. (A) (B) (C) (D) Novelis has been acquired and merged with— Tata Steels SAIL HINDALCO Jindal Steels 507

45. (A) (B) (C) (D)

OTCEI is— Atomic Submarine of China Economic Policy of USA An Indian Share Market A Defence Research Organisation

46. Foreign Trade Policy 2009-10 document fixes the export target for 2009-10 as— (A) $ 140 billion (B) $ 175 billion (C) $ 150 billion (D) $ 200 billion 47. Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for 2008–09 as per document of 11th plan stands at Rs. 2,28,725 crore but in budget proposals for 2008–09 it was raised to— (A) Rs. 2,23,386 crore (B) Rs. 2,43,386 crore (C) Rs. 2,63,386 crore (D) Rs. 28,456 crore 48. The base year of Industrial Production Index is being shifted from 1993-94 to— (A) 2004-05 (B) 1999 (C) 2000-01 (D) 1999-2000 49. In Interim Budget proposals for 2009–10, which of the following gives 22% contribution in revenue collection of union government ? (A) Income Tax (B) Excise (C) Corporation Tax (D) Non-tax Revenue 50. The base year of present Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPI—UNME) is— (A) 1980-81 (B) 1981-82 (C) 1982-83 (D) 1984-85 *Answers : *26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45.

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(C) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (A) (B) (C) (D) CAPART is related with— Assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes Computer hardware Consultant service of export promotion Controlling pollution in big industries

52. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of worth— (A) Rs. 85 crore (B) Rs. 115 crore (C) Rs. 200 crore (D) None of these 53. (A) (B) (C) (D) Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ? National Saving Certificate Indira Vikas Patra National Saving Scheme Public Providend Fund

54. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on— (A) 31 March, 1997 (B) 31 March, 1996 (C) 1 April, 1992 (D) 1 April, 1995 55. (A) (B) (C) (D) 56. (A) (B) (C) (D) SEBI was established in— 1993 1992 1988 1990 The working of SEBI includes— To regulate the dealings of share market To check the foul dealings in share market To control the inside trading of shares All of these

57. The ‘Ad hoc Treasury Bill System’ of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by ‘Ways and Means Advances System’ which has come into force on— (A) March 31, 1997 (B) April 1, 1996 (C) April 1, 1997 (D) None of these 58. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP was 4·0% in 2004– 05 which increased in 2009–10 (Budget Estimates) to— 509

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5·0% 5·1% 6·8% 6·0%

59. Which is the first Export Processing Zone declared as Free Trade Zone in India ? (A) Kandla (B) Noida (C) Santacruz (D) Falta 60. (A) (B) (C) (D) Which statement of the following is true for IMF ? It is not an agency of UNO It can grant loan to any country of the world It can grant loan to state Govt. of a country It grants loan only to member nations

61. TRAI has abolished ADC (Access Deficit Charge) on all types of calls w.e.f.— (A) April 1, 2008 (B) April 30, 2008 (C) August 30, 2008 (D) October 30, 2008 62. (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (B) (C) (D) Which of the following is public sector organisation ? FCI Food Corporation of India FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India Cotton Corporation of India Jute Corporation of India Only 1 and 2 Only 2, 3 Only 3, 4 All of these

63. Which day has been declared as ‘Balika Diwas’ (Girl Day) by the Ministry of Woman and Children Development ? (A) April 5, every year (B) July 9, every year (C) October 9, every year (D) December 9, every year 64. (A) (B) (C) (D) For Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. RIDF-XIV, allocation in Union Budget 2008-09 was— 16000 crore 12000 crore 10000 crore 14000 crore

65. The birth rate and death rate for the year 2006 have been estimated as— (A) 26·2 and 8·1 per thousand respectively (B) 24·8 and 8·0 per thousand respectively 510

(C) 23·8 and 7·6 per thousand respectively (D) 23·5 and 7·5 per thousand respectively 66. Central Issue price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two ? (A) Price for APL is double of BPL price (B) Price for BPL is one-third of APL price (C) Difference of Rs. 500 per Qt. (D) Difference of Rs. 250 per Qt. 67. What growth target government has estimated for the domestic crude production for the 11th Plan (2007–12) ? (A) 42% (B) 33% (C) 29% (D) 26% 68. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their account in— (A) Rural Post Offices (B) Commercial Banks (C) Rural Development Bank (D) Any of the above 69. Agriculture sector registered 4·9% growth in 2007-08 and it is estimated for year 2008-09 at— (A) Again 4·5% (B) 4·3% (C) 3·3% (D) 1·6% 70. As per the third advanced estimates of Agricultural Production for the year 2008-09 released by the Ministry of Agriculture, total foodgrain’s production has been estimated at— (A) 240·78 million tonne (B) 230·78 million tonne (C) 227·88 million tonne (D) 229·85 million tonne 71. Mistry Committee in its final report recommends full capital account convertibility by— (A) 2008 end (B) 2009 end (C) 2010 end (D) 2011 end

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72. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 73. (A) (B) (C) (D)

Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings Bhootlingam Committee Wanchoo Committee Raj Committee None of these The Present Service Tax rate is— 8% 15% 10% 12%

74. The cause of deflation is— (A) Lack of goods and services as compared to money supply (B) Lack of imports as compared to exports (C) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of goods and services (D) None of these 75. Which of the following is a better measure of economic development ? (A) Employment (B) Size of exports (C) Rural consumption (D) National Income *Answers : *51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (C) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (D) 61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (D) 66. (A) 67. (D) 68. (A) 69. (D) 70. (D) 71. (A) 72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) (B) (C) (D) Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ? Central Bank of India State Bank of India Reserve Bank of India Above (A) and (B)

77. Out of one Rupee expenditure, how much paise have been allotted for subsidy in 2009-10 interim budget proposals ? (A) 12 paise (B) 10 paise (C) 9 paise (D) 7 paise 78. (A) (B) (C) (D) ‘India Brand Equity Fund’ was established in— 1996 1997 1995 1992

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79. (A) (B) (C) (D)

Mixed Economy means— Co-existence of small and large industries Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy Co-existence of public and private sectors Co-existence of rich and poor

80. Ministry of HRD has announced to hike FDI limit in Education to— (A) 65% (B) 70% (C) 75% (D) 100% 81. (A) (B) (C) (D) ‘Pure Banking, Nothing Else’ is a slogan raised by— ICICI Bank HDFC Bank SBI UTI Bank

82. In the end of March 2008, External debt to GDP ratio in India stood at— (A) 18·8% (B) 17·4% (C) 17·8% (D) 15·8% 83. (A) (B) (C) (D) 84. (A) (B) (C) (D) Indian State having the lowest Infant Mortality Rate is— Maharashtra Goa Gujarat Kerala ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for— Internet Banking Credit Card Cash with Bank Cash with Public

85. Which of the following has the maximum share in GSM Mobile Phone Service Market ? (A) Vodafone (earlier Hutch) (B) Airtel (C) BSNL (D) Reliance 86. (A) (B) (C) (D) The main objective of TRYSEM was— To train rural youth for self employment To train urban youth for self employment Both of the above None of these

87. The establishment of IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation) was officially declared on— 513

(A) (B) (C) (D) 88. (A) (B) (C) (D) 89. (A) (B) (C) (D) 90. (A) (B) (C) (D) 91. (A) (B) (C) (D) 92. (A) (B) (C) (D) 93. (A) (B) (C) (D) 94. (A) (B) (C) (D) 95. (A) (B) (C) (D)

March 5, 1996 March 5, 1997 April 1, 1997 August 15, 1947 Inside Trading is related to— Share Market Horse racing Taxation Public Expenditure The largest source of National Income in India is— Service Sector Agriculture Industrial Sector Trade Sector ‘Public Sector’ means— Government ownership on commerce and trade Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade Private ownership on trade None of these NABARD is— A bank A board A block A department Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in— Wheat and Potato Jwar and Oil Seeds Wheat and Rice Tea and Coffee The period of 10th plan in India was— 2000-2005 2001-2006 2002-2007 2003-2008 Economic Planning is in— Union list State list Concurrent list Not any specified list Presently (from April 29, 2003) bank rate in India is— 7·0% 6·75% 6.25% 6·0%

96. Gross domestic savings as a proportion of GDP has been improving. What 514

is the average percentage of gross domestic savings proposed during the 11th plan ? (A) 26·4% (B) 31·9% (C) 34·8% (D) 35·2% 97. 12th Finance Commission has recommended to merge and determine one single interest rate on various outstanding central loans to states having different interest rates. What is this recommended interest rate ? (A) 7·0% (B) 7·5% (C) 8·0% (D) 8·5% 98. (A) (B) (C) (D) 99. (A) (B) (C) (D) MRTP is related to— Monopoly and trade restrictions Inflation control Transport control Foreign Exchange Regulations Interest Rate Policy is a part of— Fiscal Policy Industrial Policy Monetary Policy None of these

100. The basis of determining dearness allowance to employees in India is— (A) National Income (B) Consumer Price Index (C) Standard of Living (D) Per Capita Income *Answers :* 76. (C) 77. (D) 84. (B) (B) 86. (A) 87. (C) 94. (C) (D) 96. (C) 97. (C) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (D) 81. (C) 82. (A) 83. 85. (B) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (A) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. 95. (B) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (B)

SBI CLERK GENERAL INTELLIGENCE EXAM PAPER Question paper

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1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?) 1 2 3 2 10 12 2 5 12 10 16 13 1 2 1 ? 10 24s (a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8 Ans (c) 2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?) 3 8 10 2 ? 1 6 56 90 2 20 0 (a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 Ans (c) 3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54 (a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26 Ans (c) 4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386 (a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194 Ans (b)

516

5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula: Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1 Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1 CHANGE (a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80 Ans (d) 6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula: Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1 Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1 FLUTE (a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149 Ans (a) 7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula: Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1 Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1 BREAD (a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65 Ans (d) 8. In a certain code language, '3a, 2b, 7c' means 'Truth is Eternal'; '7c, 9a, 8b, 3a' means 'Enmity is not Eternal' and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b' means 'Truth does not perish'. Which of the following means 'enmity' in that language? (a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a Ans (d)

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9. In a certain code language, 'po ki top ma' means 'Usha is playing cards'; 'Kop ja ki ma' means 'Asha is playing tennis'; ki top sop ho' means 'they are playing football'; and 'po sur kop' means 'cards and tennis'. Which word in that language means 'Asha'? (a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top Ans (a) 10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday has again fall on Sunday in (a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981 Ans (d) 11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many times does it need to be cut? (a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12 Ans (c) 12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform? (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7 Ans (b) 13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the class is (a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30

518

Ans (c) 14. 'A' is east of 'B' and west of 'C'. 'H' is South-West of 'C', 'B' is South-East of 'X'. which is farthest West? (a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B Ans (c)

15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of her entire year's earning does she earn in December?

(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6 Ans (b) 16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show the correct time? (a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday (d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit 17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still

519

continue to import sugar. Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India. II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity. Ans (c) 18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik. Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik. II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone. Ans (b) 19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals. Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future. II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision. Ans (a) 20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their places of work on time. Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay. II. Only railway trains run punctually. Ans (a) 21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing strike of its employees. Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.

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II. People no more require the services of private bus operators. Ans (b) 22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes. Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather. II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt. Ans (d) 23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? ADH FIM ?NR (a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O Ans (c) 24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? AMBN RCSD EUF? (a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R Ans (c) 25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? 149? 1234 246? (a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7

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Ans (a) 26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? 668 575 43? 120 126 320 (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4 Ans (c) 27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as: (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows. Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter. Ans (a) 28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:

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(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows. Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats. Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars. Ans (d) 29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as: (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows. Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots. Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author. Ans (a) 30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as: (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows. Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.

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Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks. Ans (b)

SBI

- Clerk Recruitment Exam., 2009
General Awareness

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1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ? (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Maharashtra (C) Assam (D) Meghalaya (E) Sikkim Ans : (E) 2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ? (A) Saurav Ganguly (B) V. V. S. Laxman (C) Rahul Dravid (D) Sachin Tendulkar (E) None of these Ans : (D) 3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ? (a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface. (b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface. (c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon. (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) (C) Only (c) (D) All (a), (b) & (c) (E) None of these Ans : (D) 4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ? (A) Maharashtra (B) Tamil Nadu 524

(C) Delhi (D) West Bengal (E) Karnataka Ans : (E) 5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ? (A) Bill Markets (B) Call Money Market (C) Banks (D) Mutual Funds (E) Indian Gold Council Ans : (E) 6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ? (A) To conduct a survey of the land (B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States (C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress (D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance (E) None of these Ans : (A) 7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ? (A) Russia (B) Equadore (C) South Korea (D) North Korea (E) None of these Ans : (B) 8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ? (A) Padma Bhushan (B) Sangit Natak Academy Award (C) Maharashtra Bhushan (D) Karnataka Ratna (E) Bharat Ratna Ans : (E) 9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ? (A) Haryana (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) Sikkim (D) Manipur (E) Jammu & Kashmir Ans : (E)

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10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ? (A) Republican (B) Democratic (C) Labour (D) American National Congress (E) None of these Ans : (B) 11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)? (a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009. (b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost. (c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009. (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) (C) Only (c) (D) All (a), (b) & (c) (E) Only (a) & (c) Ans : (C) 12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ………. (A) President of Canada (B) Prime Minister of Canada (C) President of Italy (D) Prime Minister of Switzerland (E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A. Ans : (B) 13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ? (A) Urea (B) Murate of Potash (C) Di Amonium Phosphate (D) Calcium Carbonate (E) All are fertilizers Ans : (E) 14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ………. (A) Singur (B) Nandigram (C) Salboni (D) Malda (E) Joynagar Ans : (C)

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15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ? (A) Punjab (B) Karnataka (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh (E) Bihar Ans : (C) 16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ? (A) Russia (B) China (C) Bangladesh (D) Nepal (E) Japan Ans : (A) 17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ? (A) Savings Bank Scheme (B) Retailing of Mutual Funds (C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial) (D) Issuance of Demand Drafts (E) Life Insurance cover Ans : (D) 18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ………. (A) Fiji (B) Maldives (C) Iraq (D) Iran (E) None of these Ans : (B) 19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ? (A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio (B) Martti Ahtisaari (C) Yoichiro Nambu (D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi (E) None of these Ans : (A) 20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ? (A) Farmers Commission (B) Women Commission

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(C) Child Welfare Commission (D) Law Commission (E) None of these Ans : (D) 21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ? (a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio. (b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment. (c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market. (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) (C) Only (c) (D) All (a), (b) & (c) (E) None of these Ans : (A) 22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ? (A) Brazilia (B) New Delhi (C) Suncity (D) Salvador (E) Durban Ans : (B) 23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ? (A) Karnataka (B) Kerala (C) West Bengal (D) Orissa (E) Maharashtra Ans : (C) 24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ? (A) B. G. Verghese (B) Philip Roth (C) Aravind Adiga (D) Navtej Saran (E) None of these Ans : (D) 25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?

