Docstoc

Office-Based Surgery States A-M - Federation of State Medical Boards

Document Sample
Office-Based Surgery States A-M - Federation of State Medical Boards Powered By Docstoc
					                                             Office-Based Surgery
                                                  States A-M

                                  Board-by-Board Statutes, Regulations and Policies

Alabama

Ala. Admin. Code CHAPTER 540-X-10. OFFICE-BASED SURGERY.

540-X-10-.01. Preamble.
(1) Office-based surgery is surgery1 performed outside a hospital or outpatient facility licensed by the
Alabama Department of Public Health. It is the position of the Alabama Board of Medical Examiners that
the physician is responsible for providing a safe environment for office-based surgery. Surgical procedures in
medicine have changed over the generations from procedures performed at home or at the surgeon's office
to the hospital and, now, often back to outpatient locations. However, the premise for the surgery remains
unchanged: that it be performed in the best interest of the patient and under the best circumstances possible
for the management of disease and the well-being of the patient. Surgery that is performed in a physician's
office at this time varies from a simple incision and drainage with topical anesthesia to semi-complex
procedures under general anesthesia. It is imperative that the surgeon evaluate the patient, advise and assist
the patient with a decision about the procedure and the location for its performance and, to the best of the
surgeon's ability, assure that the quality of care be equal in any facility that the surgeon advises. If the
physician performs surgery in the physician's office, it is expected that the physician will require office
standards similar to those at other sites where the physician performs such procedures. It is also expected
that any physician who performs a surgical procedure is knowledgeable about sterile technique, the need for
pathological evaluation of certain surgical specimens, about any drug that the physician administers or orders
administered, and about potential untoward reactions and complications and their treatment. Recognizing
that there have been serious adverse events in office surgical settings, both in Alabama and in other states,
the Board of Medical Examiners, in conjunction with an ad hoc committee representing various medical and
surgical specialties, has developed guidelines for physicians who perform surgery in their offices. These
guidelines are intended to remind the physician of the minimal suggested necessities for various levels of
surgery in the office setting. The physician must decide on a case-by-case basis the location and level of
service that is best for the physician's particular patient and procedure; this decision must always be made
with the patient's best interest in mind.
1
 . Definition of surgery: Surgery, which involves the revision, destruction, incision or structural alteration of
human tissue performed using a variety of methods and instruments, is a discipline that includes the
operative, and non-operative care of individuals in need of such intervention, and demands pre-operative
assessment, judgment, technical skills, post-operative management and follow-up.
(2) The Alabama Board of Medical Examiners recommends the following general guidelines for office-based
surgery/ procedures:
(a) Training: A procedure, whether done in an office, outpatient surgical facility or hospital, should be
performed by physicians operating within their area of professional training. Appropriate training and
continuing medical education should be documented and that documentation readily available to patients and
the Alabama Board of Medical Examiners. Physicians who perform office-based procedures must have plans
for managing emergency complications.
(b) Patient Selection: Patients must be individually evaluated for each procedure to determine if the office is
an appropriate setting for the anesthesia required and for the surgical procedure to be performed.
                                                         1
(c) Patient Evaluation: Patients undergoing office-based surgery must have an appropriately documented
history and physical examination as well as other indicated consultations and studies.
(d) Anesthesia: When deep sedation, major regional anesthesia or general anesthesia is provided in the office
setting, it must be administered by a qualified person(s)2 other than the person performing the procedure.
Anesthesia personnel should be familiar with variations in technique based on the specifics of the patient and
the procedure, particularly patients requiring large volumes of fluids and/or requiring airway management.
Patients must be properly monitored before, during and after the procedure. Anesthesia personnel should be
currently trained in ACLS.
2
 . The terms “qualified person(s)” and “qualified practitioner” are not defined precisely in these rules. Just as
a physician is expected to determine if he is qualified to perform a certain procedure or treat a certain illness
or whether he should refer his patient to someone whom he considers to be more qualified, he should assure,
to the best of his ability, that the persons in his employ, whether directly or via contract, have the training,
skills and ability to assist him as needed for the planned procedure. If questions arise about qualifications, he
should explain his rationale as he would for questions about quality medical care.
(e) Office Setting: The office should be set up with patient safety as a primary consideration. Safety issues
should include, but not be limited to, accessibility, sterilization and cleaning routines, storage of materials and
supplies, supply inventory, emergency equipment, and infection control.
(f) Emergency Planning: Planning should include, but not be limited to, emergency medicines, emergency
equipment, and transfer protocols3. Practitioners should be trained and capable of recognizing and managing
complications related to anesthesia that he/she administers and the procedures that he/she performs.
3
 . Definition of transfer protocols: Ensure the continuity of patient care is uninterrupted.
(g) Follow-up Care: As with any surgical treatment or procedure, follow-up care by the responsible surgeon is
a requirement. Arrangements shall be made for follow-up care and for treatment of complications outside
normal business hours. The patient, or a responsible adult, should be aware of these arrangements and of any
medications prescribed after the procedure.
(h) Quality Improvement: Continuous quality improvement should be a goal.
(i) Facility accreditation is encouraged for those settings where deep sedation/analgesia (level 4) and general
anesthesia (level 5) are provided.
(3) These rules shall not apply to an oral surgeon licensed to practice dentistry who is also a physician
licensed to practice medicine, if the procedure is exclusively for the practice of dentistry. An oral surgeon
licensed to practice dentistry who is also a physician licensed to practice medicine and who performs office-
based surgery other than the practice of dentistry shall comply with the requirements of these regulations for
those procedures which fall outside the scope of practice of dentistry.

540-X-10-.02. Definitions--Levels Of Anesthesia4.
4
 . Reference: Appendix A--American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) definitions. This Appendix is
included in these Rules only for information.
(1) Local Anesthesia. The administration of an agent which produces a localized and reversible loss of
sensation in a circumscribed portion of the body.
(2) Minimal Sedation (anxiolysis). A drug-induced state during which patients respond normally to verbal
commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular
functions are unaffected.
(3) Moderate Sedation/Analgesia (“Conscious Sedation”). A drug-induced depression of consciousness
during which a patient responds purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light
tactile stimulation. Reflex withdrawal from painful stimulation is NOT considered a purposeful response. No
interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
(4) Deep Sedation/Analgesia. A drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be
easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. Reflex withdrawal from
painful stimulation is NOT considered a purposeful response. The ability to independently maintain

                                                        2
ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and
spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
(5) General Anesthesia. A drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable, even
by painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired. Patients
often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation may be required
because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function.
Cardiovascular function may be impaired.
(6) Regional Anesthesia (“Major conduction blockade”) is considered in the same category as General
Anesthesia.5
5
 . Reference: Appendix A--American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) definitions.
(7) Because sedation is a continuum, it is not always possible to predict how an individual patient will
respond. Hence, practitioners intending to produce a given level of sedation should be able to rescue patients
whose level of sedation becomes deeper than initially intended. Individuals administering Moderate
Sedation/Analgesia (“Conscious Sedation”) should be able to rescue patients who enter a state of Deep
Sedation/Analgesia, while those administering Deep Sedation/ Analgesia should be able to rescue patients
who enter a state of general anesthesia.

540-X-10-.03. Standards For Each Level Of Anesthesia--Preoperative Assessment.
A medical history, a physical examination consistent with the type and level of anesthesia and/or analgesia
and the level of surgery to be performed, and the appropriate laboratory studies should be performed by a
practitioner qualified to assess the impact of co-existing disease processes on surgery and anesthesia. A pre-
anesthetic examination and evaluation should be conducted immediately prior to surgery by the physician or
by a qualified person who will be administering or directing the anesthesia. If a qualified person will be
administering the anesthesia, the physician shall review with the qualified person the pre-anesthesic
examination and evaluation. The data obtained during the course of the pre-anesthesia evaluations (focused
history and physical, including airway assessment and significant historical data not usually found in a primary
care or surgical history6 that may alter care or affect outcome) should be documented in the medical record.
6
 . Reference: Appendix B--Standards of the American Society of Anesthesiologists. This Appendix is
included in these Rules only for information.

540-X-10-.04. Standards For Office-Based Procedures--Local Anesthesia.
(1) Equipment and supplies: Oral airway positive pressure ventilation device, epinephrine, and atropine
should be available.
(2) Training required: The physician is expected to be knowledgeable in proper drug dosages, recognition and
management of toxicity or hypersensitivity to local anesthetic and other drugs. It is recommended that the
physician be currently trained in Basic Cardiac Life Support (BCLS).
(3) Assistance of other personnel: No other assistance is required, unless dictated by the scope of the surgical
procedure.

540-X-10-.05. Standards For Office-Based Procedures--Minimal Sedation.
(1) Equipment and supplies: Oral airway positive pressure ventilation device, epinephrine, and atropine
should be available.
(2) Training required: The physician is expected to be knowledgeable in proper drug dosages, recognition and
management of toxicity or hypersensitivity to local anesthetic and other drugs. It is recommended that the
physician be currently trained in Basic Cardiac Life Support (BCLS).
(3) Assistance of other personnel: Anesthesia should be administered only by licensed, qualified and
competent practitioners who have training and experience appropriate to the level of anesthesia administered
and function in accordance with their scope of practice. Practitioners must have documented competence
and training to administer local anesthesia with sedation and to assist in any support or resuscitation
measures as required. Scrub or Circulating nurse(s) and/or assistant(s) must be trained in their specific job
skills as determined by the supervising physician.
                                                       3
540-X-10-.06. Standards For Office-Based Procedures--Moderate Sedation/Analgesia.
(1) Physician Registration Requirement: The Alabama Board of Medical Examiners requires each physician
who offers office-based surgery that requires moderate sedation, deep sedation or general anesthesia, as
defined in these rules to register with the State Board of Medical Examiners as an office-based surgery
physician.7
7
 . Reference: Appendix D--Physician Registration Form
(2) Equipment and supplies: Emergency resuscitation equipment, emergency life-saving medications, suction,
and a reliable source of oxygen with a backup tank must be readily available. When medication for sedation
and/or analgesia is administered intravenously (IV), monitoring equipment should include: blood pressure
apparatus, stethoscope, pulse oximetry, continuous EKG, and temperature monitoring for procedures lasting
longer than thirty (30) minutes. Patient's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and level of consciousness should be
documented prior to the procedure, during regular intervals throughout the procedure, and prior to
discharge. Facility, in terms of general preparation, should have adequate equipment and supplies, provisions
for proper record keeping, and the ability to recover patients after anesthesia.
(3) Training required: The physician must be able to document satisfactory completion of training such as
being Board certified or being an active candidate for certification by a Board approved by the American
Board of Medical Specialties or comparable formal training. Alternative credentialing for procedures outside
the physician's core curriculum must be applied for through the Alabama Board of Medical Examiners and
must be approved by the Board. The physician and at least one assistant must be currently trained in
Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS).
(4) Assistance of other personnel: Anesthesia should be administered only by licensed, qualified and
competent practitioners. Practitioners must have documented competence and training to administer
moderate sedation/analgesia and to assist in any support or resuscitation measures as required. The
individual administering moderate sedation/analgesia and/or monitoring the patient cannot assist the
physician in performing the surgical procedure. Scrub or Circulating nurse(s) and/or assistant(s) must be
trained in their specific job skills as determined by the supervising physician. At least one physician currently
trained in ACLS must be immediately and physically available until the last patient is past the first stage of
recovery. At least one practitioner currently trained in ACLS must be immediately and physically available
until the last patient is discharged from the facility.

540-X-10-.07. Standards For Office-Based Procedures--Deep Sedation/Analgesia.
(1) Physician Registration Requirement: The Alabama Board of Medical Examiners requires each physician
who offers office-based surgery that requires moderate sedation, deep sedation or general anesthesia, as
defined in these rules to register with the State Board of Medical Examiners as an office-based surgery
physician.8
8
 . Reference: Appendix D--Physician Registration Form
(2) Equipment and supplies: Emergency resuscitation equipment, emergency life-saving medications, suction,
and a reliable source of oxygen with a backup tank must be readily available. Monitoring equipment should
include: blood pressure apparatus, stethoscope, pulse oximetry, continuous EKG, and temperature
monitoring for procedures lasting longer than thirty (30) minutes. Patient's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and
level of consciousness should be documented prior to the procedure, during regular intervals throughout the
procedure, and prior to discharge. Facility, in terms of general preparation, should have adequate equipment
and supplies, provisions for proper record keeping, and the ability to recover patients after anesthesia.
(3) Training required: The physician must be able to document satisfactory completion of training such as
being Board certified or being an active candidate for certification by a Board approved by the American
Board of Medical Specialties or comparable formal training. Alternative credentialing for procedures outside
the physician's core curriculum must be applied for through the Alabama Board of Medical Examiners and
must be approved by the Board. The physician and at least one assistant must be currently trained in
Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS).

                                                       4
(4) Assistance of other personnel: Anesthesia should be administered only by licensed, qualified and
competent practitioners. Practitioners must have documented competence and training to administer deep
sedation/analgesia and to assist in any support or resuscitation measures as required. The individual
administering deep sedation/analgesia and/or monitoring the patient cannot assist the physician in
performing the surgical procedure. Scrub or Circulating nurse(s) and/or assistant(s) must be trained in their
specific job skills as determined by the supervising physician. At least one physician currently trained in
ACLS must be immediately and physically available until the last patient is past the first stage of recovery. At
least one practitioner currently trained in ACLS must be immediately and physically available until the last
patient is discharged from the facility.

540-X-10-.08. Standards For Office-Based Procedures--General And Regional Anesthesia.
(1) Physician Registration Requirement: The Alabama Board of Medical Examiners requires each physician
who offers office-based surgery that requires moderate sedation, deep sedation or general anesthesia, as
defined in these rules to register with the State Board of Medical Examiners as an office-based surgery
physician.9
9
 . Reference: Appendix D--Physician Registration Form
(2) Equipment and supplies: Emergency resuscitation equipment, suction and a reliable source of oxygen
with a backup tank must be readily available. When triggering agents are in the office, at least 12 ampules of
dantrolene sodium must be readily available within 10 minutes with additional ampules available from
another source. Monitoring equipment should include: blood pressure apparatus, stethoscope, pulse
oximetry, continuous EKG, capnography, and temperature monitoring for procedures lasting longer than
thirty (30) minutes. Monitoring equipment and supplies should be in compliance with currently adopted ASA
standards10. Facility, in terms of general preparation, must have adequate equipment and supplies, provisions
for proper record keeping, and the ability to recover patients after anesthesia.
10
   Reference: Appendix C--Guidelines for Office-Based Anesthesia, section entitled “Monitoring and
Equipment.” This Appendix is included in these Rules only for information.
(3) Training required: The physician must be able to document satisfactory completion of training such as
being Board certified or being an active candidate for certification by a Board approved by the American
Board of Medical Specialties or comparable formal training. Alternative credentialing for procedures outside
the physician's core curriculum must be applied for through the Alabama Board of Medical Examiners and
must be approved by the Board. The physician and at least one assistant must be currently trained in
Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS).
(4) Assistance of other personnel: Anesthesia should be administered only by licensed, qualified and
competent practitioners. Practitioners must have documented competence and training to administer general
and regional anesthesia and to assist in any support or resuscitation measures as required. The individual
administering general and regional anesthesia and/or monitoring the patient cannot assist the physician in
performing the surgical procedure. Scrub or Circulating nurse(s) and/or assistant(s) must be trained in their
specific job skills as determined by the supervising physician. Direction of the sedation/analgesia component
of the medical procedure should be provided by a physician who is immediately and physically present, who
is licensed to practice medicine in the state of Alabama, and who is responsible for the direction of
administration of the anesthetic. The physician providing direction should assure that an appropriate pre-
anesthetic examination is performed, assure that qualified practitioners participate, be available for diagnosis
treatment and management of anesthesia related complications or emergencies, and assure the provision of
indicated post anesthesia care. At least one physician currently trained in ACLS must be immediately and
physically available until the last patient is past the first stage of recovery. At least one practitioner currently
trained in ACLS must be immediately and physically available until the last patient is discharged from the
facility11.
1
 . 1 Reference: Appendix D--Physician Registration Form and Appendix E--ASF Sterilization (Appendix E is included in these Rules only for information).

540-X-10-.09. Recovery Area And Assessment For Discharge With Moderate And Deep Sedation/General
Anesthesia--Monitoring Requirement.
                                                                          5
Monitoring in the recovery area should be performed by a dedicated person, trained in their specific job skills
as determined by the supervising physician, and must include pulse oximetry and non-invasive blood
pressure measurement. The patient must be assessed periodically for level of consciousness, pain relief, or
any untoward complication. Each patient should meet discharge criteria as established by the practice, prior
to leaving the facility. Documented recovery from anesthesia should include the following: 1) vital signs and
oxygen saturation stable within acceptable limits; 2) no more than minimal nausea, vomiting or dizziness; and
3) sufficient time (up to 2 hours) should have elapsed following the last administration of reversal agents to
ensure the patient does not become sedated after reversal effects have worn off. The patient should be given
appropriate discharge instructions and discharge under the care of a responsible third party after meeting
discharge criteria. Discharge instructions should include: 1) the procedure performed; 2) information about
potential complications; 3) telephone numbers to be used by the patient to discuss complications or
questions that may arise; 4) instructions for medications prescribed and pain management; 5) information
regarding the follow-up visit date, time and location; and 6) designated treatment facility in the event of an
emergency (office-based physician's number, not the emergency room).

540-X-10-.10. Tumescent Liposuction And Similarly Related Procedures.
(1) In the performance of liposuction when infiltration methods such as the tumescent technique are used,
they should be regarded as regional or systemic anesthesia because of the potential for systemic toxic effects.
(2) When infiltration methods such as the tumescent technique are used in the performance of liposuction,
the Standards for Office Based Procedures--General and Regional Anesthesia stated in Rule 540-X-10-.08
shall be met, including the physician registration requirement, the equipment and supplies requirement, the
training requirement and the assistance of other personnel requirement.
(3) When infiltration methods such as the tumescent technique are used in the performance of liposuction,
the monitoring requirement found in Rule 540-X-10-.09, Recovery Area and Assessment for Discharge with
Moderate and Deep Sedation/General Anesthesia--Monitoring Requirement, must be met.

540-X-10-.11. Reporting Requirement.
(1) Reporting to the Alabama Board of Medical Examiners is required within three (3) business days of the
occurrence and will include all surgical related deaths and all events related to a procedure(s) that resulted in
an emergency transfer of the surgical patient to the hospital, anesthetic or surgical events requiring CPR,
unscheduled hospitalization related to the surgery, and surgical site deep wound infection.
(2) Office Administration. The following summarizes some of the important written documents and polices
and procedures that office-based practices are encouraged to develop and implement. The policies and
procedures should undergo periodic review and updating. Office-based surgery practices are encouraged to
utilize on-site patient safety surveys that are performed by professional trade associations, nationally
recognized accrediting agencies and/or other organizations experienced in providing emerging risk-reduction
strategies associated with office-based surgery.
(a) Policies and Procedures. Written policies and procedures can assist office-based practices in providing
safe and quality surgical care, assure consistent personnel performance, and promote an awareness and
understanding of the inherent rights of patients. The following are important aspects of an office-based
practice that should benefit from simple policy and procedure statements.
1. Emergency Care and Transfer Plan: A plan shall be developed for the provision of emergency medical care
as well as the safe and timely transfer of patients to a nearby hospital should hospitalization be necessary.
(i) Age appropriate emergency supplies, equipment and medication should be provided in accordance with
the scope of surgical and anesthesia services provided at the practitioner's office.
(ii) In an office where anesthesia services are provided to infants and children, the required emergency
equipment should be appropriately sized for a pediatric population, and personnel should be appropriately
trained to handle pediatric emergencies (currently trained in APLS or PALS).
(iii) At least one physician currently trained in ACLS must be immediately and physically available until the
last patient is past the first stage of recovery. A practitioner who is qualified in resuscitation techniques and
emergency care should be present and available until all patients having more than local anesthesia or minor
                                                       6
conductive block anesthesia have been discharged from the office (Advanced adult or pediatric life support
certified).
(iv) In the event of untoward anesthetic, medical or surgical emergencies, personnel should be familiar with
the procedures and plan to be followed, and able to take the necessary actions. All office personnel should be
familiar with a documented plan for the timely and safe transfer of patients to a nearby hospital. This plan
should include arrangements for emergency medical services, if necessary, or when appropriate escort of the
patient to the hospital by an appropriate practitioner. If advanced cardiac life support is instituted, the plan
should include immediate contact with emergency medical services.
2. Medical Record Maintenance and Security: The practice should have a procedure for initiating and
maintaining a health record for every patient evaluated or treated. The record should include a procedure
code or suitable narrative description of the procedure and should have sufficient information to identify the
patient, support the diagnosis, justify the treatment and document the outcome and required follow-up
care. For procedures requiring patient consent, there should be a documented informed written consent. If
analgesia/sedation, minor or major conduction blockade or general anesthesia are provided, the record
should include documentation of the type of anesthesia used, drugs (type, time and dose) and fluids
administered, the record of monitoring of vital signs, level of consciousness during the procedure, patient
weight, estimated blood loss, duration of the procedure, and any complications related to the procedure or
anesthesia. Procedures should also be established to assure patient confidentiality and security of all patient
data and information.
3. Infection Control Policy: The practice should comply with state and federal regulations regarding infection
control. For all surgical procedures, the level of sterilization should meet current OSHA requirements. There
should be a procedure and schedule for cleaning, disinfecting and sterilizing equipment and patient care
items. Personnel should be trained in infection control practices, implementation of universal precautions,
and disposal of hazardous waste products. Protective clothing and equipment should be readily available12.
4. Federal and State Laws and Regulations: Federal and state laws and regulations that affect the practice
should be identified and procedures developed to comply with those requirements. The following are some
of the key requirements upon which office-based practices should focus:
(i) Non-Discrimination (see Civil Rights statutes and the Americans with Disabilities Act).
(ii) Personal Safety (see Occupational Safety and Health Administration information)
(iii) Controlled Substance Safeguards.
(iv) Laboratory Operations and Performance (CLIA).
(v) Personnel Licensure Scope of Practice and Limitations

540-X-10-.12. Registration Of Office-Based Surgery/Procedures Physician.
(1) A physician who is licensed to practice medicine in Alabama, who maintains a practice location in
Alabama, and who performs or offers to perform the following:
(a) Any office-based surgery/procedure which requires moderate sedation, deep sedation or general
anesthesia, as defined in these rules, or
(b) Liposuction when infiltration methods such as the tumescent technique are used, or
(c) any procedure in which propofol is administered, given or used, is hereby required to register with the
State Board of Medical Examiners as an office-based surgery/procedures physician, prior to performing any
office-based surgery/procedure as defined in this rule.
(2) Registration shall be accomplished on a form provided by the Board. After initially registering as an
office-based surgery/procedures physician, it shall be the obligation of the registrant to advise the Board of
any change in the practice location within the State of Alabama of that office-based surgery/procedures
physician.
(3) The form for registration of an office-based surgery/procedures physician is incorporated as Appendix D
to these rules.
(4) For the purposes of these rules an “office-based surgery/procedures physician” shall mean any physician
licensed to practice medicine in Alabama who performs or offers to perform in an office setting within the
state of Alabama, any procedure that requires moderate sedation, deep sedation or general anesthesia, as
                                                       7
defined in these rules, or who performs or offers to perform liposuction when infiltration methods such as
the tumescent technique are used, or who performs or offers to perform any procedure in which propofol is
administered, given, or used.
(5) In January 2012, the Board of Medical Examiners shall cause a notice to be mailed to every physician who
is licensed in the State of Alabama notifying them of the requirements contained in this Chapter.
(6) Beginning January 2012, annual registration as an office-based surgery/procedures physician shall be
required, and registration shall be by electronic means.
(7) Beginning February 2013, and in February of each subsequent year, annual registration notification will be
generated pursuant to an affirmative answer on the annual medical license renewal application regarding the
practice of office-based surgery.
(8) Annual registration as an office-based surgery/procedures physician shall be due by March 1 of each year.

540-X-10-.13. Penalty.
(1) A physician may be guilty of unprofessional conduct within the meaning of Code of Ala. 1975, §34-24-
360(2) if he fails to comply with the requirements of these rules concerning any of the following:
(a) Standards for office-based procedures for moderate sedation/analgesia or general/regional anesthesia;
(b) Reporting;
(c) Emergency care and transfer;
(d) Registration.
(2) A physician who has been found to be not in compliance with the requirements of this Chapter 540-X-10
may have his license revoked, suspended or otherwise disciplined by the Medical Licensure Commission.


Alaska

Guideline Regarding the Use of Lasers and Laser Surgery.
http://www.commerce.state.ak.us/occ/pub/CME_To_Whom_May_Perform.pdf

The Alaska State Medical Board has adopted the policies of the American Medical Association, following, to
be its guidelines to its licensees in Alaska with regard to who may perform laser surgery.

Performance of Laser Surgery:
Laser surgery should be performed only by individuals licensed to practice medicine and surgery or by those
categories of practitioners currently licensed by the state to perform surgical services.

The board opines that revision, destruction, incision or other structural alteration of human tissue using laser
is surgery.


Arizona – Medical

Article 7. Office-Based Surgery Using Sedation A.A.C. R4-16-701

R4-16-701. Health Care Institution License
A physician who uses general anesthesia in the physician's office or other outpatient setting that is not part of
a licensed hospital or licensed ambulatory surgical center when performing office-based surgery using
sedation shall obtain a health care institution license as required by the Arizona Department of Health
Services under A.R.S. Title 36, Chapter 4 and 9 A.A.C. 10.

R4-16-702. Administrative Provisions

                                                       8
A. A physician who performs office-based surgery using sedation in the physician's office or other outpatient
setting that is not part of a licensed hospital or licensed ambulatory surgical center shall:
1. Establish, document, and implement written policies and procedures that cover:
a. Patient's rights,
b. Informed consent,
c. Care of patients in an emergency, and
d. The transfer of patients;
2. Ensure that a staff member who assists with or a healthcare professional who participates in office-based
surgery using sedation:
a. Has sufficient education, training, and experience to perform duties assigned;
b. If applicable, has a current license or certification to perform duties assigned; and
c. Performs only those acts that are within the scope of practice established in the staff member's or health
care professional's governing statutes;
3. Ensure that the office where the office-based surgery using sedation is performed has all equipment
necessary:
a. For the physician to safely perform the office-based surgery using sedation,
b. For the physician or health care professional to safely administer the sedation,
c. For the physician or health care professional to monitor the use of sedation, and
d. For the physician and health care professional administering the sedation to rescue a patient after the
sedation is administered to the patient and the patient enters into a deeper state of sedation than what was
intended by the physician.
4. Ensure that a copy of the patient's rights policy is provided to each patient before performing office-based
surgery using sedation;
5. Obtain informed consent from the patient before performing an office-based surgery using sedation that:
a. Authorizes the office-based surgery, and
b. Authorizes the office-based surgery to be performed in the physician's office; and
6. Review all policies and procedures every 12 months and update as needed.
B. A physician who performs office-based surgery using sedation shall comply with:
1. The local jurisdiction's fire code;
2. The local jurisdiction's building codes for construction and occupancy;
3. The biohazardous waste and hazardous waste standards in 18 A.A.C. 13, Article 14; and
4. The controlled drug administration, supply, and storage standards in 4 A.A.C. 23.

R4-16-703. Procedure and Patient Selection
A. A physician shall ensure that each office-based surgery using sedation performed:
1. Can be safely performed with the equipment, staff members, and health care professionals at the
physician's office;
2. Is of duration and degree of complexity that allows a patient to be discharged from the physician's office
within 24 hours;
3. Is within the education, training, experience skills, and licensure of the physician; and
4. Is within the education, training, experience, skills, and licensure of the staff members and health care
professionals at the physician's office.
B. A physician shall not perform office-based surgery using sedation if the patient:
1. Has a medical condition or other condition that indicates the procedure should not be performed in the
physician's office, or
2. Will require inpatient services at a hospital.

R4-16-704. Sedation Monitoring Standards
A physician who performs office-based surgery using sedation shall ensure from the time sedation is
administered until post-sedation monitoring begins:

                                                      9
1. A quantitative method of assessing a patient's oxygenation, such as pulse oximetry, is used when minimal
sedation is administered to the patient, and
2. When moderate or deep sedation is administered to a patient:
a. A quantitative method of assessing the patient's oxygenation, such as pulse oximetry, is used;
b. The patient's ventilatory function is monitored by any of the following:
i. Direct observation,
ii. Auscultation, or
iii. Capnography;
c. The patient's circulatory function is monitored during the surgery by:
i. Having a continuously displayed electrocardiogram,
ii. Documenting arterial blood pressure and heart rate at least every five minutes, and
iii. Evaluating the patient's cardiovascular function by pulse plethysmography,
d. The patient's temperature is monitored if the physician expects the patient's temperature to fluctuate; and
e. That a licensed and qualified healthcare professional, other than the physician performing the office-based
surgery, whose sole responsibility is attending to the patient, is present throughout the office-based surgery.

R4-16-705. Perioperative Period; Patient Discharge
A physician performing office-based surgery using sedation shall ensure all of the following:
1. During office-based surgery using sedation, the physician is physically present in the room where office-
based surgery is performed;
2. After the office-based surgery using sedation is performed, a physician is at the physician's office and
sufficiently free of other duties to respond to an emergency until the patient's post-sedation monitoring is
discontinued;
3. If using minimal sedation, the physician or a health care professional certified in ACLS, PALS, or BLS is at
the physician's office and sufficiently free of other duties to respond to an emergency until the patient is
discharged;
4. If using deep or moderate sedation, the physician or a health care professional certified in ACLS or PALS
is at the physician's office and sufficiently free of other duties to respond to an emergency until the patient is
discharged;
5. A discharge is documented in the patient's medical record including:
a. The time and date of the patient's discharge, and
b. A description of the patient's medical condition at the time of discharge; and
6. A patient receives discharge instructions and documents in the patient's medical record that the patient
received the discharge instructions.

A. In addition to the requirements in R4-16-702(A)(3) and R4-16-703(A)(1), a physician who performs
office-based surgery using sedation shall ensure that the physician's office has at a minimum:
1. The following:
a. A reliable oxygen source with a SaO2 monitor;
b. Suction;
c. Resuscitation equipment, including a defibrillator;
d. Emergency drugs; and
e. A cardiac monitor;
2. The equipment for patient monitoring according to the standards in R4-16-704;
3. Space large enough to:
a. Allow for access to the patient during office-based surgery using sedation, recovery, and any emergency;
b. Accommodate all equipment necessary to perform the office-based surgery using sedation; and
c. Accommodate all equipment necessary for sedation monitoring;
4. A source of auxiliary electrical power available in the event of a power failure; and
5. Equipment, emergency drugs, and resuscitative capabilities required under this Section for patients less
than 18 years of age, if office-based surgery using sedation is performed on these patients; and
                                                       10
6. Procedures to minimize the spread of infection.
B. A physician who performs office-based surgery using sedation shall:
1. Ensure that all equipment used for office-based surgery using sedation is maintained, tested, and inspected
according to manufacturer specifications, and
2. Maintain documentation of manufacturer-recommended maintenance of all equipment used in office-
based surgery using sedation.

R4-16-706. Emergency Drugs; Equipment and Space Used for Office-Based Surgery Using Sedation
A. In addition to the requirements in R4-16-702(A)(3) and R4-16-703(A)(1), a physician who performs
office-based surgery using sedation shall ensure that the physician's office has at a minimum:
1. The following:
a. A reliable oxygen source with a SaO2 monitor;
b. Suction;
c. Resuscitation equipment, including a defibrillator;
d. Emergency drugs; and
e. A cardiac monitor;
2. The equipment for patient monitoring according to the standards in R4-16-704;
3. Space large enough to:
a. Allow for access to the patient during office-based surgery using sedation, recovery, and any emergency;
b. Accommodate all equipment necessary to perform the office-based surgery using sedation; and
c. Accommodate all equipment necessary for sedation monitoring;
4. A source of auxiliary electrical power available in the event of a power failure; and
5. Equipment, emergency drugs, and resuscitative capabilities required under this Section for patients less
than 18 years of age, if office-based surgery using sedation is performed on these patients; and
6. Procedures to minimize the spread of infection.
B. A physician who performs office-based surgery using sedation shall:
1. Ensure that all equipment used for office-based surgery using sedation is maintained, tested, and inspected
according to manufacturer specifications, and
2. Maintain documentation of manufacturer-recommended maintenance of all equipment used in office-
based surgery using sedation.

R4-16-707. Emergency and Transfer Provisions
A. A physician who performs office-based surgery using sedation shall ensure that before a health care
professional participates in or staff member assists with office-based surgery using sedation, the health care
professional and staff member receive instruction in the following:
1. Policy and procedure in cases of emergency,
2. Policy and procedure for office evacuation, and
3. Safe and timely patient transfer.
B. When performing office-based surgery using sedation, a physician shall not use any drug or agent that
trigger malignant hyperthermia.
A.R.S. § 32-1401 Definitions

20. “Office based surgery” means a medical procedure conducted in a physician's office or other outpatient
setting that is not part of a licensed hospital or licensed ambulatory surgical center.


Arizona – Osteopathic

None


                                                      11
Arkansas

None


California

CA Bus & Prof D. 2, Ch. 5, Art. 11.5 Surgery in Certain Outpatient Settings

§ 2215. Findings and intent
The Legislature finds and declares that in this state, significant surgeries are being performed in unregulated
out-of-hospital settings. The Legislature further finds and declares that without appropriate oversight, some
of these settings may be operating in a manner which is injurious to the public health, welfare, and safety.
Although the health professionals delivering health care services in these settings are licensed, further quality
assurance is needed to ensure that health care services are safely and effectively performed in these settings.
The Legislature further recognizes that there is a wide range of surgical procedures safely performed in a
myriad of outpatient settings, and the degree of patient risk varies greatly. It is the intent of the Legislature to
create regulations that directly impact patient safety. It is not the intent of the Legislature to require standards
in excess of those requirements in Section 1248.15, or to require physical modifications to facilities unless the
modifications or standards directly impact patient safety and are cost-effective. The cost effectiveness of any
modifications shall be taken into consideration by the Division of Licensing of the Medical Board of
California, and shall ensure that the least costly and effective method of achieving patient safety is required.

§ 2216. Procedures prohibited in outpatient setting
On or after July 1, 1996, no physician and surgeon shall perform procedures in an outpatient setting using
anesthesia, except local anesthesia or peripheral nerve blocks, or both, complying with the community
standard of practice, in doses that, when administered, have the probability of placing a patient at risk for loss
of the patient's life-preserving protective reflexes, unless the setting is specified in Section 1248.1. Outpatient
settings where anxiolytics and analgesics are administered are excluded when administered, in compliance
with the community standard of practice, in doses that do not have the probability of placing the patient at
risk for loss of the patient's life-preserving protective reflexes.
The definition of “outpatient settings” contained in subdivision (c) of Section 1248 shall apply to this section.

§ 2216.1. Unprofessional conduct; minimum number of staff persons; licensure
On and after July 1, 2000, it is unprofessional conduct for a physician and surgeon to perform procedures in
any outpatient setting except in compliance with Section 2216, unless the setting has a minimum of two staff
persons on the premises, one of whom shall either be a licensed physician and surgeon or a licensed health
care professional with current certification in advanced cardiac life support (ACLS), as long as a patient is
present who has not been discharged from supervised care.

§ 2216.2. Failure to provide adequate security by liability insurance
 (a) It is unprofessional conduct for a physician and surgeon to fail to provide adequate security by liability
insurance, or by participation in an interindemnity trust, for claims by patients arising out of surgical
procedures performed outside of a general acute care hospital as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of
the Health and Safety Code.
(b) For purposes of this section, the board shall determine what constitutes adequate security.
(c) Nothing in this section shall require an insurer admitted to transact liability insurance in this state to
provide coverage to a physician and surgeon.
(d) The security required by this section shall be acceptable only if provided by any one of the following:

                                                         12
(1) An insurer admitted pursuant to Section 700 of the Insurance Code to transact liability insurance in this
state.
(2) An insurer that is eligible pursuant to Section 1765.1 of the Insurance Code.
(3) A cooperative corporation authorized by Section 1280.7 of the Insurance Code.
(4) An insurer licensed to transact liability insurance in at least one state of the United States.

§ 2217. Adoption of regulations
The Division of Licensing of the Medical Board of California may adopt regulations to implement this article
and Chapter 1.3 (commencing with Section 1248) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.

West's Ann.Cal.Bus. & Prof.Code § 2240
§ 2240. Scheduled medical procedure outside general acute care hospital resulting in death or transfer to
emergency center; written report; contents
(a) Any physician and surgeon who performs a scheduled medical procedure outside of a general acute care
hospital, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code, that results in the death
of any patient on whom that medical treatment was performed by the physician and surgeon, or by a person
acting under the physician and surgeon's orders or supervision, shall report, in writing on a form prescribed
by the board, that occurrence to the board within 15 days after the occurrence.
(b) Any physician and surgeon who performs a scheduled medical procedure outside of a general acute care
hospital, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code, that results in the
transfer to a hospital or emergency center for medical treatment for a period exceeding 24 hours, of any
patient on whom that medical treatment was performed by the physician and surgeon, or by a person acting
under the physician and surgeon's orders or supervision, shall report, in writing, on a form prescribed by the
board that occurrence, within 15 days after the occurrence. The form shall contain all of the following
information:
(1) Name of the patient's physician in the outpatient setting.
(2) Name of the physician with hospital privileges.
(3) Name of the patient and patient identifying information.
(4) Name of the hospital or emergency center where the patient was transferred.
(5) Type of outpatient procedures being performed.
(6) Events triggering the transfer.
(7) Duration of the hospital stay.
(8) Final disposition or status, if not released from the hospital, of the patient.
(9) Physician's practice specialty and ABMS certification, if applicable.
(c) The form described in subdivision (b) shall be constructed in a format to enable the physician and
surgeon to transmit the information in paragraphs (5) to (9), inclusive, to the board in a manner that the
physician and surgeon and the patient are anonymous and their identifying information is not transmitted to
the board. The entire form containing information described in paragraphs (1) to (9), inclusive, shall be
placed in the patient's medical record.
(d) The board shall aggregate the data and publish an annual report on the information collected pursuant to
subdivisions (a) and (b).
(e) On and after January 1, 2002, the data required in subdivision (b) shall be sent to the Office of Statewide
Health Planning and Development (OSHPD) instead of the board. OSHPD may revise the reporting
requirements to fit state and national standards, as applicable. The board shall work with OSHPD in
developing the reporting mechanism to satisfy the data collection requirements of this section.
(f) The failure to comply with this section constitutes unprofessional conduct.

CA Hlth & S D. 2, Ch. 1.3 Outpatient Settings

§ 1248. Definitions
For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions shall apply:
                                                       13
(a) “Division” means the Medical Board of California. All references in this chapter to the division, the
Division of Licensing of the Medical Board of California, or the Division of Medical Quality shall be deemed
to refer to the Medical Board of California pursuant to Section 2002 of the Business and Professions Code.
(b)(1) “Outpatient setting” means any facility, clinic, unlicensed clinic, center, office, or other setting that is
not part of a general acute care facility, as defined in Section 1250, and where anesthesia, except local
anesthesia or peripheral nerve blocks, or both, is used in compliance with the community standard of
practice, in doses that, when administered have the probability of placing a patient at risk for loss of the
patient's life-preserving protective reflexes.
(2) “Outpatient setting” also means facilities that offer in vitro fertilization, as defined in subdivision (b) of
Section 1374.55.
(3) “Outpatient setting” does not include, among other settings, any setting where anxiolytics and analgesics
are administered, when done so in compliance with the community standard of practice, in doses that do not
have the probability of placing the patient at risk for loss of the patient's life-preserving protective reflexes.
(c) “Accreditation agency” means a public or private organization that is approved to issue certificates of
accreditation to outpatient settings by the board pursuant to Sections 1248.15 and 1248.4.

§ 1248.1. Operation and maintenance of outpatient setting; restrictions
No association, corporation, firm, partnership, or person shall operate, manage, conduct, or maintain an
outpatient setting in this state, unless the setting is one of the following:
(a) An ambulatory surgical center that is certified to participate in the Medicare program under Title XVIII
(42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq.) of the federal Social Security Act.
(b) Any clinic conducted, maintained, or operated by a federally recognized Indian tribe or tribal
organization, as defined in Section 450 or 1601 of Title 25 of the United States Code, and located on land
recognized as tribal land by the federal government.
(c) Any clinic directly conducted, maintained, or operated by the United States or by any of its departments,
officers, or agencies.
(d) Any primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) and any surgical clinic licensed under subdivision
(b) of Section 1204.
(e) Any health facility licensed as a general acute care hospital under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section
1250).
(f) Any outpatient setting to the extent that it is used by a dentist or physician and surgeon in compliance
with Article 2.7 (commencing with Section 1646) or Article 2.8 (commencing with Section 1647) of Chapter
4 of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.
(g) An outpatient setting accredited by an accreditation agency approved by the division pursuant to this
chapter.
(h) A setting, including, but not limited to, a mobile van, in which equipment is used to treat patients
admitted to a facility described in subdivision (a), (d), or (e), and in which the procedures performed are
staffed by the medical staff of, or other healthcare practitioners with clinical privileges at, the facility and are
subject to the peer review process of the facility but which setting is not a part of a facility described in
subdivision (a), (d), or (e).
Nothing in this section shall relieve an association, corporation, firm, partnership, or person from complying
with all other provisions of law that are otherwise applicable.

§ 1248.15. Standards for accreditation; approval of accreditation agencies; certification programs; minimum
standards; additional standards; adoption of regulations for specific procedures preformed; investigation of
prior history
 (a) The board shall adopt standards for accreditation and, in approving accreditation agencies to perform
accreditation of outpatient settings, shall ensure that the certification program shall, at a minimum, include
standards for the following aspects of the settings' operations:
(1) Outpatient setting allied health staff shall be licensed or certified to the extent required by state or federal
law.
                                                        14
(2)(A) Outpatient settings shall have a system for facility safety and emergency training requirements.
(B) There shall be onsite equipment, medication, and trained personnel to facilitate handling of services
sought or provided and to facilitate handling of any medical emergency that may arise in connection with
services sought or provided.
(C) In order for procedures to be performed in an outpatient setting as defined in Section 1248, the
outpatient setting shall do one of the following:
(i) Have a written transfer agreement with a local accredited or licensed acute care hospital, approved by the
facility's medical staff.
(ii) Permit surgery only by a licensee who has admitting privileges at a local accredited or licensed acute care
hospital, with the exception that licensees who may be precluded from having admitting privileges by their
professional classification or other administrative limitations, shall have a written transfer agreement with
licensees who have admitting privileges at local accredited or licensed acute care hospitals.
(iii) Submit for approval by an accrediting agency a detailed procedural plan for handling medical
emergencies that shall be reviewed at the time of accreditation. No reasonable plan shall be disapproved by
the accrediting agency.
(D) In addition to the requirements imposed in subparagraph (C), the outpatient setting shall submit for
approval by an accreditation agency at the time of accreditation a detailed plan, standardized procedures, and
protocols to be followed in the event of serious complications or side effects from surgery that would place a
patient at high risk for injury or harm or to govern emergency and urgent care situations. The plan shall
include, at a minimum, that if a patient is being transferred to a local accredited or licensed acute care
hospital, the outpatient setting shall do all of the following:
(i) Notify the individual designated by the patient to be notified in case of an emergency.
(ii) Ensure that the mode of transfer is consistent with the patient's medical condition.
(iii) Ensure that all relevant clinical information is documented and accompanies the patient at the time of
transfer.
(iv) Continue to provide appropriate care to the patient until the transfer is effectuated.
(E) All physicians and surgeons transferring patients from an outpatient setting shall agree to cooperate with
the medical staff peer review process on the transferred case, the results of which shall be referred back to
the outpatient setting, if deemed appropriate by the medical staff peer review committee. If the medical staff
of the acute care facility determines that inappropriate care was delivered at the outpatient setting, the acute
care facility's peer review outcome shall be reported, as appropriate, to the accrediting body or in accordance
with existing law.
(3) The outpatient setting shall permit surgery by a dentist acting within his or her scope of practice under
Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 1600) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code or physician
and surgeon, osteopathic physician and surgeon, or podiatrist acting within his or her scope of practice under
Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 2000) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code or the
Osteopathic Initiative Act. The outpatient setting may, in its discretion, permit anesthesia service by a
certified registered nurse anesthetist acting within his or her scope of practice under Article 7 (commencing
with Section 2825) of Chapter 6 of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.
(4) Outpatient settings shall have a system for maintaining clinical records.
(5) Outpatient settings shall have a system for patient care and monitoring procedures.
(6)(A) Outpatient settings shall have a system for quality assessment and improvement.
(B) Members of the medical staff and other practitioners who are granted clinical privileges shall be
professionally qualified and appropriately credentialed for the performance of privileges granted. The
outpatient setting shall grant privileges in accordance with recommendations from qualified health
professionals, and credentialing standards established by the outpatient setting.
(C) Clinical privileges shall be periodically reappraised by the outpatient setting. The scope of procedures
performed in the outpatient setting shall be periodically reviewed and amended as appropriate.
(7) Outpatient settings regulated by this chapter that have multiple service locations shall have all of the sites
inspected.

                                                       15
(8) Outpatient settings shall post the certificate of accreditation in a location readily visible to patients and
staff.
(9) Outpatient settings shall post the name and telephone number of the accrediting agency with instructions
on the submission of complaints in a location readily visible to patients and staff.
(10) Outpatient settings shall have a written discharge criteria.
(b) Outpatient settings shall have a minimum of two staff persons on the premises, one of whom shall either
be a licensed physician and surgeon or a licensed health care professional with current certification in
advanced cardiac life support (ACLS), as long as a patient is present who has not been discharged from
supervised care. Transfer to an unlicensed setting of a patient who does not meet the discharge criteria
adopted pursuant to paragraph (10) of subdivision (a) shall constitute unprofessional conduct.
(c) An accreditation agency may include additional standards in its determination to accredit outpatient
settings if these are approved by the board to protect the public health and safety.
(d) No accreditation standard adopted or approved by the board, and no standard included in any
certification program of any accreditation agency approved by the board, shall serve to limit the ability of any
allied health care practitioner to provide services within his or her full scope of practice. Notwithstanding this
or any other provision of law, each outpatient setting may limit the privileges, or determine the privileges,
within the appropriate scope of practice, that will be afforded to physicians and allied health care
practitioners who practice at the facility, in accordance with credentialing standards established by the
outpatient setting in compliance with this chapter. Privileges may not be arbitrarily restricted based on
category of licensure.
(e) The board shall adopt standards that it deems necessary for outpatient settings that offer in vitro
fertilization.
(f) The board may adopt regulations it deems necessary to specify procedures that should be performed in an
accredited outpatient setting for facilities or clinics that are outside the definition of outpatient setting as
specified in Section 1248.
(g) As part of the accreditation process, the accrediting agency shall conduct a reasonable investigation of the
prior history of the outpatient setting, including all licensed physicians and surgeons who have an ownership
interest therein, to determine whether there have been any adverse accreditation decisions rendered against
them. For the purposes of this section, “conducting a reasonable investigation” means querying the Medical
Board of California and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California to ascertain if either the outpatient
setting has, or, if its owners are licensed physicians and surgeons, if those physicians and surgeons have, been
subject to an adverse accreditation decision.
(h) An outpatient setting shall be subject to the reporting requirements in Section 1279.1 and the penalties
for failure to report specified in Section 1280.4.

