Biology Study Guide 4 1 Charles Darwin was the first to propose A a mechanism for how evolution occurs B that the Earth is older than 6 000 years C a mechanism for evolution that was supporte by Bio1

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									Biology Study Guide 4

1) Charles Darwin was the first to propose A) a mechanism for how evolution occurs. B) that the Earth is older than 6,000 years. C) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence. D) a way to use artificial selection as a means of domesticating plants and animals. E) that evolution occurs. 2) Which statement about natural selection is most correct? A) Different species that together occupy the same habitat will adapt to that habitat by undergoing the same genetic changes. B) Natural selection is the sole means by which populations can evolve. C) Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the gene pool, than poorly adapted individuals. D) Adaptations beneficial in one habitat should generally be beneficial in all other habitats as well. E) Adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times as well. 3) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events, under the influence of natural selection? 1. Differential reproduction occurs. 2. A new selective pressure arises. 3. Allele frequencies within the population change. 4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship. A) 4, 2, 3, 1 B) 4, 1, 2, 3 C) 4, 2, 1, 3 D) 2, 4, 1, 3 E) 2, 4, 3, 1 4) Which of the following statements is not an inference of natural selection? A) Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment should leave more offspring. B) Subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of individuals that possess favorable traits. C) An individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime. D) Often only a fraction of offspring survive, because there is a struggle for limited resources. E) Unequal reproductive success among its members leads a population to adapt over time. 5) Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population? A) sexual reproduction B) variation among individuals caused by environmental factors C) genetic variation among individuals D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

1) _______

2) _______

3) _______

4) _______

5) _______

6) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth?

6) _______

A) All organisms reproduce. B) All organisms show heritable variation. C) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code. D) All organisms require energy. E) All organisms have undergone evolution. 7) What would be the best technique for determining the evolutionary relationships among several closely related species, each of which still contains living members? A) comparative anatomy B) examining the fossil record C) DNA or RNA analysis D) comparison of homologous structures E) comparative embryology Use the following information to answer the questions below. A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 36% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants. 8) What is the estimated frequency of allele a in the gene pool? A) 0.70 B) 0.18 C) 0.40 8) _______ D) 0.60 E) 0.80 9) _______ E) 0.18 10) ______ 7) _______

9) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait? A) 0.72 B) 0.36 C) 0.48 D) 0.60

10) All of the following are criteria for maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium involving two alleles except A) gene flow from other populations must be zero. B) matings must be random. C) populations must be large. D) there should be no natural selection. E) the frequency of all genotypes must be equal. 11) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.7. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele? A) 30 B) 49 C) 9 D) 3 E) 42 12) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.7. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele? A) 30 B) 42 C) 3 D) 9 E) 21 13) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.2. What is the frequency of individuals with Aa genotype? A) 0.32 B) 0.20 C) 0.80 D) 0.42 E) Genotype frequency cannot be determined from the information provided.

11) ______

12) ______

13) ______

14) In a population with two alleles, A and a, the frequency of a is 0.50. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) 0.25 B) 0.50 C) 0.10 D) 1.00 E) 0.75 15) Most copies of harmful recessive alleles in a sexual species are carried by individuals that are A) polymorphic. B) homozygous for the allele. C) heterozygous for the allele. D) haploid. E) B and C Use the following information to answer the questions below.

14) ______

15) ______

In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, tests of blood-type genes show that 160 have the genotype AA, 480 have the genotype AB, and 360 have the genotype BB. 16) What is the frequency of the A allele? A) 0.100 B) 0.400 17) What is the frequency of the B allele? A) 0.002 B) 0.600 16) ______ C) 0.002 D) 0.001 E) 0.600 17) ______ C) 0.001 D) 0.100 E) 0.400 18) ______ D) 48 E) 0 19) ______

18) What percentage of the population has type O blood? A) 10 B) 24 C) 60

19) If there are 4,000 children born to this generation, how many would be expected to have AB blood under the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) 100 B) 2,000 C) 1,920 D) 960 E) 2,400 20) In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple flowers and 64 white flowers. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population? A) 0.60 B) 0.80 C) 0.75 D) 0.64 E) 0.36 21) Which of the following is not a requirement for maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) an increasing mutation rate B) large population size C) no natural selection D) random mating E) no migration 22) Which factor is the most important in producing the variability that occurs in each generation of humans? A) nonrandom mating B) mutation C) natural selection D) sexual recombination E) genetic drift

20) ______

21) ______

22) ______

23) In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic variation. Sources of variation for evolution include all of the following except A) recombination at fertilization.