528

(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (B) Navodaya Vidhyalay (C) Ultra Mega Power Project (D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana (E) None of these Ans : (A) 26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ? (A) Wheat (B) Paddy (C) Sugarcane (D) Cotton (E) None of these Ans : (B) 27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ? (A) Vikram Seth (B) V. S. Naipaul (C) Arun Bhagat (D) Anita Desai (E) Jhumpa Lahiri Ans : (E) 28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ? (A) Italy (B) Germany (C) France (D) Canada (E) Australia Ans : (C) 29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ? (A) Singapore (B) South Korea (C) Austria (D) Israel (E) None of these Ans : (D) 30. World Ozone day is observed on ………. (A) 16th September (B) 16th October

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(C) 16th November (D) 26th September (E) 26th October Ans : (A) 31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ? (A) Small Industries Development Bank of India (B) NABARD (C) National Housing Bank (D) ICICI Bank (E) All are Govt. sponsored Ans : (D) 32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ………. (A) Badminton (B) Football (C) Hockey (D) Golf (E) Tennis Ans : (B) 33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ………. (A) Portblair (B) Hassan (C) Tirupati (D) Kochi (E) Sri Harikota Ans : (E) 34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ………. (A) Bengaluru (B) Goa (C) Kolkata (D) Kochi (E) Jaipur Ans : (B) 35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ? (A) Cholera (B) Tuberculosis (C) AIDS (D) Polio (E) Cancer Ans : (E)

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36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ? (a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families. (b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme. (c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme. (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) (C) Only (c) (D) All (a), (b) & (c) (E) None of these Ans : (E) 37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ? (A) China Open (B) Japan Open (C) New Zealand Open (D) Australian Open (E) None of these Ans : (A) 38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ? (A) Shivraj Patil (B) Lalu Prasad Yadav (C) P. Chidambaram (D) Sharad Pawar (E) None of these Ans : (C) 39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ? (A) 5% (B) 7% (C) 10% (D) 15% (E) None of these Ans : (C) 40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ………. (A) Literacy Work (B) Social Service (C) Coaching in Sports (D) Journalism (E) None of these Ans : (C)

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SBI - Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009 General English

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Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the doneky. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study !’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans ! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. when everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom. ‘How can I help you ?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washerman agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care. After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you ? You think you are so clever that you ran away ? Come home at once !’ The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey !’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now !’ he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who will talk with you and share your troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his 532

donkey, sadder and wiser. 1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher ? (A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings (B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature (C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava (D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid (E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey Ans : (B) 2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working ? (A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends (B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous (C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems (D) He regarded the doneky as his friend and confided in him (E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise Ans : (E) 3. How did Keshava get his donkey back ? (A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders (B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey (C) He asked the village headman for help (D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson (E) None of these Ans : (E) 4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage? (a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher. (b) The teacher was cunning by nature. (c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly. (A) Both (a) & (c) (B) Both (b) & (c) (C) Only (b) (D) All (a), (b) & (c) (E) None of these Ans : (A) 5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day ? (A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion (B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout (C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings (D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study (E) None of these Ans : (A)

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6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders ? (A) He did not agree with their views on different issues (B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees (C) He wanted them to get justice for him (D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions (E) None of these Ans : (E) 7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard ? (A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree (B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree (C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey (D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey (E) None of these Ans : (D) 8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months ? (a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training. (b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey. (c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey properly. (A) None (B) Only (b) (C) Both (a) & (b) (D) Only (c) (E) None of these Ans : (A) Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 9. trick (A) joke (B) skill (C) mislead (D) technique (E) lunny Ans : (C) 10. remained (A) pending (B) waited (C) lasted (D) survived (E) continued Ans : (D)

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Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 11. real (A) false (B) imitated (C) dishonest (D) imagine (E) genuine Ans : (A) 12. deep (A) low (B) distracted (C) flat (D) awake (E) sleep Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer. 13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary funds to study ahead. (A) further to study (B) of studying more (C) to study onward (D) for higher studies (E) No Correction Required Ans : (D) 14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers. (A) a source of additional (B) an additionally source (C) an additional source (D) additionally the source (E) No Correction Required Ans : (C) 15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and accommodation. (A) since you belong to

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(B) whoever belongs (C) for belonging to (D) to belong in (E) No Correction Required Ans : (A) 16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger. (A) is looking over (B) will be looked after (C) will look out (D) looks down on (E) No Correction Required Ans : (E) 17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me. (A) if I am successful in (B) how should I successfully (C) whether I could successfully (D) that I would succeed to (E) No Correction Required Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer. 18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct (E) Ans : (B) 19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct (E) Ans : (E) 20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All Correct (E) Ans : (B) 21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D) All Correct (E) Ans : (A)

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22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All Correct (E) Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (a) I was pleased by their reaction. (b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to those affected by the earthquake. (c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations. (d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed. (e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office. (f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me. 23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E) (f) Ans : (A) 24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (D) (d) (E) (e) Ans : (E) 25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (D) (d) (E) (e) Ans : (A) 26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (b) (B) (c)

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(C) (d) (D) (e) (E) (f) Ans : (B) 27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (D) (d) (E) (e) Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No error (E) Ans : (C) 29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its shareholders. (D) No error (E) Ans : (B) 30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow. (D) No error (E) Ans : (D) 31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) / want to see it. (D) No error (E) Ans : (A) 32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural area. (D) No error (E) Ans : (E) Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Today, twenty-two years after the bank …(33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff …(34)… about twentythree lakh borrowers. We decided to operate …(35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their

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office. Many people in rural areas found this …(36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the …(37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also …(38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep …(39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is …(40)… from the loan. 33. (A) origin (B) commence (C) existed (D) began (E) inaugurated Ans : (E) 34. (A) assemble (B) cope (C) interact (D) deal (E) handle Ans : (E) 35. (A) differently (B) similar (C) reverse (D) opposite (E) identically Ans : (A) 36. (A) worried (B) upset (C) panicking (D) anxious (E) threatening Ans : (D) 37. (A) principle (B) discipline (C) opportunity (D) chance (E) advantage Ans : (A) 38. (A) worth (B) vary (C) disburse (D) contrast (E) diver

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Ans : (B) 39. (A) consistently (B) regular (C) often (D) frequently (E) daily Ans : (B) 40. (A) benefiting (B) serving (C) welfare (D) obliged (E) progress Ans : (A) SBI

- Clerk Recruitment Exam., 2009

Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge
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Visit www.bankexamsindia.com for latest Job Alerts/Job Exams 1. A keyboard is this kind of device— (A) black (B) input (C) output (D) word Processing (E) None of these Ans : (B) 2. IT stands for— (A) information Technology (B) integrated Technology (C) intelligent Technology (D) interesting Technology (E) None of these Ans : (A) 3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ? (A) Personal Computers (B) Supercomputers (C) Laptops (D) Notebooks (E) None of these Ans : (B) 540

4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a— (A) disk (B) data (C) file (D) floppy (E) None of these Ans : (C) 5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as— (A) pulling (B) pushing (C) downloading (D) transferring (E) None of these Ans : (C) 6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ? (A) Disk drive (B) Keyboard (C) Monitor (D) Printer (E) None of these Ans : (A) 7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands. (A) Fetching (B) Storing (C) Executing (D) Decoding (E) None of these Ans : (C) 8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software. (A) computer Scientist (B) computer sales representative (C) computer consultant (D) corporate trainer (E) None of these Ans : (B) 9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ? (A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor (B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor

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(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor (D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor (E) None of these Ans : (D) 10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a— (A) title bar (B) button (C) dialog box (D) window (E) None of these Ans : (D) 11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected. (A) pointer (B) menu (C) icon (D) button (E) None of these Ans : (B) 12. An error is also known as— (A) bug (B) debug (C) cursor (D) icon (E) None of these Ans : (A) 13. Arithmetic Operations— (A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item (B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order (C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT (D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division (E) None of these Ans : (D) 14. Sending an e-mail is similar to— (A) picturing an event (B) narrating a story (C) writing a letter (D) creating a drawing (E) None of these

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Ans : (C) 15. Promotion in Marketing means— (A) passing an examination (B) elevation from one grade to another (C) selling the products through various means (D) selling the product in specific areas (E) None of these Ans : (C) 16. Microsoft Word is an example of— (A) an operating system (B) a processing device (C) application software (D) an input device (E) None of these Ans : (B) 17. Sources of Sales Leads are— (A) Data Mining (B) Market Research (C) Media Outlets (D) Promotional Programs (E) All of these Ans : (E) 18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as— (A) storage (B) output (C) input (D) information (E) None of these Ans : (A) 19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ? (A) RAM (B) printer (C) monitor (D) ROM (E) None of these Ans : (C) 20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is— (A) to watch TV serials (B) to discuss with other sales persons (C) to monitor media outlets

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(D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (C) 21. Market Expansion means— (A) hiring more staff (B) firing more staff (C) buying more products (D) buying more companies (E) None of these Ans : (E) 22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a— (A) program (B) command (C) user response (D) processor (E) None of these Ans : (A) 23. Effective marketing helps in— (A) developing new products (B) creating a competitive environment (C) building demand for products (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D) 24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ? (A) Hardware (B) Software (C) Programs (D) Output (E) None of these Ans : (A) 25. A Call in Marketing means— (A) to phone the customers (B) to visit the customers (C) to visit the marketing site (D) to call on prospective customers (E) None of these Ans : (D) 26. Delivery Channel means— (A) maternity wards

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(B) handing over the products to the buyers (C) places where products are made available to the buyers (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (C) 27. Processing involves— (A) inputting data into a computer system (B) transforming input into output (C) displaying output in a useful manner (D) providing relevant answers (E) None of these Ans : (B) 28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking. (A) All the customers (B) All the educated customers (C) All the computer educated customers (D) Only creditors (E) All of these Ans : (C) 29. Innovation mean— (A) Product Designing (B) New ideas (C) Impulse (D) Both (A) and (B) (E) None of these Ans : (D) 30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan. (A) All the customers (B) Students (C) Only poor students (D) Students having promising educational track record (E) All of these Ans : (B) 31. Service after sale is not the function of— (A) Marketing staff (B) Seller (C) Director of the company (D) Employees of the company (E) All of the above are wrong Ans : (A)

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32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective. (A) fairs (B) village fairs (C) door to door campaign (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (B) 33. Market Survey means— (A) Market Research (B) Market Planning (C) Marketing Strategies (D) Market Monitering (E) All of these Ans : (A) 34. ………can be done through digital Banking ? (A) Mobile phone (B) Internet (C) Telephone (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (A) 35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ? (A) Devotion to the work (B) Submissive (C) Sympathy (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D) 36. The rural marketing is not required because— (A) rural people do not understand marketing (B) its not practical from the cost point of view (C) it is sheer wastage of time (D) All are wrong (E) All are correct Ans : (D) 37. Planned-cost service means— (A) Costly products (B) Extra profit on the same cost (C) Extra work by seller (D) All of these (E) None of these

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Ans : (B) 38. Internet marketing means— (A) Self-marketing (B) Core Groups monitering (C) Employees marketing (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (E) 39. The aim of successful marketing is— (A) to increase the sale (B) to increase the profit (C) to increase the output of sellers (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D)

40. The networking becomes……through networking. (A) very difficult (B) dull (C) easy (D) has no role in marketing (E) None of these Ans : (C) SBI - Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009 Quantitative Aptitude

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Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? 1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ? (A) 1156 (B) 1200 (C) 1188 (D) 1176 547

(E) None of these Ans : (D) 2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ? (A) 1050 (B) 1024 (C) 1048 (D) 1036 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 3. 3·5 + 11·25 × 4·5 – 32·5 = ? (A) 18·275 (B) 21·625 (C) 32·375 (D) 25·45 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ? (A) 3520 (B) 3515 (C) 3495 (D) 3490 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ? (A) 14328 (B) 14438 (C) 13428 (D) 13248 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ? (A) 36·585 (B) 30·082 (C) 32·085 (D) 35·066 (E) None of these Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

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7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169 (A) 100 (B) 64 (C) 81 (D) 121 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103 (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 63 (D) 73 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ? (A) 594 (B) 572 (C) 581 (D) 563 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ? (A) 31 (B) 29 (C) 41 (D) 37 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5 (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ? (A) 148 (B) 152 (C) 156 (D) 144 (E) None of these 549

Ans : (C) 13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ? (A) 13 : 10 : 18 (B) 10 : 13 : 17 (C) 13 : 15 : 18 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these Ans : (E) 14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ? (A) 64 (B) 56 (C) 106 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these Ans : (B) 15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ? (A) Rs. 42,500 (B) Rs. 38,800 (C) Rs. 40,000 (D) Rs. 35,500 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ? (A) 90 (B) 60 (C) 180 (D) 120 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ? (A) Rs. 1737 (B) Rs. 1920 (C) Rs. 1720 (D) Rs. 1860

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(E) Rs. 1843 Ans : (E) 18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240 litres of milk ? (A) Rs. 2 (B) Rs. 3·5 (C) Rs. 2·5 (D) Rs. 1·5 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ? (A) 7 (B) 36 (C) 49 (D) 6 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ? (A) 56 (B) 48 (C) 45 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these Ans : (B) 21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ? (A) 8·2 hours (B) 6·5 hours (C) 8 hours (D) 7·2 hours (E) None of these Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

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22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ? (A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 12 (D) 9 (E) 22 Ans : (C) 23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ? (A) 89 (B) 83 (C) 76 (D) 79 (E) 85 Ans : (B) 24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ? (A) 1259 (B) 1268 (C) 1196 (D) 1248 (E) 1236 Ans : (A) SBI - Clerk Reasoning Exam 2009 Reasoning

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Visit www.bankexamsindia.com for latest Job Alerts/Job Exams 1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’. (A) I (B) B (C) L (D) X (E) Y Ans : (B) 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) Stem

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(B) Tree (C) Root (D) Branch (E) Leaf Ans : (B) 3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) Four Ans : (D) 4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code ? (A) UTGR (B) UTKR (C) TUGR (D) RUGT (E) None of these Ans : (E) 5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ? (A) Potato (B) Guava (C) Apple (D) Banana (E) None of these Ans : (D) 6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) None Ans : (D) 7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How

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many vowels are present in the new arrangement ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) None of these Ans : (C) 8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ? (A) 7&8* (B) &7*8 (C) 7*&8 (D) 7&*8 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three Ans : (E) 10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ? (A) na (B) ka (C) bo (D) so (E) None of these Ans : (A) Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answer— (A) if only conclusion I is true. (B) if only conclusion II is true.

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(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. (D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true (E) if both conclusions I and II are true. 11. Statements : All stars are suns. Some suns are planets. All planets are satellites. Conclusions : I. Some satellites are stars. II. No star is a satellite. Ans : (C) 12. Statements : All fishes are birds. All birds are rats. All rats are cows. Conclusions : I. All birds are cows II. All rats are fishes Ans : (A) 13. Statements : All curtains are rods. Some rods are sheets. Some sheets are pillows. Conclusions : I. Some pillows are rods. II. Some rods are curtains. Ans : (B) 14. Statements : Some walls are windows. Some windows are doors. All doors are roofs. Conclusions : I. Some doors are walls. II. No roof is a window. Ans : (D) 15. Statements : All switches are plugs. Some plugs are bulbs. All bulbs are sockets. Conclusions : I. Some sockets are plugs. II. Some plugs are switches. Ans : (E) Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow : 489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983 555

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ? (A) 489 (B) 541 (C) 654 (D) 953 (E) 783 Ans : (C) 17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ? (A) 489 (B) 541 (C) 654 (D) 953 (E) 783 Ans : (B) 18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 Ans : (A) 19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ? (A) Zero (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4 (E) 2 Ans : (B) 20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ? (A) 489 (B) 541 (C) 654 (D) 953 (E) 783

556

Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow : ‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’ ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’ 21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ? (A) P + Q – S (B) P ÷ Q × S (C) P ÷ Q + S (D) P × Q ÷ S (E) None of these Ans : (C) 22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ? (A) Sister (B) Wife (C) Son (D) Daughter (E) None of these Ans : (A) 23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ? (A) Mother (B) Father (C) Son (D) Brother (E) None of these Ans : (B) 24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ? (A) P × S ÷ T (B) P ÷ S × T (C) P – S ÷ T (D) P + T ÷ S (E) None of these Ans : (E) 25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ? (A) Daughter (B) Sister (C) Mother (D) Can’t be determined

557

(E) None of these Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these : Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3 Conditions : (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel. (ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged. (iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©. 26. BKGQJN (A) 9©$7©% (B) ©9$7%© (C) 91$78% (D) %1$789 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 27. IJBRLG (A) #89*£$ (B) #89*£# (C) $89*£# (D) $89*£$ (E) None of these Ans : (C) 28. BARNIS (A) 92*#%4 (B) 924#*% (C) 92*#%9 (D) 42*#%4 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 29. EGAKRL

558

(A) #£$21* (B) £$21*3 (C) £$21*# (D) #£$21# (E) None of these Ans : (B) 30. DMBNIA (A) 6@9%#2 (B) 2@9%#6 (C) 2@9%#2 (D) 2©9%#2 (E) None of these Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor. 31. For which of the following companies does C work ? (A) Y (B) X (C) Z (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these Ans : (A) 32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ? (A) D and C (B) A and B (C) A and E (D) H and F (E) None of these Ans : (E) 33. Which of the following combination is correct ?