§ 1248.2. Certificate of accreditation; application; issuance; list of accredited, certified, and licensed outpatient
settings; notification to public by placing on Internet Web site; inclusion; notification
 (a) Any outpatient setting may apply to an accreditation agency for a certificate of accreditation.
Accreditation shall be issued by the accreditation agency solely on the basis of compliance with its standards
as approved by the board under this chapter.
(b) The board shall obtain and maintain a list of accredited outpatient settings from the information provided
by the accreditation agencies approved by the board, and shall notify the public, by placing the information
on its Internet Web site, whether an outpatient setting is accredited or the setting's accreditation has been
revoked, suspended, or placed on probation, or the setting has received a reprimand by the accreditation
agency.
(c) The list of outpatient settings shall include all of the following:
(1) Name, address, and telephone number of any owners, and their medical license numbers.
(2) Name and address of the facility.
(3) The name and telephone number of the accreditation agency.
(4) The effective and expiration dates of the accreditation.

                                                         16
(d) Accrediting agencies approved by the board shall notify the board and update the board on all outpatient
settings that are accredited.

§ 1248.25. Denial of accreditation; reapplication
If an outpatient setting does not meet the standards approved by the board, accreditation shall be denied by
the accreditation agency, which shall provide the outpatient setting notification of the reasons for the denial.
An outpatient setting may reapply for accreditation at any time after receiving notification of the denial. The
accreditation agency shall report within three business days to the board if the outpatient setting's certificate
for accreditation has been denied.

§ 1248.3. Validity of certificates of accreditation; change in ownership; notification; disclosure of information
obtained in performance of accreditation activities
 (a) Certificates of accreditation issued to outpatient settings by an accreditation agency shall be valid for not
more than three years.
(b) The outpatient setting shall notify the accreditation agency within 30 days of any significant change in
ownership, including, but not limited to, a merger, change in majority interest, consolidation, name change,
change in scope of services, additional services, or change in locations.
(c) Except for disclosures to the division or to the Division of Medical Quality under this chapter, an
accreditation agency shall not disclose information obtained in the performance of accreditation activities
under this chapter that individually identifies patients, individual medical practitioners, or outpatient settings.
Neither the proceedings nor the records of an accreditation agency or the proceedings and records of an
outpatient setting related to performance of quality assurance or accreditation activities under this chapter
shall be subject to discovery, nor shall the records or proceedings be admissible in a court of law. The
prohibition relating to discovery and admissibility of records and proceedings does not apply to any
outpatient setting requesting accreditation in the event that denial or revocation of that outpatient setting's
accreditation is being contested. Nothing in this section shall prohibit the accreditation agency from making
discretionary disclosures of information to an outpatient setting pertaining to the accreditation of that
outpatient setting.

§ 1248.35. Inspection of outpatient settings; requirements; noncompliance with standards; reprimand,
probation, suspension or revocation; notice; reporting on results of inspection
Currentness
(a) Every outpatient setting which is accredited shall be inspected by the accreditation agency and may also be
inspected by the Medical Board of California. The Medical Board of California shall ensure that accreditation
agencies inspect outpatient settings.
(b) Unless otherwise specified, the following requirements apply to inspections described in subdivision (a).
(1) The frequency of inspection shall depend upon the type and complexity of the outpatient setting to be
inspected.
(2) Inspections shall be conducted no less often than once every three years by the accreditation agency and
as often as necessary by the Medical Board of California to ensure the quality of care provided.
(3) The Medical Board of California or the accreditation agency may enter and inspect any outpatient setting
that is accredited by an accreditation agency at any reasonable time to ensure compliance with, or investigate
an alleged violation of, any standard of the accreditation agency or any provision of this chapter.
(c) If an accreditation agency determines, as a result of its inspection, that an outpatient setting is not in
compliance with the standards under which it was approved, the accreditation agency may do any of the
following:
(1) Require correction of any identified deficiencies within a set timeframe. Failure to comply shall result in
the accrediting agency issuing a reprimand or suspending or revoking the outpatient setting's accreditation.
(2) Issue a reprimand.
(3) Place the outpatient setting on probation, during which time the setting shall successfully institute and
complete a plan of correction, approved by the board or the accreditation agency, to correct the deficiencies.
                                                        17
(4) Suspend or revoke the outpatient setting's certification of accreditation.
(d)(1) Except as is otherwise provided in this subdivision, before suspending or revoking a certificate of
accreditation under this chapter, the accreditation agency shall provide the outpatient setting with notice of
any deficiencies and the outpatient setting shall agree with the accreditation agency on a plan of correction
that shall give the outpatient setting reasonable time to supply information demonstrating compliance with
the standards of the accreditation agency in compliance with this chapter, as well as the opportunity for a
hearing on the matter upon the request of the outpatient setting. During the allotted time to correct the
deficiencies, the plan of correction, which includes the deficiencies, shall be conspicuously posted by the
outpatient setting in a location accessible to public view. Within 10 days after the adoption of the plan of
correction, the accrediting agency shall send a list of deficiencies and the corrective action to be taken to the
board. The accreditation agency may immediately suspend the certificate of accreditation before providing
notice and an opportunity to be heard, but only when failure to take the action may result in imminent
danger to the health of an individual. In such cases, the accreditation agency shall provide subsequent notice
and an opportunity to be heard.
(2) If an outpatient setting does not comply with a corrective action within a timeframe specified by the
accrediting agency, the accrediting agency shall issue a reprimand, and may either place the outpatient setting
on probation or suspend or revoke the accreditation of the outpatient setting, and shall notify the board of its
action. This section shall not be deemed to prohibit an outpatient setting that is unable to correct the
deficiencies, as specified in the plan of correction, for reasons beyond its control, from voluntarily
surrendering its accreditation prior to initiation of any suspension or revocation proceeding.
(e) The accreditation agency shall, within 24 hours, report to the board if the outpatient setting has been
issued a reprimand or if the outpatient setting's certification of accreditation has been suspended or revoked
or if the outpatient setting has been placed on probation.
(f) The accreditation agency, upon receipt of a complaint from the board that an outpatient setting poses an
immediate risk to public safety, shall inspect the outpatient setting and report its findings of inspection to the
board within five business days. If an accreditation agency receives any other complaint from the board, it
shall investigate the outpatient setting and report its findings of investigation to the board within 30 days.
(g) Reports on the results of any inspection shall be kept on file with the board and the accreditation agency
along with the plan of correction and the comments of the outpatient setting. The inspection report may
include a recommendation for reinspection. All final inspection reports, which include the lists of
deficiencies, plans of correction or requirements for improvements and correction, and corrective action
completed, shall be public records open to public inspection.
(h) If one accrediting agency denies accreditation, or revokes or suspends the accreditation of an outpatient
setting, this action shall apply to all other accrediting agencies. An outpatient setting that is denied
accreditation is permitted to reapply for accreditation with the same accrediting agency. The outpatient
setting also may apply for accreditation from another accrediting agency, but only if it discloses the full
accreditation report of the accrediting agency that denied accreditation. Any outpatient setting that has been
denied accreditation shall disclose the accreditation report to any other accrediting agency to which it submits
an application. The new accrediting agency shall ensure that all deficiencies have been corrected and conduct
a new onsite inspection consistent with the standards specified in this chapter.
(i) If an outpatient setting's certification of accreditation has been suspended or revoked, or if the
accreditation has been denied, the accreditation agency shall do all of the following:
(1) Notify the board of the action.
(2) Send a notification letter to the outpatient setting of the action. The notification letter shall state that the
setting is no longer allowed to perform procedures that require outpatient setting accreditation.
(3) Require the outpatient setting to remove its accreditation certification and to post the notification letter in
a conspicuous location, accessible to public view.
(j) The board may take any appropriate action it deems necessary pursuant to Section 1248.7 if an outpatient
setting's certification of accreditation has been suspended or revoked, or if accreditation has been denied.


                                                        18
§ 1248.4. Accreditation agencies operating on or before Jan. 1, 1995; temporary certificates of approval; list
of certificated settings; approval for accreditation; criteria; notification of revocation of certificate; expiration
of certification; renewal
 (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that an accreditation agency operating on or before January 1, 1995, or a
successor thereof, or an accreditation agency thereafter operating as part of a joint program granted
temporary certification as an accreditation agency by the division, whether operating as part of a joint
program or independently, and meeting the standards set forth in this chapter, as determined by the division,
not be required to go through the entire application process with the division. Therefore, the division may
grant a temporary certificate of approval to such an accreditation agency. The temporary approval issued to
an accreditation agency under this subdivision shall expire on January 1, 1998. In order to continue its status
as an accreditation agency, an accreditation agency approved by the division under this subdivision shall
apply for renewal of approval by the division on or before January 1, 1998, and shall establish that it is in
compliance with the standards set forth in this chapter and any regulations adopted pursuant thereto.
(b) Each accreditation agency approved by the division shall, on and after January 1, 1995, promptly forward
to the division a list of each outpatient setting to which it has granted a certificate of accreditation, as well as
settings that have lost accreditation or were denied accreditation.
(c) The division shall approve an accreditation agency that applies for approval on a form prescribed by the
division, accompanied by payment of the fee prescribed by this chapter and evidence that the accreditation
agency meets the following criteria:
(1) Includes within its accreditation program, at a minimum, the standards for accreditation of outpatient
settings approved by the division as well as standards for patient care and safety at the setting.
(2) Submits its current accreditation standards to the division every three years, or upon request for
continuing approval by the division.
(3) Maintains internal quality management programs to ensure quality of the accreditation process.
(4) Has a process by which accreditation standards can be reviewed and revised no less than every three
years.
(5) Maintains an available pool of allied health care practitioners to serve on accreditation review teams as
appropriate.
(6) Has accreditation review teams that shall do all of the following:
(A) Consist of at least one physician and surgeon who practices in an outpatient setting; any other members
shall be practicing actively in these settings.
(B) Participate in formal educational training programs provided by the accreditation agency in evaluation of
the certification standards at least every three years.
(7) The accreditation agency shall demonstrate that professional members of its review team have experience
in conducting review activities of freestanding outpatient settings.
(8) Standards for accreditation shall be developed with the input of the medical community and the
ambulatory surgery industry.
(9) Accreditation reviewers shall be credentialed and screened by the accreditation agency.
(10) The accreditation agency shall not have an ownership interest in nor be involved in the operation of a
freestanding outpatient setting, nor in the delivery of health care services to patients.
(d) Accreditation agencies approved by the division shall forward to the division copies of all certificates of
accreditation and shall notify the division promptly whenever the agency denies or revokes a certificate of
accreditation.
(e) A certification of an accreditation agency by the division shall expire at midnight on the last day of a
three-year term if not renewed. The division shall establish by regulation the procedure for renewal. To
renew an unexpired approval, the accreditation agency shall, on or before the date upon which the
certification would otherwise expire, apply for renewal on a form, and pay the renewal fee, as prescribed by
the division.

§ 1248.5. Performance evaluations

                                                         19
The board shall evaluate the performance of an approved accreditation agency no less than every three years,
or in response to complaints against an agency, or complaints against one or more outpatient settings
accreditation by an agency that indicates noncompliance by the agency with the standards approved by the
board.

§ 1248.55. Failure to meet criteria; termination of approval
(a) If the accreditation agency is not meeting the criteria set by the division, the division may terminate
approval of the agency.
(b) Before terminating approval of an accreditation agency, the division shall provide the accreditation agency
with notice of any deficiencies and reasonable time to supply information demonstrating compliance with the
requirements of this chapter, as well as the opportunity for a hearing on the matter in compliance with
Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(c)(1) If approval of the accreditation agency is terminated by the division, outpatient settings accredited by
that agency shall be notified by the division and, except as provided in paragraph (2), shall be authorized to
continue to operate for a period of 12 months in order to seek accreditation through an approved
accreditation agency, unless the time is extended by the division for good cause.
(2) The division may require that an outpatient setting, that has been accredited by an accreditation agency
whose approval has been terminated by the division, cease operations immediately in the event that the
division is in possession of information indicating that continued operation poses an imminent risk of harm
to the health of an individual. In such cases, the division shall provide the outpatient setting with notice of its
action, the reason underlying it, and a subsequent opportunity for a hearing on the matter. An outpatient
setting that is ordered to cease operations under this paragraph may reapply for a certificate of accreditation
after six months and shall notify the division promptly of its reapplication.

§ 1248.6. Fees
(a) The Division of Licensing shall establish by regulation a reasonable fee for an application for approval as
an accreditation agency in an amount that is reasonably necessary to recover the cost of implementing and
administering this chapter, and not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000). The division shall establish by
regulation a reasonable fee for a temporary certificate of approval, as outlined in subdivision (a) of Section
1248.4, not to exceed two thousand dollars ($2,000). The division shall also establish a reasonable fee for
renewal. The renewal fee shall be proportionate to the number of outpatient settings accredited by the
approved accrediting body seeking renewal, and shall not exceed one hundred dollars ($100) per outpatient
setting accreditation reviewed.
(b) All fees paid to and received by the division or the Medical Board of California under this chapter shall be
paid into the State Treasury and shall be credited to a special fund that is hereby created as the Outpatient
Setting Fund of the Medical Board of California. Funds in the Outpatient Setting Fund of the Medical Board
of California shall be expended by the board for the purpose of implementing and administering this chapter
upon appropriation by the Legislature. No surplus in the fund shall be deposited in or transferred to the
General Fund or any other fund.

§ 1248.65. Violations; unprofessional conduct
It shall constitute unprofessional conduct for a physician and surgeon to willfully and knowingly violate this
chapter.

§ 1248.7. Injunctions; requirements for proceedings
(a) The board shall investigate all complaints concerning a violation of this chapter. With respect to any
complaints relating to a violation of Section 1248.1, or upon discovery that an outpatient setting is not in
compliance with Section 1248.1, the board shall investigate and, where appropriate, the board, through or in
conjunction with the local district attorney, shall bring an action to enjoin the outpatient setting's operation.
The board or the local district attorney may bring an action to enjoin a violation or threatened violation of
any other provision of this chapter in the superior court in and for the county in which the violation
                                                        20
occurred or is about to occur. Any proceeding under this section shall conform to the requirements of
Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 525) of Title 7 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the
Division of Medical Quality shall not be required to allege facts necessary to show or tending to show lack of
adequate remedy at law or irreparable damage or loss.
(b) With respect to any and all actions brought pursuant to this section alleging an actual or threatened
violation of any requirement of this chapter, the court shall, if it finds the allegations to be true, issue an
order enjoining the person or facility from continuing the violation. For purposes of Section 1248.1, if an
outpatient setting is operating without a certificate of accreditation, this shall be prima facie evidence that a
violation of Section 1248.1 has occurred and additional proof shall not be necessary to enjoin the outpatient
setting's operation.

§ 1248.75. Injunctions; notification of deficiencies in compliance and of regulations; plan of correction;
inspection; corrective action
(a) Except as may otherwise be provided in this section, before the Division of Medical Quality may seek an
injunction as provided under Section 1248.7, the Division of Medical Quality shall notify the outpatient
setting of all deficiencies in its compliance with this chapter, and any rules and regulations adopted pursuant
to this chapter, and the Division of Medical Quality and the outpatient setting shall reach an agreement upon
a plan of correction that shall give the outpatient setting reasonable time to correct the deficiencies. The
Division of Medical Quality shall also inform the outpatient setting that failure to reach an agreement or to
correct deficiencies may lead to corrective action by the Division of Medical Quality, which may include
imposition of fines under Section 1248.8. If at the end of the allotted time the division and the outpatient
setting have failed to reach an agreement or the outpatient setting has failed to correct the deficiencies, as
revealed by inspection, the Division of Medical Quality may take corrective action to include, as appropriate,
seeking an injunction under Section 1248.7, revoking or requesting that the accreditation agency revoke
accreditation, or communicating with any agency that has oversight authority over the outpatient setting,
such as the Department of Health Services or other appropriate licensing authority, to request that the
agency take corrective action against the outpatient setting.
(b) For purposes of this section, and at the sole discretion of the Division of Medical Quality, any
notifications, inspections, and corrective action plans of the Division of Medical Quality relating to
outpatient settings that have been accredited by an accreditation agency may be performed or coordinated by
the accreditation agency rather than by the Division of Medical Quality.
(c) If the Division of Medical Quality determines that an outpatient setting poses an immediate and
substantial hazard to the health or safety of the patient, that may not reasonably be corrected through a plan
of correction, the Division of Medical Quality may immediately institute injunction proceedings pursuant
to Section 1248.7.

§ 1248.8. Willful violations; punishment; considerations
 (a) Any person or entity that willfully violates this chapter or any rule or regulation adopted under this
chapter shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000)
per day of violation.
(b) In determining the punishment to be imposed under this section, the court shall consider all relevant
facts, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) Whether the violation exposed a patient or other individual to the risk of death or serious physical harm.
(2) Whether the violation had a direct or immediate relationship to health, safety, or security of a patient or
other individual.
(3) Evidence, if any, of willfulness in the violation.
(4) The presence or absence of good faith efforts by the outpatient setting to prevent the violation.
(c) For purposes of this section, “willfully” or “willful” means that the person doing an act or omitting to do
an act intends the act or omission, and knows the relevant circumstances connected with the act or omission.


                                                       21
(d) The district attorney of every county shall, upon application by the Division of Medical Quality or its
authorized representative, institute and conduct the prosecution of any action or violation within the county
of any provisions of this chapter.

§ 1248.85. Additional standards, procedures, and fees established by accreditation agency
This chapter shall not preclude an approved accreditation agency from adopting additional standards
consistent with Section 1248.15, establishing procedures for the conduct of onsite inspections, selecting
onsite inspectors to perform accreditation onsite inspections, or establishing and collecting reasonable fees
for the conduct of accreditation onsite inspections.


California – Osteopathic

None


Colorado

Policy Statement
Office-Based Surgery and Anesthesia
http://www.dora.state.co.us/medical/policies/40-12.pdf

Connecticut

§ 19a-490m. Development of surgery protocols by hospitals and outpatient surgical facilities
 (a) Each hospital and outpatient surgical facility shall develop protocols for accurate identification
procedures that shall be used by such hospital or outpatient surgical facility prior to surgery.
Such protocols shall include, but need not be limited to, (1) procedures to be followed to identify the (A)
patient, (B) surgical procedure to be performed, and (C) body part on which thesurgical procedure is to be
performed, and (2) alternative identification procedures in urgent or emergency circumstances or where the
patient is nonspeaking, comatose or incompetent or is a child. After January 1, 2006,
no hospital or outpatient surgicalfacility may anesthetize a patient or perform surgery unless
the protocols have been followed. Each hospital and outpatientsurgical facility shall make a copy of
the protocols available to the Commissioner of Public Health upon request.
(b) Not later than October 1, 2006, the Department of Public Health shall report, in accordance with section
11-4a, to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to
public health describing the protocolsdeveloped pursuant to subsection (a) of this section.

C.G.S.A. § 19a-493b. Definition of outpatient surgical facility. Licensure and exceptions. Compliance with
certificate of need requirements. Dental clinics not subject to section. Waiver of certain licensure regulation
requirements
 (a) As used in this section and subsection (a) of section 19a-490, “outpatient surgical facility” means any
entity, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, limited liability company or association, other than a
hospital, engaged in providing surgical services or diagnostic procedures for human health conditions that
include the use of moderate or deep sedation, moderate or deep analgesia or general anesthesia, as such levels
of anesthesia are defined from time to time by the American Society of Anesthesiologists, or by such other
professional or accrediting entity recognized by the Department of Public Health.
An outpatient surgical facilityshall not include a medical office owned and operated exclusively by a person
or persons licensed pursuant to section 20-13, provided such medical office: (1) Has no operating room or
designated surgical area; (2) bills no facility fees to third party payers; (3) administers no deep sedation or
general anesthesia; (4) performs only minor surgical procedures incidental to the work performed in said
                                                      22
medical office of the physician or physicians that own and operate such medical office; and (5) uses only light
or moderate sedation or analgesia in connection with such incidental minor surgical procedures. Nothing in
this subsection shall be construed to affect any obligation to comply with the provisions of section 19a-691.
(b) No entity, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, limited liability company or association, other than a
hospital, shall individually or jointly establish or operate an outpatient surgical facility in this state without
complying with chapter 368z,1 except as otherwise provided by this section, and obtaining a license within
the time specified in this subsection from the Department of Public Health for such facility pursuant to the
provisions of this chapter, unless such entity, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, limited liability
company or association: (1) Provides to the Office of Health Care Access division of the Department of
Public Health satisfactory evidence that it was in operation on or before July 1, 2003, or (2) obtained, on or
before July 1, 2003, from the Office of Health Care Access, a determination that a certificate of need is not
required. An entity, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, limited liability company or association
otherwise in compliance with this section may operate an outpatient surgical facilitywithout a license through
March 30, 2007, and shall have until March 30, 2007, to obtain a license from the Department of Public
Health.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, no outpatient surgical facility shall be required to comply
with section 19a-631,19a-632, 19a-644, 19a-645, 19a-646, 19a-649, 19a-654 to 19a-660, inclusive, 19a-
664 to 19a-666, inclusive, 19a-673 to 19a-676, inclusive, 19a-678, 19a-681 or 19a-683.
Each outpatient surgical facility shall continue to be subject to the obligations and requirements applicable to
such facility, including, but not limited to, any applicable provision of this chapter and those provisions of
chapter 368z not specified in this subsection, except that a request for permission to undertake a transfer or
change of ownership or control shall not be required pursuant to subsection (a) of section 19a-638 if the
Office of Health Care Access division of the Department of Public Health determines that the following
conditions are satisfied: (1) Prior to any such transfer or change of ownership or control,
the outpatient surgical facility shall be owned and controlled exclusively by persons licensed pursuant
tosection 20-13 or chapter 375, either directly or through a limited liability company, formed pursuant to
chapter 613,2 a corporation, formed pursuant to chapters 6013 and 602,4 or a limited liability partnership,
formed pursuant to chapter 614,5 that is exclusively owned by persons licensed pursuant to section 20-13 or
chapter 375, or is under the interim control of an estate executor or conservator pending transfer of an
ownership interest or control to a person licensed under section 20-13 or chapter 375, and (2) after any such
transfer or change of ownership or control, persons licensed pursuant to section 20-13 or chapter 375, a
limited liability company, formed pursuant to chapter 613, a corporation, formed pursuant to chapters 601
and 602, or a limited liability partnership, formed pursuant to chapter 614, that is exclusively owned by
persons licensed pursuant to section 20-13 or chapter 375, shall own and control no less than a sixty per cent
interest in the outpatient surgical facility.
(d) The provisions of this section shall not apply to persons licensed to practice dentistry or dental medicine
pursuant to chapter 3796 or to outpatient clinics licensed pursuant to this chapter.
(e) Any outpatient surgical facility that is accredited as provided in section 19a-691 shall continue to be
subject to the requirements of section 19a-691.
(f) The Commissioner of Public Health may provide a waiver for outpatient surgical facilities from the
physical plant and staffing requirements of the licensing regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter,
provided no waiver may be granted unless the health, safety and welfare of patients is ensured.

C.G.S.A. § 19a-691 Anesthesia accreditation

a) Any office or unlicensed facility operated by a licensed health care practitioner or practitioner group at
which moderate sedation/analgesia, deep sedation/analgesia or general anesthesia, as such levels of
anesthesia are defined from time to time by the American Society of Anesthesiology, is administered shall be
accredited by at least one of the following entities: (1) The Medicare program; (2) the Accreditation
Association for Ambulatory Health Care; (3) the American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory
Surgery Facilities, Inc.; or (4) the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. Such
                                                        23
accreditation shall be obtained not later than eighteen months after July 1, 2001, or eighteen months after the
date on which moderate sedation/analgesia, deep sedation/analgesia or general anesthesia is first
administered at such office or facility, whichever is later. Upon the expiration of the applicable eighteen-
month period, no moderate sedation/analgesia, deep sedation/analgesia or general anesthesia may be
administered at any such office or facility that does not receive accreditation as required by this section.
Evidence of such accreditation shall be maintained at any such office or facility at which moderate
sedation/analgesia, deep sedation/analgesia or general anesthesia is administered and shall be made available
for inspection upon request of the Department of Public Health. The provisions of this section shall not
apply to any such office or facility operated by a practitioner holding a permit issued under section 20-123b.
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, any office or unlicensed facility that is
accredited as provided in subsection (a) of this section shall continue to be subject to the obligations and
requirements applicable to such office or facility, including, but not limited to, any applicable certificate of
need requirements as provided in chapter 368z1 and any applicable licensure requirements as provided in
chapter 368v2.


Delaware

None


District of Columbia

None


Florida – Medical

Chapter 64B8–9. Standards of Practice for Medical Doctors

Standard of Care for Office Surgery.

NOTHING IN THIS RULE RELIEVES THE SURGEON OF THE RESPONSIBILITY FOR MAKING
THE MEDICAL DETERMINATION THAT THE OFFICE IS AN APPROPRIATE FORUM FOR
THE PARTICULAR PROCEDURE(S) TO BE PERFORMED ON THE PARTICULAR PATIENT.
(1) Definitions.
(a) Surgery. For the purpose of this rule, surgery is defined as any manual or operative procedure, including
the use of lasers, performed upon the body of a living human being for the purposes of preserving health,
diagnosing or curing disease, repairing injury, correcting deformity or defects, prolonging life, relieving
suffering or any elective procedure for aesthetic, reconstructive or cosmetic purposes, to include, but not be
limited to: incision or curettage of tissue or an organ; suture or other repair of tissue or organ, including a
closed as well as an open reduction of a fracture; extraction of tissue including premature extraction of the
products of conception from the uterus; insertion of natural or artificial implants; or an endoscopic
procedure with use of local or general anesthetic.
(b) Surgeon. For the purpose of this rule, surgeon is defined as a licensed physician performing any
procedure included within the definition of surgery.
(c) Equipment. For the purpose of this rule, implicit within the use of the term of equipment is the
requirement that the specific item named must meet current performance standards.
(d) Office surgery. For the purpose of this rule office surgery is defined as surgery which is performed
outside of any facility licensed under Chapter 390 or 395, F.S. Office surgical procedures shall not be of a
type that generally result in blood loss of more than ten percent of estimated blood volume in a patient with
                                                       24
a normal hemoglobin; require major or prolonged intracranial, intrathoracic, abdominal, or major joint
replacement procedures, except for laparoscopic procedures; directly involve major blood vessels; or are
generally emergent or life threatening in nature.
(e) Pediatric patients are defined as those patients who are 13 years of age or under.
(2) General Requirements for Office Surgery.
(a) The surgeon must examine the patient immediately before the surgery to evaluate the risk of anesthesia
and of the surgical procedure to be performed. The surgeon must maintain complete records of each surgical
procedure, as set forth in Rule 64B8-9.003, F.A.C., including anesthesia records, when applicable and the
records shall contain written informed consent from the patient reflecting the patient's knowledge of
identified risks, consent to the procedure, type of anesthesia and anesthesia provider, and that a choice of
anesthesia provider exists, i.e., anesthesiologist, another appropriately trained physician as provided in this
rule, certified registered nurse anesthetist, or physician assistant qualified as set forth in subparagraph 64B8-
30.012(2)(b)6., F.A.C.
(b) The requirement set forth in paragraph (2)(a) above for written informed consent is not necessary for
minor Level I procedures limited to the skin and mucosa.
(c) The surgeon must maintain a log of all Level II and Level III surgical procedures performed, which must
include a confidential patient identifier, time of arrival in the operating suite, the name of the physician who
provided medical clearances, the surgeon's name, diagnosis, CPT Codes, patient ASA classification, the type
of procedure, the level of surgery, the anesthesia provider, the type of anesthesia used, the duration of the
procedure, the type of post-operative care, duration of recovery, disposition of the patient upon discharge,
list of medications used during surgery and recovery, and any adverse incidents, as identified in Section
458.351, F.S. The log and all surgical records shall be provided to investigators of the Department of Health
upon request and must be maintained for six (6) years from the last patient contact.
(d) In any liposuction procedure, the surgeon is responsible for determining the appropriate amount of
supernatant fat to be removed from a particular patient. A maximum of 4000cc supernatant fat may be
removed by liposuction in the office setting. A maximum of 50mg/kg of Lidocaine can be injected for
tumescent liposuction in the office setting.
(e) Liposuction may be performed in combination with another separate surgical procedure during a single
Level II or Level III operation, only in the following circumstances:
1. When combined with abdominoplasty, liposuction may not exceed 1000cc of supernatant fat;
2. When liposuction is associated and directly related to another procedure, the liposuction may not exceed
1000 cc of supernatant fat;
3. Major liposuction in excess of 1000cc supernatant fat may not be performed in a remote location from any
other procedure.
(f) For elective cosmetic and plastic surgery procedures performed in a physician's office, the maximum
planned duration of all surgical procedures combined must not exceed 8 hours. Except for elective cosmetic
and plastic surgery, the surgeon shall not keep patients past midnight in a physician's office. For elective
cosmetic and plastic surgical procedures, the patient must be discharged within 24 hours of presenting to the
office for surgery; an overnight stay is permitted in the office provided the total time the patient is at the
office does not exceed 23 hours and 59 minutes including the surgery time. An overnight stay in a physician's
office for elective cosmetic and plastic surgery shall be strictly limited to the physician's office. If the patient
has not recovered sufficiently to be safely discharged within the timeframes set forth, the patient must be
transferred to a hospital for continued post-operative care.
(g) The Board of Medicine adopts the “Standards of the American Society of Anesthesiologists for Basic
Anesthetic Monitoring,” approved by House Delegates on October 21, 1986, and last amended on October
21, 1998, as the standards for anesthetic monitoring by any qualified anesthesia provider.
1. These standards apply to general anesthetics, regional anesthetics, and monitored anesthesia care (Level II
and III as defined by this rule) although, in emergency circumstances, appropriate life support measures take
precedence. These standards may be exceeded at any time based on the judgment of the responsible
supervising physician or anesthesiologist. They are intended to encourage quality patient care, but observing
them cannot guarantee any specific patient outcome. They are subject to revision from time to time, as
                                                         25
warranted by the evolution of technology and practice. This set of standards address only the issue of basic
anesthesia monitoring, which is one component of anesthesia care.
2. In certain rare or unusual circumstances some of these methods of monitoring may be clinically
impractical, and appropriate use of the described monitoring methods may fail to detect untoward clinical
developments. Brief interruptions of continual monitoring may be unavoidable. For purpose of this rule,
“continual” is defined as “repeated regularly and frequently in steady rapid succession” whereas “continuous”
means “prolonged without any interruption at any time.”
3. Under extenuating circumstances, the responsible supervising physician or anesthesiologist may waive the
requirements marked with an asterisk (*); it is recommended that when this is done, it should be so stated
(including the reasons) in a note in the patient's medical record. These standards are not intended for the
application to the care of the obstetrical patient in labor or in the conduct of pain management.
a. Standard I.
I. Qualified anesthesia personnel shall be present in the room throughout the conduct of all general
anesthetics, regional anesthetics and monitored anesthesia care.
II. OBJECTIVE. Because of the rapid changes in patient status during anesthesia, qualified anesthesia
personnel shall be continuously present to monitor the patient and provide anesthesia care. In the event there
is a direct known hazard, e.g., radiation, to the anesthesia personnel which might require intermittent remote
observation of the patient, some provision for monitoring the patient must be made. In the event that an
emergency requires the temporary absence of the person primarily responsible for the anesthetic, the best
judgment of the supervising physician or anesthesiologist will be exercised in comparing the emergency with
the anesthetized patient's condition and in the selection of the person left responsible for the anesthetic
during the temporary absence.
b. Standard II.
I. During all anesthetics, the patient's oxygenation, ventilation, circulation and temperature shall be
continually evaluated.
II. OXYGENATION.
(A) OBJECTIVE. To ensure adequate oxygen concentration in the inspired gas and the blood during all
anesthetics.
(B) METHODS.
(I) Inspired gas: During every administration of general anesthesia using an anesthesia machine, the
concentration of oxygen in the patient breathing system shall be measured by an oxygen analyzer with a low
oxygen concentration limit alarm in use.*
(II) Blood oxygenation: During all anesthetics, a quantitative method of assessing oxygenation such as a pulse
oximetry shall be employed.* Adequate illumination and exposure of the patient are necessary to assess
color.*
III. VENTILATION.
(A) OBJECTIVE. To ensure adequate ventilation of the patient during all anesthetics.
(B) METHODS.
(I) Every patient receiving general anesthesia shall have the adequacy of ventilation continually evaluated.
Qualitative clinical signs such as chest excursion, observation of the reservoir breathing bag and auscultation
of breath sounds are useful. Continual monitoring for the presence of expired carbon dioxide shall be
performed unless invalidated by the nature of the patient, procedure or equipment. Quantitative monitoring
of the volume of expired gas is strongly encouraged.*
(II) When an endotracheal tube or laryngeal mask is inserted, its correct positioning must be verified by
clinical assessment and by identification of carbon dioxide analysis, in use from the time of endotracheal
tube/laryngeal mask placement, until extubation/ removal or initiating transfer to a postoperative care
location, shall be performed using a quantitative method such as capnography, capnometry or mass
spectroscopy.*
(III) When ventilation is controlled by a mechanical ventilator, there shall be in continuous use a device that
is capable of detecting disconnection of components of the breathing system. The device must give an
audible signal when its alarm threshold is exceeded.
                                                      26
(IV) During regional anesthesia and monitored anesthesia care, the adequacy of ventilation shall be evaluated,
at least, by continual observation of qualitative clinical signs.
IV. CIRCULATION.
(A) OBJECTIVE. To ensure the adequacy of the patient's circulatory function during all anesthetics.
(B) METHODS.
(I) Every patient receiving anesthesia shall have the electrocardiogram continuously displayed from the
beginning of anesthesia until preparing to leave the anesthetizing location.*
(II) Every patient receiving anesthesia shall have arterial blood pressure and heart rate determined and
evaluated at least every five minutes.*
(III) Every patient receiving general anesthesia shall have, in addition to the above, circulatory function
continually evaluated by at least one of the following: palpation of a pulse, auscultation of heart sounds,
monitoring of a tracing of intra-arterial pressure, ultrasound peripheral pulse monitoring, or pulse
plethysmography or oximetry.
V. BODY TEMPERATURE.
(A) OBJECTIVE. To aid in the maintenance of appropriate body temperature during all anesthetics.
(B) METHODS. Every patient receiving anesthesia shall have temperature monitored when clinically
significant changes in body temperature are intended, anticipated or suspected.
(h) The surgeon must assure that the post-operative care arrangements made for the patient are adequate to
the procedure being performed as set forth in Rule 64B8-9.007, F.A.C. Management of post surgical care is
the responsibility of the operating surgeon and may be delegated only as set forth in subsection 64B8-
9.007(3), F.A.C. If there is an overnight stay at the office in relation to any surgical procedure:
1. The office must provide at least two (2) monitors, one of these monitors must be certified in Advanced
Cardiac Life Support (ACLS), and maintain a monitor to patient ratio of at least 1 monitor to 2 patients.
Once the surgeon has signed a timed and dated discharge order, the office may provide only one monitor to
monitor the patient. The monitor must be qualified by licensure and training to administer all of the
medications required on the crash cart and must be certified in Advanced Cardiac Life Support. The full and
current crash cart required below must be present in the office and immediately accessible for the monitors.
2. The surgeon must be reachable by telephone and readily available to return to the office if needed. For
purposes of this subsection, “readily available” means capable of returning to the office within 15 minutes of
receiving a call.
(i) A policy and procedure manual must be maintained in the office, updated annually, and implemented. The
policy and procedure manual must contain the following: duties and responsibilities of all personnel, quality
assessment and improvement systems comparable to those required by Rule 59A-5.019, F.A.C.; cleaning,
sterilization and infection control, and emergency procedures. This applies only to physician offices at which
Level II and Level III procedures are performed.
(j) The surgeon shall establish a risk management program that includes the following components:
1. The identification, investigation, and analysis of the frequency and causes of adverse incidents to patients,
2. The identification of trends or patterns of incidents,
3. The development of appropriate measures to correct, reduce, minimize, or eliminate the risk of adverse
incidents to patients, and
4. The documentation of these functions and periodic review no less than quarterly of such information by
the surgeon.
(k) The surgeon shall report to the Department of Health any adverse incidents that occur within the office
surgical setting. This report shall be made within 15 days after the occurrence of an incident as required by
Section 197, Chapter 99-397, Laws of Florida.
(l) A sign must be prominently posted in the office which states that the office is a doctor's office regulated
pursuant to the rules of the Board of Medicine as set forth in Rule Chapter 64B8, F.A.C. This notice must
also appear prominently within the required patient informed consent.
(m) All physicians performing office surgery must be qualified by education, training, and experience to
perform any procedure the physician performs in the office surgery setting.
(3) Level I Office Surgery.
                                                       27
(a) Scope. Level I office surgery includes the following:
1. Minor procedures such as excision of skin lesions, moles, warts, cysts, lipomas and repair of lacerations or
surgery limited to the skin and subcutaneous tissue performed under topical or local anesthesia not involving
drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal pre-operative tranquilization of the patient.
2. Liposuction involving the removal of less than 4000cc supernatant fat is permitted.
3. Incision and drainage of superficial abscesses, limited endoscopies such as proctoscopies, skin biopsies,
arthrocentesis, thoracentesis, paracentesis, dilation of urethra, cysto-scopic procedures, and closed reduction
of simple fractures or small joint dislocations (i.e., finger and toe joints).
4. Pre-operative medications not required or used other than minimal pre-operative tranquilization of the
patient; anesthesia is local, topical, or none. No drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal
pre-operative tranquilization of the patient is permitted in level I Office Surgery.
5. Chances of complication requiring hospitalization are remote.
(b) Standards for Level I Office Surgery.
1. Training Required. Surgeon's continuing medical education should include: proper dosages; management
of toxicity or hypersensitivity to regional anesthetic drugs. Basic Life Support Certification is recommended
but not required.
2. Equipment and Supplies Required. Oxygen, positive pressure ventilation device, Epinephrine (or other
vasopressor), Corticoids, Antihistamine and Atropine if any anesthesia is used.
3. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. No other assistance is required, unless the specific surgical
procedure being performed requires an assistant.
(4) Level II Office Surgery.
(a) Scope.
1. Level II Office Surgery is that in which peri-operative medication and sedation are used by any means
altering the level of consciousness, thus making intra and post-operative monitoring necessary. Such
procedures shall include, but not be limited to: hemorrhoidectomy, hernia repair, reduction of simple
fractures, large joint dislocations, breast biopsies, colonoscopy, and liposuction involving the removal of up
to 4000cc supernatant fat.
2. Level II Office surgery includes any surgery in which the patient is placed in a state which allows the
patient to tolerate unpleasant procedures while maintaining adequate cardiorespiratory function and the
ability to respond purposefully to verbal command and/or tactile stimulation. Patients whose only response
is reflex withdrawal from a painful stimulus are sedated to a greater degree than encompassed by this
definition.
(b) Standards for Level II Office Surgery.
1. Transfer Agreement Required. The physician must have a transfer agreement with a licensed hospital
within reasonable proximity if the physician does not have staff privileges to perform the same procedure as
that being performed in the out-patient setting at a licensed hospital within reasonable proximity.
“Reasonable proximity” is defined as not to exceed thirty (30) minutes transport time to the hospital.
2. Training Required.
a. The surgeon must have staff privileges at a licensed hospital to perform the same procedure in that
hospital as that being performed in the office setting or must be able to document satisfactory completion of
training such as Board certification or Board eligibility by a Board approved by the American Board of
Medical Specialties or any other board approved by the Board of Medicine or must be able to establish
comparable background, training, and experience. Such Board certification or comparable background,
training and experience must also be directly related to and include the procedure(s) being performed by the
physician in the office surgery facility.
b. One (1) assistant must be currently certified in Basic Life Support and the surgeon must be currently
certified in Advanced Cardiac Life Support.
3. Equipment and Supplies Required.
a. Full and current crash cart at the location the anesthetizing is being carried out. The crash cart must
include, at a minimum, the following resuscitative medications:
I. Adenosine 6 mg/2 ml x 3
                                                      28
II. Albuterol Inhaler
III. Amiodarone 150 mg x 2
IV. Atropine 0.4 mg/ml; 3 ml
V. Calcium chloride 10%; 10 ml
VI. Dextrose 50%; 50 ml
VII. Diphenhydramine 50 mg
VIII. Dopamine 200 mg minimum
IX. Epinephrine 1:10,000 dilution; 10 ml
X. Epinephrine 1:1000 dilution; 1 ml x 3
XI. Flumazenil 0.1 mg/ml; 5 ml x 2
XII. Furosemide 40 mg
XIII. Hydrocortisone or Methylprednisolone or Dexamethasone
XIV. Lidocaine 100 mg
XV. Magnesium sulfate 1 gm x 2
XVI. Naloxone 0.4 mg/ml; 3 ml
XVII. Propranolol 1 mg x 1
XVIII. Sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq/50 ml
XIX. Succinylcholine 1 vial
XX. Vasopressin 20 units x 2
XXI. Verapamil 5 mg x 2
b. A Benzodiazepine must be stocked, but not on the crash cart.
c. Suction devices, endotracheal tubes, laryngoscopes, etc.
d. Positive pressure ventilation device (e.g. Ambu) plus oxygen supply.
e. Double tourniquet for the Bier block procedure.
f. Monitors for blood pressure/EKG/Oxygen saturation.
g. Emergency intubation equipment.
h. Defibrillator or an Automated External Defibrillator unit (AED).
i. Adequate operating room lighting.
j. Emergency power source able to produce adequate power to run required equipment for a minimum of
two (2) hours.
k. Appropriate sterilization equipment.
l. IV solution and IV equipment.
4. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. The surgeon must be assisted by a qualified anesthesia provider
as follows: An Anesthesiologist, Certified Registered Nurse Anesthesist, or Physician Assistant qualified as
set forth in subparagraph 64B8-30.012(2)(b)6., F.A.C., or a registered nurse may be utilized to assist with the
anesthesia, if the surgeon is ACLS certified. An assisting anesthesia provider cannot function in any other
capacity during the procedure. If additional assistance is required by the specific procedure or patient
circumstances, such assistance must be provided by a physician, osteopathic physician, registered nurse,
licensed practical nurse, or operating room technician. A physician licensed under Chapter 458 or 459, F.S., a
licensed physician assistant, a licensed registered nurse with post-anesthesia care unit experience or the
equivalent, credentialed in Advanced Cardiac Life Support or, in the case of pediatric patients, Pediatric
Advanced Life Support, must be available to monitor the patient in the recovery room until the patient is
recovered from anesthesia.
(5) Level IIA Office Surgery.
(a) Scope. Level IIA office surgeries are those Level II office surgeries with a maximum planned duration of
5 minutes or less and in which chances of complications requiring hospitalization are remote.
(b) Standards for Level IIA Office Surgery.
1. The standards set forth in subsection 64B8-9.009(4), F.A.C., must be met except for the requirements set
forth in subparagraph 64B8-9.009(4)(b)4., F.A.C., regarding assistance of other personnel.
2. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. During the procedure, the surgeon must be assisted by a
physician or physician assistant who is licensed pursuant to Chapter 458 or 459, F.S., or by a licensed
                                                      29
registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse. Additional assistance may be required by specific procedure or
patient circumstances. Following the procedure, a physician or physician assistant who is licensed pursuant to
Chapter 458 or 459, F.S., or a licensed registered nurse must be available to monitor the patient in the
recovery room until the patient is recovered from anesthesia. The monitor must be certified in Advanced
Cardiac Life Support, or, in the case of pediatric patients, Pediatric Advanced Life Support.
(6) Level III Office Surgery.
(a) Scope.
1. Level III Office Surgery is that surgery which involves, or reasonably should require, the use of a general
anesthesia or major conduction anesthesia and pre-operative sedation. This includes the use of:
a. Intravenous sedation beyond that defined for Level II office surgery;
b. General Anesthesia: loss of consciousness and loss of vital reflexes with probable requirement of external
support of pulmonary or cardiac functions; or
c. Major conduction anesthesia.
2. Only patients classified under the American Society of Anesthesiologist's (ASA) risk classification criteria
as Class I or II are appropriate candidates for Level III office surgery.
a. All Level III surgeries on patients classified as ASA III and higher are to be performed only in a hospital or
ambulatory surgery center.
b. For all ASA II patients above the age of 40, the surgeon must obtain, at a minimum, an EKG and a
complete workup performed prior to the performance of Level III surgery in a physician office setting. If the
patient is deemed to be a complicated medical patient, the patient must be referred to an appropriate
consultant for an independent medical clearance. This requirement may be waived after evaluation by the
patient's anesthesiologist.
(b) Standards for Level III Office Surgery. In addition to the standards for Level II Office Surgery, the
surgeon must comply with the following:
1. Training Required.
a. The surgeon must have staff privileges at a licensed hospital to perform the same procedure in that
hospital as that being performed in the office setting or must be able to document satisfactory completion of
training such as Board certification or Board qualification by a Board approved by the American Board of
Medical Specialties or any other board approved by the Board of Medicine or must be able to demonstrate to
the accrediting organization or to the Department comparable background, training and experience. Such
Board certification or comparable background, training and experience must also be directly related to and
include the procedure(s) being performed by the physician in the office surgery facility. In addition, the
surgeon must have knowledge of the principles of general anesthesia.
b. One assistant must be currently certified in Basic Life Support and the surgeon must be currently certified
in Advanced Cardiac Life Support.
2. Emergency procedures related to serious anesthesia complications should be formulated, periodically
reviewed, practiced, updated, and posted in a conspicuous location.
3. Equipment and Supplies Required.
a. Equipment, medication, including at least 36 ampules of dantrolene on site, and monitored post-anesthesia
recovery must be available in the office.
b. The office, in terms of general preparation, equipment, and supplies, must be comparable to a free
standing ambulatory surgical center, including, but not limited to, recovery capability, and must have
provisions for proper recordkeeping.
c. Blood pressure monitoring equipment; EKG; end tidal CO2 monitor; pulse oximeter, precordial or
esophageal stethoscope, emergency intubation equipment and a temperature monitoring device.
d. Defibrillator or an Automated External Defibrillator Unit (AED).
e. Table capable of trendelenburg and other positions necessary to facilitate the surgical procedure.
f. IV solutions and IV equipment.
4. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. An Anesthesiologist, Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist, or
Physician Assistant qualified as set forth in subparagraph 64B8-30.012(2)(c)6., F.A.C., must administer the
general or regional anesthesia and an M.D., D.O., Registered Nurse, Licensed Practical Nurse, Physician
                                                       30
Assistant, or Operating Room Technician must assist with the surgery. The anesthesia provider cannot
function in any other capacity during the procedure. A physician licensed under Chapter 458 or 459, F.S., a
licensed physician assistant, or a licensed registered nurse with post-anesthesia care unit experience or the
equivalent, and credentialed in Advanced Cardiac Life Support, or in the case of pediatric patients, Pediatric
Advanced Life Support, must be available to monitor the patient in the recovery room until the patient has
recovered from anesthesia.