23) ______

B) recombination by crossing over in meiosis. C) mistakes in DNA replication. D) mistakes in translation of structural genes. E) translocations and mistakes in meiosis. 24) In a large, sexually reproducing population, the frequency of an allele changes from 0.6 to 0.2. From this change, one can most logically assume that, in this environment, A) the allele is neutral. B) the allele reduces fitness. C) there is no sexual selection. D) the allele mutates readily. E) random processes have changed allelic frequencies. 25) Through time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing A) geographic isolation. B) gene flow. C) mutations. D) genetic drift. E) nonrandom reproduction. 26) Gene flow is a concept best used to describe an exchange between A) individuals. B) species. C) chromosomes. D) males and females. E) populations. The following questions refer to this information: In the year 2500, five male space colonists and five female space colonists (all unrelated to each other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and their offspring randomly mate for generations. All ten of the original colonists had free earlobes, and two were heterozygous for that trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes. 27) If one assumes that Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applies to the population of colonists on this planet, about how many people will have attached earlobes when the planet's population reaches 10,000? A) 100 B) 10,000 C) 800 D) 1,000 E) 400 28) If four of the original colonists died before they produced offspring, the ratios of genotypes could be quite different in the subsequent generations. This is an example of A) gene flow. B) genetic drift. C) disruptive selection. D) diploidy. E) stabilizing selection. 27) ______ 24) ______

25) ______

26) ______

28) ______

29) The Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured by A) how long it lives. B) the number of mates it attracts.

29) ______

C) the number of supergenes in the genotype. D) its physical strength. E) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce. 30) Which of the following must occur during a period of geographic isolation in order for two sibling species to remain genetically distinct following their geographic reunion in the same home range? A) reproductive isolation B) temporal isolation C) prezygotic barriers D) ecological isolation E) postzygotic barriers 30) ______

Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. gametic temporal behavioral habitat mechanical E. mechanical B. temporal C. behavioral 31) _____________ 32) _____________ 33) _____________ 34) _____________

31) two species of orchids with different floral anatomy 32) two species of trout that breed in different seasons 33) two species of m eadowlarks with different mating songs

34) two species of garter snakes live in the same region, but one lives in water and the other lives on land D. habitat 35) two species of pine shed their pollen at different times B. temporal

35) _____________ 36) _____________

36) mating fruit flies recognize the appearance, odor, tapping motions, and sounds of members of their own species, but not of other species C. behavioral 37) the scarlet oak is adapted to moist bottomland, whereas the black oak is adapted to dry upland soils D. habitat The questions below are based on the following description:

37) _____________

Several closely related frog species of the genus Rana can be found in the forests of the southeastern United States. The species boundaries are maintained by reproductive barriers. In each case, match the various descriptions of frogs below with the appropriate reproductive barrier listed. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) B) C) D) E) behavioral gametic habitat temporal mechanical

38) Males of one species sing only during rainy conditions; males of another species sing only when it is not raining. A. behavioral 39) One species lives only in tree holes; another species lives only in streams. C. habitat

38) _____________

39) _____________

40) Females of one species choose mates based on song quality; females of another species choose mates on the basis of size. A. behavioral 41) One species mates for two weeks in early April; another species mates for three weeks in early May. D. temporal 42) Males of one species are too small to perform amplexus (an action that stimulates ovulation) with females of all other species. E. mechanical

40) _____________

41) _____________

42) _____________

43) Which example below will most likely guarantee that two closely related species will remain distinct biological species? A) colonization of new habitats B) convergent evolution C) geographic isolation from one another D) reproductive isolation from one another E) hybridization 44) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is A) asexually reproducing populations. B) geographic isolation. C) artificial selection. D) large populations. E) the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones. 45) Which of the following statements about speciation is correct? A) The goal of natural selection is speciation. B) Speciation is included within the concept of macroevolution. C) Prezygotic reproductive barriers usually evolve before postzygotic barriers. D) When reunited, two allopatric populations will not interbreed. E) Natural selection chooses the reproductive barriers for populations. 46) Which of the following examples would be most likely to result in macroevolution? A) genetic drift involving a trait that seems to exhibit neutral variation B) a point mutation deep within an intron C) gene flow D) a change in a regulatory gene, which has a major and adaptive impact on morphology E) DNA-DNA hybridization \ 47) Many species of snakes lay eggs, but in the forests of northern Minnesota where growing seasons are short, only live-bearing snake species are present. This trend toward species that perform live birth is an example of A) goal direction in evolution. B) natural selection. C) directed selection. D) sexual selection. E) species selection.