559

(A) C–Z-Engineer (B) E–X–Doctor (C) H–X–HR (D) C–Y–Engineer (E) None of these Ans : (D) 34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ? (A) H (B) E (C) C (D) Either E or C (E) None of these Ans : (B) 35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ? (A) A and D (B) B and D (C) D and G (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

560

Ans : 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)

BSNL TTA: Sample Question Paper (Basic Engineering) Detailed Syllabus for TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) Exam
Time Duration: 3 Hours Number of Question: 200 Maximum Marks: 200 Detailed Syllabus: Part I, II and III

Recommended Book Sumitra Professional Carrier Series - TTA Exam

561

Part I: General ability test (20 Marks) The candidate's comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested thorough simple exercises such as provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple choice exercise etc. This shall also include questions on current events & General knowledge and such matters of everyday observation and experience as may be expected of Diploma holder. Part II: Basic Engineering (90 Marks) Applied Mathematics:
• • • • • • • • • •

Co-ordinate Geometry Vector Algebra Matrix and Determinates Deferential Calculus Integral Calculus Differential equation of second order Fourier Series Laplace Transform Complex Number Partial Differentiation.

Applied Physics:
• • • • • •

Measurement-Units and Dimensions Waves Acoustics Ultrasonic Light Laser and its applications

562

•

Atomic Structure and Energy Levels

Basic Electricity:
• • • • • • • • • • • • • • • •

Electrostatics Coulomb's law Electric field Gauss's theorem Concept of potential differences Concept of capacitance an capacitors Ohm's law Power and energy Kirchoffs voltage current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits Basic Magnetism Electro Magnetism Electromagnetic induction Concept of alternating voltage & current Cells and Batteries Voltage and Current Sources Thevenin's theorem, Norton's theorem and their applications.

Electronics Devices and Circuits:
• • • • •

Classification of materials into conductor, Semi conductor insulator etc. Electrical properties Magnetic materials Various types of relays Switches and connectors conventional representation of electric and electronic circuit elements. Active and passive components semi conductor Physics Semiconductor Diode

• •

563

• • • • • • • • • • • • • • • •

Bipolar Transistor & Their circuits Transistor Biasing and Stabilization of operating point Single stage transistor amplifier field effect transistor Mosfet circuits applications Multistage Transistor Amplifier Transfer Audio power Amplifiers Feedback in Amplifier Sinusoidal Oscillators Tuned Voltage Amplifiers Opto electronics Devices and their applications Operational amplifier Wave shaping and Switching circuits. Block diagram of I.C. timer (such as 555) and its working. Motivation Circuit Time base circuits Thyristory and UJT Regulated power supply.

Digital Techniques:
• • • • • • • • • •

Applications and advantages of digital systems Number system (binary and hexadecimal) Logic Gates Logic Simplification Codes and Parity Arithmetic Circuits Decoders Display Devices and Associated Circuits Multiplexers and De-multiplexers Latches and Flip Flops Counters

564

• • •

Shift Register Memories A/D and D/A converters.

Part III: Specialization (90 Marks) 1 . Electrical:
• • • • •

3 Phase VS Single-phase supply Star Delta connections Relation between phase & line voltage power factor and their measurements Construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator AC & DC transformers starters rectifiers inverters battery charges batteries servo and stepper motors contactor control circuits switchgear relays protection devices and schemes substation protective relaying circuit breaker generator protection transformer protection feeder and lightening protection feeder & bus bar protection lightening arrestor

• • • • • • • • • • • • • • •

565

• • • • • • • • •

earthing voltage stabilizer & regulators power control devices & circuits phase controlled rectifiers inverters choppers dual converters cycloconverters power electronics application in control of drivers refrigeration & air-conditioning.

2. Communication:
• •

Modulation and demodulation - Principles and operation of various types of AM FM and PM modulators/demodulators. Pulse modulation TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing. Principles and applications of PCM. Introduction of Basic block diagram of digital and data communication systems Coding error detection and correction techniques Digital Modulation Techniques - ASK, IGW, FSK, PSK Characteristics/ working of data transmission circuits UART, USART Modem Protocols an their functions Brief idea of ISDN interfaces Local Area Network Carrier Telephony - Features of carrier telephone system. Microwave Engineering Microwave Devices Wave guides

• • • • • • • • • • • • • •

566

• • •

Microwave Components Microwave Antennas Microwave Communication Systems - Block diagram & Working principles of microwave communication link.

3. Network Filters and Transmission Lines:
• • • • • • • •

Two port network Attenuations Filters Transmission Lines and their applications Characteristic impedance of Line Concept of reflection and standing waves on a transmission lines Transmission line equation Principle of Impedance matching Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line.

4. Instruments and Measurements:
• • • • • • • • • • • • •

Specifications of instruments-accuracy Precision Sensitivity Resolution range Errors in measurement and loading effect Principles of voltage current and resistance measurements Transducers measurement of displacement & strain forces & torque measuring devices pressure measuring devices flow measuring devices power control devices & circuits. Types of AC mili voltmeters.

567

•

Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope Front panel controls Impedance Bridges and Q - Meters. Principles of working and specifications of logic probes. Signature analyzer and logic analyzer signal generator distortion factor meter spectrum analyzer.

• • •

• • •

5. Control Systems:
• • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • •

Basic elements of control system open and closed loop system concept of feedback. Block diagram of control system Time lag Hysterisis Linearity concepts self - regulating and non - self regulating control systems Transfer function of simple control components Single feedback configuration Time response of system Stability Analysis-Characteristic equation Routh's table Nyquist criterion Relative stability Phase margin and gain margin Routh Hurwitz criterion Root locus technique Bode plot Power plot Gain Margin and phase margin.

568

6. Microprocessors:
• • • • • • • • • • • • •

Typical organization of a microcomputer system & functions of its various blocks Architecture of a Microprocessor Memories and I/O Interfacing Brief idea of M/C & assembly language Machines & Mnemonic codes Instruction format and Addressing mode concept of Instruction set programming exercises in assembly language concept of interrupt Data transfer techniques - sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer DMA serial output data serial input data .

7. Computers:
• • • • • • • • • • • •

Computer and its working Types of computers Familiarization with DOS and Window concept of file directory Number system Data representation Programming Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL C: Use of basic data structures Fundamentals of computer architecture Processor design control unit design Memory organization I/O system Organization Microprocessors-microprocessor architectures 569

• • • • • • • • • •

Instruction set and simple assembly level programming Microprocessor based system design typical examples Personal computers and their typical uses Data Communication Principles Types and working principles of modems Network principles OSI model Functions of data link layer and network layer Networking components communication protocols as X-25, TCP /IP. Database Management System-basic concepts entity relationship model relational model DBMS based on relational model.

Sample Question Paper - BSNL TTA Exam
Paper - II (Basic Engineering) BSNL TTA Exam 1. X2 - 4X - 2Y + Y2 = 4 represents a circle with (a) radius = 3 (b) radius = 4 (c) radius = 2 (d) radius = 5 2. Which of these represent two parallel lines: (a) Y - 4X - 4 = 0 (b) Y + AX - 4 = 0 (c) Y - 4X - 1 =0 (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)

570

(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) None of these. 3. The conjugate of complex numbers 3 + 2j is (a) 3 - 2j (b) 2 + 3j (c) 2 - 3j (d) 3 + 4j 4. A Square matrix each of whose diagonal element is 1 and each of the non-diagonal element is zero is called (a) Null matrix (b) Unit matrix (c) Diagonal matrix (d) Orthogonal matrix 5. The determinant of matrix <image> is (a) 1 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) 21 6. The charge of an electron is equal to (a) 1.6 x 10-16 C (b) -1.6 x 10-16 C (c) 1.6 x 1019 C

571

(d) -1.6 x 1019 C 7. The potential energy of a charged conductor is (a) 1/2 CV2 (b) 1/2 QV (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 8. Capacitors are mainly used in (a) Electrical instruments (b) Storage of electrical energy (c) Overcoming voltage fluctuations (d) All the above 9. Two capacities of 4 µF and 12 µF are joined in parallel. The total capacitance is (a) 8 µF (b) 16 µF (c) 3 µF (f) 2 µF 10. What is the total resistance between points 'A' and 'B' in the given circuit <image> (a) 12/7 O (b) 15 O (c) 7 O

572

(d) 7/12 O 11. A current of 12 A is passing through a pure resistive circuit when the potential difference of 60 volts is applied across it, if the potential difference applied is reduced to 12 V, the current would be (a) 12/5 A (b) 60 A (c) 12 A (d) 2 A 12. Which of these normally used household electrical bulbs will be having maximum resistance. (a) 100 Watt bulb (b) 50 Watt bulb (c) 200 Watt bulb (d) 25 Watt bulb 13.The distance of point P (4, 3) from the origin will be (a) 7 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 9 14. The slope of the line passing from points (7, 3) and (5, 1) is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3

573

(d) 4 15. A line perpendicular to line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 can be (a) 4x + 3y + 4 = 0 (b) 4x - 3y + 3 = 0 (c) 3x - 4y + 5 = 0 (d) 3x - 4y + 2 = 0. 16. The centre of the circle x2 + 6x - 4y + y2 + 12 = 0 will be at (a) (-3, 2) (b) (3, -2) (c) (-2, 3) (d) (2, -3) 17. The product of (3 + 4j) and its conjugate is (a) 7 (b) 25 (c) 12 (d) 21 18. During charging of a lead acid cell, the specific gravity of electrolyte will (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain constant (d) Increase then Decrease

574

19. The decimal number '12' is represented in binary system as (a) 1100 (b) 0110 (c) 1010 (d) 1110 20. What is the value of current that will flow when a p. d. 200 V is applied across a circuit of 50 O resistance? (a) 4 A (b) 0.4 A (c) 10 A (d) 1 A 21. If both the inputs to a Nand Gate are '1', the output would be (a) 1 (b) 0 22. If input 'A' is 1 and input 'B' is 0, then output X will be <image> (a) 0 (b) 1 23. The truth-table of a Nand Gate is (a) A 0 0 B 0 1 X 1 1

575

1 1 (b) A 0 0 1 1 (c) A 0 0 1 1 (d) None of these

0 1

1 0

B 0 1 0 1

X 0 0 0 1

B 0 1 0 1

X 0 1 0 1

24. IC chip is usually made of (a) Lead (b) Silicon (c) Chromium. (d) None of these. 25. Below given network is connected to a 16 V battery with internal resistance of 1 O. What will be current drawn from the battery? <image> (a) 2 A (b) 3 A (c) 12/7 A (d) 7/12 A

576

26.Determine the equivalent resistance of the following network: <image> (a) 6 O (b) 12 O (c) 3 O (d) 9 O. 27. A Zener diode is (a) Forward biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction (b) Reversed biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction (c) Forward biased diode operating at breakdown point (d) Is used as rectifying device 28. Crystal oscillator is used when frequency required is (a) High (b) Low (c) Constant (d) Varying. 29. What is the energy in a quantum of radiation having a wave length of 5000 A? (a) 3.98 x 10-19 J (b) 3.98 x 10-9 J (c) 2.9 x 10-19 J (d) 7.9 x 10-19 J.

577

30. Which of these cannot store energy? (a) Capacitor (b) Inductor (c) Resistance (d) LC circuit. 31. A short bar of magnet placed with its axis at 300 with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.16 T experiences a torque of magnitude 0.032 J. What is the magnetic moment of the magnet? (a) 0.40 JT-1 (b) 4.0 JT-1 (c) 0.04 JT-1 (d) 0.2 JT-1 32. The total force on a charge 'q' with velocity "V" in an electric field 'E' and magnetic field 'B' will be (a) q (E + V x B) (b) q(E + V.B) (c) qE + VxB (d) q(B + V x E) 33. The magnetic field B at the centre of a circular current loop of radius 'a' is given by (a) B =µ0 I/2a (b) B = µ0 I/a (c) B = 2µ0 I/a (d)B = µ0 a/2I

578

34. If f = x2 + 4xy + y2 + 9, then which of the following is not true: (a) ?f/?x = 2x + 4y (b) ?f/?y = 4x + 2y (c) ?2f/?x2 = 2 (d) ?2f/?x?y = 4 35. A hollow metal ball 8 cm in diameter is given a charge of - 4 x 10-8 C. The potential on the surface of the ball is (a) - 9000 V (b) - 900 V (c) - 90 V (d) Zero. 36. The effective capacitance between X and Y is <image> (a) 8/3 µF (b) 7/6 µF (c) 5/6 µF (d) 2 µF. 37. The amount of work done is joules in carrying a charge + Q alongwith path ABCD and back to A between two oppositely charged plates is: <image> (a) Q (b) 4Q

579

(c)Q/2 (d) Zero. 38. How many electrons are contained in 1C? (a) 6.25 x 1018 (b) 6.25 x 1019 (c) 6.25 x 1020 (d) 6.25 x 1021 39. The phase angle between voltage and current in an a. c. circuit through a pure capacitance is (a) 180° (b) 90° (c) 60° (d) 0° 40. The permeability of a material is 0.998. It is: (a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Anti ferromagnetic. 41. The ratio of the specific charge of an electron to that of a positron is (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1

580

(d) 4:1. 42. With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) First increases then decreases (d) First decreases then increases. 43. In a common collector circuit, input resistance is: (a) Very high (b) Very low (c) Zero (d) Moderate. 44. A electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom. If R = 107/m, the frequency of emitted radiations will be (a) 3/16 x 105 Hz (b) 3/16 x 1015 Hz (c) 9/16 x 1015 Hz (d) 3/4 x 1015 Hz. 45. I amu. equals (a) 1.67 x 10-27 g (b) 1.67 x 10-28 g (c) 1.67 x 10-29 g (d) 1.67 x 10-27 kg

581

46. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec both with 50 and 40 cms of a stretched wire of a sonometer. The frequency of the tuning fork is (a) 36 Hz (b) 50 Hz (c) 90Hz (d) 110 Hz 47. A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude 4 cm. At what displacement its energy is half kinetic and half potential (a) 2v2cm (b) v2 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 1 cm. 48. An electron moves with a constant velocity V parallel to the direction of uniform magnetic field 'B'. The force experienced by the electron is (a) BeV (b) eV/B (c)B/eV (d) Zero. 49.A charged particle is moving along the axis of X. If an electric field is applied along the axis of Y, the motion of the particle in Y-Y plane will be (a) Elliptical (b) Parabolic (c) Circular

582

(d) Linear 50. An electric or magnetic field cannot accelerate (a) Electrons (b) Protons (c) Neutrons (d) Alpha particles

BSNL TTA Question Paper: Computers Specialization 2007
Exam Name: TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) Specialization: Section G - Computers Conducted By: BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited) Conducted In: December 2007 Number of Questions: 50 Maximum Marks: 250 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Negative Marking: Yes Type of Questions:

583

Objective Type (Multiple Choice) BSNL TTA Specialization (Computers) Question Paper 2007 1. What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages? (a) Browser (b) Mail Client (c) FTP Client (d) Messenger 2. What is the address given to a network called? (a) System Address (b) SYSID (c) Process ID (d) IP Address 3. Which one of the following is a valid DOS command? (a) LIST *.* (b) LIST???.??? (c) RECOVER A: (d) RENAME A:SAMPLE.TXT C:TEST.DOC 4. All system settings in WINDOWS are stored in: (a) CONTROL.INI (b) MAIN.INI (c) SYSTEM.INI (d) SETTING.INI 5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer? (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 32