64B8-9.0091. Requirement for Physician Office Registration; Inspection or Accreditation.
Currentness
(1) Registration.
(a) Every licensed physician who holds an active Florida license and performs Level II surgical procedures in
Florida with a maximum planned duration of more than five minutes or any Level III office surgery, as fully
defined in Rule 64B8-9.009, F.A.C., shall register the office with the Department of Health. It is the
physician's responsibility to ensure that every office in which he or she performs Levels II or III surgical
procedures as described above is registered, regardless of whether other physicians are practicing in the same
office or whether the office is non-physician owned. Physicians participating in post-graduate training
programs, and registered pursuant to Section 458.345, F.S., may provide services under the direct supervision
of a Florida physician, licensed pursuant to Section 458.311 or 458.313, F.S., in an office surgery facility and
under the auspices of their training program for a period of time not to exceed three months without
registering pursuant to this rule.
(b) In order to register an office for surgical procedures, the physician must comply with the
Department's Rule 64B-4.003, F.A.C., and provide documentation to support compliance with Rule 64B8-
9.009, F.A.C.
(c) The physician must immediately notify the Department, in writing, of any changes to the registration
information.
(d) The registration shall be posted in the office.
(2) Inspection.
(a) Unless the physician has previously provided written notification of current accreditation by a nationally
recognized accrediting agency or an accrediting organization approved by the Board the physician shall
submit to an annual inspection by the Department. Nationally recognized accrediting agencies are the
American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities (AAAASF), Accreditation
Association for Ambulatory Health Care (AAAHC) and Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations (JCAHO). All nationally recognized and Board-approved accrediting organizations shall be
held to the same Board-determined surgery and anesthesia standards for accrediting Florida office surgery
sites.
(b) The office surgery inspection fee set forth in the Department's Rule 64B-4.002, F.A.C., shall be remitted
for each practice location.
(c) The inspection conducted pursuant to this rule shall be announced at least one week in advance of the
arrival of the inspector(s).
(d) The Department shall determine compliance with the requirements of Rule 64B8-9.009, F.A.C.
(e) If the office is determined to be in noncompliance, the physician shall be notified and shall be given a
written statement at the time of inspection. Such written notice shall specify the deficiencies. Unless the
deficiencies constitute an immediate and imminent danger to the public, the physician shall be given 30 days
from the date of inspection to correct any documented deficiencies and notify the Department of corrective
action. Upon written notification from the physician that all deficiencies have been corrected, the
Department is authorized to re-inspect for compliance. If the physician fails to submit a corrective action
plan within 30 days of the inspection, the Department is authorized to re-inspect the office to ensure that the
deficiencies have been corrected.
(f) The deficiency notice and any subsequent documentation shall be reviewed for consideration of
disciplinary action under any of the following circumstances:

                                                       31
1. When the initial notice of deficiencies contain deficiencies that constitute immediate and imminent danger
to the public;
2. The physician fails to provide the Department with documentation of correction of all deficiencies within
30 days from the date of inspection;
3. Upon a finding of noncompliance after a reinspection has been conducted pursuant to paragraph (2)(e) of
this rule.
(g) Documentation of corrective action shall be considered in mitigation of any offense.
(h) Nothing herein shall limit the authority of the Department to investigate a complaint without prior
notice.
(3) Accreditation.
(a) The physician shall submit written notification of the current accreditation survey of his or her office(s)
from a nationally recognized accrediting agency or an accrediting organization approved by the Board in lieu
of undergoing an inspection by the Department.
(b) A physician shall submit, within 30 days of accreditation, a copy of the current accreditation survey of his
or her office(s) and shall immediately notify the Board of Medicine of any accreditation changes that occur.
For purposes of initial registration, a physician shall submit a copy of the most recent accreditation survey of
his or her office(s) in lieu of undergoing an inspection by the Department.
(c) If a provisional or conditional accreditation is received, the physician shall notify the Board of Medicine in
writing and shall include a plan of correction.

64B8-9.0092. Approval of Physician Office Accrediting Organizations.
Currentness
(1) Definitions.
(a) “Accredited” means full accreditation granted by a Board approved accrediting agency or organization.
“Accredited” shall also mean provisional accreditation provided that the office is in substantial compliance
with the accrediting agency or organization's standards; any deficiencies cited by the accrediting agency or
organization do not affect the quality of patient care, and the deficiencies will be corrected within thirty days
of the date on which the office was granted provisional accreditation.
(b) “Approved accrediting agency or organization” means nationally recognized accrediting agencies:
American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities (AAAASF), Accreditation
Association for Ambulatory Health Care (AAAHC) and Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations (JCAHO). Approved organizations also include those approved by the Board after submission
of an application for approval pursuant to this rule.
(c) “Department” means the Department of Health.
(2) Application. An application for approval as an accrediting organization shall be filed with the Board office
at 4052 Bald Cypress Way, Bin #C03, Tallahassee, Florida 32399-3253, and shall include the following
information and documents:
(a) Name and address of applicant;
(b) Date applicant began to operate as an accrediting organization;
(c) Copy of applicant's current accreditation standards;
(d) Description of accreditation process, including composition and qualifications of accreditation surveyors;
accreditation activities; criteria for determination of compliance; and deficiency follow-up activities.
Accreditation surveyors shall meet the following qualifications:
1. The surveyor must be an ABMS board certified physician with two (2) years experience performing office
surgery; or
2. A Florida Health Care Risk Manager licensed through AHCA with two (2) years experience serving as a
risk manager in a surgical facility; or
3. An ABMS board certified anesthesiologist with two (2) years experience administering anesthesia in a
surgical facility.
4. In addition to the above-outlined qualification, accreditation surveyors may not have any discipline
imposed on his or her license within the preceding seven (7) years, may not be in direct competition with the
                                                        32
subject of the review or have any direct or indirect contractual relationship with the inspected facility or any
of its physicians.
(e) A list of all physician offices located in Florida that are accredited by the applicant, if any. If there are no
accredited Florida physician offices, but there are accredited offices outside Florida, a list of the accredited
offices outside of Florida is required.
(f) Copies of all adverse incident reports filed with the state by any of the applicants accredited offices
pursuant to Section 458.331, F.S.
(g) Statement of compliance with all requirements as specified in this rule.
(3) Standards. The standards adopted by an accrediting organization for surgical and anesthetic procedures
performed in a physician office shall meet or exceed provisions of Chapters 456 and 458, F.S., and rules
promulgated thereunder. Standards shall require that all health care practitioners be licensed or certified to
the extent required by law.
(4) Requirements. In order to be approved by the Board, an accrediting organization must demonstrate
compliance with the following requirements:
(a) The accrediting agency must implement, administer and monitor a mandatory quality assurance program
approved by the Board of Medicine that meets the following minimum standards:
1. General Provisions. Each office surgery facility surgical center shall have an ongoing quality assurance
program that objectively and systematically monitors and evaluates the quality and appropriateness of patient
care, evaluates methods to improve patient care, identifies and corrects deficiencies within the facility, alerts
the Medical Director to identify and resolve recurring problems, and provides for opportunities to improve
the facility's performance and to enhance and improve the quality of care provided to the public.
a. Such a system shall be based on the mission and plans of the organization, the needs and expectations of
the patients and staff, up-to-date sources of information, and the performance of the processes and their
outcomes.
b. Each system for quality assurance, which shall include utilization review, must be defined in writing,
approved by the accrediting agencies governing body, enforced, and shall include:
I. A written delineation of responsibilities for key staff;
II. A policy for all members of the organized medical staff, whereby staff members do not initially review
their own cases for quality assessment and improvement program purposes;
III. A confidentiality policy that complies with all applicable federal and state confidentiality laws;
IV. Written, measurable criteria and norms;
V. A description of the methods used for identifying problems;
VI. A description of the methods used for assessing problems, determining priorities for investigation, and
resolving problems;
VII. A description of the methods for monitoring activities to assure that the desired results are achieved and
sustained; and
VIII. Documentation of the activities and results of the program.
c. Each quality assurance program shall include a peer review system that entails the following:
I. Peer review is performed at least every six months and includes reviews of both random cases and
unanticipated adverse office incidents as defined in Section 458.351, F.S., and as set forth in sub-
subparagraph (4)(a)1.d. of this rule;
II. If the peer review sources external to the facility are employed to evaluate delivery of medical care, the
patient consent form is so written as to waive confidentiality of the medical records or in the alternative
medical records reviewed by such external peer review sources must use confidential patient identifiers rather
than patient names; and
III. Peer review must be conducted by a recognized peer review organization or a licensed medical doctor or
osteopathic physician other than the operating surgeon.
d. Each quality assurance program shall include a system where all adverse incidents as defined in Section
458.351, F.S., are reviewed. In addition to those incidents set forth in Section 458.351, F.S., the following
incidents shall also be reviewed:

                                                         33
I. Unplanned hospital admissions that occurred within seven (7) days from the date the patient left the
facility;
II. Unscheduled return to the operating room for complication of a previous procedure;
III. Untoward result of procedure such as infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence or inadvertent injury to
other body structure;
IV. Cardiac or respiratory problems during stay at facility or within 48 hours of discharge;
V. Allergic reaction of medication;
VI. Incorrect needle or sponge count;
VII. Patient or family complaint;
VIII. Equipment malfunction leading to injury or potential injury to patient.
e. Each quality assurance program shall include an adverse incident chart review program which shall include
the following information, in addition to the operative procedure performed:
I. Identification of the problem;
II. Immediate treatment or disposition of the case;
III. Outcome;
IV. Analysis of reason for problem; and
V. Assessment of efficacy of treatment.
2. Each office surgery facility shall have in place a systematic process to collect data on process outcomes,
priority issues chosen for improvement, and the satisfaction of the patient. Processes measured shall include:
a. Appropriate surgical procedures;
b. Preparation of patient for the procedure;
c. Performance of the procedure and monitoring of the patient;
d. Provision of post-operative care;
e. Use of medications including administration and monitoring of effects;
f. Risk management activities;
g. Quality assurance activities including at least clinical laboratory services and radiology services;
h. Results of autopsies if needed.
3. Each center shall have a process to assess data collected to determine:
a. The level and performance of existing activities and procedures;
b. Priorities for improvement, and
c. Actions to improve performance.
4. Each center shall have a process to incorporate quality assurance and improvement activities in existing
office surgery facility processes and procedures.
(b) The accrediting agency must implement, administer and monitor anesthesia-related accreditation
standards and quality assurance processes that meet the following minimum standards and are reviewed and
approved by the Board of Medicine:
1. Each accredited facility must have an anesthesia provider who participates in an ongoing continuous
quality improvement and risk management activities related to the administration of anesthesia in that facility.
2. Each facility must have a written quality improvement plan that specifies the individuals who are
responsible for performing each element of the plan.
3. The written plan should be in place to continually assess, document and improve the outcome of the
anesthesia care provided.
4. The plan must include a review of quality indicators, to include measures of patient satisfaction.
5. The plan must include an annual review and check of anesthesia equipment to ensure compliance with
current safety standards and the standards for the release of waste anesthetic gases.
6. The quality assurance plan should include routine review of anesthesia and surgical morbidity and adverse,
sentinel or outcome events which include but are not limited to the following:
a. Follow-up on post-op day 1 and day 14;
b. Cancellation rates and reasons;
c. Central nervous system or peripheral nervous system new deficit;
d. Need for reversal agents: narcotic, benzodiazepine;
                                                       34
e. Reintubation;
f. Unplanned transfusion;
g. Aspiration pneumonitis;
h. Pulmonary embolus;
i. Local anesthetic toxicity;
j. Anaphylaxis;
k. Possible Malignant Hyperthermia;
l. Infection;
m. Return to operating room;
n. Unplanned Post-procedural Treatment in physician's office or emergency department within 30 days after
discharge;
o. Unplanned Admission to hospital or acute care facility within 30 days;
p. Cardiopulmonary Arrest or Death within 30 days;
q. Continuous Quality Indicators;
r. Cardiovascular complications in recovery requiring treatment (including: arrhythmias; hypotension,
hypertension);
s. Respiratory complications in recovery requiring treatment (including asthma);
t. Nausea not controlled within 2 hrs. in recovery;
u. Pain not controlled within 2 hrs. in recovery;
v. Postoperative vomiting rate;
w. Prolonged PACU stay in excess of 2 hrs.;
x. Medication error;
y. Injuries, e.g. eye, teeth;
z. Time to return to light activities of daily living (ADL);
aa. Common postoperative sequelae, eg sore throat, muscle pain, headache;
bb. Post-dural puncture headache or transient radicular irritation;
cc. Discharge without escort or against medical advice (AMA);
dd. Patient satisfaction;
ee. Equipment maintenance.
7. Each facility quality improvement plan must require annual reviews conducted by, at a minimum, the
medical director, a representative of the anesthesia provider currently providing patient care and a
representative of the operating room or recovery nursing staff.
8. The accrediting organization must have at least one anesthesiologist in that organization that implements,
administers, and monitors the quality assurance processes set forth above.
(c) Accreditation periods shall not exceed three years.
(d) The accrediting organization shall obtain authorization from the accredited entity to release accreditation
reports and corrective action plans to the Board. The accrediting organization shall provide a copy of any
accreditation report to the Board office within 30 days of completion of accrediting activities. The accrediting
organization shall provide a copy of any corrective action plans to the Board office within 30 days of receipt
from the physician office.
(e) If the accrediting agency or organization finds indications at any time during accreditation activities that
conditions in the physician office pose a potential threat to patients, the accrediting agency or organization
will immediately report the situation to the Department.
(f) An accrediting agency or organization shall send to the Board any change in its accreditation standards
within 30 calendar days after making the change.
(g) An accrediting agency or organization shall comply with confidentiality requirements regarding protection
of patient records.
(5) Accrediting Organizations shall be approved for a period of time not to exceed three (3) years.
(6) If the Board discovers that an approved accrediting agency has violated or failed to comply with any
provision of this rule, the Board shall issue an order to show cause outlining the alleged violation and
requiring a representative from the accrediting agency to appear before the Board at its next regularly
                                                       35
scheduled meeting to address the Board's concerns. After such an appearance, if the Board determines that a
violation occurred, the accrediting agency's status as an office surgery accrediting agency shall be revoked.
Failure to appear before the Board upon receipt of an order to show cause shall not preclude the Board from
taking action against an accrediting agency.
(7) Renewal of Approval of Accrediting Organizations. Every accrediting organization approved by the
Board pursuant to this rule is required to submit to the Board a new complete written application at least
three months prior to the end of its term of approval. Upon review of the submission by the Board, written
notice shall be provided to the accrediting organization indicating the Board's acceptance of the certification
and the next date by which a renewal submission must be filed or of the Board's decision that any identified
changes are not acceptable and on that basis denial of renewal of approval as an accrediting organization.
(8) Upon denial of its application, the accrediting organization must wait a minimum of six (6) months prior
to reapplying.
(9) Any person interested in obtaining a complete list of approved accrediting organizations may contact the
Board of Medicine or Department of Health.


Florida – Osteopathic

64B15-14.007. Standard of Care for Office Surgery.
NOTHING IN THIS RULE RELIEVES THE SURGEON OF THE RESPONSIBILITY FOR MAKING
THE MEDICAL DETERMINATION THAT THE OFFICE IS AN APPROPRIATE FORUM FOR
THE PARTICULAR PROCEDURE(S) TO BE PERFORMED ON THE PARTICULAR PATIENT.
(1) Definitions.
(a) Surgery. For the purpose of this rule, surgery is defined as any operative procedure, including the use of
lasers, performed upon the body of a living human being for the purposes of preserving health, diagnosing or
curing disease, repairing injury, correcting deformity or defects, prolonging life, relieving suffering or any
elective procedure for aesthetic, reconstructive or cosmetic purposes, to include, but not be limited to:
incision or curettage of tissue or an organ; suture or other repair of tissue or organ, including a closed as well
as an open reduction of a fracture; extraction of tissue including premature extraction of the products of
conception from the uterus; insertion of natural or artificial implants; or an endoscopic procedure with use of
local or general anesthetic.
(b) Surgeon. For the purpose of this rule, surgeon is defined as a licensed osteopathic physician performing
any procedure included within the definition of surgery.
(c) Equipment. For the purpose of this rule, implicit within the use of the term of equipment is the
requirement that the specific item named must meet current performance standards.
(d) Office surgery. For the purpose of this rule office surgery is defined as surgery which is performed
outside a hospital, an ambulatory surgical center, abortion clinic, or other medical facility licensed by the
Department of Health, the Agency for Health Care Administration, or a successor agency. Office surgical
procedures shall not be of a type that generally result in blood loss of more than ten percent of estimated
blood volume in a patient with a normal hemoglobin; require major or prolonged intracranial, intrathoracic,
abdominal, or major joint replacement procedures, except for laparoscopic procedures; directly involve major
blood vessels; or are generally emergent or life threatening in nature.
(2) General Requirements for Office Surgery.
(a) The surgeon must examine the patient immediately before the surgery to evaluate the risk of anesthesia
and of the surgical procedure to be performed. The surgeon must maintain complete records of each surgical
procedure, as set forth in Rule 64B15-15.004, F.A.C., including anesthesia records, when applicable and the
records shall contain written informed consent from the patient reflecting the patient's knowledge of
identified risks, consent to the procedure, type of anesthesia and anesthesia provider, and that a choice of
anesthesia provider exists, i.e., anesthesiologist, another appropriately trained physician as provided in this
rule, certified registered nurse anesthetist, or physician assistant qualified as set forth in subparagraph 64B15-
6.010(2)(b)6., F.A.C.
                                                        36
(b) The requirement set forth in paragraph (2)(a) above for written informed consent is not necessary for
minor Level I procedures limited to the skin and mucosa.
(c) The surgeon must maintain a log of all Level II and Level III surgical procedures performed, which must
include a confidential patient identifier, time of arrival in the operating suite, the surgeons name, diagnosis,
patient ASA classification, the type of procedure, the level of surgery, the anesthesia provider, the type of
anesthesia used, the duration of the procedure, the type of post-operative care, duration of recovery,
disposition of the patient upon discharge, during surgery, and recovery. The log and all surgical records shall
be provided to investigators of the Department of Health upon request.
(d) In any liposuction procedure, the surgeon is responsible for determining the appropriate amount of
supernatant fat to be removed from a particular patient. A maximum of 4000 cc supernatant fat may be
removed by liposuction in the office setting. A maximum of 50mg/kg of Lidocaine can be injected for
tumescent liposuction in the office setting.
(e) Liposuction may be performed in combination with another separate surgical procedure during a single
Level II or Level III operation, only in the following circumstances:
1. When combined with abdominoplasty, liposuction may not exceed 1000 cc of supernatant fat;
2. When liposuction is associated and directly related to another procedure, the liposuction may not exceed
1000cc of supernatant fat;
3. Major liposuction in excess of 1000 cc supernatant fat may not be performed in a remote location from
any other procedure.
(f) For elective cosmetic and plastic surgery procedures performed in a physician's office, the maximum
planned duration of all surgical procedures combined must not exceed 8 hours. Except for elective cosmetic
and plastic surgery, the surgeon shall not keep patients past midnight in a physician's office. For elective
cosmetic and plastic surgical procedures, the patient must be discharged within 24 hours of presenting to the
office for surgery; an overnight stay is permitted in the office provided the total time the patient is at the
office does not exceed 23 hours and 59 minutes including the surgery time. An overnight stay in a physician's
office for elective cosmetic and plastic surgery shall be strictly limited to the physician's office. If the patient
has not recovered sufficiently to be safely discharged within the timeframes set forth, the patient must be
transferred to a hospital for continued post-operative care.
(g) The Board of Osteopathic Medicine adopts the “Standards of the American Society of Anesthesiologists
for Basic Anesthetic Monitoring,” approved by House Delegates on October 21, 1986, and last amended on
October 21, 1998, as the standards for anesthetic monitoring by any qualified anesthesia provider.
1. These standards apply to general anesthetics, regional anesthetics, and monitored anesthesia care (Level II
and III as defined by this rule) although, in emergency circumstances, appropriate life support measures take
precedence. These standards may be exceeded at any time based on the judgment of the responsible
supervising physician or anesthesiologist. They are intended to encourage quality patient care, but observing
them cannot guarantee any specific patient outcome. They are subject to revision from time to time, as
warranted by the evolution of technology and practice. This set of standards addresses only the issue of basic
anesthesia monitoring, which is one component of anesthesia care.
2. In certain rare or unusual circumstances some of these methods of monitoring may be clinically
impractical, and appropriate use of the described monitoring methods may fail to detect untoward clinical
developments. Brief interruptions of continual monitoring may be unavoidable. For purpose of this rule,
“continual” is defined as “repeated regularly and frequently in steady rapid succession” whereas “continuous”
means “prolonged without any interruption at any time.”
3. Under extenuating circumstances, the responsible supervising osteopathic physician or anesthesiologist
may waive the requirements marked with an asterisk (*); it is recommended that when this is done, it should
be so stated (including the reasons) in a note in the patient's medical record. These standards are not
intended for the application to the care of the obstetrical patient in labor or in the conduct of pain
management.
a. Standard I.
I. Qualified anesthesia personnel shall be present in the room throughout the conduct of all general
anesthetics, regional anesthetics and monitored anesthesia care.
                                                         37
II. OBJECTIVE. Because of the rapid changes in patient status during anesthesia, qualified anesthesia
personnel shall be continuously present to monitor the patient and provide anesthesia care. In the event there
is a direct known hazard, e.g., radiation, to the anesthesia personnel which might require intermittent remote
observation of the patient, some provision for monitoring the patient must be made. In the event that an
emergency requires the temporary absence of the person primarily responsible for the anesthetic, the best
judgment of the supervising physician or anesthesiologist will be exercised in comparing the emergency with
the anesthetized patient's condition and in the selection of the person left responsible for the anesthetic
during the temporary absence.
b. Standard II.
I. During all anesthetics, the patient's oxygenation, ventilation, circulation and temperature shall be
continually evaluated.
II. OXYGENATION.
(A) OBJECTIVE - To ensure adequate oxygen concentration in the inspired gas and the blood during all
anesthetics.
(B) METHODS:
(I) Inspired gas: During every administration of general anesthesia using an anesthesia machine, the
concentration of oxygen in the patient breathing system shall be measured by an oxygen analyzer with a low
oxygen concentration limit alarm in use.*
(II) Blood oxygenation: During all anesthetics, a quantitative method of assessing oxygenation such as a pulse
oximetry shall be employed.* Adequate illumination and exposure of the patient are necessary to assess
color.*
III. VENTILATION.
(A) OBJECTIVE - To ensure adequate ventilation of the patient during all anesthetics.
(B) METHODS:
(I) Every patient receiving general anesthesia shall have the adequacy of ventilation continually evaluated.
Qualitative clinical signs such as chest excursion, observation of the reservoir breathing bag and auscultation
of breath sounds are useful. Continual monitoring for the presence of expired carbon dioxide shall be
performed unless invalidated by the nature of the patient, procedure or equipment. Quantitative monitoring
of the volume of expired gas is strongly encouraged.*
(II) When an endotracheal tube or laryngeal mask is inserted, its correct positioning must be verified by
clinical assessment and by identification of carbon dioxide analysis, in use from the time of endotracheal
tube/laryngeal mask placement, until extubation/ removal or initiating transfer to a postoperative care
location, shall be performed using a quantitative method such as capnography, capnometry or mass
spectroscopy.*
(III) When ventilation is controlled by a mechanical ventilator, there shall be in continuous use a device that
is capable of detecting disconnection of components of the breathing system. The device must give an
audible signal when its alarm threshold is exceeded.
(IV) During regional anesthesia and monitored anesthesia care, the adequacy of ventilation shall be evaluated,
at least, by continual observation of qualitative clinical signs.
IV. CIRCULATION.
(A) OBJECTIVE - To ensure the adequacy of the patient's circulatory function during all anesthetics.
(B) METHODS:
(I) Every patient receiving anesthesia shall have the electrocardiogram continuously displayed from the
beginning of anesthesia until preparing to leave the anesthetizing location.*
(II) Every patient receiving anesthesia shall have arterial blood pressure and heart rate determined and
evaluated at least every five minutes.*
(III) Every patient receiving general anesthesia shall have, in addition to the above, circulatory function
continually evaluated by at least one of the following: palpation of a pulse, auscultation of heart sounds,
monitoring of a tracing of intra-arterial pressure, ultrasound peripheral pulse monitoring, or pulse
plethysmography or oximetry.
V. BODY TEMPERATURE.
                                                      38
(A) OBJECTIVE - To aid in the maintenance of appropriate body temperature during all anesthetics.
(B) METHODS: Every patient receiving anesthesia shall have temperature monitored when clinically
significant changes in body temperature are intended, anticipated or suspected.
(h) The surgeon must assure that the post-operative care arrangements made for the patient are adequate to
the procedure being performed as set forth in Rule 64B15-14.006, F.A.C. Management of post-surgical care
is the responsibility of the operating surgeon and may be delegated only as set forth in subsection 64B15-
14.006(3), F.A.C. If there is an overnight stay at the office in relation to any surgical procedure:
1. The office must provide at least two (2) monitors, one of these monitors must be certified in Advanced
Cardiac Life Support (ACLS), and maintain a monitor to patient ratio of at least 1 monitor to 2 patients.
Once the surgeon has signed a timed and dated discharge order, the office may provide only one monitor to
monitor the patient. The monitor must be qualified by licensure to administer all of the medications required
on the crash cart and must be certified in Advanced Cardiac Life Suport1. The full and current crash cart
required below must be present in the office and immediately accessible for the monitors.
2. The surgeon must be reachable by telephone and readily available to return to the office if needed. For
purposes of this subsection, “readily available” means capable of returning to the office within 15 minutes of
receiving a call.
(i) A policy and procedure manual must be maintained in the office, updated annually, and implemented. The
policy and procedure manual must contain the following: duties and responsibilities of all personnel, quality
assessment and improvement systems comparable to those required by Rule 59A-5.019, F.A.C.; cleaning,
sterilization, and infection control, and emergency procedures. This applies only to physician offices at which
Level II and Level III procedures are performed.
(j) The surgeon shall establish a risk management program that includes the following components:
1. The identification, investigation, and analysis of the frequency and causes of adverse incidents to patients,
2. The identification of trends or patterns of incidents,
3. The development of appropriate measures to correct, reduce, minimize, or eliminate the risk of adverse
incidents to patients, and
4. The documentation of these functions and periodic review no less than quarterly of such information by
the surgeon.
(k) The surgeon shall report to the Department of Health any adverse incidents that occur within the office
surgical setting. This report shall be made within 15 days after the occurrence of an incident as required
by Section 497.026, F.S.
(l) A sign must be prominently posted in the office which states that the office is a doctor's office regulated
pursuant to the rules of the Board of Osteopathic Medicine as set forth in Rule Chapter 64B15, F.A.C. This
notice must also appear prominently within the required patient informed consent.
(m) All physicians performing office surgery must be qualified by education, training, and experience to
perform any procedure the physicians perform in the office surgery setting.
(3) Level I Office Surgery.
(a) Scope. Level I office surgery includes the following:
1. Minor procedures such as excision of skin lesions, moles, warts, cysts, lipomas and repair of lacerations or
surgery limited to the skin and subcutaneous tissue performed under topical or local anesthesia not involving
drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal pre-operative tranquilization of the patient.
2. Liposuction involving the removal of less than 4000cc supernatant fat is permitted.
3. Incision and drainage of superficial abscesses, limited endoscopies such as proctoscopies, skin biopsies,
arthrocentesis, thoracentesis, paracentesis, dilation of urethra, cysto-scopic procedures, and closed reduction
of simple fractures or small joint dislocations (i.e., finger and toe joints).
4. Pre-operative medications not required or used other than minimal preoperative tranquilization of the
patient; anesthesia is local, topical, or none. No drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal
pre-operative tranquilization of the patient is permitted in Level I Office Surgery.
5. Chances of complication requiring hospitalization are remote.
(b) Standards for Level I Office Surgery.

                                                       39
1. Training Required. Surgeon's continuing medical education should include: proper dosages; management
of toxicity or hypersensitivity to regional anesthetic drugs. Basic Life Support Certification is recommended
but not required.
2. Equipment and Supplies Required. Oxygen, positive pressure ventilation device, Epinephrine (or other
vasopressor), Corticoids, Antihistamine and Atropine if any anesthesia is used.
3. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. No other assistance is required, unless the specific surgical
procedure being performed requires an assistant.
(4) Level II Office Surgery.
(a) Scope.
1. Level II Office Surgery is that in which peri-operative medication and sedation are used intravenously,
intramuscularly, or rectally, thus making intra and post-operative monitoring necessary. Such procedures shall
include, but not be limited to: hemorrhoidectomy, hernia repair, reduction of simple fractures, large joint
dislocations, breast biopsies, colonoscopy, and liposuction involving the removal of up to 4000cc supernatant
fat.
2. Level II Office Surgery includes any surgery in which the patient is placed in a state which allows the
patient to tolerate unpleasant procedures while maintaining adequate cardiorespiratory function and the
ability to respond purposefully to verbal command and/or tactile stimulation. Patients whose only response
is reflex withdrawal from a painful stimulus are sedated to a greater degree than encompassed by this
definition.
(b) Standards for Level II Office Surgery.
1. Transfer Agreement Required. The physician must have a transfer agreement with a licensed hospital
within reasonable proximity if the physician does not have staff privileges to perform the same procedure as
that being performed in the out-patient setting at a licensed hospital within reasonable proximity.
“Reasonable proximity” is defined as not to exceed thirty (30) minutes transport time to the hospital.
2. Training Required. The surgeon must have staff privileges at a licensed hospital to perform the same
procedure in that hospital as that being performed in the office setting or must be able to document
satisfactory completion of training such as Board certification or Board eligibility by a Board approved by the
American Osteopathic Association, the American Board of Medical Specialties, the Accreditation Council on
Graduate Medical Education or any other board approved by the Board of Osteopathic Medicine or must be
able to establish comparable background, training, and experience. The surgeon and one assistant must be
currently certified in Basic Life Support and the surgeon or at least one assistant must be currently certified in
Advanced Cardiac Life Support or have a qualified anesthesia provider practicing within the scope of the
provider's license manage the anesthesia.
3. Equipment and Supplies Required.
a. Full and current crash cart at the location the anesthetizing is being carried out. The crash cart must
include, at a minimum, the following resuscitative medications:
I. Adenosine 6 mg/2 ml x 3
II. Albuterol Inhaler
III. Amiodarone 150 mg x 2
IV. Atropine 0.4 mg/ml; 3 ml
V. Calcium chloride 10%; 10 ml
VI. Dextrose 50%; 50 ml
VII. Diphenhydramine 50 mg
VIII. Dopamine 200 mg minimum
IX. Epinephrine 1:10,000 dilution; 10 ml
X. Epinephrine 1:1000 dilution; 1 ml x 3
XI. Flumazenil 0.1 mg/ml; 5 ml x 2
XII. Furosemide 40 mg
XIII. Hydrocortisone or Methylprednisolone or Dexamethasone
XIV. Lidocaine 100 mg
XV. Magnesium sulfate 1 gm x 2
                                                       40
XVI. Narcan (naloxone) 0.4 mg/ml; 3 ml
XVII. Propranolol 1 mg x 1
XVIII. Sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq/50 ml
XIX. Succinylcholine 1 vial
XX. Vasopressin 20 units x 2
XXI. Verapamil 5 mg x 2
b. A Benzodiazepine must be stocked, but not on the crash cart.
c. Suction devices, endotracheal tubes, laryngoscopes, etc.
d. Positive pressure ventilation device (e.g., Ambu) plus oxygen supply.
e. Double tourniquet for the Bier block procedure.
f. Monitors for blood pressure/EKG/Oxygen saturation.
g. Emergency intubation equipment.
h. Adequate operating room lighting.
i. Emergency power source able to produce adequate power to run required equipment for a minimum of
two (2) hours.
j. Appropriate sterilization equipment.
k. IV solution and IV equipment.
4. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. The surgeon must be assisted by a qualified anesthesia provider
as follows: An Anesthesiologist, Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist, or Physician Assistant qualified as set
forth in subparagraph 64B15-6.010(2)(b)6., F.A.C., or a registered nurse may be utilized to assist with the
anesthesia, if the surgeon is ACLS certified. An assisting anesthesia provider cannot function in any other
capacity during the procedure. If additional assistance is required by the specific procedure or patient
circumstances, such assistance must be provided by a physician, osteopathic physician, registered nurse,
licensed practical nurse, or operating room technician. A physician licensed under Chapter 458 or 459, F.S., a
licensed physician assistant, a licensed registered nurse with post-anesthesia care unit experience or the
equivalent, credentialed in Advanced Cardiac Life Support or, in the case of pediatric patients, Pediatric
Advanced Life Support, must be available to monitor the patient in the recovery room until the patient is
recovered from anesthesia.
(5) Level IIA Office Surgery.
(a) Scope. Level IIA office surgeries are those Level II office surgeries with a maximum planned duration of
5 minutes or less and in which chances of complications requiring hospitalization are remote.
(b) Standards for Level IIA Office Surgery.
1. The standards set forth in subsection 64B15-14.006(4), F.A.C., must be met except for the requirements
set forth in subparagraph 64B15-14.006(4)(b)4., F.A.C., regarding assistance of other personnel.
2. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. During the procedure, the surgeon must be assisted by a
physician or physician assistant who is licensed pursuant to Chapter 458 or 459, F.S., or by a licensed
registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse. Additional assistance may be required by specific procedure or
patient circumstances. Following the procedure, a physician or physician assistant who is licensed pursuant to
Chapter 458 or 459, F.S., or a licensed registered nurse must be available to monitor the patient in the
recovery room until the patient is recovered from anesthesia. The monitor must be certified in Advanced
Cardiac Life Support, or, in the case of pediatric patients, Pediatric Advanced Life Support.
(6) Level III Office Surgery.
(a) Scope.
1. Level III Office Surgery is that surgery which involves, or reasonably should require, the use of a general
anesthesia or major conduction anesthesia and pre-operative sedation. This includes the use of:
a. Intravenous sedation beyond that defined for Level II office surgery;
b. General Anesthesia: loss of consciousness and loss of vital reflexes with probable requirement of external
support of pulmonary or cardiac functions; or
c. Major Conduction anesthesia.
2. Only patients classified under the American Society of Anesthesiologist's (ASA) risk classification criteria
as Class I or II are appropriate candidates for Level III office surgery.
                                                       41
a. All Level III surgeries on patient classified as ASA III and higher are to be performed only in a hospital or
ambulatory surgery center.
b. For all ASA II patients above the age of 40, the surgeon must obtain, at a minimum, an EKG and a
complete workup performed prior to the performance of Level III surgery in a physician office setting. If the
patient is deemed to be a complicated medical patient, the patient must be referred to an appropriate
consultant for an independent medical clearance. This requirement may be waived after evaluation by the
patient's anesthesiologist.
(b) Standards for Level III Office Surgery. In addition to the standards for Level II Office Surgery, the
surgeon must comply with the following:
1. Training Required.
a. The surgeon must have staff privileges at a licensed hospital to perform the same procedure in that
hospital as that being performed in the office setting or must be able to document satisfactory completion of
training such as Board certification or Board qualification by a Board approved by the American Osteopathic
Association, the American Board of Medical Specialties, the Accreditation Council on Graduate Medical
Education or any other board approved by the Board of Osteopathic Medicine or must be able to
demonstrate to the accrediting organization or to the Department comparable background, training and
experience. In addition, the surgeon must have knowledge of the principles of general anesthesia.
b. The surgeon and one assistant must be currently certified in Basic Life Support and the surgeon or at least
one assistant must be currently certified in Advanced Cardiac Life Support.
2. Emergency procedures related to serious anesthesia complications should be formulated, periodically
reviewed, practiced, updated, and posted in a conspicuous location.
3. Equipment and Supplies Required.
a. Equipment, medication, including at least 36 ampules of dantrolene on site, and monitored post-anesthesia
recovery must be available in the office.
b. The office, in terms of general preparation, equipment, and supplies, must be comparable to a free
standing ambulatory surgical center, including, but not limited to, recovery capability, and must have
provisions for proper recordkeeping.
c. Blood pressure monitoring equipment; EKG; end tidal CO2 monitor; pulse oximeter, precordial or
esophageal stethoscope, emergency intubation equipment and a temperature monitoring device.
d. Table capable of trendelenburg and other positions necessary to facilitate the surgical procedure.
e. IV solutions and IV equipment.
4. Assistance of Other Personnel Required. An Anesthesiologist, Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist, or
Physician Assistant qualified as set forth in subparagraph 64B15-6.010(2)(c)6., F.A.C., must administer the
general or regional anesthesia and an M.D., D.O., Registered Nurse, Licensed Practical Nurse, Physician
Assistant, or Operating Room Technician must assist with the surgery. The anesthesia provider cannot
function in any other capacity during the procedure. A physician licensed under Chapter 458 or 459 F.S., a
licensed physician assistant, or a licensed registered nurse with post-anesthesia care unit experience or the
equivalent, and credentialed in Advanced Cardiac Life Support, or in the case of pediatric patients, Pediatric
Advanced Life Support, must be available to monitor the patient in the recovery room until the patient has
recovered from anesthesia.


Georgia

GEORGIA COMPOSITE MEDICAL BOARD
OFFICE-BASED ANESTHESIA AND SURGERY GUIDELINES
http://medicalboard.georgia.gov/sites/medicalboard.georgia.gov/files/imported/GCMB/Files/OBS%20G
uidelines.pdf
Purpose
The purpose of these guidelines is to promote and establish consistent standards, continuing competency,
and to promote patient safety. The Georgia Composite Medical Board establishes the following guidelines
                                                       42
for physicians who perform surgical procedures and use anesthesia, analgesia or sedation in office-based
settings.
Definitions
The following terms used in this subsection apply throughout these guidelines unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Deep sedation/ analgesia" means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot
be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. The ability to
independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may require assistance in maintaining
a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is usually
maintained.
"General anesthesia" means a state of unconsciousness intentionally produced by anesthetic agents, with
absence of pain sensation over the entire body, in which the patient’s protective airway reflexes may be
impaired and the patient may be unable to maintain a patent natural airway. Sedation that unintentionally
progresses to the point at which the patient’s protective airway reflexes are impaired and the patient is unable
to maintain a patent natural airway is considered general anesthesia.
"Local infiltration" means the process of infusing a local anesthetic agent into the skin and other tissues to
allow painless wound irrigation, exploration and repair, and other procedures. It does not include procedures
in which local anesthesia is injected into areas of the body other than skin or muscle where significant
cardiovascular or respiratory complications may result.
“Tumescent anesthesia” means the technique for delivery of local anesthesia to achieve extensive regional
anesthesia of skin and subcutaneous tissue. The subcutaneous infiltration of a large volume of very dilute
lidocaine and epinephrine causes the targeted tissue to become swollen and firm, or tumescent, and permits
procedures to be performed on patients often without the need for deep sedation or general anesthesia. For
the purposes of these guidelines, the maximum safe dose of tumescent lidocaine should not exceed the
published standard of 55 mg/kg.
"Major conduction anesthesia" means the administration of a drug or combination of drugs to interrupt
nerve impulses without loss of consciousness, such as epidural, caudal,
or spinal anesthesia, lumbar or brachial plexus blocks, and intravenous regional anesthesia. Major conduction
anesthesia does not include isolated blockade of small peripheral nerves, such as digital nerves.
"Minimal sedation" means a drug-induced state during which patients respond normally to verbal commands.
Although cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are
unaffected. Minimal sedation is limited to oral or intramuscular medications, or both.
"Moderate sedation/ analgesia" means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients
respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by tactile stimulation. No
interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
"Office-based surgery" means any surgery or invasive medical procedure requiring analgesia or sedation,
when performed in a location other than a hospital or hospital associated surgical center or an ambulatory
surgical facility (licensed as an institution pursuant to O.C.G.A. T. 31, Ch. 7, Art 1.
"Physician" means an individual licensed under O.C.G.A. Title 43 Chapter 34.
Exemptions.
These guidelines do not apply to physicians when:
1. Performing surgery and medical procedures that require only infiltration of local anesthetic around
peripheral nerves or non-mixed sensory nerves. Infiltration around peripheral nerves or non-mixed sensory
nerves does not include infiltration of local anesthetic agents in an amount that exceeds the manufacturer's
published recommendations.
2. Performing surgery in a hospital or licensed hospital-associated surgical center or a licensed ambulatory
surgical facility.
3. Performing oral and maxillofacial surgery, and the physician:
(a) Is licensed both as a physician under chapter Title 43 Chapter-34 and as a dentist under Title 43 Chapter
11; or
                                                       43
(b) Complies with dental quality assurance commission regulations; and
(c) Holds a valid:
(i) Moderate sedation permit; or
(ii) Moderate sedation with parenteral agents permit; or
(iii) General anesthesia and deep sedation permit; and
(iv) Practices within the scope of his or her specialty.
1. Application of guidelines.
These guidelines apply to physicians practicing independently or in a group setting who perform office-based
surgery employing one or more of the following levels of sedation or anesthesia:
(a) Moderate sedation or analgesia; or
(b) Deep sedation or analgesia; or
(c) Major conduction anesthesia; or
(d) Tumescent anesthesia; or
(e) General anesthesia.
2. Accreditation or certification. Physicians who perform any procedures under these guidelines must ensure
that the procedure is performed in a facility that is appropriately equipped and maintained to ensure patient
safety. Achieving accreditation by an appropriate agency, including any of the following, is one method to
demonstrate facility preparedness and staff competency:
(a) The Joint Commission;
(b) The Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care;
(c) The American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities;
(d) The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services;
3. Competency. When an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist is not present, the physician
performing office-based surgery and using moderate sedation or analgesia must be competent and qualified
to oversee the administration of intravenous sedation/ analgesia through one of the following training
pathways:
(a) Completion of a continuing medical education course in conscious sedation (moderate sedation/
analgesia);
(b) Relevant training in a residency training program; or
(c) Having privileges for conscious sedation (moderate sedation/ analgesia) granted by a hospital medical
staff.
4. Sedation assessment and management.
(a) Sedation is a continuum. Depending on the patient's response to drugs, the drugs administered, and the
dose and timing of drug administration, it is possible that a deeper level of sedation will be produced than
initially intended.
(b) If an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist is not present, a physician intending to
produce a given level of sedation should be able to "rescue" a patient who enters a deeper level of sedation
than intended.
(c) If a patient enters into a deeper level of sedation than planned, the physician must return the patient to
the lighter level of sedation as quickly as possible, while closely monitoring the patient to ensure the airway is
patent, the patient is breathing, and that oxygenation, heart rate and blood pressure are within acceptable
values. A physician who returns a patient to a lighter level of sedation in accordance with this subsection (c)
does not violate subsection (7) of this section.
5. Separation of surgical and monitoring functions.
(a) The physician performing the surgical procedure must not administer the intravenous sedation, or
monitor the patient.
(b) The licensed health care practitioner, designated by the physician to administer intravenous medications
and monitor the patient who is under moderate sedation, may assist the operating physician with minor,
interruptible tasks of short duration once the patient's level of sedation and vital signs have been stabilized,
provided that adequate monitoring of the patient's condition is maintained. The licensed health care

                                                       44
practitioner who administers intravenous medications and monitors a patient under deep sedation or
analgesia must not perform or assist in the surgical procedure.
6. Emergency care and transfer protocols. A physician performing office-based surgery must ensure that in
the event of a complication or emergency:
(a) At least one licensed health care practitioner currently certified in advanced resuscitative techniques
appropriate for the patient age group (e.g., ACLS, PALS or APLS) must be present or immediately available
with age-size-appropriate resuscitative equipment throughout the procedure and until the patient has met the
criteria for discharge from the facility.

(b) All office personnel are familiar with a written and documented plan to timely and safely transfer patients
to an appropriate hospital.
(c) The plan must include:
(i) a proven accessible route for stretcher transport of the patient out of the office;
(ii) arrangements for emergency medical services and appropriate escort of the patient to the hospital;
(iii) a compliance process to notify the Board of an adverse event as specified in subsection (14) of these
guidelines.
(d) Resuscitative equipment should be evaluated for functionality every six months, and records of such
evaluations should be maintained by the facility.
7. Medical record. The physician performing office-based surgery must maintain a legible, complete,
comprehensive and accurate medical record for each patient.
(a) The medical record must include:
(i) Identity of the patient;
(ii) History and physical, diagnosis and plan;
(iii) Appropriate lab, X ray or other diagnostic reports;
(iv) Appropriate preanesthesia evaluation;
(v) Narrative description of procedure;
(vi) Pathology reports, if relevant;
(vii) Documentation of which, if any, tissues and other specimens have been submitted for histopathologic
diagnosis;
(viii) Provision for continuity of postoperative care; and
(ix) Documentation of the outcome and the follow-up plan.
(b) When moderate or deep sedation or major conduction anesthesia is used, the patient medical record must
include a separate anesthesia record that documents:
(i) The type of sedation or anesthesia used; and
(ii) Drugs (name and dose) and time of administration; and
(iii) The patient’s vital signs at regular intervals including, at a minimum, blood pressure, heart rate,
respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation; and
(iv) Return to appropriate level of consciousness and readiness for discharge from acute care.
8. Standard of Practice. Any licensed physician engaging in office based surgery must have received
appropriate training and education in the safe and effective performance of all surgical procedures performed
in the office facility. Such training and education should include:
(a) indications and contraindications for each procedure;
(b) identification of realistic and expected outcomes of each procedure;
(c) selection, maintenance, and utilization of products and equipment;
(d) appropriate technique for each procedure, including infection control and safety precautions;
(e) pharmacological intervention specific to each procedure;
(f) identification of complications and adverse reactions for each procedure;
(g) emergency procedures to be used in the event of:
(i) Complications;
(ii) Adverse reactions;
(iii) Equipment malfunction; or
                                                      45
(iv) Any other interruption of a procedure
9. Adverse events. Any incident within the facility that results in a patient death or transport of the patient to
the hospital for observation or treatment for a period in excess of 24 hours, shall be reported to the Georgia
Composite Medical Board in writing within ten working days of the death or hospitalization, which every
comes first.
10. Truth in advertising. The credentials, education and training received, specialty board certification, and
proficiency evaluations of all personnel involved in performing
surgical procedures shall be accurately presented in any form of advertising and shall be readily available in
writing to all patients.