43) ______

44) ______

45) ______

46) ______

47) ______

48) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I. inhabiting the same general area II. individuals belonging to the same species III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) I and II only

48) ______

B) I only C) I, II, and III D) III only E) II and III only 49) You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would include A) decreased emigration. B) increased immigration. C) reduction in death rate. D) increased emigration. E) both B and D 50) A table listing such items as age, observed number of organisms alive each year, and life expectancy is known as a (an) A) survivorship table. B) insurance table. C) mortality table. D) life table. E) rate table. 51) Carrying capacity (K) A) remains constant in the presence of density-dependent population regulation. B) is often determined by energy limitation. C) is always eventually reached in any population. D) is calculated as the product of annual per capita birth rate (r). E) differs among species, but does not vary within a given species. 52) Which of the following statements about the logistic model of population growth is incorrect? A) It fits an S-shaped curve. B) It incorporates the concept of carrying capacity. C) It accurately predicts the growth of most populations. D) It predicts an eventual state in which birth rate equals death rate. E) It describes population density shifts over time. 53) Which of the following characterizes relatively K-selected populations? A) small offspring B) early parental reproduction C) many offspring per reproductive episode D) a high intrinsic rate of increase E) offspring with good chances of survival 49) ______

50) ______

51) ______

52) ______

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54) Which of the following statements is consistent with the competitive exclusion principle? A) The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species. B) Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites. C) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species. D) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of inferior

54) ______

species. E) Evolution tends to increase competition between related species. 55) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same A) niche. B) habitat. C) biome. D) range. E) territory. 55) ______

56) The entire box shown in the Figure above represents the niche of species A. Species A is biologically constrained from the striped area of its niche by species B. This is an example of A) dynamic stability. B) commensalism. C) facilitation. D) secondary succession. E) competitive exclusion. 57) The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its A) habitat. B) microclimax. C) logistic growth. D) ecological niche. E) biotic potential. 58) A species of fish is found to require a certain water temperature, a particular oxygen content of the water, a particular depth, and a rocky substrate on the bottom to thrive. These requirements are part of its A) prime habitat. B) resource partition. C) home base. D) dimensional profile. E) ecological niche. 59) Resource partitioning is best described by which of the following statements? A) A climax community is reached when no new niches are available. B) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species. C) Two species can coevolve and share the same niche. D) Species diversity is maintained by switching between prey species. E) Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist.

56) ______

57) ______

58) ______

59) ______

60) Which of the following terms best describes the interaction between termites and the protozoans that feed in their gut? A) mutualism B) commensalism C) competitive exclusion D) ectoparasitism E) endoparasitism

60) ______

61) Which of the following types of species interaction is incorrectly paired to its effects on the density of the two interacting populations? A) competition both decrease B) parasitism one increases, one decreases C) commensalism both increase D) mutualism both increase E) predation one increases, one decreases 62) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) A) mutualistic organism. B) community facilitator. C) resource partitioner. D) herbivore. E) keystone species. 63) Which of the following statements about community interactions is not correct? A) Keystone predators reduce diversity in a community by holding down or wiping out prey populations. B) Plants can defend themselves against herbivores by the production of compounds that are irritating or toxic. C) Closely related species may be able to coexist if there is at least one significant difference in their niches. D) Some predators use mimicry to attract prey. E) Mutualism is an important biotic interaction that occurs in communities. 64) Elephants are not the most common species in African grasslands. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Elephants can be defined as what type of species in this community? A) dominant and keystone B) redundant C) dominant D) keystone E) none of the above 65) You are most likely to observe primary succession when you visit a(n) A) abandoned field. B) deep sea vent. C) fairly recent volcanic island. D) tropical rain forest. E) old riverbed. The next questions refer to the following list of terms. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. parasitism mutualism inhibition facilitation commensalism B. mutualism

61) ______

62) ______

63) ______

64) ______

65) ______

66) the relationship between ants and acacia trees

66) _____________

67) the relationship between legumes and nitrogen-fixing bacteria 68) the relationship between the larvae of small wasps and caterpillars 69) A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n) A) primary consumer. B) secondary consumer. C) producer. D) autotroph. E) decomposer.

B. mutualism A. parasitism

67) _____________ 68) _____________ 69) ______

70) To recycle nutrients, the minimum an ecosystem must have is A) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers. B) producers. C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers. D) producers and decomposers. E) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers. 71) Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others? A) carnivores B) heterotrophs C) primary consumers D) secondary consumers E) herbivores 72) Production, consumption, and decomposition are important ecosystem processes. Which of the following could be decomposers? A) vertebrates B) invertebrates C) bacteria D) A and C only E) A, B, and C 73) Which of the following are responsible for most of the conversion of organic materials into C which can be utilized in primary production? A) autotrophs B) fungi C) bacteria D) B and C only E) A, B, and C ,

70) ______

71) ______

72) ______

73) ______

The following questions refer to the organisms in a g rassland ecosystem l isted below. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. hawks snakes shrews grasshoppers grass E. grass 74) _____________

74) an autotroph (organism uses photosynthesis – plants)

75) an herbivore (animal that eats plants) 76) smallest biomass 77) tertiary consumer

D. grasshoppers A. hawks B. snakes

75) _____________ 76) _____________ 77) _____________

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