584

6. Which of the following is not an output device: (a) Printer (b) Scanner (c) Flat Screen (d) Touch Screen 7. A microprocessor is a processor with reduced (a) instruction set (b) power requirement (c) MIPS performance (d) none of the above 8. Which of the following is not an output of an assembler? (a) executable program (b) source listing with line numbers and errors (c) a symbol table (d) object program 9. Which layer of OSI model is responsible for routing and flow control: (a) Presentation (b) Transport (c) Network (d) Data Link 10. Arrays are passed as arguments to a function by (a) value (b) reference (c) both a and b (d) none of the above 11. Array is: (a) linear data structure

585

(b) non-linear structure (c) none of the above 12. A data structure in which elements are added and removed from only one end, is known as: (a) Array (b) Stack (c) Queue (d) None of the above 13. A diamond-shaped box in an Entity-Relationship diagram refers to: (a) Entity (b) Relationship (c) Attribute 14. The principle means of identifying entities within an entity set is: (a) Primary Key (b) Record (c) Attribute (d) Tuple 15. Modem refers to: (a) Modulator (b) Modulation (c) Demodulator (d) Modulator and Demodulator 16. C language is available for which of the following Operating Systems? (a) DOS (b) Windows (c) Unix (d) All of the above 17. Which of the following have the fastest access time? 586

(a) Magnetic Tapes (b) Magnetic Disks (c) Semiconductor Memories (d) Compact Disks 18. DMA stands for: (a) Direct Memory Allocation (b) Distinct Memory Allocation (c) Direct Memory Access (d) Distinct Memory Access 19. Array subscripts in C always start at: (a):1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) Value provided by user 20. Which type of commands in DOS needs additional files for their execution? (a) Batch Commands (b) Internal Commands (c) External Commands 21. Which of the following statements in regard to Directories is false? (a) Directories can exist inside directories (b) The root directory is always at the highest level (c) Directories with files can be deleted (d) Directories cannot be renamed 22. It is better to buffer a table when (a) When a table is read infrequently (b) When a table is linked to check tables (c) When a table is read frequently and the data seldom changes

587

(d) When a single record is to be picked up 23. The Operating System is responsible for: (a) Controlling peripheral devices such as monitor, printers, disk drives (b) Provide an interface that allows users to choose programs to run and to manipulate files (c) Manage users' files on disk (d) All of the above 24. A company whishes to connect two sites in different parts of the country together. It is decided to use the telephone system. What device should be connected to the fileservers on each site? (a) Router (b) Modem (c) Switch (d) Hub 25. What is a file server? (a) A computer that performs a service for other computers (b) A computer that controls the printers on the network (c) A computer that stores files that are created by network users 26. What is the Protocol used for the Internet? (a) IPX/SPX (b) NetBIOS/NetBEUI (c) CDMA/CA (d) TCP/IP 27. Which one of the following is not a Normal Forms (Normalization) rule with regards to the Relational Model? (a) All fields within a table must relate to or directly describe the Primary Key. (b) Repeating Groups must be eliminated from tables. (c) Fields that can contain non-numeric data are to be removed and placed within their own tables with an associated Primary Key.

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(d) Redundant data is to be eliminated by placing the offending fields in another table. 28. Choose the answer which best describes the term Primary Key: (a) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that can be duplicated. (b) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that is unique. (c) The Primary Key is a field that is never associated with any field in other tables. (d) The Primary Key field is a concept used only in Microsoft Access. 29. Which technique is used to reduce the size of a file: (a) Compression (b) Decompression (c) Encryption (d) Decryption 30. BIOS stands for (a) Binary Input Output Set (b) Binary Input Output System (c) Basic Input Output Set (d) Basic Input Output System 31. A floppy disk is consisting of 40 tracks, each track contains 100 sectors, and the capacity of a sector is 512 bytes, what is the approx. size of that disk? (a) 1 MB (b) 2 MB (c) 4 MB (d) 8 MB 32. What is the binary equivalent of a decimal number 68: (a) 1000100 (b) 1100100 (c) 1000010 (d) 1000001 33. Assembly language to machine language translation is: 589

(a) One-to-One (b) One-to-Many (c) Many-to-One (d) Many-to-Many 34. Maximum size of IP address is: (a) 12 bits (b) 24 bits (c) 32 bits (d) 48 bits 35. RAM stands for (a) Read Access Memory (b) Read After Memory (c) Random Access Memory (d) Random After Memory 36. What is the final value of sum? main () { int sum=1; for(;sum<=9;) printf(%d\n, ++sum); } (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) none of the above 37. If c is a variable initialized to 1, how many times the following loop be executed: while(c>0 && c<60)

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{ c++; } (a) 59 (b) 60 (c) 61 (d) none of the above 38. The declaration void fun(int) indicates the fun is a function which: (a) has no arguments (b) returns nothing (c) both a and b (d) none of the above 39. Out of the following which is not valid network topology: (a) Bus (b) Star (c) Circle (d) Tree 40. The overall logical structure of a database can be expressed graphically by: (a) Data Flow Diagram (b) Flow Chart (c) Directed Graph (d) Entity-Relationship Diagram 41. CARRY, in a half-adder, can be obtained using: (a) OR gate (b) AND gate (c) EX-OR gate (d) EX-AND gate

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42. The memory that requires refreshing of data is: (a) SROM (b) DROM (c) SRAM (d) DRAM 43. The minimum number of bits required to represent numbers in the range:28 to +31 is(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 44. Which bus carries information between processors and peripherals? (a) Data bus (b) Control bus (c) Address bus (d) Information bus 45. Which part of the computer perform arithmetic calculations? (a) Control unit (b) Registers (c) ALU (d) CPU 46. A gigabyte represents: (a) 1 billion bytes (b) 1000 kilobytes (c) 230 bytes (d) 10 megabytes 47. The minimum number of bits required to store the hexadecimal number FF is: (a) 2

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(b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 48. Cache memory enhances: (a) memory capacity (b) memory access time (c) secondary storage capacity (d) secondary storage access time 49. A UPS: (a) increases the storage capacity of a computer system (b) increases the processor speed (c) provides backup power in the event of a power cut\ (d) none of the above 50. An RDBMS is a: (a) Remote DBMS (b) Relative DBMS (c) Reliable DBMS (d) Relational DBMS

ISRO Scientist/Engineer Solved Sample Question Paper (CS/IT)
ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization) Scientist/Engineers Recruitment Sample Paper for Computer Science (IT) This Sample Paper is based on the expected syllabus for ISRO Scientist/Engineer Recruitment Exam. Candidates may get an idea about what to read for the Computer Science / IT Stream Examination. We wish all of you a good luck for the paper. This question paper has been adapted from GJ Tutorial's IT Study material based on the vast experience in teaching for various similar recruitment and admission exams. 1. Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse? 593

(a) Data are often deleted (b) Most applications consists of transactions (c) Data are rarely deleted (d) Relatively few records are processed by applications (e) None of these 2. Which of the following is a transaction? (a) A group of SQL statements consisting of one read and one write operation (b) A group of SQL statements consisting only of ready operations. (c) A group of SQL statements defining a user-oriented task (d) A group of SQL statements consisting only of write operations. (e) None of these 3. There are several security devices used to stop individuals from exploiting your system. Which of the following is used in conjunction with a firewall? (a) Proxy server (b) Intrusion- detection system (c) Terminal server (d) Web server (e) None of these 4. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following...... (a) Undo all changes to the data- base resulting from the execution of the transaction (b) Undo the effects of the last UPDATE command (c) Restore the content of the database to its state at the end of the previous day (d) Make sure that all changes to the database are in effect (e) None of these 5. A client / server network .......... (a) has clients that provide functions such as application control and shared computation. (b) uses client computers to provide copies of software to the server to allow server processing.

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(c) provides a company with the capability to downsize from lager computer systems and move away from legacy systems. (d) has server computers that perform all processing, clients are' dumb' input/ output devices only. (e) None of these. 6. An applet is ....... Document application program. (a) a static (b) a dynamic (c) an active (d) a passive (e) None of these 7. The local antenna for satellite connections is called a ........ (a) modem (b) terminal (c) VSAT (d) DTA (e) None of these 8. What are the four basis connecting hardware devices? (a) Repeater, bridge, router and gateway (b) Repeater, bridge, router and dell (c) Repeater, connector, router and gateway (d) Amplifier, bridge, router and gateway (e) None of these 9. Which type of processing speed measurement is used primarily with supercomputers? (a) Flops (b) Fractions of second (c) Gigahertz (d) MIPS

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(e) None of these 10. This type of software is designed for users who want to customize the programs they use. (a) Shareware (b) Open-source software (c) Freeware (d) Macros (e) None of these 11. What is the term associated with the second part of an e-mail address? (a) Local address (b) Eight characters long (c) User name (d) Domain name (e) None of these 12. A port that allows 8 bits at a time to be transmitted simultaneously is a (n) ..... (a) dedicated port (b) parallel port (c) SCSI port (d) USB port (e) None of these 13. In order for computers to communicate across a network, they must be connected through a(n)..... (a) TCP/IP (b) Topology (c) Ethernet (d) Thin client (e) None of these (e) C. Rangarajan

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14. What is a specialized software program that allows input and output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system? (a) Utility driver (b) Utility program (c) Data compression utility (d) Device driver (e) None of these 15. Single party disk relying on the disk controller for finding out which disk has failed is used by(a) RAID level 5 (b) RAID level 2 (c) RAID level 4 (d) RAID level 3 (e) RAID level 1 16. Which of these terms refers to the feature of an OS that allows a single computer to process the tasks of several users at different stations, in round-robin fashion? (a) Multiprocessing (b) Multiprogramming (c) Multitasking (d) Time processing (e) Time-sharing 17. Which of the following statements is not true about two-tier client-server database architecture? (a) SQL statements are processed on the server (b) SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients (c) Business logic is mostly processed on clients (d) Business logic may be processed on the server (e) None of these 18. A Relational operator that yields all values from selected attributes is known as a -

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(a) difference (b) product (c) select (d) project (e) join 19. Normalization is: (a) the process of creating small stable data structures from complex groups of data when designing a relational database (b) a methodology for documenting database illustrating the relationship between various entities in the database (c) an approach to data management that stores both data and the procedures acting on the data as object that can be automatically retrieved and shared (d) a representation of data as they would appear to an application programmer or user (e) a representation of data as they actually would be organized on physical storage media 20. The process of building a model that demonstrate the features of a proposed product, service or system is called a (a) JAD (b) RAD (c) templating (d) prototyping (e) TAD 21. Which of the following is mandatory component of a URL? (a) Resource Path (b) Protocol (c) Port Number (d) Domain Name (e) None of these 22. DBMS allows you to extrapolate information from your data by using a(a) query language

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(b) table generator (c) report generator (d) wizard (e) None of these 23. A subschema is (a) a description of the physical and logical structure of data and the relationship among the data (b) a file that identifies the subset of data that a group of users can access (c) a detailed description of all data contained in the database (d) a description of the types of modifications that users can make to a database (e) Either (c) or (d) 24. Which of the following is not a type of hub? (a) Passive hub (b) Inactive hub (c) Switching hub (d) Intelligent hub (e) None of these 25. The ........... lists the location of files on the disk (a) FAT (b) boot sector (c) root folder (d) data area (e) None of these Answers: 1. (b) 6. (b) 11. (d) 16. (e) 21. (e) 2. (a) 7. (e) 12. (b) 17. (c) 22. (a) 3. (a) 8. (a) 13. (b) 18. (d) 23. (e) 4. (a) 9. (a) 14. (d) 19. (a) 24. (b) 5. (b) 10. (a) 15. (d) 20. (d) 25. (a)

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BSNL TTA Question Paper: Control Systems Specialization 2007
Exam Name: TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) Specialization: Section E - Control Systems Conducted By: BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited) Conducted In: December 2007 Number of Questions: 50 Maximum Marks: 250 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Negative Marking: Yes Type of Questions: Objective Type (Multiple Choice) Section E - Control Systems 1. An open loop control system has its (a) control action independent of the output or desired quantity (b) controlling action, depending upon human judgment (c) internal system changes automatically taken care of (d) both (a) and (b) (e) all (a),(b) and (c)

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2. A servo system must have (a) feedback system (b) power amplifier to amplify error (c) capacity to control position or its derivative (d) all of these (e) none of these 3. The major disadvantage of a feedback system may be (a) Inaccuracy (b) inefficiency (c) Unreliability (d) instability (e) Insensitivity 4. Properties of a transfer function (a) It is ratio of two polynomials is S and assumes zero initial conditions (b) It depends on system elements and not input and output of the system (c) Coefficients of the powers of S in denominator and numerator are all real constant. The order of denominator is usually greater than or equal to the order of numerator (d) All of these (e) It is a function which transfer one physical system into another physical system. 5. The classical analogous of a simple lever is (a) Capacitor bridge (b) transformer (c) mutual inductor (d) either of these 6. Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function as (a) G1(s) + G2(s) (b) G1(s) / G2(s) (c) G1(s) G2(s) 601

(d) 1+G1(s) G2(s) (e) 1-G1(s)G2(s) (f) two blocks cannot be cascaded 7. The principles of homogeneity and super position can be applied to (a) linear time invariant system (b) non-linear time invariant system (c) digital control system (d) both (a) and (b) 8. Pick up the nonlinear system (a) automatic voltage regulator (b) d.c. servomotor with high field excitation (c) temperature control of a furnaces using thermistor (d) speed control using SCR (e) all of these 9. Signal flow graph (SFG) is a (a) polar graph (b) semi log graph (c) log log graph (d) a special type of graph for analyzing modem control system (e) a topological representation of a set of differential equations 10. Disadvantages of magnetic amplifier (a) time lag, less flexible, non-sinusoidal waveform (b) low power consumption and isolation of the active circuit (c) saturation of the core (d) all of these 11. Pick up false statement regarding magnetic amplifiers (a) The gate coil of an ideal magnetic amplifier has either zero or infinite inductance

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(b) Resistance of control and gate winding is very small (c) Magnetic amplifier gas dropping load characteristics (d) Magnetic amplifiers are not used to control the speed of d.c. shunt motor (e) Magnetic amplifiers can be used in automatic control of electric drivers of higher rating. 12. High power amplification is achieved by using (a) push pull amplifier (b) amplidyne (c) magnetic amplifier (d) DC amplifier (e) D.C. generator 13. Pick up false statement regarding servomotors (a) The d.c. servomotors are lighter than equivalent a.c. servomotors (b) The d.c. servomotors develops higher starting and reversing torque than equivalent a.c. servomotor. (c) A drag cup a.c. servomotor has one windings on stator and other on rotor (d) Output power of servomotors varies from 1/20 W to 100 W 14. To reduce steady state error (a) decrease natural frequency (b) decrease damping (c) increase damped frequency (d) increase time constant (f) increase gain constant of the system 15. A good factor for Mp should be (a) less than 1 (b) lying between 1.1 and 1.5 (c) more than 2.2 (d) zero

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(e) infinity 16. Pick up false statement. Routh-Hurwitz criterion (a) is used for determining stability of a system (b) is an algebraic procedure (c) gives the exact location of roots of the characteristic equation (d) does not indicate relative degree of stability or instability 17. Which of the following is the time domain method of determining stability of a control system (a) Bode plot (b) Nyquist plot (c) Nicholos chart (d) Routh-Hurwitz array (e) Constant M and (fy) locus (f) Root locus technique 18. The technique which gives transient response quickly as well as stability information is (a) Nyquist plot (b) Routh-Hurwitz criteria (c) Bode plot (d) Root locus plot (e) Nichols plot 19. The bandwidth can be increased by use of (a) phase lag network (b) phase lead network (c) both (a) and (b) in cascade (d) both (a) and (b) in parallel (e) none of these 20. Nyquist plot is drawn on