Guam

None


Hawaii

None


Idaho

None


Illinois

68 Ill. Adm. Code 1285.340 Anesthesia Services in an Office Setting
a) In a physician's office, the operating physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of
anesthesia services in order to administer anesthesia or to enter into a practice agreement with a certified
registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA) to provide anesthesia services in the office pursuant to Section 54.5 of
the Medical Practice Act and Section 15-25 of the Nursing and the Advanced Practice Nursing Act [225
ILCS 65]. When an anesthesiologist is administering anesthesia in a physician's office, the operating physician
is not required to have the training and experience set forth in subsection (b). A physician's office is any
practice location not regulated by Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act [210 ILCS 85] or Section 6.5 of
the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act [210 ILCS 5].
b) The training and experience requirements may be met in the manner specified in either subsection (b)(1)
or (2):
1) The physician maintains clinical privileges to administer anesthesia services in a hospital licensed in
accordance with the Hospital Licensing Act or an ambulatory surgical treatment center licensed in
accordance with the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act; or
2) Completion of continuing medical education:
A) For conscious sedation only, the physician shall complete a minimum of 8 hours of continuing medical
education (CME) within each 3 year license renewal period in delivery of anesthesia, including the
administration of conscious sedation. The physician will be required to complete 4 of the 8 hours of CME by
July 31, 2003. The remaining 4 hours of CME shall be completed by the July 31, 2005 renewal.
B) For deep sedation, regional anesthesia and/or general anesthesia, a physician shall complete a minimum of
34 hours of continuing medical education in the delivery of anesthesia services within each 3 year license
renewal period. The physician will be required to complete 16 of the 34 hours of CME by July 31, 2003. The

                                                        46
remaining 18 hours of CME shall be completed by the July 31, 2005 renewal. Fulfillment of this requirement
shall satisfy the requirement of subsection (b)(2)(A) for the administration of conscious sedation.
C) A continuing medical education program shall be conducted by a university, professional association, or
hospital as a formal CME program under 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1285.110(b)(2).
c) In a physician's office where anesthesia services are being administered, all operating physicians and
anesthesiologists shall obtain Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) certification by December 31, 2002,
and shall maintain current ACLS certification. If the physician enters into a practice agreement with the
CRNA, the CRNA shall also have a current ACLS certification pursuant to68 Ill. Adm. Code 1305.45.
d) The ACLS certification and the physician training and experience required by this Section shall be
documented in the written practice agreement between the physician and CRNA.
e) The continuing medical education required in subsection (b) and the ACLS training required in subsection
(c) may be applied to fulfillment of the 150 hours continuing medical education required for renewal of a
license.
f) Definitions of Anesthesia
1) Moderate Sedation Analgesia (Conscious Sedation) is a drug-induced depression of consciousness during
which patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile
stimulation. No interventions are required to maintain a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation is
adequate. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
2) Deep Sedation/Analgesia is a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be
easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. The ability to
independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may require assistance in maintaining
a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is usually
maintained.
3) Regional Anesthesia is the administration of local anesthetic agents to a patient to interrupt nerve impulses
in a major region of the body without loss of consciousness and include epidural, caudal, spinal and brachial
plexus anesthesia.
4) General Anesthesia is a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable, even
by painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired. Patients
often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation may be required
because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function.
Cardiovascular function may be impaired.
g) Physicians who perform procedures in an office setting utilizing anesthesia in the following manner are
not required to comply with this Section:
1) The use of local anesthesia in which the total dose of local anesthesia does not exceed 50% of the
commonly accepted toxic dose on a weight adjusted basis.
2) The use of topical anesthesia in which the total dose of topical anesthesia does not exceed 50% of the
commonly accepted toxic dose on a weight adjusted basis.
3) The use of minimal sedation (anxiolysis). Minimal sedation (anxiolysis) is a drug-induced state during
which patients respond normally to verbal commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be
impaired, respiratory and cardiovascular functions are unaffected.


Indiana

Rule 5. Standards for Procedures Performed in Office-Based Settings that Require Moderate
Sedation/Analgesia, Deep Sedation/Analgesia, General Anesthesia, or Regional Anesthesia

Sec. 1. This rule establishes standards for procedures performed in office-based settings that require:
(1) moderate sedation/analgesia;
(2) deep sedation/analgesia;
(3) general anesthesia; or
                                                       47
(4) regional anesthesia.

Sec. 2. Except as provided in section 15 of this rule, this rule does not apply to:
(1) local anesthesia;
(2) topical anesthesia;
(3) superficial nerve blocks; or
(4) minimal sedation/anxiolysis.

Sec. 3. As used in this rule, “accreditation agency” means a public or private organization that is approved to
issue certificates of accreditation to office-based settings by the board under this rule

Sec. 4. As used in this rule, “American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification
System” refers to the following classifications:
(1) P1 -A normal healthy patient.
(2) P2 -A patient with mild systemic disease.
(3) P3 -A patient with severe systemic disease.
(4) P4 -A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.
(5) P5 -A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation.
(6) P6 -A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes.

Sec. 5. As used in this rule, “anesthesia” includes the following:
(1) Moderate sedation/analgesia.
(2) Deep sedation/analgesia.
(3) General anesthesia.
(4) Regional anesthesia.

Sec. 6. (a) As used in this rule, “deep sedation/analgesia” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness
during which patients cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful
stimulation. For purposes of this rule, reflex withdrawal from a painful stimulus is not considered a
purposeful response.
(b) The following are conditions that a patient under deep sedation/analgesia may experience:
(1) The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired.
(2) Patients may require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be
inadequate.
(3) Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.

Sec. 7. (a) As used in this rule, “general anesthesia” means a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which
patients are not arousable, even by pain stimulation.
(b) The following are conditions that a patient under general anesthesia may experience:
(1) The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired.
(2) Patients often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation may be
required because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular
function.
(3) Cardiovascular function may be impaired.

Sec. 8. As used in this rule, “health care provider” means an individual licensed or legally authorized by this
state to provide health care services.

Sec. 9. As used in this rule, “immediate presence” means, at a minimum, that the directing practitioner must
be:
(1) physically located within the office-based setting;
                                                        48
(2) prepared to immediately conduct hands-on intervention if needed; and
(3) not engaged in activities that could prevent the practitioner from being able to immediately intervene and
conduct hands-on interventions if needed.

Sec. 10. As used in this rule, “local anesthesia” means a transient and reversible loss of sensation in a
circumscribed portion of the body produced by:
(1) a local anesthetic agent; or
(2) cooling a circumscribed area of the skin.
The term includes subcutaneous infiltration of an agent.

Sec. 11. As used in this rule, “minimal sedation/anxiolysis” means a drug-induced state during which a
patient responds normally to verbal commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be
impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are usually not affected.

Sec. 12. (a) As used in this rule, “moderate sedation/analgesia” (also sometimes called “conscious sedation″)
means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients respond purposefully to verbal
commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation.
(b) The following are conditions that a patient under moderate sedation/analgesia may experience:
(1) No interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
(2) Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.

Sec. 13. As used in this rule, “office-based setting” means any:
(1) facility;
(2) clinic;
(3) center;
(4) office; or
(5) other setting; where procedures are performed that require moderate sedation/analgesia, deep
sedation/analgesia, general anesthesia, or regional anesthesia. The term does not include a hospital operated
by the federal government or a setting licensed under IC 16-21-2 as a hospital, ambulatory surgical center,
abortion clinic, or birthing center.

Sec. 14. As used in this rule, “practitioner” has the meaning set forth in 844 IAC 5-1-1(14).

Sec. 15. (a) As used in this rule, “regional anesthesia” means the administration of anesthetic agents to a
patient to interrupt nerve impulses without the loss of consciousness and includes the following:
(1) Major conduction blocks, such as:
(A) epidural;
(B) spinal; and
(C) caudal;
blocks.
(2) Peripheral nerve blocks, such as:
(A) brachial;
(B) lumbar plexus;
(C) peribulbar; and
(D) retrobulbar;
blocks.
(3) Intravenous regional anesthesia, such as Bier blocks.
(b) Notwithstanding section 2 of this rule, a superficial nerve block or application of a local anesthetic agent
in which the total dosage administered exceeds the recommended maximum dosage per body weight
described in the manufacturer's package insert shall be considered regional anesthesia for purposes of this
rule.
                                                        49
Sec. 16. As used in this rule, “rescue” means an intervention by a practitioner proficient in airway
management and advanced life support. In rescuing a patient, the practitioner must:
(1) correct adverse physiologic consequences of the deeper-than-intended level of sedation, such as:
(A) hypoventilation;
(B) hypoxia; and
(C) hypotension; and
(2) return the patient to the originally intended level of sedation.
Sec. 17. As used in this rule, “superficial nerve block” means an agent placed in the proximity of any nerve or
group of nerves outside of the vertebral canal to produce a loss of sensation in an anatomic or circumscribed
area. For purposes of this rule, the term is limited to:
(1) ankle;
(2) metacarpal;
(3) digit; and
(4) paracervical;
blocks.

Sec. 18. As used in this rule, “topical anesthesia” means a transient and reversible loss of sensation to a
circumscribed area produced by an anesthetic agent applied directly or by spray to the skin or mucous
membranes.

Sec. 19. (a) Because sedation is a continuum, it is not always possible to predict how an individual patient will
respond. Practitioners intending to produce a given level of sedation must be able to rescue a patient whose
level of sedation becomes deeper than initially intended. Practitioners administering deep sedation/analgesia
in an office-based setting, or directing or supervising the administration of deep sedation/analgesia in an
office-based setting, must be able to rescue patients who enter a state of general anesthesia. Practitioners
administering moderate sedation/analgesia in an office-based setting, or directing or supervising the
administration of moderate sedation/analgesia in an office-based setting, must be able to rescue patients who
enter a state of deep sedation/analgesia.
(b) Practitioners administering regional anesthesia, or supervising or directing the administration of regional
anesthesia, must be knowledgeable about the risks of regional anesthesia and the interventions required to
correct any adverse physiological consequences that may occur in the administration of regional anesthesia.
(c) A health care provider may not administer or monitor an anesthetic agent containing alkylphenols in an
office-based setting unless the health care provider is:
(1) trained in the administration of general anesthesia; and
(2) not involved in the conduct of the procedure.

Sec. 20. After January 1, 2010, a practitioner may not perform or supervise a procedure that requires
anesthesia in an office-based setting unless the office-based setting is accredited by an accreditation agency
approved by the board under this rule.

Sec. 21. In approving accreditation agencies to perform accreditation of office-based settings, the board shall
ensure that the certification program, at a minimum, includes standards for the following aspects of an
office-based setting's operations:
(1) Anesthesia, as follows:
(A) The level of anesthesia administered shall be appropriate for the:
(i) patient;
(ii) procedure;
(iii) clinical setting;
(iv) education and training of the personnel; and
(v) equipment available.
                                                        50
Practitioners shall select patients for procedures in office-based settings using anesthesia by criteria, including
the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification System, and so document.
(B) The choice of specific anesthetic agents and techniques shall focus on providing anesthesia that will:
(i) be safe, effective, and appropriate; and
(ii) respond to the specific needs of patients while also ensuring rapid recovery to normal function with
appropriate efforts to control postoperative pain, nausea, or other side effects.
(C) A health care provider administering anesthesia shall be licensed, qualified, and working within the
provider's scope of practice. In those cases in which a nonphysician provider administers the anesthesia, the
provider must be:
(i) under the direction and supervision of a practitioner as required by IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(20); or
(ii) under the direction of and in the immediate presence of a practitioner as required by IC 25-22.5-1-
2(a)(13), if the provider is a certified registered nurse anesthetist.
(D) A:
(i) health care provider who administers anesthesia; and
(ii) practitioner who:
(AA) performs a procedure that requires anesthesia; or
(BB) directs or supervises the administration of anesthesia;
in an office-based setting shall maintain current training in advanced resuscitation techniques, such as
advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) or pediatric advanced life support (PALS), as applicable. At least one
(1) person with ACLS or PALS training should be immediately available until the patient is discharged.
(E) In addition to the health care provider performing the procedure, sufficient numbers of qualified health
care providers, each working within the individual provider's scope of practice, must be present to:
(i) evaluate the patient;
(ii) assist with the procedure;
(iii) administer and monitor the anesthesia; and
(iv) recover the patient.
Other health care providers involved in the delivery of procedures in an office-based setting that require
anesthesia, at a minimum, shall maintain training in basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
(F) Patients who have preexisting medical or other conditions who may be at particular risk for complications
shall be referred to:
(i) a hospital;
(ii) an ambulatory surgical center; or
(iii) another office-based setting appropriate for the procedure and the administration of anesthesia.
(G) The practitioner administering the anesthesia, or supervising or directing the administration of anesthesia
as required by clause (C), shall do the following:
(i) Perform a preanesthetic examination and evaluation or ensure that it has been appropriately performed by
a qualified health care provider.
(ii) Develop the anesthesia plan or personally review and concur with the anesthesia plan if the plan has been
developed by a certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA).
(iii) Remain physically present during the operative period and be immediately available until the patient is
discharged from anesthesia care for diagnosis, treatment, and management of complications or emergencies.
(iv) Assure provision of appropriate postanesthesia care.
(H) Patient assessment shall occur throughout the preprocedure, periprocedure, and postprocedure phases.
The assessment shall:
(i) address not only physical and functional status, but also physiological and cognitive status; and
(ii) be documented in the medical record.
The procedure and anesthesia shall be properly documented in the medical record.
(I) Physiologic monitoring of patients shall be appropriate for the type of anesthesia and individual patient
needs, including continuous monitoring or assessment of the following:
(i) Ventilation.
(ii) Cardiovascular status.
                                                        51
(iii) Body temperature.
(iv) Neuromuscular function and status.
(v) Patient positioning.
(vi) Oxygenation using a quantitative technique such as pulse oximetry.
When general anesthesia is used, equipment to assess exhaled carbon dioxide must also be available.
(J) Provisions shall be made for a reliable source of the following:
(i) Oxygen.
(ii) Suction.
(iii) Resuscitation equipment.
(iv) Emergency drugs.
(2) Procedures, as follows:
(A) Procedures shall be provided by qualified health care providers in an environment that promotes patient
safety.
(B) Procedures to be undertaken shall be within the:
(i) scope of practice, training, and expertise of the health care providers; and
(ii) capabilities of the facilities.
(C) The procedure shall be of a duration and degree of complexity that will permit patients to recover and be
discharged from the office-based setting in less than twenty-four (24) hours.
(D) Provisions shall be made for appropriate ancillary services on site or in another predetermined location.
Ancillary services shall be provided in a safe and effective manner in accordance with accepted ethical
professional practice and statutory requirements. These services include, but are not limited to:
(i) pharmacy;
(ii) laboratory;
(iii) pathology;
(iv) radiology;
(v) occupational health; and
(vi) other associated;
services.
(3) Facilities and equipment, as follows:
(A) The office-based setting shall:
(i) be clean and properly maintained and have adequate lighting and ventilation;
(ii) be equipped with the appropriate medical equipment, supplies, and pharmacological agents that are
required in order to provide:
(AA) anesthesia;
(BB) recovery services;
(CC) cardiopulmonary resuscitation; and
(DD) other emergency services;
(iii) have:
(AA) appropriate firefighting equipment;
(BB) signage;
(CC) emergency power capabilities and lighting; and
(DD) an evacuation plan;
(iv) have the necessary:
(AA) personnel;
(BB) equipment; and
(CC) procedures;
to handle medical and other emergencies that may arise in connection with services provided; and
(v) comply with:
(AA) applicable federal, state, and local laws and codes and regulations, and provisions must be made to
accommodate disabled individuals in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C.
12101 et seq.); and
                                                     52
(BB) federal and state laws and regulations regarding protection of the health and safety of employees.
(B) The space allocated for a particular function or service shall be adequate for the activities performed.
(C) In locations where anesthesia is administered, there shall be appropriate anesthesia apparatus and
equipment to allow appropriate monitoring of patients. All equipment shall be maintained, tested, and
inspected according to the manufacturer's specifications. Backup power sufficient to ensure patient
protection in the event of an emergency shall be available. There shall be sufficient space to:
(i) accommodate all necessary equipment and personnel; and
(ii) allow for expeditious access to patients and all monitoring equipment.
(D) When anesthesia services are provided to infants and children, the required:
(i) equipment;
(ii) medications; and
(iii) resuscitative capabilities;
shall be appropriately sized for children.
(E) All equipment used in patient care, testing, or emergency situations shall be inspected, maintained, and
tested:
(i) on a regular basis; and
(ii) according to manufacturers' specifications.
(F) Appropriate emergency equipment and supplies shall be readily accessible to all patient service areas.
(G) Efforts shall be made to eliminate hazards that might lead to:
(i) slipping;
(ii) falling;
(iii) electrical shock;
(iv) burns;
(v) poisoning; or
(vi) other trauma.
(H) Procedures shall be implemented to:
(i) minimize the sources and transmission of infections; and
(ii) maintain a sanitary environment.
(I) A system shall be in place to:
(i) identify;
(ii) manage;
(iii) handle;
(iv) transport;
(v) treat; and
(vi) dispose of;
hazardous materials and wastes, whether solid, liquid, or gas.
(J) Smoking must be prohibited in all patient care areas.

Sec. 22. (a) A practitioner who performs a procedure that requires anesthesia in an office-based setting, or
who directs or supervises the administration of anesthesia in an office-based setting, must have:
(1) admitting privileges at a nearby hospital;
(2) a transfer agreement with another practitioner who has admitting privileges at a nearby hospital; or
(3) an emergency transfer agreement with a nearby hospital.
(b) A practitioner who performs a procedure that requires anesthesia in an office-based setting, or who
directs or supervises the administration of anesthesia in an office-based setting, shall ensure that a patient's
informed consent for the nature and objectives of the anesthesia planned and procedure to be performed is
obtained in writing before the procedure is performed. The informed consent shall be:
(1) obtained after a discussion of the risks, benefits, and alternatives; and
(2) documented in the patient's medical record.
(c) Written procedures for credible peer review to determine the appropriateness of the following shall be
established and reviewed at least annually:
                                                        53
(1) Clinical decision making.
(2) Overall quality of care.
(d) Agreements with local emergency medical service (EMS) shall be in place for purposes of transfer of
patients to the hospital in case of an emergency. EMS agreements shall be re-signed at least annually.
(e) A practitioner who performs a procedure that requires anesthesia in an office-based setting, or who
directs or supervises the administration of anesthesia in an office-based setting, shall show competency by
maintaining privileges at an accredited or licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical center, for the procedures
they perform in the office-based setting. Alternatively, the governing body of the office-based setting is
responsible for a peer review process for privileging practitioners based on nationally recognized
credentialing standards.
(f) A practitioner who performs a procedure that requires anesthesia in an office-based setting, or who directs
or supervises the administration of anesthesia in an office-based setting, shall have appropriate education and
training.


Iowa

None


Kansas

K.A.R. 100-25-3 Requirements for office-based surgery and special procedures

A physician shall not perform any office-based surgery or special procedure unless the office meets the
requirements of K.A.R. 100-25-2. Except in an emergency, a physician shall not perform any office-
based surgery or special procedure on and after January 1, 2006 unless all of the following requirements are
met:
(a) Personnel.
(1) All health care personnel shall be qualified by training, experience, and licensure as required by law.
(2) At least one person shall have training in advanced resuscitative techniques and shall be in the patient's
immediate presence at all times until the patient is discharged from anesthesia care.
(b) Office-based surgery and special procedures.
(1) Each office-based surgery and special procedure shall be within the scope of practice of the physician.
(2) Each office-based surgery and special procedure shall be of a duration and complexity that can be
undertaken safely and that can reasonably be expected to be completed, with the patient discharged, during
normal operational hours.
(3) Before the office-based surgery or special procedure, the physician shall evaluate and record the condition
of the patient, any specific morbidities that complicate operative and anesthesia management, the intrinsic
risks involved, and the invasiveness of the planned office-based surgery or special procedure or any
combination of these.
(4) The physician or a registered nurse anesthetist administering anesthesia shall be physically present during
the intraoperative period and shall be available until the patient has been discharged from anesthesia care.
(5) Each patient shall be discharged only after meeting clinically appropriate criteria. These criteria shall
include, at a minimum, the patient's vital signs, the patient's responsiveness and orientation, the patient's
ability to move voluntarily, and the ability to reasonably control the patient's pain, nausea, or vomiting, or any
combination of these.
(c) Equipment.
(1) All operating equipment and materials shall be sterile, to the extent necessary to meet the applicable
standard of care.

                                                        54
(2) Each office at which office-based surgery or special procedures are performed shall have a defibrillator, a
positive-pressure ventilation device, a reliable source of oxygen, a suction device, resuscitation equipment,
appropriate emergency drugs, appropriate anesthesia devices and equipment for proper monitoring, and
emergency airway equipment including appropriately sized oral airways, endotracheal tubes, laryngoscopes,
and masks.
(3) Each office shall have sufficient space to accommodate all necessary equipment and personnel and to
allow for expeditious access to the patient, anesthesia machine, and all monitoring equipment.
(4) All equipment shall be maintained and functional to ensure patient safety.
(5) A backup energy source shall be in place to ensure patient protection if an emergency occurs.
(d) Administration of anesthesia. In an emergency, appropriate life-support measures shall take precedence
over the requirements of this subsection. If the execution of life-support measures requires the temporary
suspension of monitoring otherwise required by this subsection, monitoring shall resume as soon as possible
and practical. The physician shall identify the emergency in the patient's medical record and state the time
when monitoring resumed. All of the following requirements shall apply:
(1) A preoperative anesthetic risk evaluation shall be performed and documented in the patient's record in
each case. In an emergency during which an evaluation cannot be documented preoperatively without
endangering the safety of the patient, the anesthetic risk evaluation shall be documented as soon as feasible.
(2) Each patient receiving intravenous anesthesia shall have the blood pressure and heart rate measured and
recorded at least every five minutes.
(3) Continuous electrocardiography monitoring shall be used for each patient receiving intravenous
anesthesia.
(4) During any anesthesia other than local anesthesia and minimal sedation, patient oxygenation shall be
continuously monitored with a pulse oximeter. Whenever an endotracheal tube or laryngeal mask airway is
inserted, the correct functioning and positioning in the trachea shall be monitored throughout the duration
of placement.
(5) Additional monitoring for ventilation shall include palpation or observation of the reservoir breathing bag
and auscultation of breath sounds.
(6) Additional monitoring of blood circulation shall include at least one of the following:
(A) Palpation of the pulse;
(B) auscultation of heart sounds;
(C) monitoring of a tracing of intra-arterial pressure;
(D) pulse plethysmography; or
(E) ultrasound peripheral pulse monitoring.
(7) When ventilation is controlled by an automatic mechanical ventilator, the functioning of the ventilator
shall be monitored continuously with a device having an audible alarm to warn of disconnection of any
component of the breathing system.
(8) During any anesthesia using an anesthesia machine, the concentration of oxygen in the patient's breathing
system shall be measured by an oxygen analyzer with an audible alarm to warn of low oxygen concentration.
(e) Administrative policies and procedures.
(1) Each office shall have written protocols in place for the timely and safe transfer of the patients to a
prespecified medical care facility within a reasonable proximity if extended or emergency services are needed.
The protocols shall include one of the following:
(A) A plan for patient transfer to the specified medical care facility;
(B) a transfer agreement with the specified medical care facility; or
(C) a requirement that all physicians performing any office-based surgery or special procedure at the office
have admitting privileges at the specified medical care facility.
(2) Each physician who performs any office-based surgery or special procedure that results in any of the
following quality indicators shall notify the board in writing within 15 calendar days following discovery of
the event:
(A) The death of a patient during any office-based surgery or special procedure, or within 72 hours
thereafter;
                                                      55
(B) the transport of a patient to a hospital emergency department;
(C) the unscheduled admission of a patient to a hospital within 72 hours of discharge, if the admission is
related to theoffice-based surgery or special procedure;
(D) the unplanned extension of the office-based surgery or special procedure more than four hours beyond
the planned duration of the surgery or procedure being performed;
(E) the discovery of a foreign object erroneously remaining in a patient from an office-
based surgery or specialprocedure at that office; or
(F) the performance of the wrong surgical procedure, surgery on the wrong site, or surgery on the wrong
patient.


Kentucky

Guidelines for Office-Based Surgery
http://kbml.ky.gov/NR/rdonlyres/ABF980E5-DA7C-4B25-986C-
6665E2025F58/0/officebasedsurgeryguide.pdf

Background
The movement of health care services away from traditional inpatient facilities to outpatient settings has
escalated the volume of surgery (including invasive procedures) being performed in the private offices of
health care practitioners. While the vast majority of these services are provided in a safe and effective
manner, the complexity of services and procedures being performed in private practitioners’ offices is
increasing at unprecedented levels. National reports of liposuction-related morbidity and data from Florida’s
mandatory reporting of office surgery complications, as well as other reports, suggest that office procedures
may be less safe than those performed in hospitals or ambulatory surgery centers.
While surgery performed in Kentucky medical facilities (hospitals and diagnostic and treatment centers,
including ambulatory surgery centers) is subject to regulatory standards under the state Cabinet for Health
Services Office of Inspector General (including invasive procedures) performed in the private office of a
physician, dentist or podiatrist is not subject to the same or similar regulatory standards, regardless of the
scope or complexity of the surgical procedure.
A practitioner’s authority to perform procedures in an office is established by that practitioner’s license to
practice his or her profession. The care delivered in such offices is expected to meet prevailing standards of
care for the licensed profession. At this time, no such prevailing standards of care for office-based surgery
exist.
Summary of Guidelines
The office surgery guidelines document is 21 pages long. The major contents are summarized in Table 1 and
a brief summary of each section follows.
Definitions
The first section is definitions. This section defines the common terms used throughout the document.
Facility Requirements
Much of this document deals with the facility requirements for offices in which surgery will be performed.
Offices are classified as Level I, II, or III based upon the complexity of anesthesia and surgical procedures
performed.
Level I Offices
Level I office surgery includes minor procedures performed under topical or local anesthesia not involving
drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal preoperative anti-anxiety medications.
These offices should maintain basic emergency equipment as listed in Appendix 1 and have an established
emergency transfer plan. It is recommended that the surgeon obtain Advanced Cardiac Life Support
certification.
Level II Offices

                                                      56
Level II office surgery includes any procedure which requires administration of minimal or moderate
sedation/analgesia making post-operative monitoring necessary. The surgical procedures are limited to those
in which there is only a small risk of surgical and anesthetic complications and hospitalization as a result of
these complications is unlikely.
In addition to Level 1 requirements, these offices should maintain full emergency equipment and medications
as summarized in Appendix 2. There should be established emergency transfer plans, peer review, and
performance improvement programs. Accreditation by one of the agencies listed in Table 2 is required. The
surgeon and one assistant should be currently certified in Basic Life Support and the surgeon or at least one
assistant should be certified in Advanced Cardiac Life Support or have a qualified anesthetic provider.
Level III Offices
Level III office surgery is a procedure which requires or reasonably should require the use of deep
sedation/analgesia, general anesthesia, or major conduction blockade. The known complications of the
surgical procedure may be serious or life-threatening.
In addition to Level I and Level II requirements, these offices should maintain full emergency equipment and
medications as summarized in Appendix 2. There should be established emergency transfer plans, peer
review, and performance improvement programs. Accreditation by one of the agencies listed in Table 2 is
mandatory. The surgeon and at least one assistant should be currently certified in advanced cardiac life support
and recovery should be monitored by an ACLS trained practitioner.
Emergency Transfer and Reporting
In the event of an anesthetic, medical or surgical complication or emergency all office personnel should be
familiar with a documented plan for the timely and safe transfer of patients to a nearby hospital. This plan
should include
arrangements for emergency medical services, and appropriate escort of the patient to the hospital.
Anesthetic or surgical mishaps requiring resuscitation, emergency transfer, or death should be reported to the
medical board within three business days using a specified form.
Credentialing
The guidelines address the qualifications that each practitioner should possess. The practitioner should have
an appropriate level of training and experience for the specific surgical procedure performed. Criteria
considered should include: 1) procedure-specific education, training, experience and successful evaluation 2)
American Board of Medical Specialists or equivalent board certification 3) participation in peer and quality
review 4) continuing medical education (5) active hospital and/or ambulatory surgical center privileges and
(6) adherence to professional society standards.
Unlicensed personnel may not be assigned duties or responsibilities that require professional licensure.
Duties assigned to unlicensed personnel should be in accordance with their training education and experience
and under the direct supervision of a practitioner.
Anesthesia
Anesthesia should be administered only by a licensed, qualified and competent practitioner. Registered nurses
who administer analgesic or sedative drugs as part of a medical procedure should have training and
experience appropriate to the level of anesthesia administered and function in accordance with their scope of
practice. Registered nurses should have documented competence to administer conscious sedation and to
assist in any support or resuscitation measures as required. The individual administering conscious sedation
and/or monitoring the patient cannot assist the surgeon in performing the surgical procedure.
As required by statutes and administrative regulations, supervision of the sedation/analgesia component of
the medical procedure should be provided by a physician who is physically present, who is qualified to supervise
the administration of the anesthetic and who has accepted responsibility for supervision. The physician
providing supervision should assure that an appropriate pre-anesthetic examination is performed, prescribe
the anesthesia, assure that qualified practitioners participate, be available for diagnosis, treatment, and
management of anesthesia-related complications or emergencies, and assure the provision of indicated post-
anesthesia care.

Liposuction
                                                       57
Tumescent liposuction total lidocaine dosage should not exceed 55 mg/kg in a Level I facility. Total
supranatant fat removal should not exceed 4000 cc in any office facility.

A. Statement of Intent and Goals
B. Definitions

Chapter A
Statement of Intent and Goals
The purpose of these guidelines is to promote patient safety in the non-hospital setting during procedures
that require the administration of conscious sedation, local, or general anesthesia, or minor or major
conduction blockade. Moreover, these guidelines have been developed to provide practitioners performing
office-based surgery, (including cryosurgery and laser surgery), that requires anesthesia (including tumescent
anesthesia), analgesia or sedation the benefit of uniform professional standards regarding qualification of
practitioners and staff, equipment, facilities and policies and procedures for patient assessment and
monitoring. Minor procedures in which unsupplemented local anesthesia is used in quantities equal to or less than the
manufacturer’s recommended dose, adjusted for weight, are excluded from these guidelines. Nonetheless, it is expected that any
practice performing office-based surgery regardless of anesthesia will have the necessary equipment, protocol, and personnel to
handle emergencies resulting from the procedure and/or anesthesia.
Chapter B
Definitions
For the purpose of these guidelines, the following terms are defined:
1. “Advanced cardiac life support trained” means that a licensee has successfully completed and requalified
periodically an advanced cardiac life support course offered by a recognized accrediting organization
appropriate to the licensee’s field of practice. For example, for those licensees treating adult patients, training
in advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) is appropriate; for those treating children, training in pediatric
advanced life support (PALS) or advanced pediatric life support (APLS) is appropriate.
2. “Anesthesiologist” means a physician who has successfully completed a residency program in anesthesiology
approved by the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) or the American
Osteopathic Association (AOA), or who is currently a diplomate of either the American Board of
Anesthesiology or the American Osteopathic Board of Anesthesiology, or who was made a Fellow of the
American College of Anesthesiology before 1982.
3. “Anesthetizing location” means any location in an office where anesthetic agents are administered to a patient.
4. “Board” means the Kentucky Board of Medical Licensure.
5. Certified registered nurse anesthetist” (CRNA) means a registered nurse who successfully completed an
advanced, organized formal educational program in nurse anesthesia accredited by the national certifying
organization of such specialty which is recognized by the Kentucky Board of Nursing; and is certified by a
board approved national certifying organization, and who demonstrates advanced knowledge and skill in the
delivery of anesthesia services. The Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist should practice in accordance with
approved written guidelines developed under the supervision of a licensed physician or dentist or approved
by the medical staff within the facility where the practice privileges have been granted.
6. “Complications” means an untoward event occurring at any time within 48 hours of surgery, special
procedure or the administration of anesthesia in an office setting including, but not limited to, any of the
following: paralysis, nerve injury, malignant hyperthermia, seizures, myocardial infarction, renal failure,
significant cardiac events, respiratory arrest, aspiration of gastric contents, cerebral vascular accident,
transfusion reaction, pneumothorax, allergic reaction to anesthesia, unintended hospitalization for more than
24 hours, or death.
7. “Credentialed” means that a practitioner or physician has been granted and continues to maintain the
privilege by a facility licensed in the jurisdiction in which it is located to provide specified services, such as
surgery or the administration or supervision of the administration of one or more types of anesthetic agents
or procedures, or can show adequate documentation of training experience in specified services such as
surgery that is performed more often in an office or outpatient setting.
                                                              58
8. “Deep sedation/analgesia” means the administration of a drug or drugs which produces depression of
consciousness during which patients cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or
painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may
require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
9. “General anesthesia” means a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable,
even by painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired.
Patients
often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation may be required
because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function.
Cardiovascular function may be impaired.
10. “Health care personnel” means any office staff member who is licensed or certified by a recognized
professional or health care organization such as but not limited to a professional registered nurse, licensed
practical nurse, physician assistant or certified medical assistant.
11. “Hospital” means a hospital licensed by the state in which it is situated.
12. “Local anesthesia” means the administration of an agent which produces a transient and reversible loss of
sensation in a circumscribed portion of the body.
13. “Major surgery” means surgery which requires moderate sedation, deep sedation, general anesthesia, or
major conduction blockade for patient comfort.
14. “Major conduction blockade” means the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation in
a region of the body. Major conduction blocks include, but are not limited to, axillary, interscalene, and
supraclavicular block of the brachial plexus; spinal (subarachnoid), epidural and caudal blocks.
15. “Minimal sedation” (anxiolysis) means the administration of a drug or drugs which produces a state of
consciousness that allows the patient to tolerate unpleasant medical procedures while responding normally to
verbal commands. Cardiovascular or respiratory function should remain unaffected and defensive airway
reflexes should remain intact.
16. “Minor surgery” means surgery which can be safely and comfortably performed on a patient who has
received local or topical anesthesia, without more than minimal pre-operative medication or minimal
intraoperative sedation and where the likelihood of complications requiring hospitalization is remote.
17. “Minor conduction block” means the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation in a
circumscribed area of the body (that is, infiltration or local nerve block), or the block of a nerve by direct
pressure and refrigeration. Minor conduction blocks include, but are not limited to, intercostal, retrobulbar,
paravertebral, peribulbar, pudendal, sciatic nerve and ankle blocks.
18. “Moderate sedation/analgesia” means the administration of a drug or drugs which produces depression of
consciousness during which patients respond purposely to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by
a light tactile stimulation. Reflex withdrawal from painful stimulation is NOT considered a purposeful
response. No interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
19. “Monitoring” means continuous visual observation of a patient and regular observation of the patient as
deemed appropriate by the level of sedation or recovery using instruments to measure, display and record
physiologic values such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration and oxygen saturation.
20. “Office” means a location at which medical or surgical services are rendered and which is not subject to a
jurisdiction and licensing requirements.
21. “Office-Based Surgery” means the performance of any surgical or other invasive procedure requiring
anesthesia, analgesia, or sedation, including cryosurgery and laser surgery, which results in patient stay of less
than 24 consecutive hours and is performed by a practitioner in a location other than a hospital or a
diagnostic treatment center, including free-standing ambulatory surgery centers.
22. “Operating room” means that location in the office dedicated to the performance of surgery or special
procedures.
23. ”Physical status classification” means a description of a patient used in determining if an office surgery or
procedure is appropriate. The American Society of Anesthesiologists enumerates classification: I – Normal,
                                                        59
healthy patient; II – A patient with mild systemic disease; III – A patient with severe systemic disease limiting
activity but not incapacitating; IV – A patient with incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to
life; and V – Moribund patients not expected to live 24 hours with or without operation.
24. “Physician” means an individual holding an M.D. or D.O. degree licensed pursuant to the Kentucky
Medical and Osteopathic Practices Act.
25. “Practitioner” means a physician.
26. “Recovery area” means a room or limited access area of an office dedicated to providing medical services to
patients recovering from surgery or anesthesia.
27. “Special procedure” means patient care which requires entering the body with instruments in a potentially
painful manner, or which requires the patient to be immobile, for a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure
requiring anesthesia services; for example, diagnostic or therapeutic endoscopy, invasive radiologic
procedures, pediatric magnetic resonance imaging; manipulation under anesthesia or endoscopic examination
with the use of general anesthetic.
28. “Surgery” means any operative or manual procedures, including the use of lasers as used under the
direction of a physician in certain cases, performed for the purpose of preserving health, diagnosing or
treating disease, repairing injury, correcting deformity or defects, prolonging life or reliving suffering, or any
elective procedure for aesthetic or cosmetic purposes. This includes, but is not limited to: incision or
curettage of tissue or an organ; suture or other repair of tissue or an organ; extraction of tissue from the
uterus; insertion of natural or artificial implants; closed or open fracture reduction; or an endoscopic
examination with use of local or general anesthetic.
29. “Topical Anesthesia” means an anesthetic agent applied directly or by spray to the skin or mucous
membranes, intended to produce a transient and reversible loss of sensation to a circumscribed area.

Chapter C
Office Administration
The following summarizes some of the important written document and policies and procedures that office-
based practices are encouraged to develop and implement. The policies and procedures should undergo
periodic review and updating.
1. Policies and Procedures
Written policies and procedures can assist office-based practices in providing safe and quality surgical care,
assure consistent personnel performance, and promote an awareness and understanding of the inherent
rights of patients. The following are important aspects of an office-based practice that should benefit from
simple policy and procedure statements.
a. Emergency Care and Transfer Plan: A plan should be developed for the provision of emergency medical
care as well as the safe and timely transfer of patients to a nearby hospital should hospitalization be
necessary.
1. Age appropriate emergency supplies, equipment and medication should be provided in accordance with
the scope of surgical and anesthesia services provided at the practitioner’s office.
2. In an office where anesthesia services are provided to infants and children, the required emergency
equipment should be appropriately sized for a pediatric population, and personnel should be appropriately
trained to handle pediatric emergencies (APLS or PALS certified).
3. A practitioner who is qualified in resuscitation techniques and emergency care should be present and
available until all patients having more than local anesthesia or minor conductive block anesthesia have been
discharged from the office (Advanced adult or pediatric life support certified).
4. In the event of untoward anesthetic, medical or surgical complications or emergencies, personnel should
be familiar with the procedures and plan to be followed, and able to take the necessary actions. All office
personnel should be familiar with a documented plan for the timely and safe transfer of patients to a nearby
hospital. This plan should include arrangements for emergency medical services, if necessary, or when
appropriate escort of the patient to the hospital by an appropriate practitioner. If advanced cardiac life
support is instituted, the plan should include immediate contact with emergency medical services.

                                                        60
b. Medical Record Maintenance and Security: The practice should have a procedure for initiating and
maintaining a health record for every patient evaluated or treated. The record should include a procedure
code or suitable narrative description of the procedure and should have sufficient information to identify the
patient, support the diagnosis, justify the treatment and document the outcome and required follow-up care.
For procedures requiring patient consent, there should be a documented informed written consent. If
analgesia/sedation, minor or major conduction blockade or general anesthesia are provided, the record
should include documentation of the type of anesthesia used, drugs (type and dose) and fluids administered,
the record of monitoring of vital signs, level of consciousness during the procedure, patient weight, estimated
blood loss, duration of the procedure, and any complications related to the procedure or anesthesia.
Procedures should also be established to assure patient confidentiality and security of all patient data and
information.
c. Infection Control Policy: The practice should comply with state and federal regulations regarding infection
control. For all surgical procedures, the level of sterilization should meet current OSHA requirements. There
should be a procedure and schedule for cleaning, disinfecting and sterilizing equipment and patient care
items. Personnel should be trained in infection control practices, implementation of universal precautions,
and disposal of hazardous waste products. Protective clothing and equipment should be readily available.
d. Performance Improvement: A performance improvement program should be implemented to provide a
mechanism to periodically review (minimum of every six months) the current practice activities and quality of
care provided to patients, including peer review by members not affiliated with the same practice. Level I
facilities are exempt from Performance Improvement Programs. Performance improvement (PI) can be
established by:
1. Establishment of a PI program by the practice; or
2. Cooperative agreement with a hospital-based performance or quality improvement program; or
3. Cooperative agreement with another practice to jointly conduct PI activities; or
4. A cooperative agreement with a peer review organization, a managed care organization, specialty society,
or other.
e. Reporting of Adverse Incidents: Anesthetic or surgical mishaps requiring resuscitation, emergency transfer,
or death should be reported to the Board within three business days.
f. Federal and State Laws and Regulations: Federal and state laws and regulations that affect the practice
should be identified and procedures developed to comply with those requirements. The following are some
of the key requirements upon which office-based practices should focus:
1. Non-Discrimination (see Civil Rights statutes and the Americans with Disabilities Act)
2. Personal Safety (see Occupational Safety and Health Administration information)
3. Controlled Substance Safeguards
4. Laboratory Operations and Performance (CLIA)
5. Personnel Licensure Scope of Practice and Limitations
g. Patients’ Bill of Rights: Office personnel should recognize the basic rights of patients and understand the
importance of maintaining patients’ rights. A patients’ rights documents should be readily available upon
request.

Chapter D
Credentialing
1. Surgical Facility: Practices performing office-based surgery or procedures that require the administration of
moderate or deep sedation, or general anesthesia (Level II and III facilities as defined below) should be
accredited by an accreditation agency, including the American Association of Ambulatory Surgical Facilities
(AAAASF), Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care (AAAHC) or the Joint Commission of
Accreditation of HealthCare Organizations (JCAHO), or any other agency approved by the Board within the
first year of operation. The accrediting agency should submit a yearly summary report for each facility to the
Board. Any licensee performing Level II or Level III office surgery should register with the Board. Such
registration should include each address at which Level II or Level III office surgery is performed and
identification of the accreditation agency that accredits each location (when applicable). Rule of Thumb: The
                                                       61
capacity of the patient at all times to retain his/her life-protective reflexes and to respond to verbal command
(i.e., the depth of sedation or anesthesia) – rather than the specific procedure performed – lies at the core of
differentiating Level II from Level III surgery.

a. Level I Office Surgery:
1. Scope: Level I office surgery includes:
a. Minor procedures performed under topical or local anesthesia (including digital block) not involving drug-
induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal preoperative anti-anxiety medications.
b. Tumescent liposuction: total lidocaine dosage should not exceed 55 mg/kg in a Level I facility.
c. Preoperative medications are not required or used other than minimal preoperative perioperative oral or
intramuscular anti-anxiety producing drugs; anesthesia is local, topical, or none. No drug-induced alteration
of consciousness other than minimal anxiolysis of the patient is permitted in Level I Office Surgery.
d. Chances of Complications requiring hospitalization are remote.
b. Level II Office Surgery:
2. Scope: Level II office surgery includes the following:
a. Any procedure which requires the administration of minimal or moderate intravenous, intramuscular, or
rectal sedation/analgesia, thus making post-operative monitoring necessary.
b. Level II office surgery shall be limited to procedures where there is only a moderate risk of surgical and/or
anesthetic complications and the likelihood of hospitalization as a result of these complications is unlikely.
Level II office surgery includes local or peripheral nerve block, minor conduction blockade, and Bier block.
c. Level III Office Surgery:
3. Scope: Level III office surgery includes the following:
a. Level III office surgery is any procedure which requires, or reasonably should require, the use of deep
sedation/analgesia, general anesthesia, or major conduction blockade, and/or in which the known
complications of the proposed surgical procedure may be serious or life-threatening.
b. Tumescent liposuction: supranatant fat removal should not exceed 4000cc.

2. Practitioner:
a. The specific office based surgical procedures and anesthesia services that each practitioner is qualified and
competent to perform should be commensurate with practitioner’s level of training and should be
commensurate with practitioner’s level of training and experience. Criteria to be considered to demonstrate
competence include:
1. State licensure
2. Procedure-specific education, training, experience and successful evaluation appropriate for the patient
population being treated (i.e., pediatrics)
3. For physician practitioners, board certification, board eligibility or completion of a training program in a
field of specialization recognized by the ACGME for expertise and proficiency in that field. Board
certification is understood as American Board of Medical Specialists (ABMS) or equivalent board
certification as determined by the Board for non-physician practitioners, certification that is appropriate and
applicable for the practitioner.
4. Professional misconduct and malpractice history.
5. Participation in peer and quality review
6. Participation in continuing education consistent with the statutory requirements and requirements of the
practitioner’s professional organization
7. Malpractice insurance coverage adequate for the specialty
8. Procedure-specific competence (and competence in the use of new procedures/technology), which should
encompass education, training, experience and evaluation, and which may include the following:
a. Adherence to professional society standards
b. Hospital and/or ambulatory surgical privileges for the scope of services performed in the office based
setting
c. Credentials approved by a nationally recognized accrediting/credentialing organization;
                                                       62
d. Didactic course complimented by hands-on, observed experience; training is to be followed by a specified
number of cases supervised by a practitioner already competent in the respective procedure, in accordance
with professional society standards and guidelines may be acceptable if approved by the Kentucky Board of
Medical Licensure.
b. Unlicensed personnel may not be assigned duties or responsibilities that require professional licensure.
Duties assigned to unlicensed personnel should be in accordance with their training, education and
experience and under the direct supervision of a practitioner.

Chapter E
Standards for Office Procedures
1. Level I Office Procedures:
a. Training required: The surgeon is encouraged to pursue continuing medical education in proper drug
dosages, management of toxicity or hypersensitivity to local anesthetic and other drugs. It is recommended
that the surgeon obtain Advanced Cardiac Life Support certification.
b. Equipment and supplies: Oxygen, positive pressure ventilation device, epinephrine, atropine,
antihistamine, and corticosteroids should be available if any anesthesia is used.
c. Assistance of Other Personnel: No other assistance is required, unless dictated by the surgical procedure.
d. Accreditation: No accreditation is necessary for Level I office surgery.
2. Level II Office Procedures:
a. Training Required: The surgeon should have staff privileges to perform the same procedure in that
hospital as that being performed in the outpatient setting or should be able to document satisfactory
completion of training such as board certification or board eligibility by a board approved by the American
Board of Medical Specialties, formal training, or experience. The surgeon and one assistant should be
currently certified in Basic Life Support and the surgeon or at least one assistant should be currently certified
in Advanced Cardiac Life Support or have a qualified anesthetic provider practicing within the scope of the
provider’s license to manage the anesthetic.
b. Equipment and Supplies Required: Emergency resuscitative equipment and a reliable source of oxygen as
outlined in the appendix should be current and readily available. Monitoring equipment should include a
continuous suction device, pulse oximeter, and noninvasive blood pressure cuff. Electrocardiographic
monitoring should be available for patients with a history of cardiac disease. Age appropriate sized monitors
and resuscitative equipment should be available for pediatric patients.
c. Assistance of Other Personnel Required: Anesthesia should be administered only by a licensed, qualified
and competent practitioner. Registered professional nurses (RNs) who administer analgesic or sedative drugs
as part of a medical, procedure (including but not limited to Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetists (CRNAs) should
have training and experience appropriate to the level of anesthesia administered and function in accordance
with their scope of practice. Registered professional nurses (RNs) should have documented competence to
administer conscious sedation and to assist in any support or resuscitation measures as required. The
individual administering conscious sedation and/or monitoring the patient cannot assist the surgeon in
performing the surgical procedure. Supervision of the sedation/analgesia component of the medical
procedure should be provided by a physician who is physically present, who is qualified by law, regulation, or hospital
appointment to perform and supervise the administration of the sedation/analgesia or minor conduction
blockade and who has accepted responsibility for supervision. The physician providing supervision should:
i. Assure that an appropriate preanesthetic examination and evaluation is performed proximate to the
procedure
ii. Prescribe the anesthesia;
iii. Assure that qualified practitioners participate;
iv. Remain physically present during the entire perioperative period and immediately available for diagnosis,
treatment, and management of anesthesia-related complications or emergencies; and
v. Assure the provision of indicated post-anesthesia care.
A registered nurse who is certified in Basic Cardiac Life Support (BCLS) should monitor the patient
postoperatively and have the capability of administering medications as required for analgesia,
                                                          63
nausea/vomiting, or other indications. Monitoring in the recovery area should include pulse oximetry and
non-invasive blood pressure measurement. The patient should be assessed periodically for level of
consciousness, pain relief, or any untoward complication. Each patient should meet discharge criteria as
established by the practice, prior to leaving the facility.
d. Transfer and Emergency Protocols: The surgeon should have a transfer protocol in effect with a hospital
within reasonable proximity.
e. Facility Accreditation: The surgeon should obtain Level II accreditation of the office setting by one of the
approved agencies.

3. Level III Office Procedures
a. Training Required:
1. The surgeon should have documentation of training to perform the particular surgical procedure(s) and in
the event he/she is supervising the administration of anesthesia by a Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist,
he/she should have sufficient knowledge of the anesthetic technique specified by him/her for the procedure
to assure compliance with the Kentucky Medical and Osteopathic Practice Act. The CRNA shall practice
pursuant to approved written guidelines developed with the supervising licensed physician or dentist or by
the medical staff within the facility where practice privileges have been granted. Rule 81-110 requires, among
other things, that the surgeon be competent to supervise the specified anesthetic technique. If the surgeon
does not possess the requisite knowledge of anesthesia, the anesthesia should be administered by an
Anesthesiologist or by a Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist supervised by an Anesthesiologist.
2. The surgeon and at least one assistant should be currently certified in Basic Cardiac Life Support and the
surgeon or at least one assistant should be currently certified in Advanced Cardiac Life Support, and/or if
appropriate, Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) (or other profession specific equivalent training).
3. Recovery from general anesthesia or deep sedation should be monitored by an ACLS (PALS or PLS when
appropriate) trained practitioner.
b. Equipment and Supplies Required:
1. Emergency resuscitation equipment, suction and a reliable source of oxygen should be readily available
(See Appendix). At least 12 ampules of dantrolene sodium should be readily available.
2. Monitoring should include:
a. Blood pressure (apparatus and stethoscope)
b. Pulse oximetry
c. Continuous EKG
d. Capnography
e. Temperature monitoring for procedures lasting longer than thirty minutes
Facility, in terms of general preparation, equipment and supplies, should be comparable to a free standing
ambulatory surgical center, have provisions for proper record keeping, and the ability to recover patients
after anesthesia.

c. Assistance of Other Personnel Required:
1. An Anesthesiologist, or other qualified physician, or a Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist, directed by a
physician, should administer the general, deep sedation or major conduction regional anesthesia. If the
anesthetic is administered by a Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist, the anesthetic component of the
procedure should be supervised by a physician, who is physically present, and who is qualified to supervise the
administration of the anesthetic technique specified by him/her and who has accepted responsibility for such
supervision. The anesthesia provider cannot function in any other capacity during the procedure. Recovery
from general anesthesia, deep sedation, or major conduction blockade should be monitored by a practitioner
with Advanced Cardiac Life Support or Pediatric Advanced Life Support (or other profession specific
equivalent training). Recovery from anesthesia should be evaluated by a qualified practitioner for proper
anesthesia recovery using criteria that is appropriate for the level of anesthesia.


                                                       64
d. Inspection and Accreditation. The surgeon shall obtain accreditation of the office setting by AAAASF,
AAAHC and JCAHO. All expenses related to accreditation or inspection shall be paid by the surgeon.
Chapter E
Patient Admission and Discharge
1. Patient Selection. The physician should evaluate the condition of the patient and the potential risks
associated with the proposed treatment plan. The physician is also responsible for determining that the
patient has an adequate support system to provide for necessary follow-up care. Patients with pre-existing
medical problems or other conditions, who are at undue risk for complications, should be referred to an
appropriate specialist for pre-operative consultation. Patients that are considered high risk or are a physical
classification status III or greater, and require a general anesthetic for the surgical procedure, should have the
surgery performed in a hospital setting. Patients with a physical status classification of III or greater may be
acceptable candidates for moderate sedation/analgesia. ASA Class III patients should be specifically
addressed in the operating manual of the surgery center. They may be acceptable candidates if deemed so by
a physician qualified to assess the specific disability and its impact on anesthesia and surgical risks.
Acceptable candidates for a deep sedation, general anesthesia, or major conduction blockade are patients
with a physical status classification of I or II, no airway abnormality, and possess an unremarkable anesthetic
history.
2. Informed Consent. The risks, benefits, and potential complications of both the surgery and anesthetic
should be discussed with the patient and/or, if applicable, the patient’s legal guardian prior to the surgical
procedure. Written documentation of informed consent should be included in the medical record.
3. Preoperative Assessment. A medical history and physical examination should be performed, and
appropriate laboratory studies obtained within 30 days of the planned surgical procedure, by a practitioner
qualified to assess the impact of co-existing disease processes on surgery and anesthesia. A preanesthetic
examination and evaluation should be conducted immediately prior to surgery by the physician, who will be
administering or supervising the anesthesia. If a certified registered nurse anesthetist will be administering the anesthesia,
she/he should collaborate in such examination or evaluation. The information and data obtained during the course of
these evaluations should be documented in the medical record.
4. Discharge Evaluation. The physician who administered or supervised the anesthesia should evaluate the
patient immediately upon completion of the surgery and anesthesia. Care of the patient may then be
transferred to the care of qualified nursing personnel in the recovery area. A physician should remain
immediately available until the patient meets discharge criteria. Criteria for discharge for all patients who have
received anesthesia should include the following:
1) Confirmation of stable vital signs
2) Stable oxygen saturation levels
3) Return to pre-procedure mental status
4) Adequate pain control
5) Minimal bleeding nausea and vomiting
6) Resolving neural blockade, resolution of the neuraxial blockade
7) Discharged in the company of a competent adult
5. Patient Instructions. The patient should receive verbal instruction understandable to the patient or
guardian, confirmed by written post-operative instructions and emergency contact numbers. The instructions
should include:
1. The procedure performed
2. Information about potential complications
3. Telephone numbers to be used by the patient to discuss complications or should questions arise
4. Instructions for medications prescribed and pain management
5. Information regarding the follow-up visit date, time and location
6. Designated treatment facility in the event of emergency




                                                             65
Louisiana

Chapter 73. Office-Based Surgery

§ 7301. Scope of Chapter
A. The rules of this Chapter govern the performance of office-based surgery by physicians in this state.

§ 7303. Definitions
A. As used in this Chapter, unless the content clearly states otherwise, the following terms and phrases shall
have the meanings specified.
Anesthesia Provider--an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist who possesses current
certification or other evidence of completion of training in advanced cardiac life support training or pediatric
advanced life support for pediatric patients.
Anesthesiologist--a physician licensed by the board to practice medicine in this state who has completed post-
graduate residency training in anesthesiology and is engaged in the practice of such specialty.
Board--the Louisiana State Board of Medical Examiners.
Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)--an advanced practice registered nurse certified according to the
requirements of a nationally recognized certifying body approved by the Louisiana State Board of Nursing
(“Board of Nursing”) who possesses a current license or permit duly authorized by the Board of Nursing to
select and administer anesthetics or provide ancillary services to patients pursuant to R.S. 37:911 et seq., and
who, pursuant to R.S. 37:911 et seq., administers anesthetics and ancillary services under the direction and
supervision of a physician who is licensed to practice under the laws of the state of Louisiana.
Conscious Sedation--a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients retain the ability to
independently maintain an airway, ventilatory and cardiovascular functions and respond purposefully to
verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation.
Deep Sedation, Monitored Sedation, General Anesthesia (referred to in this Chapter as anesthesia unless the context
states otherwise)--a drug-induced loss of consciousness that results in the partial or complete loss of ability to
independently maintain an airway, ventilatory, neuromuscular or cardiovascular function and during which
patients are not arousable, even by painful stimulation.
Medical Practice Act or the Act--R.S. 37:1261-92 as may be amended from time to time.
Office-Based Surgery--any surgery or surgical procedure not exempted by these rules that is performed in an
office-based surgery setting or facility.
Office-Based Surgery Setting or Facility--any clinical setting not exempted by these rules where surgery is
performed.
Physician--a person lawfully entitled to engage in the practice of medicine in this state as evidenced by a
current license or permit duly issued by the board.
Reasonable Proximity--a distance of not more than 30 miles or one which may be reached within 30 minutes for
patients 13 years of age and older and a distance of not more than 15 miles or one which can be reached
within 15 minutes for patients 12 years of age and under.
Regional Anesthesia/Blocks (referred to in this Chapter as regional anesthesia)--the administration of anesthetic
agents that interrupt nerve impulses without loss of consciousness or ability to independently maintain an
airway, ventilatory or cardiovascular function that includes but is not limited to the upper or lower
extremities. For purposes of this Chapter regional anesthesia of or near the central nervous system by means
of epidural or spinal shall be considered general anesthesia.
Surgery or Surgical Procedure--the excision or resection, partial or complete destruction, incision or other
structural alteration of human tissue by any means, including but not limited to lasers, pulsed light, radio
frequency, or medical microwave devices, that is not exempted by these rules upon the body of a living
human being for the purpose of preserving health, diagnosing or curing disease, repairing injury, correcting
deformity or defects, prolonging life, relieving suffering or any elective procedure for aesthetic,
reconstructive or cosmetic purposes. Surgery shall have the same meaning as “operate.”
AUTHORITY NOTE: Promulgated in accordance with R.S. 37:1270(A)(1), 1270(B)(6).
                                                        66
§ 7305. Exemptions
A. This Chapter shall not apply to the following surgical procedures or clinical settings:
1. exempt surgical procedures include those:
a. requiring no anesthesia, using only local, oral, topical or intra-muscular anesthesia, those using regional
anesthesia as defined by this Chapter or those using conscious sedation either individually or in combination;
and/or
b. performed by a physician oral and maxillofacial surgeon under the authority and within the scope of a
license to practice dentistry issued by the Louisiana State Board of Dentistry;
2. excepted clinical settings include:
a. a hospital, including an outpatient facility of the hospital that is separated physically from the hospital, an
ambulatory surgical center, abortion clinic or other medical facility that is licensed and regulated by the
Louisiana Department of Health and Hospitals;
b. a facility maintained or operated by the state of Louisiana or a governmental entity of this state;
c. a clinic maintained or operated by the United States or by any of its departments, offices or agencies; and
d. an outpatient setting currently accredited by one of the following associations or its successor association:
i. the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations relating to ambulatory surgical centers;
ii. the American Association for the Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities; or
iii. the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care.

§ 7307. Prohibitions
A. On and after January 1, 2005, no physician shall perform office-based surgery except in compliance with
the rules of this Chapter.

§ 7309. Prerequisite Conditions
A. A physician who performs office-based surgery shall adhere to and comply with the following rules.
1. Facility and Safety
a. The facility shall comply with all applicable federal, state and local laws, codes and regulations pertaining to
fire prevention, building construction and occupancy, accommodations for the disabled, occupational safety
and health, medical waste and hazardous waste, infection control and storage and administration of
controlled substances.
b. All premises shall be kept neat and clean. Operating areas shall be sanitized and materials, instruments,
accessories and equipment shall be sterilized.
c. Supplies of appropriate sterile linens, gloves and dressings shall be maintained in sufficient quantities for
routine and emergency use. All surgical personnel shall wear suitable operative attire.
d. Supplies of appropriate drugs, medications and fluids shall be maintained in sufficient quantities for
routine and emergency use.
2. Quality of Care
a. A physician performing office-based surgery shall:
i. possess current staff privileges to perform the same procedure at a hospital located within a reasonable
proximity; or
ii. (a). have achieved board certification from a board recognized by the American Board of Medical
Specialties in a specialty that encompasses the procedure performed in an office-based surgery setting; and
(b). possess current admitting privileges at a hospital located within a reasonable proximity;
b. a physician performing office-based surgery shall possess current certification or other evidence of
completion of training in advanced cardiac life support training or pediatric advanced life support for
pediatric patients;
c. a physician performing office-based surgery shall ensure that all individuals who provide patient care in the
office-based surgery setting are duly qualified, trained and possess a current valid license or certificate to
perform their assigned duties. An unlicensed individual otherwise properly trained in the performance of a

                                                        67
given procedure or duty shall participate in a patient's care only under the on-site direction and supervision of
a physician who retains responsibility to the patient for the individual's performance.
3. Patient and Procedure Selection
a. Any office-based surgical procedure shall be within the training and experience of the operating physician,
the health care practitioners providing clinical care assistance and the capabilities of the facility.
b. The surgical procedure shall be of a duration and degree of complexity that shall permit the patient to
recover and be discharged from the facility on the same day. Under no circumstances shall a patient be
permitted to remain in an office-based surgery setting overnight.
4. Informed Consent
a. Informed consent for surgery and the planned anesthetic intervention shall be obtained from the patient or
legal guardian in accordance with the requirements of law.
5. Patient Care
a. The anesthesia provider shall be physically present throughout the surgery.
b. The anesthesia provider or an individual possessing current certification or other evidence of completion
of training in advanced cardiac life support training or pediatric advanced life support for pediatric patients
shall remain in the facility until all patients have been released from anesthesia care by a CRNA or a
physician.
c. Discharge of a patient shall be properly documented in the medical record.
6. Monitoring and Equipment
a. There shall be sufficient space to accommodate all necessary equipment and personnel and to allow for
expeditious access to the patient and all monitoring equipment.
b. All equipment shall be in proper working condition; monitoring equipment shall be available, maintained,
tested and inspected according to the manufacturer's specifications.
c. A secondary power source appropriate for equipment in use in the event of a power failure shall be
available. In the event of an electrical outage which disrupts the capability to continuously monitor all
specified patient parameters, heart rate and breath sounds shall be monitored using a precordial stethoscope
or similar device and blood pressure measurements shall be re-established using a non-electrical blood
pressure measuring device until power is restored.
d. In an office where anesthesia services are to be provided to infants and children the required equipment,
medication, including drug dosage calculations, and resuscitative capabilities shall be appropriately sized for a
pediatric population.
e. All facilities shall have an auxiliary source of oxygen, suction, resuscitation equipment and medication for
emergency use. A cardiopulmonary resuscitative cart shall be available and shall include, but not be limited
to, an Ambu Bag, laryngoscope, emergency intubation equipment, airway management equipment, a
defibrillator with pediatric paddles if pediatric patients are treated and a medication kit which shall include
appropriate non-expired medication for the treatment of anaphylaxis, cardiac arrhythmia, cardiac arrest and
malignant hyperthermia when triggering agents are used or if the patient is at risk for malignant
hyperthermia. Resources for determining appropriate drug doses shall be readily available.
7. Emergencies and Transfers
a. Emergency instructions along with the names and telephones numbers to be called in the event of an
emergency (i.e.,emergency medical services [“EMS”], ambulance, hospital, 911, etc.) shall be posted at each
telephone in the facility.
b. Agreements with local EMS or ambulance services shall be in place for the purpose of transferring a
patient to a hospital in the event of an emergency.
c. Pre-existing arrangements shall be established for definitive care of patients at a hospital located within a
reasonable proximity when extended or emergency services are needed to protect the health or well being of
the patient.
8. Medical Records
a. A complete medical record shall be documented and maintained of the patient history, physical and other
examinations and diagnostic evaluations, consultations, laboratory and diagnostic reports, informed consents,

                                                       68
preoperative, inter-operative and postoperative anesthesia assessments, the course of anesthesia, including
monitoring modalities and drug administration, discharge and any follow-up care.
9. Policies and Procedures
a. Written policies and procedures for the orderly conduct of the facility shall be prepared for the following
areas:
i. management of anesthesia including:
(a). patient selection criteria;
(b). drug overdose, cardiovascular and respiratory arrest, and other risks and complications from anesthesia;
(c). the procedures to be followed while a patient is recovering from anesthesia in the office; and
(d). release from anesthesia care and discharge criteria;
ii. infection control (surveillance, sanitation and asepsis, handling and disposal of waste and contaminants,
sterilization, disinfection, laundry, etc.); and
iii. management of emergencies, including:
(a). the procedures to be followed in the event that a patient experiences a complication;
(b). the procedures to be followed if the patient requires transportation for emergency services including the
identity and telephone numbers of the EMS or ambulance service if one is to be utilized, the hospital to
which the patient is to be transported and the functions to be undertaken by health care personnel until a
transfer of the patient is completed;
(c). fire and bomb threats.
b. All facility personnel providing patient care shall be familiar with, appropriately trained in and annually
review the facility's written policies and procedures.

§ 7311. Administration of Anesthesia
A. Evaluation of the Patient. An anesthesia provider shall perform a pre-anesthesia evaluation, counsel the
patient and prepare the patient for anesthesia.
B. Diagnostic Testing, Consultations. Appropriate pre-anesthesia diagnostic testing and consults shall be
obtained as indicated by the pre-anesthesia evaluation.
C. Anesthesia Plan of Care. A patient-specific plan for anesthesia care shall be formulated based on the
assessment of the patient, the surgery to be performed and the capacities of the facility.
D. Administration of Anesthesia. Anesthesia shall be administered by an anesthesia provider who shall not
participate in the surgery.
E. Monitoring. Monitoring of the patient shall include continuous monitoring of ventilation, oxygenation and
cardiovascular status. Monitors shall include, but not be limited to, pulse oximetry, electrocardiogram
continuously, non-invasive blood pressure measured at appropriate intervals, an oxygen analyzer and an end-
tidal carbon dioxide analyzer. A means to measure temperature shall be readily available and utilized for
continuous monitoring when indicated. An audible signal alarm device capable of detecting disconnection of
any component of the breathing system shall be utilized. The patient shall be monitored continuously
throughout the duration of the procedure. Post-operatively, the patient shall be evaluated by continuous
monitoring and clinical observation until stable. Monitoring and observations shall be documented in the
patient's medical record.

§ 7313. Reports to the Board
A. A physician performing office-based surgery shall notify the board in writing within 15 days of the
occurrence or receipt of information that an office-based surgery resulted in:
1. an unanticipated and unplanned transport of the patient from the facility to a hospital emergency
department;
2. an unplanned readmission to the office-based surgery setting within 72 hours of discharge from the
facility;
3. an unscheduled hospital admission of the patient within 72 hours of discharge from the facility; or
4. the death of the patient within 30 days of surgery in an office-based facility.

                                                      69
§ 7315. Effect of Violation
A. Any violation or failure to comply with the provisions of this Chapter shall be deemed unprofessional
conduct and conduct in contravention of the board's rules, in violation of R.S. 37:1285(A)(13) and (30),
respectively, as well as violation of any other applicable provision of R.S. 37:1285(A), providing cause for the
board to suspend, revoke, refuse to issue or impose probationary or other restrictions on any license held or
applied for by a physician culpable of such violation.


Maine

None


Maine -- Osteopathic

None


Maryland

None


Massachusetts

Office Based Surgery Guidelines
http://www.mass.gov/eohhs/docs/borim/policies-guidelines/surgery-guidelines.pdf


Michigan – Medical

None


Michigan – Osteopathic

None


Minnesota

None


Mississippi

None




                                                       70
Missouri

None


Montana

None




           71
                                             Office-Based Surgery
                                                  States N-Z

                                  Board-by-Board Statutes, Regulations and Policies

Nebraska

None


Nevada – Medical

Nev. Rev. Stat. Ann., tit. 40. Chapter 449. Permit for Services of General Anesthesia, Conscious Sedation
and Deep Sedation; National Accreditation; Inspections of Surgical Centers for Ambulatory Patients and
Certain Physicians‟ Offices and Facilities.

§ 449.435. Definitions
As used in NRS 449.435 to 449.448, inclusive, unless the context otherwise requires, the words and terms
defined in NRS 449.436to 449.439, inclusive, have the meanings ascribed to them in those sections.
449.436. “Conscious sedation” defined
 “Conscious sedation” means a minimally depressed level of consciousness, produced by a pharmacologic or
nonpharmacologic method, or a combination thereof, in which the patient retains the ability independently
and continuously to maintain an airway and to respond appropriately to physical stimulation and verbal
commands.

449.437. “Deep sedation” defined
 “Deep sedation” means a controlled state of depressed consciousness, produced by a pharmacologic or
nonpharmacologic method, or a combination thereof, and accompanied by a partial loss of protective
reflexes and the inability to respond purposefully to verbal commands.

449.438. “General anesthesia” defined
 “General anesthesia” means a controlled state of unconsciousness, produced by a pharmacologic or
nonpharmacologic method, or a combination thereof, and accompanied by partial or complete loss of
protective reflexes and the inability independently to maintain an airway and respond purposefully to physical
stimulation or verbal commands.

449.439. “Physician” defined
 “Physician” means a person who is licensed to practice medicine pursuant to chapter 630 of NRS or
osteopathic medicine pursuant to chapter 633 of NRS.

449.441. Exemption from provisions if physician‟s office or facility only administers certain type of pain
medication
The provisions of NRS 449.435 to 449.448, inclusive, do not apply to an office of a physician or a facility
that provides health care, other than a medical facility, if the office of a physician or the facility only
administers a medication to a patient to relieve the patient's anxiety or pain and if the medication is not given

                                                         72
in a dosage that is sufficient to induce in a patient a controlled state of depressed consciousness or
unconsciousness similar to general anesthesia, deep sedation or conscious sedation.

449.442. Permit required for certain physicians‟ offices and facilities to offer services; national accreditation
required; cessation of services for failure to maintain accreditation
1. An office of a physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical facility, must obtain a
permit pursuant to NRS 449.443 before offering to a patient a service of general anesthesia, conscious
sedation or deep sedation. An office of a physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical
facility, which operates at more than one location must obtain a permit for each location where a service of
general anesthesia, conscious sedation or deep sedation is offered.
2. To offer to a patient a service of general anesthesia, conscious sedation or deep sedation in this State, an
office of a physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical facility, must maintain current
accreditation by a nationally recognized organization approved by the Board. Upon receiving an initial
permit, the office or facility shall, within 6 months after obtaining the permit, submit proof to the Health
Division of accreditation by such an organization.
3. If an office of a physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical facility, fails to
maintain current accreditation or if the accreditation is revoked or is otherwise no longer valid, the office or
facility shall immediately cease offering to patients a service of general anesthesia, conscious sedation or deep
sedation.

449.443. Application for permit; fee; inspection by Health Division; term of permit
1. An office of a physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical facility, desiring a
permit pursuant to NRS 449.435 to 449.448, inclusive, must submit to the Health Division, on a form
prescribed by the Health Division and accompanied by the appropriate fee, an application for a permit.
2. Before issuing a permit, the Health Division shall conduct an on-site inspection pursuant to NRS
449.446 of each office of a physician or facility that applies for a permit.
3. Upon receipt of an application and the appropriate fee, the Health Division may, after conducting an
inspection pursuant to NRS 449.446, issue a permit.
4. A permit expires 1 year after the date of issuance and is renewable pursuant to NRS 449.444.

449.444. Application for renewal of permit; fee
1. The holder of a permit issued pursuant to NRS 449.443 may annually submit to the Health Division, on a
form prescribed by the Health Division and accompanied by the appropriate fee, an application for renewal
of the permit before the date on which the permit expires. The application must include proof satisfactory to
the Health Division that the office or facility maintains current accreditation by a nationally recognized
organization approved by the Board.
2. Upon receipt of an application for renewal and the accompanying fee, the Health Division may renew a
permit.

449.445. National accreditation required of surgical center for ambulatory patients; inspection by Health
Division; cessation of operation for failure to maintain accreditation
1. To operate in this State, a surgical center for ambulatory patients must maintain current accreditation by a
nationally recognized organization approved by the Board. Upon initial licensure, a surgical center for
ambulatory patients shall, within 6 months after obtaining its license, submit proof to the Health Division of
the accreditation of the surgical center by such an organization.
2. Before issuing a license to a surgical center for ambulatory patients, the Health Division shall conduct an
on-site inspection of the surgical center pursuant to NRS 449.446.
3. If a surgical center for ambulatory patients fails to maintain current accreditation or if the accreditation is
revoked or is otherwise no longer valid, the surgical center shall immediately cease to operate.


                                                         73
449.446. Annual inspections of holders of permits and surgical centers for ambulatory patients; correction of
deficiencies identified in inspections; reporting of inspections to Legislature
1. The Health Division shall conduct annual and unannounced on-site inspections of each office of a
physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical facility, which holds a permit issued
pursuant to NRS 449.443 and each surgical center for ambulatory patients which holds a license issued
pursuant to this chapter.
2. An inspection conducted pursuant to this section must focus on the infection control practices and
policies of the surgical center for ambulatory patients, the office or the facility that is the subject of the
inspection. The Health Division may, as it deems necessary, conduct a more comprehensive inspection of a
surgical center, office or facility.
3. Upon completion of an inspection, the Health Division shall:
(a) Compile a report of the inspection, including each deficiency discovered during the inspection, if any; and
(b) Forward a copy of the report to the surgical center for ambulatory patients, the office of the physician or
the facility where the inspection was conducted.
4. If a deficiency is indicated in the report, the surgical center for ambulatory patients, the office of the
physician or the facility shall correct each deficiency indicated in the report in the manner prescribed by the
Board pursuant to NRS 449.448.
5. The Health Division shall annually prepare and submit to the Legislative Committee on Health Care and
the Legislative Commission a report which includes:
(a) The number and frequency of inspections conducted pursuant to this section;
(b) A summary of deficiencies or other significant problems discovered while conducting inspections
pursuant to this section and the results of any follow-up inspections; and
(c) Any other information relating to the inspections as deemed necessary by the Legislative Committee on
Health Care or the Legislative Commission.

49.447. Violations; penalties; review of reports submitted pursuant to NRS 630.30665 and 633.524; reporting
to professional licensing board of violations; administrative sanctions
1. If an office of a physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical facility, violates the
provisions of NRS 449.435 to 449.448, inclusive, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, or fails to
correct a deficiency indicated in a report pursuant to NRS 449.446, the Health Division, in accordance with
the regulations adopted pursuant to NRS 449.448, may take any of the following actions:
(a) Decline to issue or renew a permit;
(b) Suspend or revoke a permit; or
(c) Impose an administrative penalty of not more than $1,000 per day for each violation, together with
interest thereon at a rate not to exceed 10 percent per annum.
2. The Health Division may review a report submitted pursuant to NRS 630.30665 or 633.524 to determine
whether an office of a physician or a facility is in violation of the provisions of NRS 449.435 to 449.448,
inclusive, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto. If the Health Division determines that such a violation
has occurred, the Health Division shall immediately notify the appropriate professional licensing board of the
physician.
3. If a surgical center for ambulatory patients violates the provisions of NRS 449.435 to 449.448, inclusive, or
the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, or fails to correct a deficiency indicated in a report pursuant
to NRS 449.446, the Health Division may impose administrative sanctions pursuant to NRS 449.163.

449.448. Regulations
Currentness
1. The Board shall adopt regulations to carry out the provisions of NRS 449.435 to 449.448, inclusive,
including, without limitation, regulations which:
(a) Prescribe the amount of the fee required for applications for the issuance and renewal of a permit
pursuant to NRS 449.443 and449.444.
(b) Prescribe the procedures and standards for the issuance and renewal of a permit.
                                                         74
(c) Identify the nationally recognized organizations approved by the Board for the purposes of the
accreditation required for the issuance of a:
(1) License to operate a surgical center for ambulatory patients.
(2) Permit for an office of a physician or a facility that provides health care, other than a medical facility, to
offer to a patient a service of general anesthesia, conscious sedation or deep sedation.
(d) Prescribe the procedures and scope of the inspections conducted by the Health Division pursuant
to NRS 449.446.
(e) Prescribe the procedures and time frame for correcting each deficiency indicated in a report pursuant
to NRS 449.446.
(f) Prescribe the criteria for the imposition of each sanction prescribed by NRS 449.447, including, without
limitation:
(1) Setting forth the circumstances and manner in which a sanction applies;
(2) Minimizing the time between the identification of a violation and the imposition of a sanction; and
(3) Providing for the imposition of incrementally more severe sanctions for repeated or uncorrected
violations.
2. The regulations adopted pursuant to this section must require that the practices and policies of each holder
of a permit to offer to a patient a service of general anesthesia, conscious sedation or deep sedation and each
holder of a license to operate a surgical center for ambulatory patients provide adequately for the protection
of the health, safety and well-being of patients.


Nevada – Osteopathic

N.R.S. 633.524 Osteopathic physician required to report certain information concerningsurgeries and sentinel
events; effect of failure to report; duties of Board; confidentiality of report; applicability

1. The Board shall require each holder of a license to practice osteopathic medicine issued pursuant to this
chapter to submit to the Board, on a form provided by the Board, and in the format required by the Board
by regulation, a report stating the number and type of surgeries requiring conscious sedation, deep sedation
or general anesthesia performed by the holder of the license at his or her office or any other facility,
excluding any surgical care performed:
(a) At a medical facility as that term is defined in NRS 449.0151; or
(b) Outside of this State.
2. In addition to the report required pursuant to subsection 1, the Board shall require each holder of a license
to practiceosteopathic medicine to submit a report to the Board concerning the occurrence of any sentinel
event arising from any surgerydescribed in subsection 1. The report must be submitted in the manner
prescribed by the Board which must be substantially similar to the manner prescribed by the State Board of
Health for reporting information pursuant to NRS 439.835.
3. Each holder of a license to practice osteopathic medicine shall submit the reports required pursuant to
subsections 1 and 2 :
(a) At the time the holder of the license renews his or her license; and
(b) Whether or not the holder of the license performed any surgery described in subsection 1. Failure to
submit a report or knowingly filing false information in a report constitutes grounds for initiating disciplinary
action pursuant to NRS 633.511.
4. In addition to the reports required pursuant to subsections 1 and 2, the Board shall require each holder of
a license to practice osteopathic medicine to submit a report to the Board concerning the occurrence of any
sentinel event arising from anysurgery described in subsection 1 within 14 days after the occurrence of the
sentinel event. The report must be submitted in the manner prescribed by the Board.
5. The Board shall:
(a) Collect and maintain reports received pursuant to subsections 1, 2 and 4;

                                                        75
(b) Ensure that the reports, and any additional documents created from the reports, are protected adequately
from fire, theft, loss, destruction and other hazards, and from unauthorized access; and
(c) Submit to the Health Division a copy of the report submitted pursuant to subsection 1. The Health
Division shall maintain the confidentiality of such reports in accordance with subsection 6.
6. Except as otherwise provided in NRS 239.0115, a report received pursuant to subsection 1, 2 or 4 is
confidential, not subject to subpoena or discovery, and not subject to inspection by the general public.
7. The provisions of this section do not apply to surgical care requiring only the administration of oral
medication to a patient to relieve the patient's anxiety or pain, if the medication is not given in a dosage that
is sufficient to induce in a patient a controlled state of depressed consciousness or unconsciousness similar to
general anesthesia, deep sedation or conscious sedation.
8. In addition to any other remedy or penalty, if a holder of a license to practice osteopathic medicine fails to
submit a report or knowingly files false information in a report submitted pursuant to this section, the Board
may, after providing the holder of a license to practice osteopathic medicine with notice and opportunity for
a hearing, impose against the holder of a license an administrative penalty for each such violation. The Board
shall establish by regulation a sliding scale based on the severity of the violation to determine the amount of
the administrative penalty to be imposed against the holder of the license to practiceosteopathic medicine.
The regulations must include standards for determining the severity of the violation and may provide for a
more severe penalty for multiple violations.
9. As used in this section:
(a) “Conscious sedation” has the meaning ascribed to it in NRS 449.436.
(b) “Deep sedation” has the meaning ascribed to it in NRS 449.437.
(c) “General anesthesia” has the meaning ascribed to it in NRS 449.438.
(d) “Health Division” has the meaning ascribed to it in NRS 449.009.
(e) “Sentinel event” means an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological
injury or the risk thereof, including, without limitation, any process variation for which a recurrence would
carry a significant chance of serious adverse outcome. The term includes loss of limb or function.


New Hampshire

None


New Jersey

Subchapter 4a. Surgery, Special Procedures and Anesthesia Services Performed in an Office Setting

13:35-4A.1 Purpose
These rules are designed to promote the health, safety and welfare of the members of the general public who
undergo surgery (other than minor surgery), special procedures and receive anesthesia services in an office
setting.

13:35-4A.2 Scope
 (a) This subchapter establishes policies and procedures and staffing and equipment requirements for
practitioners and physicians who perform surgery (other than minor surgery), special procedures and
administer anesthesia services in an office setting.
(b) For purposes of this subchapter, the standards set forth at N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.6 do not apply to those
performing non-invasive special procedures, such as non-invasive radiologic procedures. However, the
standards set forth at N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.7, including the privileging standards set forth at (a) above, do apply
to the anesthesia services provided in connection with all special procedures, whether invasive or non-
invasive.
                                                        76
13:35-4A.3 Definitions
The following words and terms, when used in this subchapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the
context clearly indicates otherwise.
“Advanced cardiac life support trained” means that a licensee has successfully completed an advanced
cardiac life support course offered by a recognized accrediting organization appropriate to the licensee's field
of practice. For example, for those licensees treating adult patients, training in advanced cardiac life support
(ACLS) is appropriate; for those treating children, training in pediatric advanced life support (PALS) or
advanced pediatric life support (APLS) is appropriate.
“Anesthesia services” means administration of any anesthetic agent with the purpose of creating conscious
sedation, regional anesthesia or general anesthesia. For the purposes of this subchapter, the administration of
topical or local anesthesia, minor conduction blocks, pain management or pain medication shall not be
deemed to be anesthesia services.
“Anesthesiologist” means a physician who has successfully completed a residency program in anesthesiology
approved by the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) or the American
Osteopathic Association (AOA), or who currently is a diplomate of either the American Board of
Anesthesiology or the American Osteopathic Board of Anesthesiology, or who was made a Fellow of the
American College of Anesthesiology before 1982.
“Anesthetic agent” means any drug or combination of drugs administered with the purpose of creating
conscious sedation, regional anesthesia or general anesthesia.
“Anesthetizing location” means any location in an office where anesthetic agents are administered to a
patient.
“Board” means the New Jersey State Board of Medical Examiners.
“Certified registered nurse anesthetist” (CRNA) means a registered professional nurse who is licensed in this
State and who holds current certification under a program governed or approved by the American
Association of Nurse Anesthetists (AANA), and who meets the conditions for practice as a nurse anesthetist
as set forth at N.J.A.C. 13:37-13.1.
“Complications” means an untoward event occurring at any time within 48 hours of any surgery, special
procedure or the administration of anesthesia services which was performed in an office setting including,
but not limited to, any of the following events: paralysis, nerve injury, malignant hyperthermia, seizures,
myocardial infarction, renal failure, significant cardiac events, respiratory arrest, aspiration of gastric contents,
cerebral vascular accident, transfusion reaction, pneumothorax, allergic reaction to anesthesia, wound
infections requiring intravenous antibiotic treatment or hospitalization, unintended return to an operating
room or hospitalization, death or temporary or permanent loss of function not considered to be a likely or
usual outcome of the procedure.
“Conscious sedation” means the administration of a drug or drugs in order to induce that state of
consciousness in a patient which allows the patient to tolerate unpleasant medical procedures without losing
defensive reflexes, adequate cardio-respiratory function and the ability to respond purposefully to verbal
command or to tactile stimulation if verbal response is not possible as, for example, in the case of a small
child or deaf person. For the purposes of this subchapter, conscious sedation does not include an oral dose
of pain medication or minimal pre-procedure tranquilization such as the administration of a pre-procedure
oral dose of a benzodiazepine designed to calm the patient. Within the context of this subchapter, “conscious
sedation” shall be synonymous with the term “sedation/analgesia” as used by the American Society of
Anesthesiologists.
“General anesthesia” means the administration of a drug or drugs which cause loss of consciousness as the
result of which the patient is unable to make meaningful responses but may still display reflex withdrawal
from a painful stimulus.
“Health care personnel” means any office staff member who is licensed by a professional or health care
occupational licensing board such as a professional registered nurse, licensed practical nurse or physician
assistant.
“Hospital” means a hospital licensed by the state in which it is situated.
                                                          77
“Local anesthesia” means an agent which produces a transient and reversible loss of sensation in a
circumscribed portion of the body.
“Minor conduction block” means the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation in a
circumscribed area of the body (that is, local infiltration or local nerve block), or the block of a nerve by
direct pressure or refrigeration. Minor conduction blocks include, but are not limited to, retrobulbar blocks,
peribulbar blocks, pudendal blocks, digital blocks, metacarpal blocks and ankle blocks. “Minor conduction
block” does not include regional anesthesia that affects larger areas of the body, such as brachial plexus
anesthesia or spinal anesthesia.
“Minor surgery” means surgery which can safely and comfortably be performed on a patient who has
received no more than the maximum manufacturer recommended dose of local or topical anesthesia, without
more than minimal pre-operative medication or minimal intra-operative tranquilization and where the
likelihood of complications requiring hospitalization is remote. Minor surgery specifically excludes all
procedures performed utilizing anesthesia services as defined in this section. Minor surgery also specifically
excludes procedures which may be performed under local anesthesia, but which involve extensive
manipulation or removal of tissue such as liposuction or lipo-injection, breast augmentation or reduction,
and removal of breast implants. Minor surgery includes the excision of moles, warts, cysts, lipomas, skin
biopsies, the repair of simple lacerations, or other surgery limited to the skin and subcutaneous tissue.
Additional examples of minor surgery include closed reduction of a fracture, the incision and drainage of
abscesses, certain simple ophthalmologic surgical procedures, such as treatment of chalazions and non-
invasive ophthalmologic laser procedures performed with topical anesthesia, limited endoscopies such as
flexible sigmoidoscopies, anoscopies, proctoscopies, arthrocenteses, thoracenteses and paracenteses. Minor
surgery shall not include any procedure identified as “major surgery” within the meaning of N.J.A.C. 13:35-
4.1.
“Monitoring” means continuous visual observation of a patient and continuous observation of the patient
using instruments to measure, display and record the values of certain physiologic variables, such as pulse,
oxygen saturation, blood pressure, end-tidal carbon dioxide and respiration.
“Office” means a location at which medical, surgical or podiatric services are rendered and which contains
only one operating room and which is not subject to the jurisdiction and licensure requirements of the New
Jersey State Department of Health and Senior Services.
“Operating room” means that location in the office dedicated to the performance of surgery or special
procedures.
“Pain management” means the administration to a patient, by any route, of pharmacologic agents or drugs
which are not intended to result in a loss of consciousness, awareness or defensive reflexes, but which are
intended to alleviate pain. It includes the use or application of other modalities and medical devices such as,
but not limited to, heat or cold, massage, transepidermal nerve stimulation (TENS), and neurolytic
techniques such as radiofrequency coagulation and cryotherapy.
“Pain medication” means, for the purpose of this subchapter, the administration to a patient, by any route, of
pharmacologic agents or drugs which are not intended to result in a loss of consciousness, awareness or
defensive reflexes, but which are intended to alleviate pain occurring in the absence of an invasive, operative
or manipulative procedure.
“Physical status classification” means a description of a patient used in determining if an office surgery or
procedure is appropriate. The American Society of Anesthesiologists enumerates classifications: I--Normal
healthy patient; II--A patient with mild systemic disease; III--A patient with severe systemic disease limiting
activity but not incapacitating; IV--A patient with incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to
life; and V--Moribund patients not expected to live 24 hours with or without operation.
“Physician” means an individual holding an M.D. or D.O. degree licensed pursuant to N.J.S.A. 45:9-1 et seq.
“Podiatrist” means an individual holding a D.P.M. degree licensed pursuant to N.J.S.A. 45:5-1 et seq.
“Practitioner” means a physician or a podiatrist.
“Privileges” means the authorization granted to a practitioner or physician by a hospital licensed in the
jurisdiction in which it is located to provide specified services or alternatively by the Board pursuant to

                                                       78
N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.12, such as surgery or the administration or the supervision of administration of one or
more types of anesthetic agents or procedures.
“Recovery area” means a room or limited access area of an office dedicated to providing medical services to
patients recovering from surgery or anesthesia.
“Regional anesthesia” means the administration of anesthetic agents to a patient to interrupt nerve impulses
without loss of consciousness and includes epidural, caudal, spinal and brachial plexus anesthesia. Regional
anesthesia does not include minor conduction blocks as defined in this section.
“Special procedure” means patient care which requires anesthesia services because it involves entering the
body with instruments in a potentially painful manner, or requires the patient to be immobile, for a
diagnostic or therapeutic procedure. Examples of special procedures include diagnostic or therapeutic
endoscopy or bronchoscopy performed utilizing conscious sedation or general anesthesia; invasive radiologic
procedures performed utilizing conscious sedation; pediatric magnetic resonance imaging performed utilizing
conscious sedation; or manipulation under anesthesia (MUA). The term special procedure does not include a
procedure which only requires medication to reduce anxiety such as oral benzodiazepine unless the dose
given is intended to provide conscious sedation.
“Supervision” means responsibility by a credentialed physician who is immediately available to oversee the
administration and monitoring of anesthesia by health care personnel authorized by this rule to render
anesthesia services in an office.
“Surgery” means a manual or operative procedure, including the use of lasers, performed upon the body for
the purpose of preserving health, diagnosing or treating disease, repairing injury, correcting deformity or
defects, prolonging life or relieving suffering. Surgery includes, but is not limited to: incision or curettage of
tissue or an organ; suture or other repair of tissue or an organ; a closed or open reduction of a fracture or
extraction of tissue from the uterus.
“Topical anesthesia” means an anesthetic agent applied directly or by spray to the skin or mucous
membranes, intended to produce a transient and reversible loss of sensation to a circumscribed area.


13:35-4A.4 Policies and procedures requirements
 (a) Practitioners who perform surgery (other than minor surgery) or special procedures and physicians who
administer or supervise the administration or monitoring of anesthesia services in an office shall establish
written policies and procedures concerning the following:
1. The specific surgical or special procedures which may be performed in the office;
2. The specific anesthesia services which may be performed in the office;
3. The responsibilities of the health care personnel providing services to patients in the office;
4. The infection control practices to be followed, including lawful disposal of hazardous waste;
5. The procedures to be followed in the event that a patient experiences a complication;
6. The procedures to be followed if the patient requires transport for emergency services, including the
identity and telephone numbers of the ambulance service if one is to be utilized and the hospital to which the
patient is to be transported, and the functions to be undertaken by health care personnel until a transfer of
the patient is completed;
7. The procedures to be followed in the event that a surgery or special procedure needs to be terminated
because of an equipment malfunction or other complication;
8. The procedures to be followed while a patient is recovering in the office;
9. The objective criteria for discharging patients; and
10. The procedures to be followed to review records, and to ensure follow-up on complications and
outcomes.
(b) The written policies and procedures shall also contain the identity of the specific practitioners within the
office who are responsible for ensuring that:
1. All healthcare personnel providing services to patients possess the qualifications required by this
subchapter and are currently licensed, registered or certified, as applicable;

                                                        79
2. All equipment and instruments utilized in the performance of surgery are maintained in proper working
order and in accordance with such sterilization techniques as are required for safe medical practice;
3. All equipment and safety systems utilized in the administration and monitoring of anesthesia as required by
N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.14 are maintained in proper working order;
4. All emergency equipment and supplies as required by N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.13 are available and are not out-
dated; and
5. All medical records are audited on at least an annual basis to assess quality of care and complications.
(c) The written policies and procedures are to be reviewed annually and revised as needed with the person
conducting the review or making the revision recording the date thereof.
(d) Written policies and procedures shall be presented to the Board upon request.

3:35-4A.5 Duty to report incidents related to surgery, special procedures or anesthesia in an office
Any incident related to surgery, special procedures or the administration of anesthesia within the office which
results in a patient death, transport of the patient to the hospital for observation or treatment for a period in
excess of 24 hours, or a complication or untoward event as defined in N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.3, shall be reported
to the Executive Director of the Board within seven days, in writing and on such forms as shall be required
by the Board. Such reports shall be investigated by the Board and will be deemed confidential pursuant
to N.J.S.A. 45:9-19.3.