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(a) semi log graph paper (b) log log graph paper (c) polar graph paper (d) centimeter graph paper 21. If the gain margin is positive and the phase margin is negative the system is (a) stable (b) unstable (c) indeterminist 22. The Bode plot is applicable to (a) all phase network (b) minimum phase network (c) maximum phase network (d) lag lead network (e) none of these 23. The valid relation between setting time ts and rise time tr is (a) tr>ts (b) ts>tr (c) ts=tr (d) none of these 24. As a root moves further away from imaginary axis the stability (a) increases (b) decreases (c) not affected (d) none of these 25. Flat frequency response means that the magnitude ratio of output to input over the bandwidth is (a) variable (b) zero 605

(c) constant (d) none of above 26. How many octaves are between 200 Hz and 800 Hz (a) Two octave (b) One octave (c) Four octave (d) None of above 27. Human system can be considered as (a) open loop system (b) close loop system with single feedback (c) close loop system with multivariable feedback (d) none of these 28. In a feedback system the transient response (a) Decays at constant rate (b) gets magnified (c) decays slowly (d) decays more quickly 29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate (a) the steady state gain (b) the main constant (c) the order of system (d) the output for any given input (e) all of the above 30. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in (a) Laplace transform (b) Z-transform (c) Fourier transform

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(d) Simple algebraic form 31. Introduction of feedback decreases the effect of (a) disturbances (b) noise signals (c) error signals (d) all the above 32. The system response of a system can be best tested with (a) unit impulse input signal (b) ramp input signal (c) sinusoidal input signal (d) exponentially decaying input signal 33. Which of the following is a closed loop system (a) electric switch (b) car starter (c) de generator (d) auto-pilot for an aircraft 34. Which of the following is used as an error detector (a) potentiometer (b) field controlled ac motor (c) amplidyne (d) armature controlled ac motor 35. The break away point of root loci are (a) open loop poles (b) closed loop poles (c) open loop zeros (d) closed loop zeros 36. Noise in a control system can be kept low by

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(a) reducing the bandwidth (b) attenuating such frequencies at which external signals get coupled into the system (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 37. Main cause of absolute instability in the control system is (a) parameters of controlling system (b) parameters of controlled system (c) parameters of feedback system (d) error detector where the two signals are compared 38. Basically a controller is (a) a amplifier (b) a clipper (c) a comparator (d) a summer 39. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is (a) highly stable (b) highly oscillatory (c) relatively stable (d) none of these 40. Which of following elements is not used in an automatic control system (a) sensor (b) error detector (c) oscillator (d) final control element 41. AC systems are usually preferred to the DC systems in control applications because (a) AC systems are cheaper (b) AC systems are more stable

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(c) AC systems have better performance characteristics and smaller in size (d) all of these 42. A system has the transfer function (1-s)/(1+s); It is known as (a) low pass system (b) high pass system (c) all pass system (d) none of the above 43. In control systems, excessive bandwidth should be avoided because (a) noise is proportional to bandwidth (b) it leads to low relative stability (c) it leads to slow speed of response (d) none of these 44. In most systems, an increase in gain leads to (a) larger damping ratio (b) smaller damping ratio (c) constant damping ratio (d) none of these 45. A step function is applied to the input of a system and output is of the form y = t, the system is (a) stable (b) unstable (c) not necessarily stable (d) conditionally stable 46. Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic amplifier (a) voltage (b) current (c) power (d) none of above 609

47. The inductance is not used in lag network because of (a) big size (b) time delay and hysteresis losses (c) high reactance (d) none of these 48. Saturation in a stable control system can cause (a) conditional stability (b) over damping (c) low level oscillations (d) high level oscillations 49. Excessive noise in control systems can cause (a) reduction in bandwidth (b) reduction in gain (c) saturation in amplifying stages (d) oscillations 50. The type-0 system has (a) net pole at the origin (b) no pole at the origin (c) simple at one origin (d) two poles at the origin

BSNL TTA Question Paper: Network/ Transmission 2007
Exam Name: TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) Specialization: Section C - Network Filters and Transmission Lines Conducted By: BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited)

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Conducted In: December 2007 Number of Questions: 50 Maximum Marks: 250 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Negative Marking: Yes Type of Questions: Objective Type (Multiple Choice) Section C - Network Filters Transmission Lines 1. Pick up wrong statement (a) A group of interconnected individual components known as circuit elements is called a network. (b) A humped network is an arrangement of physically separate resistors, inductors and capacitors. (c) Distributed network is one, which the resistive, inductive and capacitive effects are inseparable for network analyses. (d) A branch is a network having four elements. 2. Kirchoff's laws for networks are: (a) The algebraic sum of branch currents meeting at any node is zero. (b) The algebric sum of voltage drops in any set of branches forming a closed circuit or loop must be equal to zero. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) and (b) 3. Mutually coupled circuit is a circuit which is: (a) Bilateral

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(b) Unilateral (c) None of these (d) Either (a) or (b) 4. Duality is a (a) Transformation in which current and voltages are interchanged (b) Active sources become passive sources (c) Passive sources become active sources (d) Both (b) and (c) 5. Combined inductance of two inductors L1 and L2 connected and voltages are interchanged (a) L1 + L2 (b) (L1 + L2)/ L1 (c) (L1 + L2) / (L1 X L2) (d) (L1 X L2) / (L1 + L2) 6. Normal analysis techniques are based on (a) Thevenin's theorem (b) Tellegan's theorem (c) Superposition theorem (d) Kirchoff's Law 7. Two voltage sources can be connected in parallel when they are equal in (a) Magnitude (b) Frequency (c) Phase (d) All the above 8. The kirchoff's law fail in (a) Linear circuits (b) Non-linear circuits (c) Lumped parameter circuits 612

(d) Distributed parameter circuits 9. Which of the following is a nonreciprocal network ? (a) A network consisting of all resistances (b) A network consisting of all capacitances (c) A network consisting of all inductances (d) A transistor model 10. When two systems obey equations of the same form the systems are said to be (a) Similar system (b) Identical system (c) Analogous system (d) Digital system 11. For a highly selective circuit (a) It must have large value of Q (b) It must have high value of capacitance to produce resonance at fixed frequency (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) 12. A network consisting of four terminals is called a (a) One port network (b) Two port network (c) Four port network (d) None of the above 13. Driving point of a network is (a) A port where voltage or current source is connected (b) A terminal where load is connected (c) A port where load is connected (d) None of the above 14. Ceramic filters are similar in construction to

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(a) Crystal filters (b) Crystal ladder filters (c) Crystal lattice (d) Mechanical filters 15. When two port networks are connected in parallel the resultant (a) Z parameters are the some of individual parameters (b) Y- parameters are the some of individual parameters (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) 16. Electric wave filters (a) Allow electric signals with specified frequency range (b) Suppress signals outside a specified range (c) Both (a) and (b) occurs simultaneously (d) Either (a) or (b) occur at a time 17. A cascade connection of low pass filter and high pass filter is called (a) Band pass filter (b) Band elimination filter (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b) 18. The response of a network is decided by the location of (a) Its poles (b) Its zeros (c) Either (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b) 19. Example of two port network is (a) Transformer (b) Transmission line

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(c) Bridge circuit and transistor circuit (d) All of the above 20. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is called (a) Universal circuit (b) Reversible circuit (c) Unilateral circuit (d) Bilateral circuit 21. Distortion in transmission line is due to (a) Delay distortion (b) Phase distortion (c) Frequency distortion (d) All the above 22. The general parameters distributed along a transmission line are (a) R&L only (b) L&C only (c) C&G only (d) R, L, C&G 23. Phase distortion is prominently caused by (a) circuit transients (b) non linear characteristics (c) linearity (d) none 24. The voltage or current from the receiving end towards the sending end, decreasing in amplitude with increasing distance from the load is called (a) incident wave (b) medium wave (c) reflected wave (d) none of above 615

25. E.M. Waves of UHF is propagated efficiently via (a) parallel wire transmission lines (b) open wire transmission lines (c) wave guides (d) coaxial cables 26. Norton theorem is valid for network containing only (a) linear elements (b) no linear elements (c) resistance (d) reactance 27. The maximum power is absorbed by one network from other, joined to it at two terminals when the impedance of one is (a) complex conjugate of other (b) square root of other (c) same as other (d) none of above 28. The decrease in effective conductor cross section at high frequencies (a) decrease the conductor resistance (b) increase the conductor resistance (c) no change in conductor resistance (d) none of above 29. Voltage standing wave ratio lies in the range (a) 0 to 1 (b) 1 to infinity (c) 0 to infinity (d) -1 to +1 30. Attenuators have applications (a) in AC circuits only 616

(b) in DC circuits only (c) in AC as well DC circuits (d) in low frequency circuits only 31. In an network (a) the number of tree branches is equal to the number of links (b) the number of tree branches cannot be equal to the number of links (c) the number of tree branches has no relation with the number of links branches (d) none of these 32. In open line transmission systems, attenuation is more at (a) lower frequencies (b) medium frequencies (c) higher frequencies (d) remains constant 33. a power ratio 100 is equivalent to (a) 10 dB (b) 20 dB (c) 50 dB (d) 100 dB 34. The velocity factor for small widely spaced conductors such as open wire line in air is very nearly (a) 0.66 (b) 0.98 (c) 0.82 (d) 0.76 35. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when standing wave ratio (SWR) becomes (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2

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(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 10 36. The VSWR in a short circuited loss less transmission line equals (a) infinity (b) unity (c) zero (d) none of above 37. The velocity factor of a transmission line (a) is always greater than unity (b) depend upon the permittivity of the surrounding medium (c) is lease for air medium (d) is governed by skin effect 38. Which of the following is not correct (a) voltage source is an active element (b) current source is a passive element (c) resistance is a passive element (d) conductance is a passive element 39. A network is said to be nonlinear if it does not satisfy (a) superposition condition (b) homogeneity condition (c) both superposition and homogeneity conditions (d) associative condition 40. An capacitor with zero initial condition at t = 0+ act as a (a) short circuit (b) open circuit (c) current source (d) voltage source

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41. An inductor stores energy in (a) electrostatic field (b) electromagnetic field (c) magnetic field (d) core 42. In series LCR circuits, at resonance, (a) current is maximum, power factor is zero (b) current is maximum, power factor is unity (c) current is minimum, power factor is unity (d) none of above 43. In an RCL series circuit, during resonance, the impedance will be (a) zero (b) minimum (c) maximum (d) none of above 44. When a source is delivering maximum power to load, the efficiency of the circuit is always (a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 100% (d) None of above 45. In a linear network, when the ac input is doubled, the ac output becomes (a) two times (b) four times (c) half (d) one forth 46. A passive network has (a) current sources but no voltage sources 619

(b) voltage sources but no current sources (c) both current and voltage sources (d) no voltage or current sources 47. Two resistances are connected in parallel and each dissipates 50 waits. The total power supplied by the source is (a) 25 watts (b) 50 watts (c) 100 watts (d) 200 watts 48. Three bulbs of 60 watts each are connected is parallel across 220v, 50 Hz supply. If one bulb burns out (a) only remaining two will operate (b) remaining two will not operate (c) all of three will operate (d) there will be heavy current from the supply 49. The amplitude of an audio signal is 10 and that of carrier wave is 50. Percentage modulation is: (a) 0.2 (b) 20 (c) 5 (d) 60 50. The main advantage of PCM system is: (a) lower bandwidth (b) lower power (c) lower noise

BSNL TTA Question Paper: Communication Specialization 2007
Exam Name: 620

TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) Specialization: Section B - Communication Conducted By: BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited) Conducted In: December 2007 Number of Questions: 50 Maximum Marks: 250 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Negative Marking: Yes Type of Questions: Objective Type (Multiple Choice) SECTION: B Communication (1) The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is (a) FSK (b) PSK. (c) PCM (d) single tone modulation (e) Two tone modulation (2)VSB is an abbreviation of vestigal sideband, is derived by filtering (a) DSB (b) AM

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(c) either (a) or (b) (d) PM (3) The Hartely law states that (a) The maximum rate of information transmission depends on the depth of modulation (b) The maximum rate of information depends on the channel bandwidth. (c) Only binary codes may be used (d) Redundancy is essential (4) The FM signal with, a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency tripler. The wave in the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of (a) mf/9 (b) mf/3 (c) mf (d) 3 mf (e) 9mf (5) In high power AM transmission, modulation is done at (a) Buffer stage (b) Oscillator stage (c) RF power stage (d) If stage (6) Companding is used (a) In delta modulator to combat noise (b) To limit amplitude in PCM transmitters. (c) In PWM for working it with TDM (d) To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion (e) In PCM to reduce the SNR (7) In PCM system the SNR of the output signal increases (a) Inversely with bandwidth (b) Exponential with bandwidth 622

(c) With rate of sampling (d) At low frequencies only (8) Armstrong modulator generates (a) Phase modulated signal (b) Frequency modulated signal (c) Both of these (d) Pulse code modulated signal (e) AM and PCM signals (9) A Klystron is a cavity acting as buncher and catcher is used as microwave tube for (a) Guiding waves (b) Velocity modulation (c) frequency modulation (d) impedance matching (e) All of these (10) Easily adjustable tuning component in a waveguide is (a) plunger (b) plunger and stub (c) screw (d) both (a) and (c) (e) both (b) and (c) (11) A ferrite is (a) A non-conductor with magnetic properties (b) A conductor with magnetic properties (c) A semiconductors (d) An insulator which attenuates magnetic fields (e) A compound with good conductivity. (12) Vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave frequencies because of their

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(a) Inter electrode capacitance (b) Small series inductance (c) Large shunt capacitance (d) Short transit time (e) Increased noise figure (13) The biggest disadvantage the IMP ATT diode has is its (a) Low Efficiency (b) high noise (c) Low BW (d) inability to provide pulse operation (e) low power handling ability (14) In AM transmission the frequency, which is not transmitted is (a) carrier frequency (b) audio frequency (c) upper side frequency (d) lower side frequency (15) FM broadcast band lies in (a) VHF (b) UHF (c) SHF (d) HF (16) Automatic gain control is used (a) to maintain the tuning correct (b) to reduce the voltage of loud passage of music (c) to maintain the same amount of output, when stations of different strength are received (d) to increase the amplification at high frequencies (17) The modulation system inherently is most noise resistant in 624

(a) SSB suppressed carrier (b) FM (c) PPM (d) PCM (18) In practical waveguide act as (a) low pass filter (b) high pass filter (c)band pass filter (d)band stop filter (19) The antenna efficiencies achieved in practice depend upon (a) wave length (b) impedance (c) frequency (d) none of above (20) The process of compressing the digital codes at the transmitter and then expanding them back to their original form at receiver is known as (a) Quantizing (b) companding (c) step sizing (d) modulation (21) Digital transmission efficiency is given by (a) information bits/total bits (b) total bits/information bits (c) redundant bits/information bits (d) none of the above (22) The speed of BRI ISDN interface is (a) 2B + D (b) 2D + B 625

(c) 30B + D (d) 30D + B (23) Which of the following is not a microwave generation source? (a) Klystron (b) Magnetron (c) TWT (d) Diode (24) A signal of maximum frequency of 1 KHz is sampled at Nyquist Rate. The interval between two successive samples is: (a) 50 micro seconds (b) 100 micro seconds (c) 500 micro seconds (d) 1000 micro seconds (25) In order to get back the original signal, it is necessary to use: (a) low pass filter (b) high pass filter (c) band pass filter (d) band reject filter (26) Man made noise id caused by: (a) Solar eruptions (b) Distant Stars (c) Lightning Discharges (d) Arc discharge in electric machines (27) At microwave frequencies, the size of antenna becomes (a) very large (b) large (c) small (d) very small 626

(28) Due to curvature of earth, microwave repeaters are placed at distance of about (a) l0 Km (b) 50 Km (c) 200 Km (d) 500 Km (29) For handling large microwave power, the best medium is (a) coaxial line (b) rectangular waveguide (c) stripline (d) circular wave guide (30) An attenuator is used with TWT to (a) prevent oscillations (b) increase gain (c) prevent saturation (d) help bunching (3l) TWT is basically (a) an oscillator (b) tuned amplifier (c) wideband amplifier (d) an audio amplifier (32) The negative resistance in Gunn diode is due to (a) electron transfer to a less mobile energy level (b) high reverse bias (c) electron domain formation at the junction (d) tunneling across the junction (33) Which of the following sinusoidal oscillator is preferred for microwave frequencies? (a) resonant circuit oscillator

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(b) RC phase shift oscillators (c) negative resistance oscillators (d) all of the above (34) When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide (a) they travel along the walls of the waveguide (b) they travel through the dielectric without touching the walls (c) they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along the walls (d) none of above (35) Wave guides are generally made of (a) Cast iron or steel (b) White metal or gun metal (c) bronze or aluminium (d) plastic or bakelite (36) The cut off frequency of a wave guide means (a) lower frequencies will not be propagated (b) it determines the dimensions of the wave guide (c) frequency at which zero transmission takes place (d) None of above (37) In case of matched load (a) Transmission is zero (b) reflection is zero (c) reflection is unity (d) transmission is equivalent to reflection (38) In an AM wave with 100% modulation, the carrier is suppressed. The percentage of power saving will be (a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 25% 628

(d) 66.7% (39) The function of AM detector circuit is (a) to rectify the input signal (b) to discard the carrier (c) to provide the audio signal (d) All of the above (40) In FM, the noise can be further decreased by (a) decreasing deviation (b) increasuig deviation (c) keeping deviation constant (d) none of these (41) In PPM, message resides in (a) Pulses (b) time location of pulse edges (c) none of these (42) Which of the following pulse systems is preferred for communication in presence of noise? (a) PAM (b) PDM (c) PPM (d) none of above (43) Which of the following pulse systems requires higher bandwidth (a) PAM (b)PDM (c)PPM (d)none of these (44) The audio frequency range lies between (a) 20 to 20,000 Hz 629

(b) 20 to 20,000 KHz (c) 400 to 8,000Hz (d) 500 to 5,000 Hz (45) Maximum undistorted power output of a transmitter is obtained when its modulation is: (a) more than 100% (b) 100% (c) less than 100% (d) 50% (46) The AGC voltage in a radio receiver is proportional to (a) the amount of modulation (b) the amplitude of audio signal (c) the amplitude of IF carrier (d) none of these (47) An FM transmitter has maximum frequency deviation of 75 KHz and reproduces audio signal up to 15 KHz. Minimum channel width required, in KHz is (a) 180 (b) 120 (c) 90 (d) 60 (48) With 100% modulation, ratio of side band power to total power transmitted in an amplitude modulated wave is (a) 2/3 (b) l/3 (c) l/2 (d) l/4 (49) To increase the Q factor of an induction, it wound with (a) thicker wire

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(b) thinner wire (c) longer wire (d) wire with heavy insulation (50) Power factor of a purely resistive circuit is: (a) zero (b) one (c) 0.5 (d) infinity

BSNL TTA Question Paper: Instruments and Measurement Specialization 2007
Exam Name: TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) Specialization: Section D - Instruments and Measurement Conducted By: BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited) Conducted In: December 2007 Number of Questions: 50 Maximum Marks: 250 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Negative Marking: Yes Type of Questions: 631

Objective Type (Multiple Choice) SECTION D - Instruments and Measurement (1) Instrument is a device for determining (a) the magnitude of a quantity (b) the physics of a variable (c) either of the above (d) both (a) and (b) (2) Electronic instruments are preferred because they have (a) no indicating part (b) low resistance in parallel circuit (c) very fast response (d) high resistance in series circuit (e) no passive elements. (3) A DC wattmeter essentially consist of (a) two ammeters (b) two voltmeters (c) a voltmeter and an ammeter (d) a current and potential transformer (4) Decibel is a unit of (a) power (b) impedance (c) frequency (d) power ratio (5) A dc voltmeter may be used directly to measure (a) frequency (b) polarity (c) power factor

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(d)power (6) An accurate voltmeter must have an internal impedance of (a) very low value (b) low value (c) medium value (d) very high value (7) The insulation resistance of a transformer winding can be easily measured with (a) Wheatstone bridge (b) megger (c) Kelvin bridge (d) voltmeter (8) A 100 V voltmeter has full-scale accuracy of 5%. At its reading of 50 V it will give an error of (a) 10% (b) 5% (c) 2.5% (d) 1.25% (9) You are required to check the p. f. of an electric load. No p.f. meter is available. You would use: (a) a wattmeter (b) a ammeter, a voltmeter and a wattmeter (c) a voltmeter and a ammeter (d) a kWh meter (10) The resistance of a field coil may be correctly measured by using (a) a voltmeter and an ammeter (b) Schering bridge (c) a Kelvin double bridge (d) a Maxwell bridge

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(11) An analog instrument has output (a) Pulsating in nature (b) Sinusoidal in nature (c) Which is continuous function of time and bears a constant relation to its input (d) Independent of the input quantity (12) Basic charge measuring instrument is (a) Duddel's oscillograph (b) Cathode ray oscillograph (c) Vibration Galvanometer (d) Bailastic Galvanometer (e) Battery Charging equipment (13) A.C. voltage can be measured (using a d.c. instrument) as a value obtained (a) by subtracting the d.c. reading from it's a.c. reading. (b) Using the output function of the multimeter (c) By using a suitable inductor in series with it (d) By using a parallel capacitor with it (e) None of the above (14) A moving coil permanent magnet ammeter can be used to measure (a) D. C. current only (b) A. C. current only (c) A. C. and D. C. currents (d) voltage by incorporating a shunt resistance (e) none of these (15) Select the wrong statement (a) the internal resistance of the voltmeter must be high (b) the internal resistance of ammeter must be low (c) the poor overload capacity is the main disadvantage of hot wires instrument

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(d) the check continuity with multimeter, the highest range should be used. (e) In moving iron voltmeter, frequency compensation is achieved by connecting a capacitor across its fixed coil. (16) Which of the following instrument is suitable for measuring both a.c. and d.c. quantities. (a) permanent magnet moving coil ammeter. (b) Induction type ammeter. (c) Quadrant electrometer. (d) Moving iron repulsion type ammeter. (e) Moving iron attraction type voltmeter. (17) Swamping resistance is used in moving coil instruments to reduce error due to (a) thermal EMF (b) temperature (c) power taken by the instrument (d) galvanometer sensitivity. (18) A power factor meter is based on the principle of (a) electrostatic instrument (b) Electrodynamometer instrument (c) Electro thermo type instrument (d) Rectifier type instrument. (19) A potentiometer recorder is used for (a) AC singles (b) DC signals (c) both (a) and (b) (d) time varying signals (e) none of these. (20) Transformers used in conjunction with measuring instruments for measuring purposes are called

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(a) Measuring transformers (b) transformer meters (c) power transformers (d) instrument transformers (e) pulse transformers. (21) Leakage flux in an electrical machine is measure by (a) Ballistic galvanometer (b) Flux meter (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Vibration galvanometer (e) CRO (22) A C.R.O. is used to indicate (a) supply waveform (b) magnitude of the applied voltage (c) B.H. loop (d) all of these (e) Magnitude of the current flowing in it. (23) An oscillator is a (a) an amplifier having feedback network (b) a high gain amplifier (c) a wide band amplifier (d) a untuned amplifier (e) None of these (24) Distortion can be measured by (a) Wave meter (b) Digital filters (c) Wein bridge circuit

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(d) Bridge T filter circuit (25) Series connected Q- meter is preferable for measurement of components having (a) high impedance (b) low impedance (c) both (a) and (b) (d) high frequency (e) low capacitance (26) A potentiometer is (a) an active transducer (b) a passive transducer (c) a secondary transducer (d) a digital transducer (e) a current sensing transducer (27) The basic components of a digital voltmeter are: (a) A/D converter and a counter (b) A/D converted and a rectifier (c) D/A converter and a counter (d) Ramp generator and counter (e) Comparator (28) Which of the following electrical equipment cannot convert ac into dc (a) diode (b) converter (c) transformer (d) mercury arc rectifier (29) Voltage measurement are often taken by using either a voltmeter or (a) an ammeter (b) an ohmmeter

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(c) an oscillator (d) a watt-meter (30)The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called: (a) capacitance (b) inductor (c) an oscilloscope (d) a watt-meter (31 ) The range of an ammeter can be extended by using a (a) shunt in series (b) shunt in parallel (c) multiplier in series (d) multiplier in parallel (32)A device that changes one form of energy to another is called (a) rheostat (b) oscillator (c) transducer (d) varicap (33) Aquadag is used in CRO to collect (a) primary electron (b) secondary electron (c) both primary and secondary (d) none of above (34) A vertical amplifier for CRO can be designed for (a) only a high gain (b) only a broad bandwidth (c) a constant gain time bandwidth product (d)all of the above

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(35) One of the following is active transducer (a) Strain gauge (b) Selsyn (c) Photovoltic cell (d) Photo emissive cell (36) The dynamic characteristics of capacitive transducer are similar to those of (a) low pass filter (b) high pass filter (c) band pass filter (d) band stop filter (37) Thermocouples are (a) passive transducers (b) active transducers (c) both active and passive transducers (d) output transducers (38) The size of air cored transducers as compare to iron core counter part are (a) bigger (b) smaller (c) same (39) From the point of view of safety, the resistance of earthing electrode should be: (a) low (b) high (c) medium (d) the value of resistance of electrode does not effect the safety (40) In CRT the focusing anode is located (a) between pre accelerating and accelerating anodes (b) after accelerating anodes

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(c) before pre accelerating anodes (d) none of above (41) Which transducer converts heat energy into electrical energy (a) I. V. D. T. (b) thermocouple (c) photoconductor (d) none of the above (42) Which of photoelectric transducer is used for production of electric energy by converting solar energy (a) photo emission cell (b) photo diode (c) photo transistor (d) both (b) and (c) (43) Which of the following instruments consumes maximum power during measurement? (a) induction instruments (b) hot wire instruments (c) thermocouple instruments (d) electrodynamometer instruments (44) Which of the following meters has the best accurancy (a) moving iron meter (b) moving coil meter (c) rectifier type meter (d) thermocouple meter (45) The function of the safety resistor in ohm meter is to (a) limit the current in the coil (b) increase the voltage drop across the coil (c) increase the current in the coil

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(d) protect the battery (46) Which of the following instruments is free from hysteresis and eddy current losses? (a) M.l. instrument (b) electrostatic instrument (c) electrodynamometer type instrument (d)all of these (47) The dielectric loss of a capacitance can be measured by (a) Wien bridge (b) Owen bridge (c) Schering bridge (d) Maxwell bridge (48) Reed frequency meter is essentially a (a) recording system (b) deflection measuring system (c) vibration measuring system (d) oscillatory measuring system (49) In measurements made using a Q meter, high impedance elements should preferably be connected in (a) star (b) delta (c) series (d) parallel (50) A digital voltmeter measures (a) peak value (b) peak-to-peak value (c) rms value (d) average value

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BSNL TTA Question Paper: Micro Processors Specialization 2007
1. A 32-bit processor has (a) 32 registers (b) 32 I/O devices (c) 32 Mb of RAM (d) a 32-bit bus or 32-bit registers 2. Clock speed is measured in (a) bits per second (b) Hertz (c) bytes (d) baud 3. A 20-bit address bus allows access to a memory of capacity (a) 1 MB (b) 2 MB (c) 4 MB (d) 8 MB 4. A microprocessor contains (a) most of RAM (b) most of ROM (c) peripheral drivers (d) most of the control and arithmetic logic functions of computer 5. Which of the following is NOT a type of processor? (a) PowerPC (b) Motorola 8086 (c) Motorola 68000

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(d) Intel Pentium 6. If interrupt arrives on the three lines INTR, RTS 6.5 and RTS 7.5, which of them will the 8085 processor acknowledge? (a) INTR (b) RTS 6.5 (c) RTS 7.5 7. The Intel 8086 processor is (a) 8-bit (b) 16-bit (c) 32-bit (d) 64-bit 8. An assembly language instruction (a) always has a label (b) always takes at least one operand (c) always has an operation field (d) always modifies the status register 9. An interrupt instruction (a) causes an unconditional transfer of control (b) causes a conditional transfer of control (c) modifies the status register (d) is an I/O instruction 10. Programs are written in assembly language because they (a) run faster than High-level language (b) are portable (c) easier to write than machine code programs (d) they allow the programmer access to registers or instructions that are not usually provided by a High-level language

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11. Given that the subprogram putc displays the character in al, the effect of the following instruction is mov al, 'c' sub al, 2 call putc (a) display 2 (b) display 'c' (c) display 'a' (d) display a blank 12. The result of mov al, 65 is to store (a) store 0100 0010 in al (b) store 42H in al (c) store 40H in al (d) store 0100 0001 in al 13. Microprocessor is also often called a (a) Chip (b) Resistor (c) Capacitor (d) Transistor 14. A microprocessor's program counter has (a) the digital value of the data (b) the address of an instruction (c) the address of data 15. Which of the following is a math co-processor? (a) 8085 (b) 8086 (c) 8087 (d) 8088 644

16. Interrupts are classified as (a) Hardware interrupts (b) Software interrupts (c) Hardware interrupts and Software interrupts (d) none of the above 17. The system bus is made up of (a) data bus (b) data bus and address bus (c) data bus and control bus (d) data bus, control bus and address bus 18. The memory address register is used to store (a) data to be transferred to memory (b) data that has been transferred from memory (c) the address of a memory location (d) an instruction that has been transferred from memory 19. When an interrupt occurs, the processor completes the current ___________ before jumping to the interrupt service subroutine (a) microinstruction it is executing (b) instruction it is executing (c) macro it is executing (d) subroutine it is executing 20. A microprocessor is a processor with a reduced (a) instruction set (b) power requirement (c) MIPS performance (d) none of the above 21. A scheme in which the address specifies which memory word contains the address of the operand, is called

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(a) Immediate addressing (b) Based addressing (c) Direct addressing (d) Indirect addressing 22. Processor gets the address of the next instruction to be processed from (a) Instruction register (b) Instruction counter (c) Program counter (d) Program register 23. Fetch operations are not required in (a) Immediate addressing (b) Register addressing (c) Direct addressing (d) Indirect addressing 24. What is meant by Maskable interrupts? (a) An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer. (b) An interrupt that cannot be turned off by the programmer. (c) An interrupt that can be turned off by the system. (d) An interrupt that cannot be turned off by the system. 25. Which interrupts are generally used for critical events such as Power failure, Emergency, Shut off etc.? (a) Maskable interrupts (b) Non-Maskable interrupts (c) none of the above 26. Which microprocessor accepts the program written for 8086 without any changes? (a) 8085 (b) 8087 (c) 8088 646

27. How many memory locations are required to store the instruction LXI H, 0800H in an 8085 assembly language program? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 28. How many memory fetches (including instruction fetch) are required to execute the instruction LXI H, 0800H in an 8085 assembly language program? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 29. MPU stands for (a) Multi-Processing Unit (b) Micro-Processing Unit (c) Mega-Processing Unit (d) Major-Processing Unit 30. Which of the following is not possible by a microprocessor? (a) Reading from Memory (b) Writing into Memory (c) Reading from Input port (d) Writing into Input port 31. In which microprocessor does the concept of pipeline first introduced? (a) 8086 (b) 80286 (c) 80386 (d) 80486 32. LSI stands for -

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(a) Large Size Instruction (b) Large Scale Instruction (c) Large Size Integration (d) Large Scale Integration 33. Which of the following is true about pseudo code? (a) A machine language (b) An assembly language (c) A high level language (d) none of the above 34. The macro processor must perform (a) recognize macro definitions and macro calls (b) save the macro definitions (c) expand macro calls and substitutes arguments (d) all of the above 35. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to (a) 1 byte (b) 2 byte (c) 4 byte (d) 8 byte 36. The TRAP interrupts mechanism of the 8085 microprocessor (a) execute an instruction supplied by an external device through the INTA signal (b) execute an instruction from memory location 20H (c) executes a NOP (d) none of the above 37. What are the states of the Auxiliary carry (AC) and Carry flag (CY) after executing the following 8085 program? MVI H, 5DH