13:35-4A.6 Standards for performing surgery and special procedures in an office; privileges necessary; pre-
procedure counseling; patient records; recovery and discharge
 (a) A practitioner who performs surgery (other than minor surgery) or special procedures in an office shall
be privileged to perform that surgery or special procedure by a hospital. If a practitioner is not privileged but
wishes to perform surgery or special procedures in an office, the practitioner shall apply to the Board
pursuant to N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.12 to seek Board-approved privileging.
(b) Before any practitioner may perform surgery (other than minor surgery), or special procedures, the
practitioner shall have:
1. A written transfer agreement with a licensed hospital with acute care capabilities which can be reached
within 20 minutes during all hours in which surgery or special procedures are performed in the office, if the
hospital where the practitioner is privileged is not reachable within 20 minutes or if the practitioner is
privileged by the Board; and
2. A written policy for handling emergency transport to a hospital at which the practitioner is privileged
through 9-1-1 call or a written transfer agreement with a licensed ambulance service which assures immediate
transport of patients experiencing complications to the hospital which the practitioner has established a
transfer agreement. The written transfer agreement shall be posted in the office and all health care personnel
in the office shall specifically be informed of the procedure to be followed.
(c) A practitioner who performs surgery (other than minor surgery) or special procedures in an office shall
provide pre-procedure counseling and preparation as follows:
1. The practitioner shall appropriately assess, or review a referring physician's assessment of, the physical
condition of the patient on whom surgery or a special procedure is to be performed. The practitioner shall
refer a patient who, by reason of pre-existing medical or other conditions, are at undue risk for complications
(for example, morbidly obese patients; patients with severe cardiac, pulmonary, airway or neurological
problems; substance abusers) to an appropriate specialist for a pre-procedure consultation or to another
treatment setting or other appropriate facility for the performance of the surgery or the special procedure.
Only patients with an American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classification of I or II are
appropriate candidates for an office surgery or special procedure for which general or regional anesthesia are
to be used. Patients with an ASA physical classification of I, II or III are appropriate candidates for
conscious sedation.
2. A history and physical examination shall be performed within the 14 days preceding the proposed surgery
either by the practitioner performing the surgery or procedure (as appropriate to that practitioner's scope of
practice) or by another physician or physician assistant under the supervision of a physician. Necessary
                                                        80
laboratory tests, as guided by the patient's underlying medical condition, shall be conducted within seven days
preceding the proposed surgery;
3. The risks and benefits of the surgery or special procedure and alternative methods or treatments shall be
fully explained by the practitioner or other health care personnel, and written informed consent for the
specific surgery or special procedure contemplated shall be obtained from the patient, guardian or authorized
representative;
4. An appropriate fasting protocol shall be explained and provided to the patient;
5. If the history and physical are not done on the same day as the procedure, an interim assessment shall be
performed by the practitioner or a physician assistant under the supervision of a physician immediately prior
to the procedure, which assessment shall be documented and dated; and
6. Prior to surgery, the practitioner shall ensure that the patient removes all cosmetics, jewelry, contact lenses,
dental appliances and prosthetic devices which might reasonably jeopardize patient safety.
(d) A practitioner who performs surgery (other than minor surgery) or special procedures in an office shall
ensure the following during recovery and prior to discharge:
1. Immediately after the surgery or special procedure, the patient shall be evaluated by either the practitioner
who performed the surgery or the physician or CRNA who administered the anesthesia;
2. At least one practitioner shall remain on the premises until the patient is discharged from the recovery
area;
3. The patient shall be provided with written and verbal instructions for follow-up care and with advice
concerning possible complications; and
4. The patient shall be discharged into the company of a responsible individual.
(e) A practitioner who performs surgery (other than minor surgery) or special procedures in an office shall
prepare a patient record which shall include the following:
1. A pre-procedure medical history and physical, appropriate to the practitioner's scope of practice, including
such data as allergies, physical and mental impairments, vital signs, drug use, mobility limitations and, as
applicable, electrocardiogram results, radiologic findings, laboratory values and the identity of the examining
practitioner;
2. Documentation reflecting that informed consent has been obtained;
3. A description of the surgery or special procedure performed, including pre-operative diagnosis, techniques
used, names and titles of medical personnel participating, complete findings, post-operative diagnosis, and
any unusual occurrence, complications or untoward events. Where similar procedures are performed at the
office routinely, partially pre-printed forms may be utilized as a guide, provided that original data and
conclusions applicable to the specific patient are contemporaneously entered to create a complete report;
4. A post-procedure note, entered prior to discharge from the office, which shall include at least such post-
procedure data as the patient's general condition, vital signs, any treatments ordered, and all drugs prescribed,
administered or dispensed including dosages, quantities and strengths;
5. The identity of healthcare personnel providing services, as evidenced by a legible signature following that
staff member's notation in the patient's record; and
6. The plan for follow-up care and documentation of results of follow-up efforts.
(f) No practitioner who performs surgery (other than minor surgery) or special procedures in an office shall:
1. Prescribe, or advise a patient to take, an anesthetic agent to be administered prior to arrival at the office or
outside of the anesthetizing location; or
2. Accept for the performance of surgery or a special procedure a patient to whom an anesthetic agent had
been administered for that surgery or special procedure prior to arrival at the office or outside of the
anesthetizing location, other than in life threatening circumstances, unless the patient is accompanied by
medical personnel from an acute care facility.

13:35-4A.7 Standards for administering or supervising the administration of anesthesia services in an office;
pre-anesthesia counseling; patient monitoring; recovery; patient record; discharge of patient
 (a) A practitioner who administers or supervises the administration and monitoring of anesthesia services in
an office shall be privileged by a hospital to provide the particular anesthesia service. If a practitioner is not
                                                        81
privileged but wishes to administer or supervise the administration of anesthesia services, the practitioner
shall apply to the Board pursuant to N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.12 to seek Board-approved privileging.
(b) A practitioner who administers or supervises the administration and monitoring of anesthesia services in
an office shall provide pre-anesthesia counseling and preparation as follows:
1. Any patient to whom anesthesia services are to be provided shall be appropriately screened by the
individual administering anesthesia services. Patients who, by reason of pre-existing medical or other
conditions, are at undue risk for complications (for example, morbidly obese patients; patients with severe
cardiac, pulmonary, airway or neurological problems; substance abusers) shall be referred to an appropriate
specialist for a pre-procedure consultation or to another treatment setting or other appropriate facility. Only
patients with an ASA physical status classification of I or II are appropriate candidates for an office surgery
or special procedure for which general or regional anesthesia are to be used. Patients with an ASA physical
classification of I, II or III are appropriate candidates for conscious sedation.
2. A medical history shall be conducted including a review of abnormalities in any organ system; previous
adverse experience with anesthesia services; any history of stridor, snoring or sleep apnea, or of advanced
rheumatoid arthritis or spinal disorder; current medications being taken; drug allergies; or any history of
substance abuse;
3. The risks and benefits of anesthesia and alternative methods or treatments shall be fully explained by the
physician or certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA), and written informed consent for the anesthesia
services contemplated shall be obtained from the patient, guardian or authorized representative;
4. An appropriate fasting protocol shall be explained and timely provided to the patient, guardian or
authorized representative;
5. Pre-procedure laboratory test results shall be reviewed and recorded;
6. A focused physical examination shall be conducted, including auscultation of the heart and lungs, and an
evaluation of the airway, particularly an assessment of anatomical abnormalities (that is, jaw, mouth, head and
neck) which may increase the likelihood of an airway obstruction;
7. A plan of anesthesia shall be developed by the physician administering anesthesia services or personally
reviewed by the supervising physician if the plan has been developed by other authorized personnel;
8. A patient shall be counseled prior to the procedure that the procedure will be canceled if the patient plans
to drive home after the procedure and has not made arrangements to be accompanied home by an individual
who accepts responsibility for the patient; and
9. Prior to the administration of anesthesia services, the physician shall ensure that the patient removes all
cosmetics, jewelry, contact lenses, dental appliances and prosthetic devices which might reasonably
jeopardize patient safety.
(c) A physician who administers or supervises the administration or monitoring of any anesthesia services
(general anesthesia, regional anesthesia or conscious sedation) in an office shall ensure that monitoring is
provided as follows when clinically feasible for the patient:
1. Direct observation of the patient and, to the extent practicable, observation of the patient's responses to
verbal commands;
2. Pulse oximetry shall be performed continuously. Any alternative method of measuring oxygen saturation
may be substituted for pulse oximetry if the method has been demonstrated to have at least equivalent
clinical effectiveness;
3. An electrocardiogram monitor shall be used continuously on the patient;
4. The patient's blood pressure, pulse rate, and respirations shall be measured at least every five minutes; and
5. The body temperature of a pediatric patient shall be measured continuously.
(d) In addition to the monitoring requirements in (c) above, a physician who administers or supervises the
administration or monitoring of general anesthesia services in an office shall ensure that additional
monitoring is provided as follows:
1. End-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring shall be performed on the patient continuously during endotracheal
anesthesia;
2. An in-circuit oxygen analyzer shall be used to monitor the oxygen concentration within the breathing
circuit, displaying the oxygen percent of the total inspiratory mixture;
                                                       82
3. A respirometer (volumeter) shall be used to measure exhaled tidal volume whenever the breathing circuit
of a patient allows;
4. The body temperature of each patient shall be measured continuously; and
5. An esophageal or precordial stethoscope shall be available and utilized on the patient when indicated.
(e) A practitioner who administers or supervises the administration and monitoring of anesthesia services in
an office shall establish within that office a recovery area and ensure that recovery services are provided as
follows:
1. Immediately after the surgery or special procedure, the practitioner who performed the surgery or the
individual who administered the anesthesia shall evaluate the patient;
2. The individual responsible for the administration or monitoring of anesthesia shall accompany the patient
into the recovery area;
3. Healthcare personnel who were present with the patient at the anesthetizing location shall remain with the
patient in the recovery area at least until the patient's vital signs, including blood pressure, pulse, and
respiration are recorded;
4. An oral report on the patient's condition shall be given to any healthcare personnel in the recovery area
not present in the anesthetizing location;
5. Whenever a patient is present in the recovery area, the recovery area shall be staffed by at least one
registered professional nurse or physician assistant who is trained and experienced in advanced cardiac life
support and post anesthesia care. This includes recognizing the actions and interactions of anesthetic
techniques, managing of airway and ventilatory function and managing patients during altered states of
consciousness, as well as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, monitoring of caridiac function, recognition of
arrhythmias, and the recognition and treatment of life-threatening emergencies. For every additional two
patients present in the recovery area, there shall be one additional professional registered nurse or physician
assistant present, having the requisite training;
6. In addition to the healthcare personnel specified in (e)5 above, at least one other additional healthcare
personnel shall remain on site in a position to render immediate assistance whenever a patient is in the
recovery room; and
7. From the time of entry into the recovery area until discharge, the condition of the patient shall be regularly
evaluated and the patient's vital signs checked at least every five minutes. If the patient's vital signs remain
unchanged, documentation can be reflected with a straight line on the chart; any changes shall be specifically
noted. Electrocardiographic monitoring and pulse oximetry monitoring shall be continued in the recovery
area for each patient who has received anesthesia services.
(f) A practitioner who administers or supervises the administration and monitoring of anesthesia services
may allow a patient dischargeable to home pursuant to N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.4(a)9 and 4A.6(d) to remain in the
office for a period not to exceed 23 hours in an overnight stay area, if the patient may benefit from additional
care. The overnight stay area shall be staffed by at least one registered professional nurse or physician
assistant for each two patients in the overnight stay area, the patient's vital signs shall be taken and recorded
at least every four hours and a physician shall be able to reach the office within 20 minutes. Appropriate
sleeping accommodations, as well as food, shall be provided for the patient.
(g) A practitioner who administers or supervises the administration and monitoring of anesthesia services in
an office shall ensure the following prior to discharge:
1. That at least one practitioner shall remain on the premises until the patient is discharged to home or
transferred to the special overnight stay area;
2. That the patient shall be given written and verbal instructions for follow-up care and advice concerning
complications;
3. That before the patient leaves the office or is transferred to the overnight stay area, the physician shall
evaluate the patient and shall review and sign the postanesthesia record; and
4. That the patient shall be discharged only into the company of a responsible individual.
(h) A practitioner who administers or supervises the administration and monitoring of anesthesia services in
an office shall ensure that a patient record is prepared which contains the following:

                                                       83
1. A pre-anesthesia note, including pre-anesthesia vital signs (blood pressure, temperature, respiration rate
and pulse), and a plan of anesthesia;
2. Signed informed consent from the patient, guardian or authorized representative;
3. An intra-procedure record which includes anesthetic agents and techniques used, any changes since the
inception of anesthesia in vital signs, oxygen saturation, electrocardiogram interpretation, temperature and
end-tidal carbon dioxide measurements when required, as well as the volume and type of fluids administered;
4. A post-anesthesia note entered prior to the patient's discharge from the office which shall include at least
such post-procedure data as the patient's vital signs and general condition, respiration, consciousness,
circulation, special problems or precautions and a summary of fluids received during surgery or any
complication or untoward event which occurred;
5. The identity of each healthcare personnel providing services, as evidenced by the staff member's legible
signature on each entry made by that staff member in the patient record; and
6. The plan for follow-up care.
(i) No practitioner who administers or supervises the administration and monitoring of anesthesia services in
an office shall:
1. Prescribe, or advise a patient to take, an anesthetic agent to be administered prior to arrival at the office or
outside of the anesthetizing location; or
2. Accept for the performance of surgery or a special procedure a patient to whom an anesthetic agent had
been administered for that surgery or special procedure prior to arrival at the office or outside of the
anesthetizing location, other than in life threatening circumstances, unless the patient is accompanied by
medical personnel from an acute care facility.

13:35-4A.8 Performance of general anesthesia; authorized personnel
 (a) General anesthesia shall be administered and monitored in an office only by the following individuals:
1. A physician privileged by a hospital or the Board pursuant to N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.12 to provide general
anesthesia services and who, during every consecutive three-year period beginning July 1, 2004, completes at
least 60 Category I hours of continuing medical education in anesthesia which either meet the criteria for
credit towards the Physician's Recognition Award of the American Medical Association or have been
approved by the American Osteopathic Association; or
2. A certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA), under the supervision of a physician qualified under (a)1
above.
(b) The administration and monitoring of general anesthesia shall be provided by an individual who meets
the requirements of (a) above and who is at all times present in the anesthetizing location and who is not the
practitioner performing the surgery or special procedure. This subsection shall not be construed to preclude
the conversion of conscious sedation to general anesthesia in an emergency to protect the health of the
patient, even if there is no physician present who would be qualified to administer and monitor general
anesthesia pursuant to (a)1 above.
(c) When the administration and monitoring of general anesthesia is being performed by a CRNA, the
supervising physician shall be physically present and available to immediately diagnose and treat the patient in
an emergency without concurrent responsibilities to administer anesthesia or perform surgery, other than
minor surgery.
(d) An advanced cardiac life support-trained physician, registered professional nurse or physician assistant
shall remain with the patient at all times that the patient is receiving or recovering from general anesthesia.

13:35-4A.9 Administration of regional anesthesia; authorized personnel
 (a) Regional anesthesia shall be administered and monitored in an office only by the following individuals:
1. A physician privileged by a hospital or the Board pursuant to N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.12 to provide regional
anesthesia and who, during every consecutive three-year period beginning July 1, 2004, completes at least
eight Category I hours of continuing medical education in anesthesia exclusively, or in anesthesia as it relates
to the physician's field of practice, which either meet the criteria for credit towards the Physician's

                                                        84
Recognition Award of the American Medical Association or have been approved by the American
Osteopathic Association; or
2. A certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA), under the supervision of a physician qualified under (a)1
above.
(b) The administration and monitoring of regional anesthesia shall be provided by an individual who meets
the requirements of (a) above and who is at all times present in the anesthetizing location and who is not the
practitioner performing the surgery or the special procedure.
(c) When the administration and monitoring of regional anesthesia is being performed by a CRNA, the
supervising physician shall be physically present and available to immediately diagnose and treat the patient in
an emergency, without concurrent responsibilities to administer anesthesia or perform surgery, other than
minor surgery.
(d) An advanced cardiac life support trained physician, registered professional nurse or physician assistant
shall be present at all times when a patient is receiving or recovering from regional anesthesia.

13:35-4A.10 Administration of conscious sedation; authorized personnel
 (a) Conscious sedation shall be administered in an office only by the following individuals:
1. A practitioner privileged by a hospital or the Board pursuant to N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.12 to provide conscious
sedation and who, during every consecutive three-year period beginning July 1, 2004, completes at least eight
Category I or II hours of continuing medical education in any anesthesia services, including conscious
sedation exclusively, or in anesthesia as it relates to the physician's field of practice, which either meet the
criteria for credit towards the Physician's Recognition Award of the American Medical Association or have
been approved by the American Osteopathic Association;
2. A certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA), under the supervision of a physician qualified under (a)1
above; or
3. A registered professional nurse or physician assistant, who is trained and has experience in the use and
monitoring of anesthetic agents, at the specific direction of a physician qualified under (a)1 above, but only
for the purpose of administering through an established intravenous line, a specifically prescribed
supplemental dose of conscious sedation which was selected and initially administered by the physician who
remains continuously present in the procedure room. “Continuously present in the procedure room” does
not require that a practitioner remain in the procedure room in violation of human exposure safety standards
regularly employed during radiological procedures.
(b) A patient under conscious sedation shall be monitored in an office by a physician, CRNA, or a registered
professional nurse or physician assistant who has training and experience in the use of monitoring devices,
under the supervision of a physician eligible under (a)1 above, to administer conscious sedation.
(c) The monitoring of a patient under conscious sedation shall be provided by an individual who meets the
requirements of (b) above and who is at all times present and who is not the practitioner who is performing
the surgery or special procedure.
(d) When the administration and monitoring of conscious sedation is being performed by a CRNA, or when
the monitoring is being performed by a registered professional nurse or physician assistant, the supervising
physician shall be physically present, but may be concurrently responsible for patient care.
(e) An advanced cardiac life support-trained physician, registered nurse or physician assistant shall be present
at all times when a patient is receiving or recovering from the administration of conscious sedation.

13:35-4A.11 Administration of minor conduction blocks; authorized personnel
 (a) Minor conduction blocks (with the exception of retrobulbar blocks) shall be administered in an office for
surgery or special procedures only by the following individuals:
1. A practitioner;
2. A certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or
3. A certified nurse midwife, an advanced practice nurse or physician assistant who has training and
experience in the administration of minor conduction blocks.

                                                       85
(b) Retrobulbar blocks shall be administered in the office only by a physician privileged by a hospital or by
the Board pursuant to N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.12.

13:35-4A.12 Alternative privileging procedure
 (a) A practitioner who seeks to provide or supervise the administration and monitoring of general or
regional anesthesia, as well as conscious sedation, in an office, but does not hold privileges at a licensed
hospital to do so, shall submit to the Board an application for these privileges. To be eligible to apply for
these privileges, an applicant shall meet the following criteria and submit an application that documents the
applicant's fulfillment of these criteria:
1. Demonstration of clinical experience, through an attestation as to the number of procedures for which
general or regional anesthesia was provided by the applicant in the last two years for all age groups of
patients within the applicant's practice for which privileges are requested;
2. Any one of the following:
i. Current certification in anesthesiology granted by the American Board of Anesthesiology or the American
Osteopathic Board of Anesthesiology or any other certification entity that the applicant demonstrates has
standards of comparable rigor;
ii. Successful completion of a residency training program in anesthesiology accredited by the Accreditation
Council on Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) or the American Osteopathic Association (AOA); or
iii. Supervised training in residency, fellowship or other equivalent experience in another field and active
participation in the examination process leading to certification in anesthesiology; and
3. Possess clinical competence to perform the anesthesia services or procedures authorized by the requested
privileges, with such competence confirmed by the following:
i. Three references submitted directly by plenary licensed physicians addressing the applicant's current
competence based on personal knowledge obtained either during a residency training completed during the
two years preceding the application or through personal observation during the two years preceding the
application;
ii. Submission of a log listing all patients for whom the applicant provided any of the anesthesia services in an
office setting or licensed ambulatory care facility setting for which privileges have been requested during the
two years preceding the date of the application. The log shall include a patient number, the type of anesthesia
service provided, the surgery or special procedure performed and the date(s) of service. Patient names and
other identifying data shall be redacted. The applicant shall maintain a list or other means to identify the
patient, based on the number included in the log;
iii. Identification of any patients in the log who have experienced complications relating to the applicant's
provision of anesthesia services in an office setting or licensed ambulatory care facility setting and their
resulting outcomes; and
iv. Submission of no fewer than five patient records or charts (or the pertinent portions thereof with patient
names redacted) which have been identified and requested by the Board or other reviewing entity, designated
pursuant to (e) below, along with a completed case summary form for each submitted case, utilizing such
forms as are provided in the application materials.
(b) A practitioner who seeks to administer or supervise the administration and monitoring of only conscious
sedation in an office, but does not currently hold clinical privileges at a licensed hospital to do so, shall
submit to the Board an application for this privilege.To be eligible to apply for this privilege, an applicant
shall meet the following criteria and submit an application that documents the applicant's fulfillment of these
criteria:
1. Demonstration of clinical experience, through an attestation as to the number of procedures for which
conscious sedation was provided by the applicant in the last two years for all age groups within the
applicant's practice of patients for which privileges are requested, except age groups as are specifically
excluded from the applicant's practice;
2. Any one of the following:


                                                       86
i. Current certification in anesthesiology granted by the American Board of Anesthesiology or the American
Osteopathic Board of Anesthesiology or any other certification entity the applicant demonstrates has
standards of comparable rigor;
ii. Current certification in Critical Care Medicine or Emergency Medicine by a specialty board or certifying
entity recognized by the American Board of Medical Specialties (“ABMS”) or the American Osteopathic
Association (“AOA”) or any other certification entity the applicant demonstrates has standards of
comparable rigor; or
iii. Satisfactory evidence that the applicant is advanced cardiac life support trained with updated training from
a recognized accrediting organization and either:
(1) Successful completion of an educational home study program, with a test of basic knowledge obtained
from the Board; or
(2) A course in conscious sedation offered by a licensed hospital or for continuing medical education credits;
and
3. Submission of a list of all patients who have experienced complications relating to the applicant's provision
of conscious sedation in an office setting or licensed ambulatory care facility setting and their resulting
outcomes. Patient names and other identifying data shall be redacted. The applicant shall maintain a list or
other means to identify the patient, based on the number included in the log.
(c) A practitioner who seeks to perform surgery (other than minor surgery) or special procedures in an office,
but does not hold privileges at a licensed hospital to perform these procedures shall submit to the Board an
application for these privileges, including a completed privilege request form appropriate to the privileges
requested. To be eligible to apply for this privilege, an applicant shall meet the following criteria and submit
an application that documents the applicant's fulfillment of these criteria:
1. Demonstration of clinical experience, through an attestation as to the number and type of procedures
performed by the applicant in the last two years for all age groups of patients for which privileges are
requested;
2. Any one of the following:
i. Current certification in the field(s) of practice in which the privileges are sought granted by a specialty
board or certifying entity recognized by the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS), the American
Osteopathic Association (AOA), the American Podiatric Medicine Association (APMA) or any other
certification entity that the applicant demonstrates has standards of comparable rigor;
ii. Successful completion of an Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) or the
American Osteopathic Association (AOA) residency or fellowship training program in the field(s) of practice
in which privileges are sought; or
iii. Supervised training in a residency or fellowship training or other equivalent experience in another field
and active participation in the examination process leading to certification in the practice field(s) in which
privileges are sought; and
3. Possess clinical competence to perform the procedures authorized by the requested privileges, with such
competence confirmed by the following:
i. Three references submitted directly by plenary licensed physicians (or licensed podiatrists as to podiatric
applicants) addressing the applicant's current competence based on personal knowledge obtained either
during a residency training completed during the two years preceding the application or through personal
observation during the two years preceding the application;
ii. Submission of a log listing all patients for whom the applicant has performed surgery or special procedures
in an office setting or licensed ambulatory care facility setting for which privileges have been requested
during the two years preceding the date of the application. The log shall include a patient number, the surgery
or special procedure performed and the indications for that procedure and the date(s) of service. Patient
names and other identifying data shall be redacted. The applicant shall maintain a list or other means to
identify the patient, based on the number included in the log;
iii. Identification of any patients in the log who have experienced complications relating to the applicant's
performance of surgery or special procedures in an office setting or licensed ambulatory care facility setting
and their resulting outcomes; and
                                                       87
iv. Submission of no fewer than five patient records or charts (or the pertinent portions thereof with patient
names redacted) which have been identified and requested by the Board or other reviewing entity, along with
a completed case summary form for each submitted case, utilizing such forms as are provided in the
application materials.
(d) A practitioner who seeks to utilize laser surgery techniques in an office, but does not hold privileges at a
licensed hospital to do so, shall submit to the Board an application, which shall include:
1. Certification of successful completion of an accredited laser training program, in which the curriculum
includes instruction in laser care, physics and clinical indications for utilization of the specific laser; or
2. Documentation from the program director of an accredited residency training program which the
applicant has successfully completed, attesting to the inclusion of training in the specific laser therapy for
which privileges are being sought during residency training.
(e) The Board may delegate to a reviewing entity the responsibility to conduct a preliminary review of an
application to ascertain whether the applicant has met the criteria established in (a) through (d) above, which
review shall be undertaken at the expense of the applicant. The Board shall thereafter review the summary
report including any recommendation concerning the applicant prepared by the reviewer and make a decision
on the application for privileges.
(f) If the Board or any entity or person to which the Board may delegate the preliminary application review
finds that the applicant has not submitted sufficient information upon which a determination as to the
applicant's current competence may be made, the Board or the reviewing entity may require:
1. A personal interview;
2. The submission of a representative sample of patient records substantiating the experience of the
applicant;
3. The submission of any patient records relating to an identified complication;
4. An inspection of the office, which may include a review of additional patient records and written policies
and procedures; and/or
5. The submission of such additional information as may be necessary to determine an applicant's clinical
competence to perform the privileges requested.
(g) Upon review of the summary report prepared by the Board or the reviewing entity, the Board may take
any of the following actions:
1. Grant all or some of the privileges requested;
2. Condition its approval of all or some of the privileges requested on the applicant's successful completion
of additional training;
3. Condition its approval of all or some of the privileges on the applicant's successful completion of a period
of observation;
4. Deny all or some of the privileges requested; and/or
5. Require such additional information as may be necessary to act on the application.
(h) Practitioners who have been granted privileges through the alternative privileging procedure of this
section shall submit a renewal application to the Board within two years from the date on which privileges
were granted. Practitioners shall notify the Board within 21 days should there be any change in the
information provided in the application and renewal.

13:35-4A.13 Requirements for anesthetizing locations; emergency equipment and supplies
 (a) An office in which any anesthesia services are to be provided shall be equipped with the appropriate
medical equipment, supplies and pharmacological agents which are required or might be needed in order to
provide anesthetic and recovery services, as well as to treat any likely complication which might arise as a
result of these services, in such manner that complies with the accepted standards of care as set forth in the
“Practice Guidelines for Sedation and Analgesia by Non-Anesthesiologists” of the American Society of
Anesthesiology (520 Northwest Highway, Park Ridge, IL 60068-2573), appearing in Anesthesiology, Vol. 84,
No. 2, February 1996, incorporated herein by reference, as amended and supplemented.
(b) An office in which general anesthesia is to be provided shall be equipped with the following additional
emergency equipment:
                                                       88
1. Special equipment to manage a difficult airway;
2. Drugs and equipment to treat malignant hyperthermia, shock and anaphylactic reactions;
3. A precordial stethoscope or esophageal stethoscope; and
4. A peripheral nerve stimulator.
(c) In an office in which anesthesia services are to be provided to infants and children, the required
emergency equipment shall be appropriately sized for a pediatric population.

13:35-4A.14 Requirements for anesthetizing locations; safety systems, monitoring devices
(a) An office in which anesthesia services are to be provided shall be equipped with the following safety
systems and monitoring devices:
1. A pulse oximeter with appropriate alarms (or an equivalent method of measuring oxygen saturation);
2. A continuous electrocardiograph with paper recorder;
3. Devices for measuring blood pressure, heart rate and respiratory rate;
4. A defibrillator; and
5. An accepted method of identifying and preventing the interchangeability of gases, whenever gases are
used.
(b) Any anesthesia machine or built-in anesthesia system utilized in the administration of general anesthesia
in an office shall be equipped with the following:
1. An end-tidal carbon dioxide monitor (capnograph);
2. An in-circuit oxygen analyzer designed to monitor the oxygen concentration within the breathing circuit by
displaying the oxygen percent of the total inspiratory mixture;
3. A respirometer (volumeter) measuring exhaled tidal volume;
4. Oxygen failure-protection devices (“fail-safe” system) which have the capacity to announce a reduction in
oxygen pressure and, at lower levels of oxygen pressure, to discontinue other gases when the pressure of the
supply of oxygen is reduced;
5. A vaporizer exclusion (“interlock”) system, which ensures that only one vaporizer, and therefore only a
single anesthetic agent, can be actuated on any anesthesia machine at one time;
6. Pressure-compensated anesthesia vaporizers, designed to administer a constant non-pulsatile output, which
shall not be placed in the circuit downstream of the oxygen flush valve;
7. Flow meters and controllers, which can accurately gauge concentration of oxygen relative to the anesthetic
agent being administered and prevent oxygen mixtures of less than 21 percent from being administered;
8. Alarm systems for high (disconnect), low (subatmospheric), and minimum ventilatory pressures in the
breathing circuit for each patient under general anesthesia; and
9. A gas evacuation system.
(c) Anesthesia equipment used in the administration of anesthesia services for the performance of MRI shall
be made of nonferrous materials to ensure the quality of the diagnostic studies. Monitoring techniques shall
take into consideration the unique characteristics of the magnetic field.
(d) In an office in which anesthesia services are to be provided to infants and children, the required
monitoring devices shall be appropriately sized for a pediatric population.

13:35-4A.15 Equipment requirements for recovery areas
 (a) In any office in which anesthesia services are to be provided, a recovery area adjacent to, or within the
operating room, shall be established. Access to the recovery area shall be limited to staff and family or
significant others, as appropriate. The recovery area shall be equipped with at least the following:
1. A pulse oximeter with appropriate alarms (or an equivalent method of measuring oxygen saturation);
2. A continuous electrocardiogram monitor with paper recorder;
3. A defibrillator;
4. Drugs adequate for cardiopulmonary resuscitation;
5. Emergency equipment for intubation and extubation; and
6. Basic airway management equipment as follows:
i. A source of compressed oxygen (tank with regulator or pipeline supply with flowmeter);
                                                       89
ii. A source of suction, suction catheters, Yankauer-type suction;
iii. Face masks (in appropriate sizes for the patient population);
iv. A self-inflating breathing bag-valve set, oral and nasal airways and lubricant; and
v. A method by which oxygen can be administered (for example, masks, nasal cannulas).

13:35-4A.16 Maintenance requirements
(a) All equipment as required by N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.13 through 4A.15 is subject to inspection and
maintenance as follows:
1. A record shall be maintained of all service and maintenance including that performed on all anesthesia
machines, ventilators and vaporizers. The record shall include machine identification; the name of the
servicing agent; the problem, if any; the work performed and the date of the work. Maintenance shall
conform with maintenance requirements established by the machine manufacturer. Credentials of each
servicing agent shall be approved by the machine manufacturer or shall be reasonably determined by the
permit holder to be equivalent to the credentials of the manufacturer's servicing agents.
2. All anesthesia equipment shall be inspected fully at the beginning of each day of use by a physician, or a
certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA), under the supervision of a physician, credentialed to utilize that
equipment. A record of each such inspection, including the date of the inspection and the identity of the
individual conducting the inspection, shall be maintained for each machine. The inspection shall conform
with a checklist that is supplied by the manufacturer of the machine, or issued by the Federal Food and Drug
Administration or, alternatively, reasonably developed by the physician and set forth in an appropriate
written protocol.
3. Before each use, the physician or the CRNA who is to administer the anesthesia shall inspect all anesthesia
equipment. Inspections shall be documented on the anesthesia record.
(b) A physician shall not permit anyone to tamper with a safety system or any monitoring device or
disconnect an alarm system.

13:35-4A.17 Compliance timetables
 (a) A practitioner who does not hold privileges at a hospital shall submit an application to the Board seeking
approval pursuant to the alternative privileging process set forth at N.J.A.C. 13:35- 4A.12, prior to offering
such services. Notwithstanding any other provision in this subchapter, a practitioner who has submitted an
application for alternative privileging by December 16, 2003, may continue to offer services for which
privileges have been requested until such time as the Board acts upon that application.
(b) A practitioner or physician who offers anesthesia services in an office setting shall purchase and install the
equipment and safety systems, as required pursuant to this rule prior to offering such services.

13:35-4A.18 Enforcement
 (a) Any violation of N.J.A.C. 13:35-4A.3 through 4A.17 shall be deemed to be professional misconduct
within the meaning of N.J.S.A. 45:1-21(e) and may further constitute violation of other law or rule, as
applicable to the circumstances.


New Mexico – Medical

None


New Mexico – Osteopathic

None


                                                        90
Northern Mariana Islands

None


New York

McKinney's Public Health Law § 230-d. Office-based surgery
1. The following words or phrases, as used in this section shall have the following meanings:
(a) “Accredited status” means the full accreditation by nationally-recognized accrediting agency(ies)
determined by the commissioner.
(b) “Adverse event” means (i) patient death within thirty days; (ii) unplanned transfer to a hospital; (iii)
unscheduled hospital admission, within seventy-two hours of the office-based surgery, for longer than
twenty-four hours; or (iv) any other serious or life-threatening event.
(c) “Deep sedation” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which (i) the patient cannot
be easily aroused but responds purposefully following repeated painful stimulation; (ii) the patient's ability to
maintain independent ventilatory function may be impaired; (iii) the patient may require assistance in
maintaining a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate; and (iv) the patient's
cardiovascular function is usually maintained without assistance.
(d) “General anesthesia” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which (i) the patient is
not arousable, even by painful stimulation; (ii) the patient's ability to maintain independent ventilatory
function is often impaired; (iii) the patient, in many cases, often requires assistance in maintaining a patent
airway and positive pressure ventilation may be required because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or
drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function; and (iv) the patient's cardiovascular function may be
impaired.
(e) “Moderate sedation” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which (i) the patient
responds purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation; (ii) no
interventions are required to maintain a patent airway; (iii) spontaneous ventilation is adequate; and (iv) the
patient's cardiovascular function is usually maintained without assistance.
(f) “Minimal sedation” means a drug-induced state during which (i) patients respond normally to verbal
commands; (ii) cognitive function and coordination may be impaired; and (iii) ventilatory and cardiovascular
functions are unaffected.
(g) “Minor procedures” means (i) procedures that can be performed safely with a minimum of discomfort
where the likelihood of complications requiring hospitalization is minimal; (ii) procedures performed with
local or topical anesthesia; or (iii) liposuction with removal of less than 500 cc of fat under unsupplemented
local anesthesia.
(h) “Office-based surgery” means any surgical or other invasive procedure, requiring general anesthesia,
moderate sedation, or deep sedation, and any liposuction procedure, where such surgical or other invasive
procedure or liposuction is performed by a licensee in a location other than a hospital, as such term is
defined in article twenty-eight of this chapter, excluding minor procedures and procedures requiring minimal
sedation.
(i) [Eff. until Feb. 17, 2014. See, also, par. (i) below.] “Licensee” shall mean an individual licensed or
otherwise authorized under articles one hundred thirty-one or one hundred thirty-one-B of the education
law.
(i) [Eff. Feb. 17, 2014. See, also, par. (i) above.]“Licensee” shall mean an individual licensed or otherwise
authorized under article one hundred thirty-one, one hundred thirty-one-B, individuals who have obtained an
issuance of a privilege to perform podiatric standard or advanced ankle surgery pursuant to subdivisions one
and two of section seven thousand nine of the education law.
2. Licensee practices in which office-based surgery is performed shall obtain and maintain full accredited
status.

                                                       91
3. A licensee may only perform office-based surgery in a setting that has obtained and maintains full
accredited status.
4. Licensees shall report adverse events to the department's patient safety center within one business day of
the occurrence of such adverse event. Licensees shall also report any suspected health care disease
transmission originating in their practices to the patient safety center within one business day of becoming
aware of such suspected transmission. For purposes of this section, health care disease transmission shall
mean the transmission of a reportable communicable disease that is blood borne from a health care
professional to a patient or between patients as a result of improper infection control practices by the health
care professional. The reported data shall be subject to all confidentiality provisions provided by section
twenty-nine hundred ninety-eight-e of this chapter.
5. The commissioner shall make, adopt, promulgate and enforce such rules and regulations, as he or she may
deem appropriate, to effectuate the purposes of this section. Where any rule or regulation under this section
would affect the scope of practice of a health care practitioner licensed, registered or certified under title
eight of the education law other than those licensed under articles one hundred thirty-one or one hundred
thirty-one-B of the education law, the rule or regulation shall be made with the concurrence of the
commissioner of education.

McKinney's Public Health Law § 2998-e. Reporting of adverse events in office based surgery
1. The commissioner shall enter into agreements with accrediting agencies pursuant to which the accrediting
agencies shall report, at a minimum, aggregate data on adverse events for all office-based surgical practices
accredited by the accrediting agencies to the department. The department may disclose reports of aggregate
data to the public.
2. The information required to be collected, maintained and reported directly to the department pursuant
to section two hundred thirty-d of this chapter shall be kept confidential and shall not be released, except to
the department and except as required or permitted under subdivision nine-a and subparagraph
(v) of paragraph (a) of subdivision ten of section two hundred thirty of this chapter. Notwithstanding any
other provision of law, none of such information shall be subject to disclosure under article six of the public
officers law or article thirty-one of the civil practice law and rules.
3. The commissioner shall make, adopt, promulgate and enforce such rules and regulations, as he or she may
deem appropriate, to effectuate the purposes of this section. Where any rule or regulation under this section
would affect the scope of practice of a health care practitioner licensed, registered or certified under title
eight of the education law other than those licensed under articles one hundred thirty-one or one hundred
thirty-one-B of the education law, the rule or regulation shall be made with the concurrence of the
commissioner of education.


North Carolina

Office Based Procedures Position Statement
http://www.ncmedboard.org/position_statements/detail/office-based_procedures/

Preface
This Position Statement on Office-Based Procedures is an interpretive statement that attempts to identify
and explain the standards of practice for Office-Based Procedures in North Carolina. The Board‟s intention
is to articulate existing professional standards and not to promulgate a new standard.
This Position Statement is in the form of guidelines designed to assure patient safety and identify the criteria
by which the Board will assess the conduct of its licensees in considering disciplinary action arising out of the
performance of office-based procedures. Thus, it is expected that the licensee who follows the guidelines set
forth below will avoid disciplinary action by the Board. However, this Position Statement is not intended to
be comprehensive or to set out exhaustively every standard that might apply in every circumstance. The

                                                       92
silence of the Position Statement on any particular matter should not be construed as the lack of an
enforceable standard.

General guidelines
The Physician’s professional and legal obligation
The North Carolina Medical Board has adopted the guidelines contained in this Position Statement in order
to assure patients have access to safe, high quality office-based surgical and special procedures. The
guidelines further assure that a licensed physician with appropriate qualifications takes responsibility for the
supervision of all aspects of the perioperative surgical, procedural and anesthesia care delivered in the office
setting, including compliance with all aspects of these guidelines.
These obligations are to be understood (as explained in the Preface) as existing standards identified by the
Board in an effort to assure patient safety and provide licensees guidance to avoid practicing below the
standards of practice in such a manner that the licensee would be exposed to possible disciplinary action for
unprofessional conduct as contemplated in N.C. Gen. Stat. § 90-14(a)(6).
Exemptions
These guidelines do not apply to Level I procedures.
Written policies and procedures
Written policies and procedures should be maintained to assist office-based practices in providing safe and
quality surgical or special procedure care, assure consistent personnel performance, and promote an
awareness and understanding of the inherent rights of patients.
Emergency procedure and transfer protocol
The physician who performs the surgical or special procedure should assure that a transfer protocol is in
place, preferably with a hospital that is licensed in the jurisdiction in which it is located and that is within
reasonable proximity of the office where the procedure is performed.
All office personnel should be familiar with and capable of carrying out written emergency instructions. The
instructions should be followed in the event of an emergency, any untoward anesthetic, medical or surgical
complications, or other conditions making hospitalization of a patient necessary. The instructions should
include arrangements for immediate contact of emergency medical services when indicated and when
advanced cardiac life support is needed. When emergency medical services are not indicated, the instructions
should include procedures for timely escort of the patient to the hospital or to an appropriate practitioner.
Infection control
The practice should comply with state and federal regulations regarding infection control. For all surgical and
special procedures, the level of sterilization should meet applicable industry and occupational safety
requirements. There should be a procedure and schedule for cleaning, disinfecting and sterilizing equipment
and patient care items. Personnel should be trained in infection control practices, implementation of
universal precautions, and disposal of hazardous waste products. Protective clothing and equipment should
be readily available.
Performance improvement
A performance improvement program should be implemented to provide a mechanism to review yearly the
current practice activities and quality of care provided to patients.
Performance improvement activities should include, but are not limited to, review of mortalities; the
appropriateness and necessity of procedures performed; emergency transfers; reportable complications, and
resultant outcomes (including all postoperative infections); analysis of patient satisfaction surveys and
complaints; and identification of undesirable trends (such as diagnostic errors, unacceptable results, follow-
up of abnormal test results, medication errors, and system problems). Findings of the performance
improvement program should be incorporated into the practice‟s educational activity.
Medical records and informed consent
The practice should have a procedure for initiating and maintaining a health record for every patient
evaluated or treated. The record should include a procedure code or suitable narrative description of the
procedure and should have sufficient information to identify the patient, support the diagnosis, justify the
treatment, and document the outcome and required follow-up care.
                                                       93
Medical history, physical examination, lab studies obtained within 30 days of the scheduled procedure, and
pre-anesthesia examination and evaluation information and data should be adequately documented in the
medical record.
The medical records also should contain documentation of the intraoperative and postoperative monitoring
required by these guidelines.
Written documentation of informed consent should be included in the medical record.
Credentialing of physicians
A physician who performs surgical or special procedures in an office requiring the administration of
anesthesia services should be credentialed to perform that surgical or special procedure by a hospital, an
ambulatory surgical facility, or substantially comply with criteria established by the Board.
Criteria to be considered by the Board in assessing a physician‟s competence to perform a surgical or special
procedure include, without limitation:
         state licensure;
         procedure specific education, training, experience and successful evaluation appropriate for the
         patient population being treated (i.e., pediatrics);
         for physicians, board certification, board eligibility or completion of a training program in a field of
         specialization recognized by the ACGME or by a national medical specialty board that is recognized
         by the ABMS for expertise and proficiency in that field. For purposes of this requirement, board
         eligibility or certification is relevant only if the board in question is recognized by the ABMS, AOA,
         or equivalent board certification as determined by the Board;
         professional misconduct and malpractice history;
         participation in peer and quality review;
         participation in continuing education consistent with the statutory requirements and requirements of
         the physician‟s professional organization;
         to the extent such coverage is reasonably available in North Carolina, malpractice insurance coverage
         for the surgical or special procedures being performed in the office;
         procedure-specific competence (and competence in the use of new procedures and technology),
         which should encompass education, training, experience and evaluation, and which may include the
         following:
               o adherence to professional society standards;
               o credentials approved by a nationally recognized accrediting or credentialing entity; or
               o didactic course complemented by hands-on, observed experience; training is to be followed
                   by a specified number of cases supervised by a practitioner already competent in the
                   respective procedure, in accordance with professional society standards.
If the physician administers the anesthetic as part of a surgical or special procedure (Level II only), he or she
also should have documented competence to deliver the level of anesthesia administered.
Accreditation
After one year of operation following the adoption of these guidelines, any physician who performs Level II
or Level III procedures in an office should be able to demonstrate, upon request by the Board, substantial
compliance with these guidelines, or should obtain accreditation of the office setting by an approved
accreditation agency or organization. The approved accreditation agency or organization should submit, upon
request by the Board, a summary report for the office accredited by that agency.
All expenses related to accreditation or compliance with these guidelines shall be paid by the physician who
performs the surgical or special procedures.
Patient selection
The physician who performs the surgical or special procedure should evaluate the condition of the patient
and the potential risks associated with the proposed treatment plan. The physician also is responsible for
determining that the patient has an adequate support system to provide for necessary follow-up care. Patients
with pre-existing medical problems or other conditions, who are at undue risk for complications, should be
referred to an appropriate specialist for preoperative consultation.

                                                       94
ASA physical status classifications
Patients that are considered high risk or are ASA physical status classification III, IV, or V and require a
general anesthetic for the surgical procedure, should not have the surgical or special procedure performed in
a physician office setting.
Candidates for Level II procedures
Patients with an ASA physical status classification I, II, or III may be acceptable candidates for office-based
surgical or special procedures requiring conscious sedation/ analgesia. ASA physical status classification III
patients should be specifically addressed in the operating manual for the office. They may be acceptable
candidates if deemed so by a physician qualified to assess the specific disability and its impact on anesthesia
and surgical or procedural risks.
Candidates for Level III procedures
Only patients with an ASA physical status classification I or II, who have no airway abnormality, and possess
an unremarkable anesthetic history are acceptable candidates for Level III procedures.
Surgical or special procedure guidelines
Patient preparation
A medical history and physical examination to evaluate the risk of anesthesia and of the proposed surgical or
special procedure should be performed by a physician qualified to assess the impact of co-existing disease
processes on surgery and anesthesia. Appropriate laboratory studies should be obtained within 30 days of the
planned surgical procedure.
A pre-procedure examination and evaluation should be conducted prior to the surgical or special procedure
by the physician. The information and data obtained during the course of this evaluation should be
documented in the medical record
The physician performing the surgical or special procedure also should:
         ensure that an appropriate pre-anesthetic examination and evaluation is performed proximate to the
         procedure;
         prescribe the anesthetic, unless the anesthesia is administered by an anesthesiologist in which case the
         anesthesiologist may prescribe the anesthetic;
         ensure that qualified health care professionals participate;
         remain physically present during the intraoperative period and be immediately available for diagnosis,
         treatment, and management of anesthesia-related complications or emergencies; and
         ensure the provision of indicated post-anesthesia care.
Discharge criteria
Criteria for discharge for all patients who have received anesthesia should include the following:
         confirmation of stable vital signs;
         stable oxygen saturation levels;
         return to pre-procedure mental status;
         adequate pain control;
         minimal bleeding, nausea and vomiting;
         resolving neural blockade, resolution of the neuraxial blockade; and
         eligible to be discharged in the company of a competent adult.
Information to the patient
The patient should receive verbal instruction understandable to the patient or guardian, confirmed by written
post-operative instructions and emergency contact numbers. The instructions should include:
         the procedure performed;
         information about potential complications;
         telephone numbers to be used by the patient to discuss complications or should questions arise;
         instructions for medications prescribed and pain management;
         information regarding the follow-up visit date, time and location; and
         designated treatment hospital in the event of emergency.
Reportable complications
Physicians performing surgical or special procedures in the office should maintain timely records, which

                                                          95
should be provided to the Board within three business days of receipt of a Board inquiry. Records of
reportable complications should be in writing and should include:
Records of reportable complications should be in writing and should include:
         physician‟s name and license number;
         date and time of the occurrence;
         office where the occurrence took place;
         name and address of the patient;
         surgical or special procedure involved;
         type and dosage of sedation or anesthesia utilized in the procedure; and
         circumstances involved in the occurrence.
Equipment maintenance
All anesthesia-related equipment and monitors should be maintained to current operating room standards.
All devices should have regular service/maintenance checks at least annually or per manufacturer
recommendations. Service/maintenance checks should be performed by appropriately qualified biomedical
personnel. Prior to the administration of anesthesia, all equipment/monitors should be checked using the
current FDA recommendations as a guideline. Records of equipment checks should be maintained in a
separate, dedicated log which must be made available to the Board upon request. Documentation of any
criteria deemed to be substandard should include a clear description of the problem and the intervention. If
equipment is utilized despite the problem, documentation should clearly indicate that patient safety is not in
jeopardy.
The emergency supplies should be maintained and inspected by qualified personnel for presence and
function of all appropriate equipment and drugs at intervals established by protocol to ensure that equipment
is functional and present, drugs are not expired, and office personnel are familiar with equipment and
supplies. Records of emergency supply checks should be maintained in a separate, dedicated log and made
available to the Board upon request.
A physician should not permit anyone to tamper with a safety system or any monitoring device or disconnect
an alarm system.
Compliance with relevant health laws
Federal and state laws and regulations that affect the practice should be identified and procedures developed
to comply with those requirements.
Nothing in this position statement affects the scope of activities subject to or exempted from the North
Carolina health care facility licensure laws. (1)
Patient rights
Office personnel should be informed about the basic rights of patients and understand the importance of
maintaining patients‟ rights. A patients‟ rights document should be readily available upon request.
Enforcement
In that the Board believes that these guidelines constitute the accepted and prevailing standards of practice
for office-based procedures in North Carolina, failure to substantially comply with these guidelines creates
the risk of disciplinary action by the Board.