MVI L, 6BH 648

MOV A, H ADD L (a) AC=0 and CY=0 (b) AC=1 and CY=1 (c) AC=1 and CY=0 (d) AC=0 and CY=1 38. Contents of register A after the execution of the following 8085 microprocessor program is MVI A, 55H MVI C, 25H ADD C DAA (a) 7AH (b) 80H (c) 50H (d) 22H 39. Which of the following is a 16-bit micro processor? (a) Motorola 6800 (b) Intel 8085 (c) Intel 8086 (d) Zilo 80 40. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor uses 36 address lines to access memory. What is the maximum memory that it can support, in gigabytes? (a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 64 (d) 128 41. Out of the following which is not the flag in 8085 microprocessor

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(a) Counter flag (b) Carry flag (c) Zero flag (d) Parity flag 42. What is a basic element of Memory? (a) Transistor (b) Flip-flop (c) Gate (d) none of the above 43. Which group of instructions do not affect the flags? (a) Arithmetic operations (b) Logic operations (c) Data transfer operations (d) Branch operations 44. DMA stands for (a) Direct Memory Allocation (b) Distinct Memory Allocation (c) Direct Memory Access (d) Distinct Memory Access 45. In RST interrupts, RST stands for (a) Repeat Start Test (b) Restart (c) Start 46. Which interrupt has the highest priority? (a) TRAP (b) RST 6 (c) RST 6.5

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(d) INTR 47. In 8085 microprocessor with memory mapped I/O (a) I/O device have 8-bit addresses. (b) I/O devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions. (c) arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I/O data. (d) there can be a max of 256 input devices and 256 output devices. 48. A microprocessor (a) reads instructions from memory (b) communicates with I/O devices (c) controls the timing of information flow (d) all of the above 49. An instruction consists of (a) Data and Address (b) Register and Memory (c) Opcode and Operand (d) Input and Output 50. If the 8085 adds 87H and 79 H, which of the following flags will become 1 (a) Zero flag and Auxiliary Carry flag (b) Zero flag and Carry flag (c) Carry flag and Auxiliary Carry flag (d) none of the above

Bank IT/Specialist/Computer Officer Exam Sample Paper
The syllabus for Deputy Manager (IT) of PNB exam will consist of specialization of your field. It may cover: Speciality: 1. Basics of Computer (WINDOWS OS/DOS) 2. Office Applications. 3. RDBMS - Oracle etc 651

4. Networking 5. Hardware 6. internet technologies 7. Other emerging technologies General: 8. Reasoning 9. English. 10. Mathematics 1. Professional Knowledge - 40 Questions - 90 Marks 2. English - 35 Questions - No Marks (You just need to Qualify) 3. Quantitative - 35 Questions - 35 Marks 4. Reasoning - 50 Questions - 75 Marks 1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null. (a) entity integrity rule (b) referential integrity constraint (c) action assertion (d) composite attribute (e) None of these 2. An applet __________ (a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client (b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website (c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client (d) collects data from visitors to a Website (e) None of these 3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk. (a) system virus

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(b) Trojan horse virus (c) file virus (d) macro virus (e) None of these 4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? (a) Simply parity check (b) Checksum (c) Two-dimensional parity check (d) CRC (e) None of these 5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___. (a) Disk Crash (b) Mother Board Crash (c) Corruption of program (d) Deletion of files (e) None of these 6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model(a) Transport (b) Network (c) Data Link (d) Physical (e) All of these 7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse? (a) Subject-oriented (b) Integrated (c) Time-variant (d) Updateable

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(e) None of these 8. Which of the following is true ? (a) Logical design is software-dependent (b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location (c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model (d) Logical design is software independent (e) None of these 9. A range check _____ (a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field (b) verifies that all required data is present (c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit (d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical (e) None of these 10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is(a) HTTP (b) Browser (c) WWW (d) B2B (e) None of these 11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer. (a) carries out, the details of an object for (b) hides, the details of an object from (c) reveals, the details of an object to (d) extends, the details of an object beyond (e) None of these 12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____ (a) firewall 654

(b) proxy server (c) IP address (d) domain name (e) None of these 13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key? (a) Join index (b) Bitmap index (c) B + Tree (d) Hierarchical index (e) None of these 14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what? (a) Data integrity (b) The type of database (c) The user's perspective (d) The business practices and policies (e) None of these 15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines. (a) Modem (b) Router (c) Gateway (d) Bridge (e) All of these 16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___. (a) executed (b) referenced (c) imported (d) declared 655

(e) None of these 17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___. (a) begin the line with a # sign (b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /) (c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-) (d) indent the line (e) None of these 18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____ (a) 4GLs (b) macro languages (c) object-oriented languages (d) visual programming languages (e) None of these 19. Firewalls are used to protect against___. (a) Unauthorized Attacks (b) Virus Attacks (c) Data Driven Attacks (d) Fire Attacks (e) All of these 20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user(a) Interrupt request (b) Forward DNS lookup (c) Data-Link layer (d) File Transfer Protocol (e) Common gateway interface

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21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__. (a) Schema, Base and Table (b) Base, Table and Schema (c) Key, Base and Table (d) Schema, Table and View (e) None of these 22. Data are ________ in client/server computing. (a) never sent to the client machine (b) sent in very large sections to save processing time (c) sent only upon the client's request (d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort (e) sent from the client to the server for processing 23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value? (a) Define the attribute as required (b) Define subtypes (c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank (d) Define supertypes (e) None of these 24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk. (a) Root (b) Base (c) Sub (d) Case (e) None of these 25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails. (a) Channel bank (b) Cluster 657

(c) Tiger team (d) Serverless backup (e) Logical unit ANSWERS 1. (a) (c) (e) (b) (b) 6. (e) (d) (a) (c) (a) 11. (b) (c) (b) (b) (a) 16. (c) (b) (d) (a) (e) 21. (d) (c) (d) (c) (b)

BSNL TTA Question Paper: Electrical Specialization 2007
SECTION A - ELECTRICAL 1. In a D.C. generator, if the brushes are given a small amount of forward shift, the effect of armature is a. Totally demagnetizing b. Totally magnetizing c. Partly demagnetizing and partly cross magnetizing d. Totally cross magnetizing 2. The air gap between stator and armature of an electric motor is kept as small as possible a. To get a stronger magnetic field b. to improve the air circulation c. To reach the higher speed of rotation d. To make the rotation easier. 3. Two series motors are coupled. One motor runs as generator and other as motor. The friction losses of the two machines will be equal when a. Both operates at same voltage b. Both have same back emf c. Both have same speed

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d. both have same excitation 4. Plugging of D.C. motor is normally executed by a. Reversing the field polarity b. Reversing the armature polarity c. Reversing both the armature and field polarity d. Connecting a resistance across the armature. 5. Transformer oil transformer provides a. Insulation and cooling b. B. Cooling and lubrication c. Lubrication and insulation d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication 6. Leakage fluxes of transformer may be minimized by a. Reducing the magnetizing current to the minimum b. Reducing the reluctance of the iron core to the minimum c. Reducing the number of primary and secondary turn to the minimum d. Sectionalizing and interleaving the primary and secondary windings 7. Electric power is transformed upon one coil to other coil in a transformer a. Electrically b. Electro Magnetically c. Magnetically d. Physically 8. The most suitable and economical connection for small high voltage transformer isa. Star- Delta connection b. Delta- Delta connection c. Delta- Star connection d. Star- Star connection 9. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at

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a. Unity power factor b. Leading power factor c. Lagging power factor d. Either lagging or leading power factor 10. In an A.C. machine, the armature winding is kept stationary while the field winding is kept rotating for the following rason a. Armature handles very large currents and high voltages b. Armature friction involving deep slots to accommodate large coils is easy if armature is kept stationary c. Ease of cooling the stator than rotor d. None of the above. 11. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is the a. Angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles b. Angle between the magnetizing current and back emf c. Angle between the supply voltage and back emf d. None of the above 12. A 3-phase synchronous motor is said to be "floating" when it operates a. On no load and without loss b. On constantly varying load c. On pulsating load d. On high load and variable supply voltage 13. Speed of synchronous motor depends upon a. Number of poles b. Supply frequency c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b) 14. Imbalance in the shaft of an induction motor occurs due to a. Slip rings

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b. Overheating of winding c. Non uniform of air gap d. Rigid consturcion 15. Squirrel cage induction motor has a. Zero starting torque b. Very small starting torque c. Medium starting torque d. Very high starting torque 16. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is similar to that of a a. Synchronous motor b. Repulsion - start induction motor c. Transformer with a shorted secondary d. Capacitor - start, induction - run motor 17. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor are similar to those a. D.C. shunt motor b. D.C. series motor c. A.C. motor d. None of the above 18. Single phase A.C. motor generally used for vacuum cleaners is a. Universal motor b. Repulsion motor c. Hysteresis motor d. Reluctance motor 19. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of a. Switch yard b. Transformers c. Alternators

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d. Transmission lines 20. The type of braking used in traction system is a. Mechanical braking b. Electro - pneumatic braking c. Vacuum braking system d. All the above 21. The function of processing zenger diode in a UJT circuit used for triggering of SCRs is to a. Expedite the generation of triggering pulses b. Delay the generation of triggering pulses c. Provide a constant voltage to UJT to prevent erratic firing d. Provide a variable voltage to UJT as the source voltage changes 22. The frequency of a ripple in the output voltage of a 3 - phase semi converter depends upon a. Firing angle and load resistance b. Firing angle and supply frequency c. Firing angle and load inductance d. Only on load circuit parameters 23. The SCR is turned off when the anode currents falls below a. Forward current rating b. Break - over voltage c. Holding current d. Latching 24. V4 characteristics of emitter of a UJT is a. Similar to CE with linear and saturation region b. Similar to FET with a linear and pinch of region c. Similar to tunnel diode in some respects d. Linear between the peak point and valley point

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25. A transformer works on a. DC b. AC c. AC & DC both d. Neither AC not DC 26. Which of the following device is used in transformer? a. Tube light b. Electric heater c. Mobile phone d. Rectifier module 27. Earth electrodes can be in the form of a. rods or piper b. stripes c. plates d. any of above 28. Carbone or metal brushes are used in a. DC generators only b. AC generators only c. Both AC & DC generation d. None of above 29. Energy is lost due to Joule's heating effects in winding of transformer. This is called a. Copper loss b. Eddy current loss c. Flux loss d. None 30. In refrigeration cycle heat is lost in a. Cooling coil

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b. Condenser c. Compressor d. Expansion valve 31. The power factor of AC circuit is a. R/X b. R/Z c. Z/R d. Zero 32. Silicon controlled output is good if ripple factor is a. Switch b. Transformer c. Amplifier d. None of above 33. The rectifier output is good if ripple factor is\ a. More b. Less c. Constant d. None of above 34. Protective relays can monitor large AC current by means of a. Current transformer b. Potential transformer c. Micro transformer d. None of above 35. The combines AM of two similar batteries connected in parallel is: a. halved b. doubled c. remain constant

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d. none of above 36. The current in circuit having 5 V EMI source and 10 Ohm resistance is: a. 2 Amp b. 50 Amp c. 5 Amp d. ½ Amp 37. The chopper is a device to change a. Voltage b. Current c. Frequency d. None of these 38. The power consumption, in case of centrifugal loads (like pump, fan, blower etc) is proportional to: a. speed b. square of speed c. cube of speed d. none of these 39. Which of these need to be measured after rewinding the motor: a. no load current b. air gap c. winding resistance d. all of the above 40. Five percent increase in supply frequency will change the synchronous speed of motor by: a. -5% b. +5% c. -10% d. +10%

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41. Which of the following is the best inverter? a. square wave inverter b. sine wave inverter c. pure sine wave inverter d. triangular wave inverter 42. For driving a motor in a tape recorder or record player, the motor used is generally: a. a synchronous motor b. a hydraulic motor c. an induction motor d. a dc series motor 43. The DC motor starter used with a constant speed shunt motor is: a. 2 point starter b. 3 point starter c. 4 point starter d. 5 point starter 44. A commutator in a DC motor converts a. AC to DC b. DC to AC c. Both AC to DC and DC to AC d. None of these 45. Two transformers running in parallel will share the load according to their: a. leakage reactance b. pu impedance c. efficiency d. rating 46. The size of the Earth Wire is determined by: a. the ampere capacity of the service wires

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b. the atmospheric conditions c. the voltage of service wires d. none of these 47. The function of lightning arrester is: a. to limit the short circuit fault current b. to provide path to high voltage surge to earth c. to reduce arcing d. none of these 48. Surge protector provide: a. high impedance to normal voltage b. low impedance to surge c. both (a) and (b) d. none of these 49. Earthing is necessary to give protection against a. voltage fluctuation b. overloading c. danger of electric shock d. high temperature of conductors 50. The primary function of fuse is to a. protect the appliance b. open the circuit c. prevent excessive current d. protect the line Khel Ratna Awards – General Knowledge Update

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Staff Selection Commission SSC Tax Assistant Exam Solved Paper 2009
1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ? (A) Bachhendri Pal (B) Phew Dorajee (C) Onn Saang Su Kayi (D) Yoko Ono Ans : (A) 2. Epicentre is concerned with— (A) Earthquake (B) Volcano (C) Cyclone (D) Land-sliding Ans : (A) 3. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ? (A) Cosmology (B) Chemistry (C) Fluid Mechanics (D) Astrophysics Ans : (D) 4. Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquake ? (A) Richter (B) Metric (C) Centigrade (D) Newton Ans : (A) 5. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ? (A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit (B) V. K. Krishna Menon (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Rajeshwar Dayal Ans : (A) 6. Sea-coast of which of the following states is the longest ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra

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(C) Orissa (D) Tamil Nadu Ans : (A) 7. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ? (A) Ready Action Force (B) Rapid Action Force (C) Reverse Action Force (D) Repeat Action Force Ans : (B) 8. Bolometer is used to measure which of the following ? (A) Frequency (B) Temperature (C) Velocity (D) Wavelength Ans : (B) 9. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ? (A) Ganga (B) Brahmputra (C) Bhagirathi (D) Yamuna Ans : (C) 10. Which of the following is incorrect ? (A) AIDS is a retroviral disease (B) AIDS disease spreads due to homosexual and bisexual relations (C) AIDS was first diagnosed in 1981 in USA (D) Due to AIDS, ano-genetal warts are formed Ans : (C) 11. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ? (A) Myanmar (B) Sri Lanka (C) Pakistan (D) Tajikistan Ans : (D) 12. (A) (B) (C) Who won the U.S. Open Tennis Men’s Singles in August 2008 ? Roger Federer Rafael Nadal Mahesh Bhupati

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(D) None of the above Ans : (A) 13. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ? (A) Sh. Shivraj Patil (B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee (C) Sh. P. Chidambaram (D) Sh. A.K. Anthony Ans : (C) 14. Which one of the following has been appointed as the Secretary of State by Barack Obama, President of U.S.A. ? (A) Hillary Clinton (B) Joe Biden (C) Condoleezza Rice (D) Ben Porritt Ans : (A) 15. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008— (A) Saumika Mishra (B) Santosh Sen (C) Amit Kumar (D) Pappu Ans : (A) 16. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2006 was awarded by the President of India to— (A) Tapan Sinha (B) Madhur Bhandarkar (C) Dilip Kumar (D) Lata Mangeshkar Ans : (A) 17. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of— (A) U.S.A. (B) Canada (C) U.S.S.R. (D) Ireland Ans : (D)

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18. ‘Jeevan Aastha’—a scheme relating to investment and saving, was launched during 2008-09, by— (A) Tata AIG (B) ICICI Prudential (C) Bajaj Allianz (D) LIC Ans : (D) 19. The three medals that Indians won in the Beijing Olympics were in— (A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling (B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery (C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis (D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey Ans : (A) 20. ATM stands for— (A) Automatic Teller Machine (B) Automated Teller Machine (C) Automatic Tally Machine (D) Automated Tally Mechanism Ans : (A) 21. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the— (A) Chief Justice of India (B) Chief Justice of a High Court (C) Governor (D) Vice President Ans : (C) 22. Only one of the following can be the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. He is the— (A) Minister for Planning and Development (B) Home Minister (C) Prime Minister (D) Finance Minister Ans : (C) 23. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from— (A) Jaisalmer (B) Jodhpur (C) Bikaner

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(D) Barmer Ans : (D) 24. Which one of the following cricketers has been awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2007 ? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Saurav Ganguly (C) M.S. Dhoni (D) Virender Sehwag Ans : (C) 25. Garba is a dance form of— (A) Gujarat (B) Rajasthan (C) Orissa (D) Assam Ans : (A) 26. Which one of the following countries has become the world leader in the carbon credit business in 2007 ? (A) India (B) Brazil (C) Mexico (D) China Ans : (D) 27. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ? (A) Mohinder Singh (B) Ajit Pal Singh (C) Joginder Singh (D) Milkha Singh Ans : (D) 28. Find the odd one (with reference of 26th January 2009 awards). (A) Mahendra Singh Dhoni (B) Harbhajan Singh (C) Pankaj Advani (D) Abhinav Bindra Ans : (B) 29. Fundamental Rights are not given to— (A) Bankrupt persons (B) Aliens (C) Persons suffering from incurable disease (D) Political sufferers

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Ans : (B) 30. Which is the lowest layer of the atmosphere ? (A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Thermosphere Ans : (A) 31. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ? (A) Non-violence of the brave (B) Non-violence of the weak (C) Non-violence of the coward (D) Non-violence of the downtrodden Ans : (A) 32. Why was the name of Kuber Singh, a 17-year old student of G.D. Goenka World School, in the news on 20th January 2009 ? (A) He was declared as the winner of the Sanjay Chopra Award (B) He broke the record for fastest memorising of a 9 digit number (C) He witnessed the Swearingin-Ceremony of President Barack Obama of USA, as an official invitee (D) He solved the crossword puzzle of the famous USA magazine Ans : (C) 33. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ? (A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha (B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President (C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha (D) Five years Ans : (C) 34. What was the reason for Gandhiji’s support to decentralization of power ? (A) Decentralisation ensures more participation of the people into democracy (B) India had decentralisation of power in the past (C) Decentralisation was essential for the economic development of the country (D) Decentralisation can prevent communalism Ans : (C) 35. Consent of the people means consent of—

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(A) A few people (B) All people (C) Majority of the people (D) Leader of the people Ans : (C) 36. For how many categories has A. R. Rehman, the Golden Globe Award Winner for original sound track in the film ‘Slum Dog Millionaire’ been nominated at the Oscars ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 9 Ans : (C) 37. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ? (A) Gram Sabha (B) Gram Panchayat (C) Gram Cooperative Society (D) Nyaya Panchayat Ans : (C) 38. Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party ? 1. Motilal Nehru 2. Sardar Patel 3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 39. Match the following— Union Territory (a) Puducherry (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Lakshadweep (d) Daman and Diu Jurisdiction (High Court) 1. Kerala 2. Bombay 3. Madras

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4. Calcutta (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 1 3 4 2 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 1 4 3 2 Ans : (A) 40. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional and nonstatutory body ? (A) Finance Commission (B) Planning Commission (C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Election Commission Ans : (B) 41. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ? 1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution. 2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another. 3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House. 4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. (A) 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 4 Ans : (D) 42. Deep fried food materials are carcinogenic because they are rich in— (A) Fats (B) Hydrocarbons (C) Cooking oil (D) Nicotine Ans : (A) 43. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ? (A) Copper (B) Lead

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(C) Mercury (D) Zinc Ans : (A) 44. If the radius of blood vessels of a person decreases his/her blood pressure will— (A) increase (B) decrease (C) remain unaffected (D) increase for males and decrease for females Ans : (A) 45. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as— (A) Neutrophilia (B) Nephrosis (C) Necrosis (D) Neoplasia Ans : (A) 46. Insufficient blood supply in human body is referred as— (A) Ischemia (B) Hyperemia (C) Hemostasis (D) Hemorrhage Ans : (A) 47. Typhoid is caused by— (A) Pseudomonas sp. (B) Staphylococcus (C) Bacillus (D) Salmonella typhi Ans : (D) 48. BCG immunization is for— (A) Measles (B) Tuberculosis (C) Diphtheria (D) Leprosy Ans : (B) 49. Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by— (A) Proteins (B) Fats

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(C) Minerals (D) Vitamins Ans : (B) 50. The limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin— (A) A (B) B1 (C) D (D) E Ans : (C) 51. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as— (A) Sedimentation (B) Filtration (C) Flocculation (D) Water softening Ans : (D) 52. Major gaseous pollutant of the thermal power station is— (A) H2S (B) NH3 (C) NO2 (D) SO2 Ans : (D) 53. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by— (A) Koch (B) Hansen (C) Fleming (D) Harvey Ans : (B) 54. Where are the traces of Portuguese culture found in India ? (A) Goa (B) Calicut (C) Cannanore (D) Cochin Ans : (B) 55. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ? 1. Hemant Karkare 2. M. C. Sharma

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3. Gajendra Singh 4. Vijay Salaskar (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the above Ans : (D) 56. Who laid the wreath at the ‘Amar Jawan Jyoti’ (India Gate) on 26th January 2009 ? (A) Prime Minister (B) Defence Minister (C) Home Minister (D) Minister for External Affairs Ans : (B) 57. The British introduced the railways in India in order to— (A) Promote heavy industries in India (B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control (C) Move foodstuff in case of famine (D) Enable Indians to move freely within the country Ans : (B) 58. According to Dadabhai Naoroji ‘Swaraj’ meant— (A) Complete independence (B) Self government (C) Economic independence (D) Political independence Ans : (C) 59. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ? (A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh (B) R. G. Bhandarkar (C) Mahadev Govind Ranade (D) B. G. Tilak Ans : (A) 60. Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka’s administrative policy ? (A) The third Buddhist Council (B) The Kalinga War (C) His embracing of Buddhism (D) His sending of missionary to Ceylon

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Ans : (B) 61. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ? (A) Uttarakhand (B) Meghalaya (C) Mizoram (D) Jharkhand Ans : (D) 62. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal ? (A) Robert Clive (B) Warren Hastings (C) William Bentinck (D) Cornwallis Ans : (B) 63. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ? (A) Bengal (B) Bihar (C) Orissa (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (B) 64. Match the following— List-I (a) Tughlaqabad Fort (b) Red Fort (at Delhi) (c) Hauz Khas (d) The City of Siri List-II 1. Alauddin Khilji 2. Shah Jahan 3. Firoz Shah Tughlaq 4. Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 2 3 1 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 1 4 2

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Ans : (B) 65. Which of the following are correctly matched ? Persons—Events 1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath 2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh 3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal 4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 only (C) 1 only (D) 2 and 4 Ans : () 66. Which of the undermentioned facts about Taj Mahal is not correct ? (A) It is a magnificent mausoleum (B) It was built by Shah Jahan (C) It is situated outside Agra Fort (D) The names of artisans who built it are engraved on it Ans : (D) 67. Where did Babar die ? (A) Agra (B) Kabul (C) Lahore (D) Delhi Ans : (A) 68. The present Indian monetary system is based on— (A) Gold Reserve System (B) Proportional Reserve System (C) Convertible Currency System (D) Minimum Reserve System Ans : (D) 69. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is considered as— (A) Absolute Poverty (B) Relative Poverty (C) Urban Poverty (D) Rural Poverty Ans : (A)

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70. Full convertibility of a rupee means— (A) Purchase of foreign exchange for rupees freely (B) Payment for imports in terms of rupees (C) Repayment of loans in terms of rupees (D) Determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freely by the market forces of demand and supply Ans : (D) 71. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of— 1. Public Sector 2. Private Sector 3. Joint Sector 4. Cooperative Sector (A) 1, 4 (B) 1, 2 (C) 3, 4 (D) 2, 4 Ans : (B) 72. The term stagflation refers to a situation where— (A) Growth has no relation with the change in prices (B) Rate of growth and prices both are decreasing (C) Rate of growth is faster than the rate of price increase (D) Rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase Ans : (D) 73. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, according to 2001 census ? (A) Maharashtra (B) Bihar (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) West Bengal Ans : (C) 74. The term ‘Green Revolution’ has been used to indicate higher production through— (A) Creation of grasslands (B) Planting more trees (C) Enhanced agricultural productivity per hectare (D) Creation of gardens in urban areas Ans : (C) 75. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by— (A) Adam Smith

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(B) Marshall (C) P. A. Samuelson (D) J. S. Mill Ans : (C) 76. Gross Domestic Product is defined as the value of all— (A) Goods produced in an economy in a year (B) Goods and services produced in an economy in a year (C) Final goods produced in an economy in a year (D) Final goods and services produced in an economy in a year Ans : (D) 77. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves— (A) Upward to the right (B) Downward to the right (C) Horizontally (D) Vertically Ans : (A) 78. Production function explains the relationship between— (A) Initial inputs and ultimate output (B) Inputs and ultimate consumption (C) Output and consumption (D) Output and exports Ans : (A) 79. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ? (A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan (B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi (C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar (D) Shri D. Subbarao Ans : (D) 80. The Draft of the Five Year Plans in India is approved by the— (A) National Development Council (B) Planning Commission (C) National Productivity Council (D) Ministry of Finance Ans : (A) 81. (A) (B) (C) In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have— Same meaning Different meaning Opposite meaning

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(D) None of the above Ans : (B) 82. Nature of unemployment in agriculture in India is— (A) Only seasonal (B) Only disguised (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 83. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is— (A) Saturn (B) Uranus (C) Neptune (D) Pluto Ans : (D) 84. A soap bubble shows colours when illuminated with white light. This is due to— (A) Diffraction (B) Polarisation (C) Interference (D) Reflection Ans : (C) 85. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is— (A) Terrestrial telescope (B) Astronomical telescope (C) Compound microscope (D) Simple microscope Ans : (A) 86. A person is hurt on kicking a stone due to— (A) Inertia (B) Velocity (C) Reaction (D) Momentum Ans : (C) 87. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in— (A) Inductance (B) Current (C) Resistance

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(D) Capacitance Ans : (B) 88. Which of the following is an example for cantilever beam ? (A) Diving board (B) Bridge (C) See-saw (D) Common balance Ans : (A) 89. It is difficult to cook rice— (A) At the top of a mountain (B) At the sea level (C) Under a mine (D) Same anywhere Ans : (A) 90. A dynamo is a device which— (A) creates mechanical energy (B) creates electrical energy (C) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy (D) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy Ans : (C) 91. X-rays were discovered by— (A) Becquerel (B) Roentgen (C) Marie Curie (D) Van Lue Ans : (B) 92. Which of the following substance is highly plastic ? (A) Quartz (B) Mica (C) Granite (D) Clay Ans : (D) 93. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in— (A) Mumbai (B) Bengaluru (C) Hyderabad (D) Pune Ans : (D)

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94. A medicine which promotes the secretion of urine is called— (A) Adrenaline (B) Monouretic (C) Diuretic (D) Triuretic Ans : (C) 95. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are— (A) Hormones (B) Nucleic acids (C) Pheromones (D) Steroids Ans : (C) 96. The tip of the match-stick contains— (A) Phosphorus pentoxide (B) White phosphorus (C) Red phosphorus (D) Phosphorus trichloride Ans : (C) 97. Match the source in Column B with the product of Column A. Column A (Product) (a) Formic acid (b) Citric acid (c) Tartaric acid Column B (Source) 1. Lemon 2. Tamarind 3. Ants (a) (b) (c) (A) 3 2 1 (B) 3 1 2 (C) 2 3 1 (D) 2 1 3 Ans : (B) 98. Commercially, sodium bicarbonate is known as— (A) Washing soda (B) Baking soda

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(C) Bleaching powder (D) Soda ash Ans : (B) 99. An emulsifier is an agent which— (A) Stabilises an emulsion (B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion (C) Accelerates the dispersion (D) Homogenises an emulsion Ans : (A) 100. Mortar is a mixture of water, sand and— (A) Slaked lime (B) Quick lime (C) Limestone (D) Gypsum Ans : (A)

SBI Bank Clerk Previous Year Solved Question Paper
(General Awareness) 1.Who amongst the following cricketers became the ninth indian to claim 150 or more wickets? (a) A.Kumble (b) A.Agarkar (c) S.Tendulkar (d) Harbhajan Singh (e) None of these Ans (c) 2. Who amongst the following returned to earth after a lomg 195 days stay in space ? (a) Angei Brewer (b) Mike Leinbach (c) Shruti Vadera (d) Sunita Williams (e) None of these Ans(d) 3. Japan PM shinzo Abe came to office last year with huge support in his favour. But since last few months he is facing problems in his political survival. Which ofthe following actions taken by him does / do not enjoy support of the people of Japan (Pick up the correctstatement) ? 1. Decision to postpone parliament elections. 2. Falling to control inflation which has gone to the level of 12% an unusual phenomenon in the history of Japan . 3. Decision to allow USA to make an army Base in some of its Islands where USA will have its nuclear war-heads (a) Only 2 686

(b) Only 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Only 3 (e) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans(c) 4. European leaders agree on traty was the news in leading news paper in recent past . Which of the following was the treaty on which leadres were of diverse views (Pick up the correct statement) ? 1. The treaty was to make the EURO money a universal currency for all financial / monetary transaction done by all the member countries w.e.f. April 2009. 2. Treaty was to defunct constitution of the Eropean Union by a new one. 3. Poland one of the newest members of the union was threatening to use its veto power if any change is done in the present set up of the organization. (a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 (e) Both 2 and 3 Ans(b) 5. “Rajpaksha threatens to resolve Lanka parliament” was the news in leading newspaper a few days back . Which of the following was the reason owing to which president threatens to take a drastic step ? (pick up the correct statements). 1. A number of MPs from Sri Lanka Freedom party defecting to join another party launched by another group of politicians. 2. A group of politicians under the leadership of former president Chandrika Kumartunga demanding the postponement of elctions for the post of president due in the month of November 2007 so that Chandrika can came back from exile and contest for the same. 3. Rajapaksha wants general public and also MPs to support his formula on peace with LTTE which is not accepatble to most of the MPs. (a) All 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 (e) Only 1 Ans(a) 6. Madhesi national liberation front (MNLF) is an organixation active in which of the following countries ? (a) Pakistan (b) Myanmar (c) Uganda (d) Iran (e) Nepal

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Ans(e) 7. As per the Economic survey 2006-07 the food grain production may not touch the target fixed for the year. What is the atrget of the same set for the period? (a) 100 million tonnes (b) 220 million tonnes (c) 175 million tonnes (d) 250 million tonnes (e) 320 million tonnes Ans(b) 8. Which of the following sector banks brought its equity share (follow on public issue) for the price was set as Rs. 940 per equity ? (a) ICICI Bank (b) Karnataka Bank (c) UTI Bank (d) HDFC Bank (e) None of these Ans(a) 9. Prime minister of India recently unveiled an agricultural package during his visit to 53rd meeting of the National Development Concil. What is the size of the package > (a) Rs. 10,000 Crores (b) Rs. 1s,000 Crores (c) Rs. 20,000 Crores (d) Rs. 25,000 Crores (e) Rs. 30,000 Crores Ans(d) 10. Which of the following States achieved 100% financial inclusion (each and every family in the state has atleast one bank account). ? (a) Delhi (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala (e) None of these Ans(d)

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