Level II guidelines
Personnel
The physician who performs the surgical or special procedure or a health care professional who is present
during the intraoperative and postoperative periods should be ACLS certified, and at least one other health
care professional should be BCLS certified. In an office where anesthesia services are provided to infants and
children, personnel should be appropriately trained to handle pediatric emergencies (i.e., APLS or PALS
certified).
Recovery should be monitored by a registered nurse or other health care professional practicing within the
scope of his or her license or certification who is BCLS certified and has the capability of administering
medications as required for analgesia, nausea/vomiting, or other indications.

                                                      96
Surgical or special procedure guidelines
Intraoperative care and monitoring
The physician who performs Level II procedures that require conscious sedation in an office should ensure
that monitoring is provided by a separate health care professional not otherwise involved in the surgical or
special procedure. Monitoring should include, when clinically indicated for the patient:
         direct observation of the patient and, to the extent practicable, observation of the patient‟s responses
         to verbal commands;
         pulse oximetry should be performed continuously (an alternative method of measuring oxygen
         saturation may be substituted for pulse oximetry if the method has been demonstrated to have at
         least equivalent clinical effectiveness);
         an electrocardiogram monitor should be used continuously on the patient;
         the patient‟s blood pressure, pulse rate, and respirations should be measured and recorded at least
         every five minutes; and
         the body temperature of a pediatric patient should be measured continuously.
Clinically relevant findings during intraoperative monitoring should be documented in the patient‟s medical
record.
Postoperative care and monitoring
The physician who performs the surgical or special procedure should evaluate the patient immediately upon
completion of the surgery or special procedure and the anesthesia.
Care of the patient may then be transferred to the care of a qualified health care professional in the recovery
area. A registered nurse or other health care professional practicing within the scope of his or her license or
certification and who is BCLS certified and has the capability of administering medications as required for
analgesia, nausea/vomiting, or other indications should monitor the patient postoperatively.
At least one health care professional who is ACLS certified should be immediately available until all patients
have met discharge criteria. Prior to leaving the operating room or recovery area, each patient should meet
discharge criteria.
Monitoring in the recovery area should include pulse oximetry and non-invasive blood pressure
measurement. The patient should be assessed periodically for level of consciousness, pain relief, or any
untoward complication. Clinically relevant findings during post-operative monitoring should be documented
in the patient‟s medical record.
Equipment and supplies
Unless another availability standard is clearly stated, the following equipment and supplies should be present
in all offices where Level II procedures are performed:
         full and current crash cart at the location where the anesthetizing is being carried out. (the crash cart
         inventory should include appropriate resuscitative equipment and medications for surgical,
         procedural or anesthetic complications);
         age-appropriate sized monitors, resuscitative equipment, supplies, and medication in accordance with
         the scope of the surgical or special procedures and the anesthesia services provided;
         emergency power source able to produce adequate power to run required equipment for a minimum
         of two (2) hours;
         electrocardiographic monitor;
         noninvasive blood pressure monitor;
         pulse oximeter;
         continuous suction device;
         endotracheal tubes, laryngoscopes;
         positive pressure ventilation device (e.g., Ambu);
         reliable source of oxygen;
         emergency intubation equipment;
         adequate operating room lighting;
         appropriate sterilization equipment; and
         IV solution and IV equipment.
                                                        97
Level III guidelines
Personel
Anesthesia should be administered by an anesthesiologist or a CRNA supervised by a physician. The
physician who performs the surgical or special procedure should not administer the anesthesia. The
anesthesia provider should not be otherwise involved in the surgical or special procedure.
The physician or the anesthesia provider should be ACLS certified, and at least one other health care
professional should be BCLS certified. In an office where anesthesia services are provided to infants and
children, personnel should be appropriately trained to handle pediatric emergencies (i.e., APLS or PALS
certified).
Surgical or special procedure guidelines
Intraoperative monitoring
The physician who performs procedures in an office that require major conduction blockade, deep
sedation/analgesia, or general anesthesia should ensure that monitoring is provided as follows when clinically
indicated for the patient:
         direct observation of the patient and, to the extent practicable, observation of the patient‟s responses
         to verbal commands;
         pulse oximetry should be performed continuously. Any alternative method of measuring oxygen
         saturation may be substituted for pulse oximetry if the method has been demonstrated to have at
         least equivalent clinical effectiveness;
         an electrocardiogram monitor should be used continuously on the patient;
         the patient‟s blood pressure, pulse rate, and respirations should be measured and recorded at least
         every five minutes;
         monitoring should be provided by a separate health care professional not otherwise involved in the
         surgical or special procedure;
         end-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring should be performed on the patient continuously during
         endotracheal anesthesia;
         an in-circuit oxygen analyzer should be used to monitor the oxygen concentration within the
         breathing circuit, displaying the oxygen percent of the total inspiratory mixture;
         a respirometer (volumeter) should be used to measure exhaled tidal volume whenever the breathing
         circuit of a patient allows;
         the body temperature of each patient should be measured continuously; and
         an esophageal or precordial stethoscope should be utilized on the patient.
Clinically relevant findings during intraoperative monitoring should be documented in the patient‟s medical
record.
Postoperative care and monitoring
The physician who performs the surgical or special procedure should evaluate the patient immediately upon
completion of the surgery or special procedure and the anesthesia.
Care of the patient may then be transferred to the care of a qualified health care professional in the recovery
area. Qualified health care professionals capable of administering medications as required for analgesia,
nausea/vomiting, or other indications should monitor the patient postoperatively.
Recovery from a Level III procedure should be monitored by an ACLS certified (PALS or APLS certified
when appropriate) health care professional using appropriate criteria for the level of anesthesia. At least one
health care professional who is ACLS certified should be immediately available during postoperative
monitoring and until the patient meets discharge criteria. Each patient should meet discharge criteria prior to
leaving the operating or recovery area.
Monitoring in the recovery area should include pulse oximetry and non-invasive blood pressure
measurement. The patient should be assessed periodically for level of consciousness, pain relief, or any
untoward complication. Clinically relevant findings during postoperative monitoring should be documented
in the patient‟s medical record.

                                                       98
Equipment and supplies
Unless another availability standard is clearly stated, the following equipment and supplies should be present
in all offices where Level III procedures are performed:
         full and current crash cart at the location where the anesthetizing is being carried out (the crash cart
         inventory should include appropriate resuscitative equipment and medications for surgical,
         procedural or anesthetic complications);
         age-appropriate sized monitors, resuscitative equipment, supplies, and medication in accordance with
         the scope of the surgical or special procedures and the anesthesia services provided;
         emergency power source able to produce adequate power to run required equipment for a minimum
         of two (2) hours;
         electrocardiographic monitor;
         noninvasive blood pressure monitor;
         pulse oximeter;
         continuous suction device;
         endotracheal tubes, and laryngoscopes;
         positive pressure ventilation device (e.g., Ambu);
         reliable source of oxygen;
         emergency intubation equipment;
         adequate operating room lighting;
         appropriate sterilization equipment;
         IV solution and IV equipment;
         sufficient ampules of dantrolene sodium should be emergently available;
         esophageal or precordial stethoscope;
         emergency resuscitation equipment;
         temperature monitoring device;
         end tidal CO2 monitor (for endotracheal anesthesia); and
         appropriate operating or procedure table.

Definitions and Acronyms
AAAASF - the American Association for the Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities.
AAAHC - the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care
ABMS - the American Board of Medical Specialties
ACGME - the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education
ACLS certified - a person who holds a current “ACLS Provider” credential certifying that they have
successfully completed the national cognitive and skills evaluations in accordance with the curriculum of the
American Heart Association for the Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Program.
Advanced cardiac life support certified - a licensee that has successfully completed and recertified periodically
an advanced cardiac life support course offered by a recognized accrediting organization appropriate to the
licensee‟s field of practice. For example, for those licensees treating adult patients, training in ACLS is
appropriate; for those treating children, training in PALS or APLS is appropriate.
Ambulatory surgical facility - a facility licensed under Article 6, Part D of Chapter 131E of the North
Carolina General Statutes or if the facility is located outside North Carolina, under that jurisdiction‟s relevant
facility licensure laws.
Anesthesia provider - an anesthesiologist or CRNA.
Anesthesiologist - a physician who has successfully completed a residency program in anesthesiology
approved by the ACGME or AOA, or who is currently a diplomate of either the American Board of
Anesthesiology or the American Osteopathic Board of Anesthesiology, or who was made a Fellow of the
American College of Anesthesiology before 1982.
AOA - the American Osteopathic Association
APLS certified - a person who holds a current certification in advanced pediatric life support from a program
approved by the American Heart Association.
                                                        99
Approved accrediting agency or organization - a nationally recognized accrediting agency (e.g., AAAASF;
AAAHC, JCAHO, and HFAP) including any agency approved by the Board.
ASA -the American Society of Anesthesiologists
BCLS certified - a person who holds a current certification in basic cardiac life support from a program
approved by the American Heart Association.
Board - the North Carolina Medical Board.
Conscious sedation -the administration of a drug or drugs in order to induce that state of consciousness in a
patient which allows the patient to tolerate unpleasant medical procedures without losing defensive reflexes,
adequate cardio-respiratory function and the ability to respond purposefully to verbal command or to tactile
stimulation if verbal response is not possible as, for example, in the case of a small child or deaf person.
Conscious sedation does not include an oral dose of pain medication or minimal pre-procedure
tranquilization such as the administration of a pre-procedure oral dose of a benzodiazepine designed to calm
the patient. “Conscious sedation” should be synonymous with the term “sedation/analgesia” as used by the
American Society of Anesthesiologists.
Credentialed -a physician that has been granted, and continues to maintain, the privilege by a hospital or
ambulatory surgical facility licensed in the jurisdiction in which it is located to provide specified services, such
as surgical or special procedures or the administration of one or more types of anesthetic agents or
procedures, or can show documentation of adequate training and experience.
CRNA -a registered nurse who is authorized by the North Carolina Board of Nursing to perform nurse
anesthesia activities.
Deep sedation/analgesia - the administration of a drug or drugs which produces depression of consciousness
during which patients cannot be easily aroused but can respond purposefully following repeated or painful
stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may require
assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular
function is usually maintained.
FDA -the Food and Drug Administration.
General anesthesia - a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable, even by
painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired. Patients
often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation may be required
because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function.
Cardiovascular function may be impaired.
Health care professional - any office staff member who is licensed or certified by a recognized professional
or health care organization.
HFAP - the Health Facilities Accreditation Program, a division of the AOA.
Hospital -a facility licensed under Article 5, Part A of Chapter 131E of the North Carolina General Statutes
or if the facility is located outside North Carolina, under that jurisdiction‟s relevant facility licensure laws.
Immediately available - within the office.
JCAHO -the Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations
Level I procedures - any surgical or special procedures:
     1. that do not involve drug-induced alteration of consciousness;
     2. where preoperative medications are not required or used other than minimal preoperative
         tranquilization of the patient (anxiolysis of the patient);
     3. where the anesthesia required or used is local, topical, digital block, or none; and
     4. where the probability of complications requiring hospitalization is remote.
Level II procedures - any surgical or special procedures:
     1. that require the administration of local or peripheral nerve block, minor conduction blockade, Bier
         block, minimal sedation, or conscious sedation; and
     2. where there is only a moderate risk of surgical and/or anesthetic complications and the need for
         hospitalization as a result of these complications is unlikely.
Level III procedures - any surgical or special procedures:

                                                         100
     1. that require, or reasonably should require, the use of major conduction blockade, deep
         sedation/analgesia, or general anesthesia; and
     2. where there is only a moderate risk of surgical and/or anesthetic complications and the need for
         hospitalization as a result of these complications is unlikely.
Local anesthesia - the administration of an agent which produces a transient and reversible loss of sensation
in a circumscribed portion of the body.
Major conduction blockade - the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation in a
region of the body. Major conduction blocks include, but are not limited to, axillary, interscalene, and
supraclavicular block of the brachial plexus; spinal (subarachnoid), epidural and caudal blocks.
Minimal sedation (anxiolysis) - the administration of a drug or drugs which produces a state of consciousness
that allows the patient to tolerate unpleasant medical procedures while responding normally to verbal
commands. Cardiovascular or respiratory function should remain unaffected and defensive airway reflexes
should remain intact.
Minor conduction blockade - the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation in a
circumscribed area of the body (i.e., infiltration or local nerve block), or the block of a nerve by direct
pressure and refrigeration. Minor conduction blocks include, but are not limited to, intercostal, retrobulbar,
paravertebral, peribulbar, pudendal, sciatic nerve, and ankle blocks.
Monitoring - continuous, visual observation of a patient and regular observation of the patient as deemed
appropriate by the level of sedation or recovery using instruments to measure, display, and record physiologic
values such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration and oxygen saturation.
Office - a location at which incidental, limited ambulatory surgical procedures are performed and which is
not a licensed ambulatory surgical facility pursuant to Article 6, Part D of Chapter 131E of the North
Carolina General Statutes.
Operating room - that location in the office dedicated to the performance of surgery or special procedures.
OSHA -the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
PALS certified - a person who holds a current certification in pediatric advanced life support from a program
approved by the American Heart Association.
Physical status classification - a description of a patient used in determining if an office surgery or procedure
is appropriate. For purposes of these guidelines, ASA classifications will be used. The ASA enumerates
classification: I-normal, healthy patient; II-a patient with mild systemic disease; III a patient with severe
systemic disease limiting activity but not incapacitating; IV-a patient with incapacitating systemic disease that
is a constant threat to life; and V-moribund, patients not expected to live 24 hours with or without operation.
Physician -an individual holding an MD or DO degree licensed pursuant to the NC Medical Practice Act and
who performs surgical or special procedures covered by these guidelines.
Reasonable Proximity-The Board recognizes that reasonable proximity is a somewhat ambiguous standard.
The Board believes that the standard often used by hospitals of thirty (30) minutes travel time is a useful
benchmark.
Recovery area - a room or limited access area of an office dedicated to providing medical services to patients
recovering from surgical or special procedures or anesthesia.
Reportable complications - untoward events occurring at any time within forty-eight (48) hours of any
surgical or special procedure or the administration of anesthesia in an office setting including, but not limited
to, any of the following: paralysis, nerve injury, malignant hyperthermia, seizures, myocardial infarction,
pulmonary embolism, renal failure, significant cardiac events, respiratory arrest, aspiration of gastric contents,
cerebral vascular accident, transfusion reaction, pneumothorax, allergic reaction to anesthesia, unintended
hospitalization for more than twenty-four (24) hours, or death.
Special procedure - patient care that requires entering the body with instruments in a potentially painful
manner, or that requires the patient to be immobile, for a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure requiring
anesthesia services; for example, diagnostic or therapeutic endoscopy; invasive radiologic procedures,
pediatric magnetic resonance imaging; manipulation under anesthesia or endoscopic examination with the
use of general anesthesia.
Surgical procedure - the revision, destruction, incision, or structural alteration of human tissue performed
                                                        101
using a variety of methods and instruments and includes the operative and non-operative care of individuals
in need of such intervention, and demands pre-operative assessment, judgment, technical skill, post-operative
management, and follow-up.
Topical anesthesia - an anesthetic agent applied directly or by spray to the skin or mucous membranes,
intended to produce a transient and reversible loss of sensation to a circumscribed area.


North Dakota

None

Ohio

Chapter 4731–25. Anesthesia Standards

731-25-01 Definition of terms
As used in this chapter of the Administrative Code:
(A) “Anesthesia services” means administration of any drug or combination of drugs with the purpose of
creating deep sedation/analgesia, regional anesthesia or general anesthesia. Anesthesia services shall not
include the administration of topical or local anesthesia or moderate sedation/analgesia;
(B) “Certified copy of a patient record” means a copy of the patient record with a separate statement, signed
by the person making the copy and notarized, attesting that the copy is a “true and accurate copy of the
complete patient record”;
(C) “Deep sedation/analgesia” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients
cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. The ability to
independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may require assistance in maintaining
a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is usually
maintained;
(D) “General anesthesia” means a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not
arousable, even by painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often
impaired. Patients often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation
may be required because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular
function. Cardiovascular function may be impaired;
(E) “Local anesthesia” means the injection of a drug or combination of drugs to stop or prevent a painful
sensation in a circumscribed area of the body where a painful procedure is to be performed. Local anesthesia
includes local infiltration anesthesia, digital blocks and pudendal blocks. Local anesthesia does not involve
any systemic sedation;
(F) “Minimal sedation (anxiolysis)” means a drug-induced state during which patients respond normally to
verbal commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, ventilatory and
cardiovascular functions are unaffected. “Minimal sedation” shall not include sedation achieved through
intravenous administration of drugs;
(G) “Minor surgery” means surgery that can safely and comfortably be performed under topical or local
anesthesia without more than minimal oral or intramuscular preoperative sedation. Minor surgery includes,
but is not limited to, surgery of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and other adjacent tissue, the incision and
drainage of superficial abscesses, limited endoscopies such as proctoscopies, arthrocentesis and closed
reduction of simple fractures or small joint dislocations;
(H) “Moderate sedation/analgesia” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients
respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation. Reflex
withdrawal from a painful stimulus is not a purposeful response. No interventions are required to maintain a
patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate. Cardiovascular function is maintained;

                                                     102
(I) “Office setting” means an office or portion thereof which is utilized to provide medical and/or surgical
services to the physician's own patients. Office setting does not include an office or portion thereof licensed
as an ambulatory surgical facility by the department of health pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 3702.30
of the Revised Code, a hospital registered with the department of health pursuant to section 3701.07 of the
Revised Code, or an emergency department located within such a hospital;
(J) “Regional anesthesia” means the administration of a drug or combination of drugs to interrupt nerve
impulses without loss of consciousness and includes epidural, caudal, spinal, axillary, stellate ganglion blocks,
regional blocks (such as axillary, bier, retobulbar, peribulbar, interscalene, subarachnoid, supraclavicular, and
infraclavicular), and brachial anesthesia. Regional anesthesia does not include digital or pudendal blocks;
(K) “Special procedure” means a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure which is not surgery which requires
entering the body with instruments in a potentially painful manner, or which requires the patient to be
immobile, and which requires the provision of anesthesia services. Special procedures include, but are not
limited to, diagnostic or therapeutic endoscopy that explores existing channels and involves no transverse of
a body wall; invasive radiologic procedures; pediatric magnetic resonance imaging; manipulation under
anesthesia; or endoscopic examination with the use of general anesthesia;
(L) “Surgery” means the excision or resection, partial or complete, destruction, incision or other structural
alteration of human tissue by any means, including through the use of lasers, performed upon the body of a
living human being for the purposes of preserving health, diagnosing or curing disease, repairing injury,
correcting deformity or defects, prolonging life, relieving suffering, or for aesthetic, reconstructive or
cosmetic purposes, to include, but not be limited to: incision or curettage of tissue or an organ; suture or
other repair of tissue or organ, including a closed or an open reduction of a fracture; extraction of tissue,
including premature extraction of the products of conception from the uterus; and, insertion of natural or
artificial implants. Surgery shall not include the suturing of minor lacerations;
(M) “Topical anesthesia” means the application of a drug or combination of drugs directly or by spray to the
skin or mucous membranes which is intended to produce a transient and reversible loss of sensation to a
circumscribed area.
(N) “Tumescent local anesthesia” means subcutaneous infiltration of high volumes of crystalloid fluid
containing low concentrations of lidocaine and epinephrine. For purposes of this chapter of the
Administrative Code, “tumescent local anesthesia” shall be considered “local anesthesia” as that term is
defined in paragraph (E) of this rule.

4731-25-02 General provisions
 (A) Anesthesia services in the office setting shall be provided only by physicians and osteopathic physicians
licensed pursuant to Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code; podiatric physicians licensed pursuant to Chapter
4731. of the Revised Code and practicing within the scope of practice for podiatric physicians; and certified
registered nurse anesthetists licensed pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and practicing within
the scope of practice for certified registered nurse anesthetists; and only in accordance with Chapter 4731-25
of the Administrative Code.
(B) Nothing in this chapter of the Administrative Code shall be interpreted to permit a podiatric physician to
perform surgery or procedures in an office setting using general anesthesia.
(C) Nothing in this chapter of the Administrative Code shall be interpreted to prohibit a registered nurse
with the appropriate education and training from carrying out a physician's order to maintain a patient within
an intensive care unit of a hospital at the level of sedation determined by the physician to be appropriate and
necessary for that patient's care, so long as the patient remains within the intensive care unit with appropriate
monitoring and so long as the physician's order is written in compliance with all applicable laws.
(D) A physician or podiatric physician shall not perform on more than one patient at the same time
procedures or surgery using moderate sedation/analgesia or anesthesia services.
(E) A certified registered nurse anesthetist providing moderate sedation/analgesia or anesthesia services in
the office setting shall be under the direction of a podiatric physician acting within the podiatric physician's
scope of practice in accordance with section 4731.51 of the Revised Code or a physician, and, when
administering anesthesia, the certified registered nurse anesthetist shall be in the immediate presence of the
                                                       103
podiatric physician or physician. For purposes of this chapter of the Administrative Code, a physician shall
not be considered to have supervised the administration and monitoring of moderate sedation/analgesia or
anesthesia services if the moderate sedation/analgesia or anesthesia services were administered and
monitored by a physician anesthesiologist.
(F) “Surgery” shall not be interpreted so as to prohibit a registered nurse from performing tasks that are
within the scope of practice of the registered nurse, so long as the registered nurse's activities are in
accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.
(G) This chapter of the Administrative Code shall not apply to surgeries or special procedures in which the
level of anesthesia is limited to minimal sedation as that term is defined in this chapter of the Administrative
Code, or which use only local or topical anesthetic agents, and which are performed in an office setting
except that liposuction procedures performed under tumescent local anesthesia shall be subject to the
provisions of rule 4731-25-05 and 4731-25-06.
(H) Procedures or surgery utilizing moderate sedation/analgesia or anesthesia services shall be performed in
the office setting only on patients who are evaluated as level P1 or P2 according to the American society of
anesthesiologists physical status classification system current at the effective date of this rule.

4731-25-03 Standards for surgery using moderate sedation/analgesia
 (A) A physician or podiatric physician performing procedures or surgery in the office setting during which
moderate sedation/analgesia is administered shall:
(1) Demonstrate sufficient education, training and experience needed to conform to the minimal standards of
care of similar practitioners under the same or similar circumstances by meeting at least one of the following
criteria:
(a) Holding current privileges at a local hospital accredited by the joint commission on accreditation of
healthcare organizations or the American osteopathic association or at a local ambulatory surgical facility
licensed by the department of health for the procedure or surgery being performed;
(b) Being board certified by a specialty board recognized by the American board of medical specialties or the
American osteopathic association or, if a podiatric physician, is board certified by the American board of
podiatric surgery; and the surgery or procedure being performed is generally recognized as being within the
usual course of practice of that specialty;
(c) Having successfully completed a residency training program approved by the accreditation council for
graduate medical education of the American medical association or the American osteopathic association or,
if a podiatric physician, having successfully completed at least a twelve month residency in podiatric surgery
approved by the council on podiatric medical education; and the surgery or procedure being performed is
generally recognized as being within the usual course of practice of that specialty; or
(d) Having successfully completed a didactic course supplemented by direct hands-on, monitored experience
in the surgery or procedure being performed, and the surgery or procedure being performed is generally
recognized as being within the usual course of practice of the specialty of the physician.
(2) Have current (within the immediately previous two years) advanced cardiac life support/advanced trauma
life support training, or, in the case of pediatric patients under the age of thirteen, have current (within the
immediately previous two years) pediatric advanced life support training.
(3) Ensure that assisting personnel are competent to administer and monitor moderate sedation/analgesia
and to manage emergencies such as loss of airway, compromise of cardiovascular functions or anaphylaxis.
(4) A physician or podiatric physician performing surgeries or procedures using moderate sedation/analgesia
in the office setting shall:
(a) Hold privileges to provide moderate sedation/analgesia from a local hospital accredited by the joint
commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations or the American osteopathic association or from a
local ambulatory surgical facility licensed by the department of health; or
(b) Have documented evidence of having completed at least five hours of category I continuing medical
education relating to the delivery of moderate sedation/analgesia during the current or most recent past
biennial registration period, such requirement to become effective on the one-hundred-eighty-first day
following the effective date of this rule.
                                                       104
(B) Moderate sedation/analgesia may be administered in the office setting by only the following:
(1) A physician who holds privileges to provide moderate sedation/analgesia from a local hospital accredited
by the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations or the American osteopathic association
or from a local ambulatory surgical facility licensed by the department of health;
(2) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who is acting under the supervision of and in the immediate
presence of a physician or podiatric physician;
(3) A registered nurse who is acting under the supervision and in the immediate presence of a physician or
podiatric physician, provided that such registered nurse shall only administer specifically prescribed doses of
drugs selected by the physician or podiatric physician who shall be continuously present in the anesthetizing
location during the administration of those drugs.
(C) The person administering and monitoring the moderate sedation/analgesia shall be at all times present in
the anesthetizing location with the patient and cannot be the practitioner while performing the surgery or
procedure. Further, the person administering and monitoring the moderate sedation/analgesia shall meet the
training requirements of paragraph (A)(2) of this rule.
(D) A violation of any provision of this rule, as determined by the board, shall constitute “a departure from,
or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar
circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established,” as that clause is used in division (B)(6)
of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.

4731-25-04 Standards for surgery using anesthesia services
 (A) A physician or podiatric physician performing special procedures or surgery in the office setting during
which anesthesia services are provided shall:
(1) Demonstrate sufficient education, training and experience needed to conform to the minimal standards of
care of similar practitioners under the same or similar circumstances by meeting at least one of the following
criteria:
(a) Holding current privileges at a local hospital accredited by the joint commission on accreditation of
healthcare organizations or the American osteopathic association or at a local ambulatory surgical facility
licensed by the department of health for the special procedure or surgery being performed;
(b) Being board certified by a specialty board recognized by the American board of medical specialties or the
American osteopathic association or, if a podiatric physician, is board certified by the American board of
podiatric surgery; and the surgery or procedure being performed is generally recognized as being within the
usual course of practice of that specialty; or,
(c) Having successfully completed a residency training program approved by the accreditation council for
graduate medical education of the American medical association or the American osteopathic association or,
if a podiatric physician, having successfully completed at least a twelve month residency in podiatric surgery
approved by the council on podiatric medical education; and the surgery or procedure being performed is
generally recognized as being within the usual course of practice of that specialty.
(2) Have current (within the immediately previous two years) advanced cardiac life support/advanced trauma
life support training or, in the case of pediatric patients under the age of thirteen, have current (within the
immediately previous two years) pediatric advanced life support training.
(3) Ensure that assisting personnel are competent to administer and monitor anesthesia services and to
manage emergencies.
(4) A physician or podiatric physician performing surgeries or procedures using anesthesia services in the
office setting shall:
(a) Hold privileges to provide anesthesia services from a local hospital accredited by the joint commission on
accreditation of healthcare organizations or the American osteopathic association or from a local ambulatory
surgical facility licensed by the department of health; or
(b) Have successfully completed a residency training program approved by the accreditation council for
graduate medical education of the American medical association or the American osteopathic association in
anesthesia; or

                                                        105
(c) Have documented evidence of having completed at least twenty hours of category I continuing medical
education relating to the delivery of anesthesia services during the current or most recent past biennial
registration period, such requirement to become effective on the one-hundred-eighty-first day following the
effective date of this rule.
(B) Anesthesia services may be administered in the office setting by only the following:
(1) A physician who holds privileges to provide anesthesia services from a local hospital accredited by the
joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations or the American osteopathic association or
from a local ambulatory surgical facility licensed by the department of health;
(2) A physician who has successfully completed a residency training program approved by the accreditation
council for graduate medical education of the American medical association or the American osteopathic
association in anesthesia and who is actively and directly engaged in the clinical practice of medicine as an
anesthesiologist;
(3) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who is acting under the supervision and in the immediate presence
of a physician or podiatric physician.
(C) The person administering and monitoring the anesthesia services shall be at all times present in the
anesthetizing location with the patient and shall not function in any other capacity during the surgery or
special procedure. Further, the person administering and monitoring the anesthesia services shall meet the
training requirements of paragraph (A)(2) of this rule.
(D) Whenever general anesthesia is being administered to a patient in the office setting, the office shall have
sufficient equipment and supplies to appropriately manage malignant hyperthermia.
(E) A violation of any provision of this rule, as determined by the board, shall constitute “a departure from,
or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar
circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established,” as that clause is used in division (B)(6)
of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.

4731-25-05 Liposuction in the office setting
 (A) A physician performing liposuction in the office setting shall meet the training requirements set forth
in paragraph (A) of rule 4731-25-03 of the Administrative Code and must be in compliance with this rule.
(B) Liposuction in the office setting shall be performed in compliance with rules 4731-25-03 and 4731-25-04
of the Administrative Code as appropriate to the level of sedation being administered and in compliance with
the following standards:
(1) The cannula utilized shall be no larger than 4.5 millimeters in diameter;
(2) The concentration of lidocaine in the solution shall not be greater than 0.1 per cent and the total dosage
of lidocaine received by the patient during the procedure shall not exceed fifty milligrams per kilogram of
body weight;
(3) The concentration of epinephrine in the solution shall not be greater than 1.5:1,000,000 and the total
dosage of epinephrine received by the patient during the procedure shall not exceed fifty micrograms per
kilogram of body weight;
(4) Intravenous access shall be maintained if the total aspirate is less than or equal to one hundred milliliters;
(5) If the total aspirate is more than one hundred milliliters, an intravenous line shall be running at a rate
sufficient to prevent hypovolemia and must be monitored appropriately;
(6) Appropriate monitoring shall be performed. Such monitoring shall include:
(a) Recording the baseline vital signs, including blood pressure and heart rate, both preoperatively and
postoperatively.
(b) If more than one hundred milliliters of aspirate is to be removed, a second person who is a health care
professional as that term is defined in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code and who is acting within that
health care professional's scope of practice shall be continuously within the room to monitor the patient.
Continuous blood pressure monitoring and cardiac monitoring with pulse oximetry shall be performed and
documented; supplemental oxygen shall be available.
(c) Patients who receive oral anxiolytics, sedatives, narcotic analgesics, moderate sedation or anesthesia
services shall be monitored postoperatively until fully recovered and ready for discharge.
                                                        106
(7) Liposuction in the office setting shall be performed only on patients who are evaluated as level P1 or P2
according to the version of the American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system
current at the effective date of this rule;
(8) Liposuction shall not be performed in an office setting in combination with other procedures except as
specifically authorized in paragraph (F) of this rule.
(C) Liposuction performed in an office setting shall not exceed four thousand five hundred milliliters of total
aspirate.
(D) Liposuction using moderate sedation/analgesia or anesthesia services performed in an office shall be
accredited in accordance with rule 4731-25-07.
(E) The written discharge instructions given to the patient shall include specific information concerning the
symptoms of lidocaine toxicity, the period of time during which such symptoms might appear and specific
instructions for the patient to follow should the patient experience such symptoms.
(F) Nothing in this rule shall be interpreted to prohibit a physician from performing in the office setting
procedures involving a focused, local small liposuction that is a routine part of the main procedure, provided
that the physician complies with all other applicable rules.
(G) A violation of any provision of this rule, as determined by the board, shall constitute “a departure from,
or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar
circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established,” as that clause is used in division (B)(6)
of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.

4731-25-07 Accreditation of office settings
 (A) No physician or podiatric physician shall perform procedures or surgery using moderate
sedation/analgesia or anesthesia services in an office setting unless that office setting is accredited by an
accrediting agency approved by the board, except that physicians and podiatric physicians who are
performing such procedures or surgeries in office settings that are not accredited on the effective date of this
rule shall apply for accreditation within eighteen months of the effective date of this rule and shall receive
accreditation within three years of the effective date of this rule.
(B) Accrediting agencies approved by the board include the following:
(1) The joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations;
(2) The accreditation association for ambulatory health care, inc.;
(3) The American association for accreditation of ambulatory surgery facilities, inc.;
(4) The healthcare facilities accreditation program of the American osteopathic association; or,
(5) Any other accrediting agency that demonstrates to the satisfaction of the board that it has:
(a) Standards pertaining to patient care, record keeping, equipment, personnel, facilities and other related
matters that are in accordance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care as determined by the board;
(b) Processes that assure a fair and timely review and decision on any applications for accreditation or
renewals thereof;
(c) Processes that assure a fair and timely review and resolution of any complaints received concerning
accredited facilities; and
(d) Resources sufficient to allow the accrediting agency to fulfill its duties in a timely manner.
(C) A violation of paragraph (A) of this rule, as determined by the board, shall constitute “a departure from,
or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar
circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established,” as that clause is used in division (B)(6)
of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code
Oklahoma – Medical

GUIDELINES FOR OFFICE-BASED SURGERY AND OTHER INVASIVE PROCEDURES

http://www.okmedicalboard.org/download/306/Office+Based+Surgery.htm


                                                        107
These Guidelines are intended to assist Oklahoma medical doctors who are considering or currently practice
ambulatory surgery or other invasive procedures which require anesthesia analgesia or sedation in an office
setting. These recommendations focus on quality care and patient safety in the office. These are minimal
guidelines and may be exceeded at any time based on the judgment of the involved physicians. Minor
procedures in which unsupplemented local anesthesia is used in quantities equal to or less than the
manufacturer‟s recommended dose adjusted for weight, are excluded from these guidelines. Nevertheless, it
is expected that any practice performing office-based surgery regardless of anesthesia will have the necessary
equipment and personnel to be able to handle emergencies resulting from the procedure and/or anesthesia.

The OSMBLS wants physicians to be aware that compared with acute care hospitals and licensed ambulatory
surgical facilities, office operatories currently have little or no regulation, oversight or control by federal, state
or local laws. Therefore, physicians must satisfactorily investigate areas taken for granted in the hospital or
ambulatory surgical facility such as governance, organization, construction and equipment, as well as policies
and procedures, including fire, safety, drugs, emergencies, staffing, training and unanticipated patient
transfers.

The following issues should be addressed in an office setting to provide a high standard of patient safety and
to reduce risk and liability.

1. Quality of Care

A.     All health care practitioners and nurses should hold a valid license or certificate to perform their
assigned duties.
B.     All personnel who provide clinical care in the office-based surgical setting should be qualified to
perform services commensurate with appropriate levels of education, training and experience.
C.     Policies and procedures should be written for the orderly conduct of the facility and reviewed on an
annual basis.
D.     The facility should be under the supervision and control of a qualified physician.
E.     All surgical personnel must wear suitable operative attire.

2. Facility and Safety

A.     Facilities should comply with all applicable federal, state and local laws, codes and regulations
pertaining to fire prevention, building construction and occupancy, accommodations for the disabled,
occupational safety and health, and disposal of medical waste and hazardous waste.
B.     Policies and procedures should comply with laws and regulations pertaining
to controlled drug supply, storage and administration.
C.     All premises must be kept neat and clean. Sterilization of operating materials must be adequate.

3. Clinical Care

Patient and Procedure Selection

A.     Procedures to be undertaken should be within the scope of practice of the
health care practitioners and the capabilities of the facility.
B.     The procedure should be of a duration and degree of complexity that will permit the patient to recover
and be discharged from the facility.
C.     Patients who by reason of pre-existing medical or other conditions may be at undue risk for
complications should be referred to an appropriate facility for performance of the procedure and the
administration of anesthesia.

                                                          108
4. Preoperative Care

A.      The anesthesia provider should adhere to the listed Anesthesia:Desiderata.
 B.     The anesthesia provider should be physically present during the intraoperative period and be available
until the patient has been discharged from anesthesia care.
 C.     Discharge of a patient should be documented in the medical record and effected by a licensed
independent practitioner.
 D.      Personnel with training in advanced resuscitative techniques (e.g., ACLS, PALS) should be
immediately available until all patients are discharged home.

5. Monitoring and Equipment

A.     At a minimum, all facilities should have a reliable source of oxygen, suction,
resuscitation equipment and emergency drugs.
B.     There should be sufficient space to accommodate all necessary equipment and personnel and to allow
for expeditious access to the patient, anesthesia machine (when present) and all monitoring equipment.
C.     All equipment should be maintained, tested and inspected according to the
manufacturer‟s specifications.
D.      Back-up battery power sufficient to ensure patient protection in the event of
an emergency should be available.
E.     In any location in which anesthesia is administered, there should be appropriate anesthesia apparatus
and equipment which allow monitoring consistent with the Anesthesia:Desiderata and documentation of
regular preventive maintenance as recommended by the manufacturer.
F.     In an office where anesthesia services are to be provided to infants and
children, the required equipment, medication and resuscitative capabilities
should be appropriately sized for a pediatric population.

6. Emergencies and Transfers

A.     All facility personnel should be appropriately trained in and regularly review the facility‟s written
emergency protocols.
B.     There should be written protocols for cardiopulmonary emergencies and other internal and external
disasters such as fire.
C.     The facility should have medications, equipment and written protocols available to treat malignant
hyperthermia when triggering agents are used.

D.      The facility should have a written protocol in place for the safe and timely
transfer of patients to a prespecified alternate care facility when extended or emergency services are needed
to protect the health or well-being of the patient. Pre-existing arrangements for definite care of the patient
shall be established.

DESIDERATA: ANESTHESIA

In order to promote optimum patient care in the practice of anesthesia, the Oklahoma State Board of
Medical Licensure and Supervision recommends these desiderata:

1.       An orderly preoperative anesthetic risk evaluation is to be done by the responsible physician and
recorded on the chart in all elective cases, and in urgent emergency cases, the anesthetic evaluations will be
recorded as soon as feasible.
2.       Every patient receiving general anesthesia, spinal anesthesia, or managed intravenous anesthesia (i.e.,
local standby, monitored anesthesia or conscious sedation), shall have arterial blood pressure and heart rate
                                                       109
measured and recorded at least every five minutes where not clinically impractical, in which case the
responsible physician may waive this requirement stating the clinical circumstances and reasons in writing in
the patient‟s chart.
3.      Every patient shall have the electrocardiogram continuously displayed from the induction and during
maintenance of general anesthesia. In patients receiving managed intravenous anesthesia,
electrocardiographic monitoring should be used in patients with significant cardiovascular disease as well as
during procedures where dysrhythmias are anticipated.
4.      During all anesthetics, patient oxygenation will be continuously monitored with a pulse oximeter, and
whenever an endotracheal tube or Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) is inserted, correct positioning in the
trachea and function will be monitored by end-tidal CO2 analysis (capnography) throughout the time of
placement.

A.      Additional monitoring for ventilation will include palpation or observation of the reservoir breathing
bag, and auscultation of breath sounds.
B.      Additional monitoring for circulation will include at least one of the following: Palpation of the pulse,
auscultation of heart sounds, monitoring of a tracing of intra-arterial pressure, pulse plethsymography, or
ultrasound peripheral pulse monitoring.

5.      When ventilation is controlled by an automatic mechanical ventilator, there shall be in continuous use
a device that is capable of detecting disconnection of any component of the breathing system. The device
must give an audible signal when its alarm threshold is exceeded.
6.      During every administration of general anesthesia using an anesthesia machine, the concentration of
oxygen in the patient‟s breathing system will be measured by a functioning oxygen analyzer with low
concentration audible limit alarm in use.
7.      During every administration of general anesthesia, there shall be readily available a means to measure
the patient‟s temperature.
8.      Availability of qualified trained personnel dedicated solely to patient monitoring.

These desiderata apply for any administration of anesthesia, including general, spinal, and managed
intravenous anesthetics (i.e., local standby, monitored anesthesia or conscious sedation), administered in
designated anesthetizing locations and any location where conscious sedation is performed.

“Conscious sedation” means a minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient‟s ability to
independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or
verbal command, produced by a pharmacologic or non-pharmacologic method, or a combination thereof.

In emergency circumstances in any situation, immediate life support measures can be started with attention
returning to these monitoring criteria as soon as possible and practical.


Oklahoma – Osteopathic

None


Oregon


Division 17. Office-Based Surgery

847-017-0000 Preamble
                                                       110
Licensees of the Oregon Medical Board providing office-based invasive procedures are accountable for the
welfare and safety of their patients.

847-017-0005 Definitions
For the purpose of these rules, the following terms are defined:
(1) “Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) trained” means that a practitioner has successfully completed
and maintains certification with advanced resuscitative techniques appropriate to the practitioner's field of
practice. For example, for those practitioners treating adult patients, training in advanced cardiac life support
(ACLS) is appropriate; for those treating children, training in pediatric advanced life support (PALS) or
advanced pediatric life support (APLS) is appropriate.
(2) “Anesthesia, continuum of sedation:” Level of Sedation -- Responsiveness Airway -- Spontaneous
Ventilation -- Cardiovascular Function:
(A) Conscious (Moderate) Sedation/ Analgesia -- Purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation -- No
intervention required -- Adequate -- Usually maintained;
(B) Deep Sedation/Analgesia -- Purposeful response following repeated or painful stimulation 1 --
Intervention may be required -- May be inadequate -- Usually maintained;
(C) General Anesthesia -- Unarousable, even with painful stimulus -- Intervention often required --
Frequently inadequate -- May be impaired. Reflex withdrawal from a painful stimulus is not considered a
purposeful response.
(3) “Anesthetic agent” means any drug or combination of drugs administered with the purpose of creating
conscious (moderate) sedation, deep sedation, regional anesthesia, or general anesthesia.
(4) “Adverse incident” means an untoward event occurring at any time within seven (7) days of any surgery,
special procedure, or the administration of anesthesia agent(s) in an office setting.
(5) “Basic Life Support (BLS)” trained means that a practitioner has successfully completed and maintains
certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation. BLS training includes teaching the use of an automated
external defibrillator (AED).
(6) “Board” means the Oregon Medical Board.
(7) “Local anesthesia” means the administration of an agent that produces a transient and reversible loss of
sensation in a circumscribed portion of the body.
(8) “Major conduction block anesthesia” means the injection of a local anesthetic agent in close proximity to
a specific nerve or nerves to stop or prevent a painful sensation in a region of the body. Major conduction
anesthesia includes, but is not limited to, all blocks and approaches to the brachial or lumbar plexus, sub-
arachnoid blocks, epidural and caudal blocks and regional intravenous blocks.
(9) “Minor procedures” means surgery that can safely and comfortably be performed under topical or local
anesthesia without more than minimal oral or intramuscular preoperative sedation. Minor procedures
include, but are not limited to, surgery of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and other adjacent tissue, the incision
and drainage of superficial abscesses, limited endoscopies such as proctoscopies, arthrocentesis and closed
reduction of simple fractures or small joint dislocations.
(10) “Monitoring” means continuous or regular visual observation of the patient (as deemed appropriate by
the level of sedation or recovery) and the use of instruments to measure, display, and record physiologic
values, such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, and oxygen saturation.
(11) “Office” means a location at which medical or surgical services are rendered and which is not subject to
a jurisdiction and licensing requirements of the Oregon Department of Human Services.
(12) “Office-based surgery” means the performance of any surgical or other invasive procedure requiring
anesthesia, analgesia, or sedation, which results in patient stay of less than 24 consecutive hours, and is
performed by a practitioner in a location other than a hospital, diagnostic treatment center, or free-standing
ambulatory surgery center.
(13) “Governing body of the facility” means the licensee or group of licensees who establish the office-based
surgery facility.

847-017-0010 Patient Safety
                                                       111
(1) Offices in which only minor procedures are performed do not require accreditation or the presence of
ACLS certified providers.
(2) The facility in which the office-based surgeries or procedures are performed must be appropriately
equipped and maintained to ensure patient safety through accreditation by an appropriate, Board recognized,
national or state organization, i.e., the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
(JCAHO), the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care (AAAHC), the American Association
for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgical Facilities (AAAASF), the American Osteopathic Association
(AOA), the Institute for Medical Quality (IMQ), the Oregon Society of Oral Maxillofacial Surgeons
(OSOMS), or the Oregon Medical Association (OMA). Effective August 1, 2007, for an office or facility in
which office-based surgeries are already being performed, the office or facility must become accredited
within two years, or by August 1, 2009. When licensees of the Board start performing office-based
procedures in a new office or facility, the new office or facility must be accredited within one year of the start
date of the office-based procedures being performed. During the period of time the facility is in the
accreditation process, the facility will make changes to come into compliance with the Administrative Rules
in this Division.
(3) The licensee must be able to demonstrate qualifications and competency for the procedures performed by
becoming or being board certified and maintaining board certification by a member of the American Board
of Medical Specialties (ABMS). Alternatively, the governing body of the office facility is responsible for a
peer review process for privileging physicians based on nationally recognized credentialing standards.
(4) The licensee must insure that a practitioner administering deep sedation or anesthesia and or monitoring
the patient shall not play an integral role in performing the procedure.
(5) At least one physician who is currently certified in advanced resuscitative techniques appropriate for the
patient age group (e.g., ACLS, PALS or APLS) must be present or immediately available with age-size-
appropriate resuscitative equipment until the patient has met the criteria for discharge from the facility. In
addition other medical personnel with direct patient contact must at a minimum be trained in Basic Life
Support (BLS).
(6) The governing body of the facility is responsible for providing healthcare providers who have appropriate
education and training for administration of moderate sedation/analgesia, deep sedation/analgesia or general
anesthesia.
(7) A licensee who holds a MD or DO degree as well as a DDS (Doctor of Dental Surgery) or DMD (Doctor
of Dental Medicine) degree and is an active member of the Oregon Society of Oral Maxillofacial Surgeons
(OSOMS) may perform maxillofacial procedures in a facility approved by the OSOMS and function under
the administrative rules of the Oregon Board of Dentistry, OAR chapter 818, division 026. For all
procedures that are not oral maxillofacial in nature, licensees with medical and dental licenses must follow
rules laid out in OAR chapter 847, division 017.

847-017-0015 Selection of Procedures and Patients
(1) The licensee who performs the surgical procedure and/or anesthetic must evaluate and document the
condition of the patient and the potential risks associated with the proposed treatment plan, and be satisfied
that the procedure to be undertaken is within the scope of practice of the health care providers, the
capabilities of the facility and the condition of the patient.
(2) Informed consent for the nature and objectives of the anesthesia planned and surgery to be performed
must be in writing and obtained from patients before the procedure is performed. Informed consent is only
to be obtained after a discussion of the risks, benefits, and alternatives and must be documented in the
medical record.

847-017-0020 Patient Medical Records
(1) A legible, complete, comprehensive and accurate medical record must be maintained for each patient
evaluated or treated. The record must include:
(a) Identity of the patient;
(b) History and physical, diagnosis and plan;
                                                       112
(c) Appropriate lab, x-ray or other diagnostic reports;
(d) Appropriate preanesthesia evaluation;
(e) Narrative description of procedure;
(f) Pathology reports;
(g) Procedure code; and
(h) Documentation of the outcome and the follow-up plan.
(2) If the nature of the surgery is such that analgesia/sedation, major conduction blockage, conscious
(moderate) sedation, or general anesthesia are provided, the patient record must include a separate anesthetic
record that contains documentation of anesthetic provider, procedure, and technique employed. This must
include the type of anesthesia used, drugs (type and dose) and fluids administered during the procedure,
patient weight, level of consciousness, estimated blood loss, duration of procedure, and any complication or
unusual events related to the procedure or anesthesia.
(3) The medical records must contain documentation of the intraoperative and postoperative monitoring
required.
(4) The patient record must document if tissues and other specimens have been submitted for
histopathologic diagnosis.
(5) Provision for continuity of post-operative care must be documented in each patient's medical chart.
(6) Procedures must be established to assure patient confidentiality and security of all patient data and
information.

47-017-0025 Discharge Evaluation
The licensee performing the procedure is responsible for the determination that the patient is safe to be
discharged from the office after the procedure.

847-017-0030 Emergency Care and Transfer Protocols
The licensee is responsible for insuring that, in the event of an anesthetic, medical or surgical complication or
emergency all office personnel are familiar with a written documented plan for the timely and safe transfer of
patients to a nearby hospital. This plan must include arrangements for emergency medical services and
appropriate escort of the patient to the hospital.

847-017-0035 Quality Assessment
(1) Office-based surgical practices must develop a system of quality assessment that effectively and efficiently
strives for continuous quality improvement.
(2) Documentation of adverse incident review must be available.

847-017-0040 Facility Administration and Equipment
The office facility must document that specific and current arrangements are in place for obtaining
laboratory, radiological, pathological and other ancillary services as may be required to support the surgical
and/or anesthetic procedures undertaken.


Pennsylvania – Medical

None


Pennsylvania – Osteopathic

None


                                                       113
Puerto Rico

None


Rhode Island

None


South Carolina

S.C. Code of Regulations R. 81-96. Office Based Surgery.
A. Statement of Intent and Goals
The purpose of this regulation is to promote patient safety in the non-hospital office-based setting during
procedures that require the administration of local anesthesia, sedation/analgesia, or general anesthesia, or
minor or major conduction block. Moreover, this regulation has been developed to provide physicians
performing office-based surgery (including cryosurgery and laser surgery), that requires anesthesia (including
tumescent anesthesia), analgesia or sedation, the benefit of uniform professional standards regarding
qualification of practitioners and staff, equipment, facilities and policies and procedures for patient
assessment and monitoring. Level I procedures as defined in (B)(13) are excluded from this regulation.
B. Definitions
For the purpose of this regulation, the following terms are defined:
1. “Advanced resuscitative technique” means current certification in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS),
Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS), or Pediatrics Advanced Life Support (PALS) as appropriate for the
individual patient and surgical situation involved. For example, for those licensees treating adult patients,
training in advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) is appropriate; for those treating children, training in
pediatric advanced life support (PALS) is appropriate.
2. “Anesthesiologist” means a physician who has successfully completed a residency program in
anesthesiology approved by the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) or the
American Osteopathic Association (AOA), or who is currently a diplomate of either the American Board of
Anesthesiology or the American Osteopathic Board of Anesthesiology, or who was made a Fellow of the
American College of Anesthesiology before 1982.
3. “Anesthesiologist's assistant (AA)” means a person licensed by the Board as an anesthesiologist's assistant
who is an allied health graduate of an accredited anesthesiologist's assistant program who is currently certified
by the National Commission for Certification of Anesthesiologist's Assistants and who works under the
direct supervision of an anesthesiologist who is immediately available in the operating suite and is physically
present during the most demanding portions of the anesthetic including, but not limited to, induction and
emergence.
4. “Board” means the South Carolina State Board of Medical Examiners.
5. “Certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA)” means a person licensed by the South Carolina State
Board of Nursing as an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse in the category of Certified Registered Nurse
Anesthetist.
6. “Complications” means untoward events occurring at any time within 48 hours of any surgery, special
procedure or the administration of anesthesia in an office setting including, but not limited to, any of the
following: paralysis, malignant hypothermia, seizures, myocardial infarction, renal failure, significant cardiac
events, respiratory arrest, aspiration of gastric contents, cerebral vascular accident, transfusion reaction,
pneumothorax, allergic reaction to anesthesia, unintended hospitalization for more than 24 hours, or death.
7. “Deep sedation/analgesia” means the administration of a drug or drugs that produce sustained depression
of consciousness during which patients cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated
or painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients
                                                       114
may require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
8. “DHEC” means the S.C. Department of Health and Environmental Control.
9. “General anesthesia” means a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable,
even by painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired.
Patients often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation may be
required because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular
function. Cardiovascular function may be impaired.
10. “Health care personnel” means any office staff member who is licensed or certified by a recognized
professional or health care organization such as but not limited to a professional registered nurse, licensed
practical nurse, physician assistant or certified medical assistant.
11. “Hospital” means a hospital licensed by the state in which it is situated.
12. “Immediately available” means being located within the office and ready for immediate utilization when
needed.
13. “Level I Surgery” means minor procedures in which p.o. preoperative medication and/or
unsupplemented local anesthesia is used in quantities equal to or less than the manufacturer's recommended
dose adjusted for weight and where the likelihood of complications requiring hospitalization is remote. No
drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than preoperative minimal p.o. anxiolysis of the patient is
permitted in Level I Office Surgery; the chances of complications requiring hospitalization must be remote.
14. “Local anesthesia” means the administration of an agent that produces a transient and reversible loss of
sensation in a circumscribed portion of the body.
15. “Major conduction block” means the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation
in a region of the body. Major conduction blocks include, but are not limited to, axillary, interscalene, and
supraclavicular block of the brachial plexus, spinal (subarachnoid), epidural and caudal blocks.
16. “Minimal sedation” (anxiolysis) means the administration of a drug or drugs that produces a state of
consciousness that allows the patient to tolerate unpleasant medical procedures while responding normally to
verbal commands. Cardiovascular or respiratory function should remain unaffected and defensive airway
reflexes should remain intact.
17. “Minor conduction block” means the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation
in a circumscribed area of the body (that is, infiltration or local nerve block), or the block of a nerve by direct
pressure and refrigeration. Minor conduction blocks include, but are not limited to, intercostal, retrobulbar,
paravertebral, peribulbar, pudendal, sciatic nerve, and ankle blocks.
18. “Moderate sedation/analgesia” means the administration of a drug or drugs, which produces depression
of consciousness during which patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or
accompanied by light tactile stimulation. Reflex withdrawal from painful stimulation is NOT considered a
purposeful response. No interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation
is adequate. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained. This includes dissociative anesthesia, which does
not meet the criteria as defined under sustained deep anesthesia or general anesthesia.
19. “Monitoring” means continuous visual observation of a patient and regular observation of the patient as
deemed appropriate by the level of sedation or recovery using instruments to measure, display, and record
physiologic values such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration and oxygen saturation.
20. “Office” means a location at which medical or surgical services are performed and which is not subject to
regulation by DHEC.
21. “Office-based practice” means procedures performed under this regulation that occur in a physician's
office or location other than a hospital or facility licensed by DHEC.
22. “Office-based surgery” means the performance of any surgical or other invasive procedure requiring
anesthesia, analgesia, or sedation, including cryosurgery and laser surgery, which results in a necessary patient
stay of less than twenty-four consecutive hours and is performed by a physician in a location other than a
hospital or a diagnostic treatment center, including free-standing ambulatory surgery centers.
23. “Operating room” means that location in the office or facility dedicated to the performance of surgery or
special procedures.
                                                        115
24. “Physical status classification” means a description of a patient used in determining if an office surgery or
procedure is appropriate. The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) enumerates classification: I -
Normal, healthy patient; II - a patient with mild systemic disease; III- a patient with severe systemic disease
limiting activity but not incapacitating; IV- a patient with incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant
threat to life; and V- Moribund, patients not expected to live 24 hours with or without operation.
25. “Physician” means an individual holding an M.D. or D.O. degree who is authorized to practice medicine
in accordance with the South Carolina Medical Practice Act.
26. “Practitioner” means a physician or anesthesiologist assistant, registered nurse or CRNA licensed and
practicing within the scope of practice pursuant to South Carolina law.
27. “Recovery area” means a room or limited access area of an office dedicated to providing medical services
to patients recovering from surgery or anesthesia.
28. “Special procedure” means patient care which requires entering the body with instruments in a potentially
painful manner, or which requires the patient to be immobile, for a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure
requiring anesthesia services; for example, diagnostic or therapeutic endoscopy, invasive radiologic
procedures, pediatric magnetic resonance imaging; manipulation under anesthesia or endoscopic examination
with the use of general anesthetic.
29. “Sufficient knowledge” means a physician holds staff privileges in a South Carolina hospital or
ambulatory surgical center which would permit the physician to supervise the anesthesia, or the physician
must be able to document certification or eligibility by a specialty board approved by the American Board of
Medical Specialties or American Osteopathic Association, or the physician must be able to demonstrate
comparable background, formal training, or experience in supervising the anesthesia, as approved by the
Board.
30. “Surgery” means any operative or manual procedure performed for the purpose of preserving health,
diagnosing or treating disease, repairing injury, correcting deformity or defects, prolonging life or relieving
suffering, or any elective procedure for aesthetic or cosmetic purposes. This includes, but is not limited to,
incision or curettage of tissue or an organ, suture or other repair of tissue or an organ, extraction of tissue
from the uterus, insertion of natural or artificial implants, closed or open fracture reduction, or an
endoscopic examination with use of local or general anesthetic. This also includes, but is not limited to, the
use of lasers and any other devices or instruments in performing such procedures.
31. “Topical anesthesia” means the effect produced by an anesthetic agent applied directly or indirectly to the
skin or mucous membranes, intended to produce a transient and reversible loss of sensation to a
circumscribed area.
C. Office Administration
Each office-based practice, at a minimum, must develop and implement policies and procedures on the
topics listed below. The policies and procedures must be periodically reviewed and updated. The purpose of
the policies and procedures is to assist in providing safe and quality surgical care, assure consistent personnel
performance, and promote an awareness and understanding of the inherent rights of patients.
1. Emergency Care and Transfer Plan: A plan must be developed for the provision of emergency medical
care as well as the safe and timely transfer of patients to a nearby hospital, should hospitalization be
necessary.
a. Age appropriate emergency supplies, equipment and medication must be provided in accordance with the
scope of surgical and anesthesia services provided at the physician's office.
b. In an office where anesthesia services are provided to infants and children, the required emergency
equipment must be appropriately sized for a pediatric population, and personnel must be appropriately
trained to handle pediatric emergencies (e.g. PALS certified).
c. A practitioner who is qualified in resuscitation techniques and emergency care must be present and
available until all patients having more than local anesthesia or minor conduction block anesthesia have been
discharged from the operating room or recovery area.
d. In the event of untoward anesthetic, medical or surgical complications or emergencies, personnel must be
familiar with the procedures and plan to be followed, and able to take the necessary actions. All office
personnel must be familiar with a documented plan for the timely and safe transfer of patients to a nearby
                                                       116
hospital. This plan must include arrangements for emergency medical services, if necessary, or when
appropriate, escort of the patient to the hospital or to an appropriate practitioner. If advanced cardiac life
support is instituted, the plan must include immediate contact with emergency medical services.
2. Medical Record Maintenance and Security: The practice must have a written procedure for initiating and
maintaining a health record for every patient evaluated or treated. The record must include a procedure code
or suitable narrative description of the procedure and must have sufficient information to identify the
patient, support the diagnosis, justify the treatment and document the outcome and required follow-up care.
For procedures requiring patient consent, there must be a documented, informed consent in the patient
record. If analgesia/sedation, minor or major conduction block or general anesthesia are provided, the record
must include documentation of the type of anesthesia used, drugs (type and dose) and fluids administered,
the record of monitoring of vital signs, level of consciousness during the procedure, patient weight, estimated
blood loss, duration of the procedure, and any complications related to the procedure or anesthesia.
Procedures must also be established to assure patient confidentiality and security of all patient data and
information.
3. Infection Control Policy: The practice must comply with state and federal regulations regarding infection
control. For all surgical procedures, the level of sterilization must meet current OSHA requirements. There
must be a written procedure and schedule for cleaning, disinfecting and sterilizing equipment and patient care
items. Personnel must be trained in infection control practices, implementation of universal precautions, and
disposal of hazardous waste products. Protective clothing and equipment must be available.
4. Performance Improvement:
a. A performance improvement program must be implemented to provide a mechanism to periodically
review (minimum of every six months) the current practice activities and quality of care provided to patients,
including peer review by members not affiliated with the same practice. Performance improvement (PI) can
be established by:
(1) Establishment of a PI program by the practice; or
(2) A cooperative agreement with a hospital-based performance or quality improvement program; or
(3) A cooperative agreement with another practice to jointly conduct PI activities; or
(4) A cooperative agreement with a peer review organization, a managed care organization, specialty society,
or other appropriate organization dedicated to performance improvement approved by the Board.
b. PI activities must include, but not be limited to review of mortalities, review of the appropriateness and
necessity of procedures performed, emergency transfers, surgical and anesthetic complications, and resultant
outcomes (including all postoperative infections), analysis of patient satisfaction surveys and complaints, and
identification of undesirable trends, such as diagnostic errors, unacceptable results, follow-up of abnormal
test results, and medication errors and system problems. Findings of the PI program must be incorporated
into the practice's educational activity.
5. Reporting of Adverse Events: Anesthetic or surgical events requiring resuscitation, emergency transfer, or
resulting in death must be reported to the South Carolina Board of Medical Examiners within three business
days using a form approved by the Board. Such reports shall be considered initial complaints under the S.C.
Medical Practice Act.
6. Federal and State Laws and Regulations: Federal and state laws and regulations that affect the practice
must be identified and procedure developed to comply with those requirements. The following are some of
the key requirements upon which office-based practices must focus:
a. Non-Discrimination (see Civil Rights statutes and the Americans with Disabilities Act)
b. Personal Safety (see Occupational Safety and Health Administration information)
c. Controlled Substance Safeguards
d. Laboratory Operations and Performance (CLIA)
e. Personnel Licensure Scope of Practice and Limitations.
7. Patients' Bill of Rights: Office personnel must recognize the basic rights of patients and understand the
importance of maintaining patients' rights. A patients' rights document must be immediately available upon
request.
D. Credentialing
                                                      117
1. Facility Accreditation: Practices performing office-based surgery or procedures that require the
administration of moderate or deep sedation/analgesia, or general anesthesia (Level II and III facilities as
defined below) must be accredited within the first year of operation by an accreditation agency, including the
American Association of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities (AAASF); Accreditation Association for Ambulatory
Health Care (AAAHC); the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO); or
the Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program (HFAP), a division of the American Osteopathic
Association; or any other agency approved by the South Carolina Board of Medical Examiners. The
accrediting agency must submit a biannual summary report for each facility to the South Carolina Board of
Medical Examiners. Any physician performing Level II or Level III office surgery must register with the
South Carolina Board of Medical Examiners. Such registration must include each address at which Level II
or Level III office surgery is performed and identification of the accreditation agency that accredits each
location (when applicable). Rule of Thumb: The capacity of the patient at all times to retain his/her life-
protective reflexes and to respond to sensory stimuli (i.e., the depth of sedation or anesthesia), rather than
the specific procedure performed, lies at the core of differentiating Level II from Level III surgery.
a. Scope of Level II Office Surgery: Level II office surgery includes any procedure which requires the
administration of minimal or moderate intravenous, intramuscular, or rectal sedation/analgesia, thus making
post-operative monitoring necessary. Level II office surgery must be limited to procedures where there is
only a moderate risk of surgical and/or anesthetic complications and the likelihood of hospitalization as a
result of these complications is unlikely. Level II office surgery includes local or peripheral nerve block,
minor conduction block, and Bier block.
b. Scope of Level III Office Surgery: Level III office surgery includes any procedure that requires, or
reasonably should require, the use of deep sedation/analgesia, general anesthesia, or major conduction block,
and/or in which the known complications of the proposed surgical procedure may be serious or life
threatening.
2. Practitioners:
a. The specific office-based surgical procedures and anesthesia services that each respective practitioner
involved is qualified and competent to perform must be commensurate with each practitioner's level of
training and experience. Criteria to be considered to demonstrate competence include:
(1) State licensure.
(2) Procedure-specific education, training, experience and successful evaluation appropriate for the patient
population being treated (e.g. pediatrics).
(3)(a) For physicians, staff privileges in a hospital to perform the same procedure or service as that being
performed in the office setting or board certification, board eligibility or completion of a training program in
a field of specialization recognized by the ACGME for expertise and proficiency in that field, or comparable
background, formal training, or experience as approved by the Board. Board certification is understood as
American Board of Medical Specialists (ABMS), American Osteopathic Association (AOA), or equivalent
board certification as determined by the Board.
(b) For non-physician practitioners, certification that is appropriate and applicable for the practitioner, as
recognized by the practitioner's licensing board or this Board.
(4) Professional misconduct and malpractice history.
(5) Participation in peer and quality review proceedings.
(6) Participation in continuing competency activities consistent with the statutory requirements and
requirements of the practitioner's professional organization.
(7) Malpractice insurance coverage adequate for the specialty.
(8) Procedure-specific competence (and competence in the use of new procedures/technology), which
encompasses education, training, experience and evaluation, and which includes:
(a) Adherence to professional society standards;
(b) Hospital and/or ambulatory surgical privileges for the scope of services performed in the office-based
setting at Levels II and III or must be able to document satisfactory completion of training such as board
certification or board eligibility by a specialty board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties,

                                                       118
American Osteopathic Association, or comparable background, formal training, or experience as approved
by the Board;
(c) Credentials approved by a nationally recognized accrediting/credentialing organization;
(d) For physicians, didactic course complemented by hands-on, observed experience. Training is to be
followed by a specified number of cases supervised by a practitioner already competent in the respective
procedure, in accordance with professional society standards and guidelines.
b. Unlicensed or uncertified personnel may not be assigned duties or responsibilities that require professional
licensure or certification. Duties assigned to unlicensed or uncertified personnel must be in accordance with
their training, education and experience and under the direct supervision of a qualified, licensed practitioner.
E. Standards for Office Procedures
1. Level II Office Procedures:
a. Training Required:
(1) The physician must have staff privileges in a hospital to perform the same procedure as that being
performed in the office setting or must be able to document satisfactory completion of training such as
board certification or board eligibility by a specialty board approved by the American Board of Medical
Specialties, American Osteopathic Association, or must demonstrate comparable background, formal
training, or experience as approved by the Board. The physician must maintain current certification in
advanced resuscitative techniques as appropriate (e.g. ATLS, ACLS, or PALS).
(2) One assistant or other health care personnel that is immediately available (immediately available is defined
as being located within the office and not necessarily the person assisting in the procedure) must be certified
in advanced resuscitative techniques as appropriate (e.g. ATLS, ACLS, or PALS).
b. Equipment and Supplies Required:
(1) Emergency resuscitation equipment and a reliable source of oxygen must be current and immediately
available.
(2) Monitoring equipment must include a continuous suction device, pulse oximeter, and noninvasive blood
pressure apparatus and stethoscope. Electrocardiographic monitoring must be available for patients with a
history of cardiac disease. Age-and size-appropriate monitors and resuscitative equipment must be available
for patients.
c. Assistance of Other Personnel Required:
(1) Supervision of the sedation/analgesia component of the medical procedure should be provided by a
physician who is immediately available, who possesses sufficient knowledge, and who is qualified in
accordance with law supervise the administration of the sedation/analgesia or minor conduction block. The
physician providing supervision must:
(a) ensure that an appropriate pre-sedation/analgesia or anesthesia examination and evaluation is performed
proximate to the procedure;
(b) order the sedation/analgesia or anesthesia;
(c) ensure that qualified health care personnel participate;
(d) remain immediately available until discharge criteria are met; and
(e) ensure the provision of indicated post-sedation/analgesia or anesthesia care.
(2) Sedation/analgesia or anesthesia must be administered or supervised only by a duly licensed, qualified and
competent physician. CRNAs, AAs, or other qualified practitioners who administer sedation/analgesia or
anesthesia as part of a medical procedure must have training and experience appropriate to the level of
sedation/analgesia or anesthesia administered and function in accordance with their scope of practice. Such
personnel must have documented competence to administer sedation/analgesia or anesthesia and to assist in
any support or resuscitation measures as required. The individual administering sedation/analgesia or
anesthesia and/or monitoring the patient must not play an integral role in performing the surgical procedure.
This is not intended to restrict or limit the physician's ability to delegate medical tasks to other qualified
practitioners in Level II office procedures.
(3) A registered nurse or other licensed health care personnel practicing within the scope of their practice
who is currently certified in advanced resuscitative techniques must monitor the patient postoperatively and
have the capability of administering medications as required for analgesia, nausea/vomiting, or other
                                                       119
indications. Monitoring in the recovery area must include pulse oximetry and non-invasive blood pressure
measurement. The patient must be assessed periodically for level of consciousness, pain relief, or any
untoward complication. Each patient must meet discharge criteria as established by the practice, prior to
leaving the operating room or recovery area.
d. Transfer and Emergency Protocols: The physician must have a transfer protocol in effect with a hospital
within reasonable proximity.
e. Facility Accreditation: The physician must obtain and maintain accreditation of the office setting by an
approved accreditation agency.
2. Level III Office Procedures
a. Training Required:
(1) The physician must have documentation of training to perform the particular surgical procedure(s). The
physician must have staff privileges in a hospital to perform the same procedure as that being performed in
the office setting or must be able to document satisfactory completion of training such as board certification
or board eligibility by a specialty board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties, American
Osteopathic Association, or comparable background, formal training, or experience as approved by the
Board. In the event the physician is supervising the administration of anesthesia by a CRNA, the physician
must have sufficient knowledge of the anesthesia specified for the procedure to provide effective care in the
case of emergency. If the physician does not possess the sufficient knowledge of anesthesia, the anesthesia
must be administered by or under the supervision of a qualified physician. The physician must maintain
current certification in advanced resuscitative techniques as appropriate (e.g. ATLS, ACLS, or PALS).
(2) One assistant or other health care personnel that is immediately available (immediately available is defined
as being located within the office and not necessarily the person assisting in the procedure) must be currently
certified in advanced resuscitative techniques as appropriate (e.g. ATLS, ACLS, or PALS).
b. Equipment and Supplies Required:
(1) Emergency resuscitation equipment, a continuous suction device, and a reliable source of oxygen must be
current and immediately available. At least 12 ampules of dantrolene sodium must be immediately available.
Age-and size-appropriate monitors and resuscitative equipment must be available for patients.
(2) Monitoring equipment must include:
(a) blood pressure apparatus and stethoscope
(b) pulse oximetry
(c) continuous EKG
(d) capnography
(e) temperature monitoring for procedures lasting longer than 30 minutes.
(3) Facility, in terms of general preparation, equipment and supplies, must be comparable to a free standing
ambulatory surgical center, have provisions for proper record keeping, and the ability to recover patients
after anesthesia.
c. Assistance of Other Personnel Required:
(1) Supervision of the sedation/analgesia component of the medical procedure should be provided by a
physician who is immediately available, who possesses sufficient knowledge, and who is qualified in
accordance with law to supervise the administration of the sedation/analgesia or minor conduction block.
The physician providing supervision must:
(a) ensure that an appropriate pre-sedation/analgesia or anesthesia examination and evaluation is performed
proximate to the procedure;
(b) order the sedation/analgesia or anesthesia;
(c) ensure that qualified health care personnel participate;
(d) remain immediately available until discharge criteria are met; and
(e) ensure the provision of indicated post-sedation/analgesia or anesthesia care.
(2) Sedation/analgesia or anesthesia must be administered or supervised only by a duly licensed, qualified and
competent physician. CRNAs or AAs who administer sedation/analgesia or anesthesia as part of a medical
procedure must have training and experience appropriate to the level of sedation/analgesia or anesthesia
administered and function in accordance with their scope of practice. Such personnel must have documented
                                                       120
competence to administer sedation/analgesia or anesthesia and to assist in any support or resuscitation
measures as required. The individual administering sedation/analgesia or anesthesia and/or monitoring the
patient must not play an integral role in performing the surgical procedure.
(3) A registered nurse or other licensed health care personnel practicing within the scope of their practice
who is currently certified in advanced resuscitative techniques must monitor the patient postoperatively and
have the capability of administering medications as required for analgesia, nausea/vomiting, or other
indications. Monitoring in the recovery area must include pulse oximetry and non-invasive blood pressure
measurement. The patient must be assessed periodically for level of consciousness, pain relief, or any
untoward complication. Each patient must meet discharge criteria as established by the practice, prior to
leaving the operating room or recovery area.
d. Transfer and Emergency Protocols: The physician must have a transfer protocol in effect with a hospital
within reasonable proximity.
e. Facility Accreditation and Inspection. The physician must obtain and maintain accreditation of the office
setting by an approved accreditation agency.
F. Patient Admission and Discharge
1. Patient Selection. The physician must evaluate the condition of the patient and the potential risks
associated with the proposed treatment plan. The physician is also responsible for providing a post-operative
plan to the patient and ensuring the patient is aware of the need for the necessary follow-up care. Patients
with pre-existing medical problems or other conditions, who are at undue risk for complications, must be
referred to an appropriate specialist for pre-operative consultation. Patients that are considered high risk or
are a physical classification status III or greater and require a general anesthetic for the surgical procedure
must have the surgery performed in a hospital setting or in ambulatory surgery centers. Patients with a
physical status classification of III or greater may be acceptable candidates for moderate sedation/analgesia.
ASA Class III patients must be specifically addressed in the operating procedures of the office-based
practice. They may be acceptable candidates if deemed so by a physician qualified to assess the specific
disability and its impact on anesthesia and surgical risks. Acceptable candidates for deep sedation/analgesia,
general anesthesia, or major conduction block in office settings are patients with a physical status
classification of I or II, no airway abnormality, and possess an unremarkable anesthetic history.
2. Informed Consent. The risks, benefits, and potential complications of both the surgery and anesthetic
must be discussed with the patient and/or, if applicable, the patient's legal guardian prior to the surgical
procedure. Written documentation of informed consent must be included in the medical record.
3. Preoperative Assessment. A specialty specific medical history and physical examination must be
performed, and appropriate laboratory studies obtained within 30 days prior to the planned surgical
procedure, by a practitioner qualified to assess the impact of co-existing disease processes on surgery and
anesthesia. The physician must assure that a preanesthetic examination and evaluation is conducted
immediately prior to surgery by the practitioner who will be administering or supervising the anesthesia.
Monitoring must be available for patients with a history of cardiac disease. Age and size appropriate monitors
and resuscitative equipment must be available for patients. The information and data obtained during the
course of these evaluations must be documented in the medical record.
4. Discharge Evaluation. The physician must evaluate the patient immediately upon completion of the
surgery and anesthesia. Care of the patient may then be transferred to qualified health care personnel in the
recovery area. A qualified physician must remain immediately available until the patient meets discharge
criteria. Criteria for discharge for all patients who have received anesthesia must include the following:
a. confirmation of stable vital signs
b. stable oxygen saturation levels
c. return to pre-procedure mental status
d. adequate pain control
e. minimal bleeding, nausea and vomiting
f. resolving neural block, resolution of the neuraxial block
g. discharged in the company of a competent adult.

                                                      121
5. Patient Instructions. The patient must receive verbal instruction understandable to the patient or guardian,
confirmed by written post-operative instructions and emergency contact numbers. The instructions must
include:
a. The procedure performed
b. Information about potential complications
c. Telephone numbers to be used by the patient to discuss complications or should questions arise
d. Instructions for medications prescribed and pain management
e. Information regarding the follow-up visit date, time and location
f. Designated treatment facility in the event of emergency.
G. Inapplicability to dentistry. These regulations shall not apply to an oral surgeon licensed to practice
dentistry who is also a physician licensed to practice medicine, if the procedure is exclusively for the practice
of dentistry.


South Dakota

None


Tennessee – Medical

T. C. A. § 63-6-221 Office-based surgery
 (a) For the purposes of this section, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) “Board” means the board of medical examiners;
(2) “Level II office-based surgery” means Level II surgery, as defined by the board of medical examiners in
its rules and regulations, that is performed outside of a hospital, an ambulatory surgical treatment center or
other medical facility licensed by the department of health;
(3) “Office-based surgery” or “Level III office-based surgery” means Level III surgery requiring a level of
sedation beyond the level of sedation defined by the board of medical examiners as Level II surgery that is
performed outside a hospital, an ambulatory surgical treatment center or other medical facility licensed by the
department of health;
(4) “Physician” means any person licensed under this chapter; and
(5) “Surgical suite” means both the operating and recovery room or rooms located in a physician's office
where Level IIIoffice-based surgery is to be performed.
(b) The board shall have the duty and responsibility to regulate the practice of office-based surgery, including
the promulgation of rules necessary to promote patient health and safety in such practices, including, but not
limited to, a mechanism by which alloffice-based surgical suites are surveyed and certified by the board.
(c) The board shall specifically identify in rules the parameters to be used in determining Level III surgical
procedures and multiple procedures that may be performed in an office-based setting pursuant to the level of
anesthesia involved in the procedures. In addition, the board shall promulgate age and risk classification
criteria of patients eligible for Level III office-based surgical procedures.
(d) By December 30, 2007, the board shall adopt rules establishing a specific list of approved Level III
surgical procedures that can be performed in a physician's office in this state. The ambulatory surgical center
covered procedures list promulgated by the centers of medicare and medicaid shall be used as a guide. No
physician shall perform any Level III surgical procedures that are not included on the list promulgated by the
board. The board may modify the list as the board deems necessary. The board shall also promulgate rules
addressing the minimum requirements deemed necessary by the board for the safe performance of office-
basedsurgery.
(e) Using the rules established for ambulatory surgical treatment centers as guidelines, the board shall
promulgate rules relative to infection control, life safety, patient rights, hazardous waste and equipment and
supplies necessary to assure the safety of patients undergoing office-based surgery. Any provision in the
                                                       122
ambulatory surgical treatment center rules addressing infection control, life safety, patient rights, hazardous
waste and equipment and supplies that is not adopted by the board shall require a statement entered into the
official minutes from the board justifying the board's decision.
(f) No more than three (3) patients undergoing Level III office-based surgery in a physician's office may be
incapable of self-preservation at the same time. The board shall promulgate rules requiring physician offices
that perform office-based surgery to adopt bylaws that put in place a management system and documentation
that will ensure that no more than three (3) patients that are in surgery or recovery are incapable of self-
preservation at the same time. The bylaws and documentation of the management system shall be included in
the application for surgical suite certification.
(g) Except for emergencies, a surgical suite certified for office-based surgery may be utilized only by
physician employees of the practice in which the surgical suite is located. Surgical suites may not be shared
with other practices or other physicians.
(h) The board shall enter into a memorandum of understanding, contract or other written arrangement with
the department of health such that the department:
(1) Provides a site survey of the surgical suites sought to be certified to perform office-based surgery. A
physician office at whichoffice-based surgeries are being performed as of October 1, 2007, shall submit both
a request for a site survey on an application form developed by the board and remit payment of the office-
based surgery fee to the department by October 1, 2007. If the office makes a timely filing in accordance
with this subdivision (h)(1), the physician's office may continue to be a site foroffice-based surgeries pending
completion of a survey confirming compliance with board rules and subsequent issuance of a certification of
the surgical suite or suites. A physician office at which office-based surgeries are not being performed as of
October 1, 2007, shall not perform any such procedures until an application form and payment of the office-
based surgery fee is submitted to the board and a site survey is completed by the department and a
certification of the surgical suite is issued by the board;
(2) Is authorized to require plans of correction and to verify that the plans of correction have been
implemented;
(3) Is authorized to initiate subsequent, unannounced site surveys during regular business hours as long as the
physician office continues to be used to perform office-based surgeries, but no more frequently than once
every twelve (12) months; and
(4) Is authorized to respond to any complaints made by patients or the public against a physician who
performs office-basedsurgery or a physician's office at which office-based surgery is being performed at the
request of the office of investigations.
(i) The results of all site surveys shall be transmitted by the department to the board. The results shall include
any requirement for plans of correction, the department's determination of the acceptability of the submitted
plans of correction and the department's verification that the plans of correction have been implemented.
The board shall make a final determination on certifying the surgical suite for performance of office-
based surgeries. The results of site surveys and board determinations shall be shared on a routine basis with
the board for licensing health care facilities.
(j) The results of all complaint investigations by department staff shall be transmitted to the board for
resolution; however, that information shall at all times be maintained as confidential and not available to the
public except to the extent § 63-1-117(g) applies.
(k) Any physician office that desires to be certified to perform office-based surgery shall pay to the
department an annualoffice-based surgery fee as set by the board.
(l) A physician office at which office-based surgery is being performed shall ensure that claims data is
reported to the commissioner of health on a form approved by the department of health. The data shall be
submitted through a third party approved by the department of health for the purpose of editing the data
according to rules and regulations established by the commissioner.The physician office shall be responsible
for the costs associated with processing of the data by the approved vendors. The claims data shall be
reported at least quarterly to the commissioner. No information shall be made available to the public by the
commissioner that reasonably could be expected to reveal the identity of any patient. The claims data
reported to the commissioner under this section are confidential and not available to the public until the
                                                       123
commissioner processes and verifies the data. The commissioner shall prescribe conditions under which the
processed and verified data are available to the public.
(m)(1) Except as provided in subdivision (h)(1), a physician office surgical suite is required to be certified by
the board in order to perform office-based surgery. A physician office that proposes to perform office-
based surgery shall submit to the board, on an application form provided by the board, at least the following:
(A) Level III procedures expected to be performed by each physician;
(B) The specialty board certification or board eligibility of the physician or physicians performing Level III
procedures, if any;
(C) Verification of health care liability coverage for all physicians performing Level III procedures;
(D) Verification of hospital staff privileges for all physicians performing Level III procedures;
(E) The name of a responsible physician in whose name the surgical suite certification shall be issued for that
office and a list of the physicians with the practice who are going to be performing Level III office-
based surgeries; and
(F) The documentation required by subsection (f) regarding incapacitated patient limits.
(2) The form required by subdivision (m)(1) shall serve as an application form, but the information on the
form shall be updated as appropriate when any information on it has changed.
(n) The board shall notify all physicians of the office-based surgery certification requirements. Failure of a
physician performingoffice-based surgery or a physician office at which office-based surgery is being
performed to abide by this section, any rules promulgated pursuant to this section or of § 68-11-211 may be
grounds for disciplinary action or termination of either the rights of the physician to perform office-
based surgery or the surgical suite's certification by the physician's licensing board, or both disciplinary action
and termination. For purposes of § 4-5-320(c), the public health, safety and welfare imperatively require
emergency action at any time that a previously authorized surgical suite fails to maintain the standards set by
the board.
(o) Applicants for initial licensure or reinstatement of a previously issued license shall indicate to the board
on the appropriate licensure application if they intend to perform Level II office-based surgery procedures as
defined by the rules of the board of medical examiners and that are integral to a planned treatment regimen
and not performed on an urgent or emergent basis.
(p) Licensed physicians who perform Level II office-based surgery at the time of licensure renewal shall
indicate to the board on the licensure renewal application if the licensee currently performs Level II office-
based surgery procedures as defined in the rules of the board of medical examiners and that are integral to a
planned treatment regimen and not performed on an urgent or emergent basis.
(q) In order for health care providers and the board to work together to collect meaningful health care data,
so as to minimize the frequency and severity of certain unexpected events and improve the delivery of health
care services, each physician who performs any Level II office-based surgery or Level III office-
based surgery that results in any of the following unanticipated events shall notify the board in writing within
fifteen (15) calendar days following the physician's discovery of the event:
(1) The death of a patient during any Level II office-based surgery or Level III office-based surgery or within
seventy-two (72) hours thereafter;
(2) The transport of a patient to a hospital emergency department except those related to a natural course of
the patient's illness or underlying condition;
(3) The unplanned admission of a patient to a hospital within seventy-two (72) hours of discharge, only if the
admission is related to the Level II office-based surgery or Level III office-based surgery, except those
related to a natural course of the patient's illness or underlying condition;
(4) The discovery of a foreign object erroneously remaining in a patient from a Level II office-
based surgery or Level IIIoffice-based surgery at that office; or
(5) The performance of the wrong surgical procedure, surgery on the wrong site or surgery on the wrong
patient.
(r) Records of reportable events should be in writing and should include at a minimum the following:
(1) The physician's name and license number;
(2) The date and time of the occurrence or discovery of the incident;
                                                        124
(3) The office and address where the incident took place;
(4) The name and address of the patient;
(5) The type of Level II office-based surgery or Level III office-based surgery that was performed;
(6) The type and dosage of sedation or anesthesia utilized during the procedure;
(7) The circumstances surrounding the incident; and
(8) The type or types of events required to be reported as provided in subsection (q).
(s) The filing of a report as required by subsection (q) does not, in and of itself, constitute an
acknowledgement or admission of health care liability, error or omission. Upon receipt of the report, the
board may, in its discretion, obtain patient and other records pursuant to authority granted to it in § 63-1-
117. The reporting form and any supporting documentation reviewed or obtained by the board pursuant to
this section and any amendments to the reports shall be confidential and not subject to discovery, subpoena
or legal compulsion for release to any person or entity; nor shall they be admissible in any civil or
administrative proceeding, other than a disciplinary proceeding by the board; nor shall they be subject to any
open records request made pursuant to title 10, chapter 7, part 5 or any other law. This section shall not
affect any of the provisions of or limit the protections provided by §§ 63-6-219 and 63-9-114.
(t) Failure to comply with the requirements of subsections (o)-(s) constitutes grounds for disciplinary action
by the board in its discretion pursuant to § 63-6-214.

Tenn. Comp. R. & Regs. 0880-02-.21 OFFICE BASED SURGERY.
A license to practice medicine issued pursuant to T.C.A. § 63-6-204 authorizes the holder to perform surgery.
To the extent that any licensee performs surgery in his or her office rather than a hospital, abortion clinic, or
ASTC, that licensee, or the governing body of the entity lawfully authorized to practice medicine wherein
the surgery is to be performed, shall comply with these rules.
(1) General Statement and Precaution - The Board will always judge the decision to perform surgery in the
office setting based upon what was in the patient's best interest and through strict application of these rules.
(2) Intent and Application
(a) Intent - It is not the intent of these rules to circumvent the law and rules and regulations governing
ambulatory surgical treatment centers. The intent of these rules is to provide physicians, who perform Level
I, II, IIA, and III surgeries as part of a medical practice whose focus is on provision of medical services and
procedures that are not related to surgery (and procedures and services incidental thereto), an option to
provide on-site surgical and surgical related services that are within the scope of the physician's specialty and
training and in the best interest of the patient.
(b) Application - These rules do not apply to physicians or the governing body of entities lawfully authorized
to practice medicine whose practice location(s) has as its primary purpose the provision of Level I, II, IIA
and III surgical or surgical preparatory services and/or procedures. Those types of practice locations must
comply with all laws, rules and regulations applicable to ambulatory surgical treatment centers including rules
0720-10, 11 and 12.
(3) Definitions
(a) Acceptable Plan of Correction. The Department approves an Office Based Surgery Suite's plan to correct
deficiencies identified during an on-site survey conducted by the Division. The plan of correction shall be a
written documents and shall provide, but not be limited to, the following information:
1. How the deficiency will be corrected;
2. The date upon which each deficiency will be corrected;
3. What measures or systemic changes will be put in place to ensure that the deficient practice does not recur;
and
4. How the corrective action will be monitored to ensure that the deficient practice does not recur.
(b) ACLS (Advanced cardiac life support) - A certification that means a person has successfully completed an
advanced cardiac life support course offered by a recognized accrediting organization in accordance with
American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines.
(c) ASA - American Society of Anesthesiologists.

                                                       125
(d) ASTC - An ambulatory surgical treatment center licensed by the Department of Health Division of
Health Care Facilities.
(e) Block -
1. Digital Block - The injection of a local anesthetic to stop or prevent painful sensation in a digit (i.e., finger
or toe).
2. Minor Regional Block or Minor Regional Anesthesia - The administration of local anesthetics to interrupt
nerve impulses in an extremity, or other minor region of the body, including but not limited to upper and
lower extremity plexus blocks.
3. Major Regional Block or Major Regional Anesthesia - The administration of local anesthetic agents to
interrupt nerve impulses in a major region of the body, including but not limited to spinal blocks, epidural
blocks, caudal blocks, and intravenous regional anesthetic.
(f) Board - The Tennessee Board of Medical Examiners.
(g) BCLS (Basic Cardiac Life Support) - A certification that means a person has successfully completed a
basic cardiac life support course offered by a recognized accrediting organization in accordance with AHA
guidelines.
(h) Conscious Sedation/Moderate Sedation/Sedation-Analgesia - A drug induced depression of
consciousness during which patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied
by light tactile stimulation. No interventions are usually required to maintain a patient airway, and
spontaneous ventilation is usually adequate. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
(i) Deep Sedation - A drug induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be easily
aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. The ability to independently
maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients often require assistance in maintaining a patient
airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
(j) General Anesthesia - A drug induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable even
by painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired. Patients
often require assistance in maintaining a patient airway, and positive-pressure ventilation may be required
because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug induced depression of neuromuscular function.
Cardiovascular function may be impaired.
(k) Hospital - A hospital licensed by the Department of Health Division of Health Care Facilities.
(l) Local Anesthetic - The administration of an agent which produces a transient and reversible loss of
sensation in a circumscribed portion of the body.
(m) PALS (Pediatric Advanced Life Support) - A certification that means a person has successfully
completed a pediatric advanced life support course offered by a recognized accrediting organization in
accordance with AHA guidelines.
(n) Physician - A person licensed to practice medicine and surgery pursuant to Tennessee Code Annotated
Title 63, Chapter 6.
(o) Surgery - The excision or resection, partial or complete, destruction, incision or other structural alteration
of human tissue by any means (including through the use of lasers) performed upon the body of a living
human for purposes of preserving health, diagnosing or curing disease, repairing injury, correcting deformity
or defects, prolonging life, relieving suffering, or for aesthetic, reconstructive or cosmetic purposes, to
include, but not limited to: incision or curettage of tissue or an organ; suture or other repair of tissue or
organ, including a closed or an open reduction of a fracture; extraction of tissue, including premature
extraction of products of conception from the uterus; and insertion of natural or artificial implants. For the
purpose of this rule, certain diagnostic and therapeutic procedures requiring medication to immobilize the
patient are contained within the definition of surgery.
(4) Surgery on Infants and Children
(a) Infants - Infants shall include only those persons in the neonatal age group. For such infants, only those
procedures that can be reasonably performed under local anesthetic, such as neonatal circumcisions, may be
performed in a physician's office.
(b) Children -
1. Level I surgeries may be performed in a physician's office on a patient under the age of fourteen (14).
                                                         126
2. No Level II, Level IIA or Level III surgeries or any surgery requiring any level of sedation may be
performed on patients under the age of (2) years in a physician's office.
3. Most Level II and IIA surgeries are not allowed to be performed in a physician's office on any patient
under the age of fourteen (14) years. Provided however, it is recognized that in the pediatric population,
certain types of surgeries may be performed under mild sedation in a physician's office. Those Level II and
IIA surgeries are limited to the following conditions and circumstances all of which must be met before
the surgery is allowed:
(i) The child is at least two (2) years of age but younger than fourteen (14) years of age and is healthy
according to ASA risk classification criteria; and
(ii) The surgery is anticipated to be brief and superficial and is of such a nature that it is more safely
performed while the patient is not agitated; and
(iii) Sedative or anxiolytic medications are not to be administered at home as part of a pre-procedural
sedating plan; and
(iv) Only minimal sedation is to be used which shall include only one (1) sedating drug that is administered
only one (1) time, in a low dose in addition to a local anesthetic or appropriate block such that at all times the
child is awake and interactive. An antagonist to the sedating drug used must be immediately available; and
(v) A pediatric equipped emergency cart is available and a person who has a current certification in PALS is
assigned with the task of staying in close proximity to the child at all times to observe the child throughout
the preoperative and surgical procedures and until such time as the child is declared fit to be released from
the office.
4. No Level III surgeries may be performed in a physician's office on a patient under the age of fourteen (14).
(c) If the patient has not recovered sufficiently to be safely discharged within twelve (12) hours after the
initial administration of anesthesia, the patient must be transferred to a hospital for continued postoperative
care.
(5) Level I Office Based Surgery
(a) Level of Anesthesia - Level I Office Surgery is the type of surgery in which preoperative medications are
not required or used other than minimal pre-operative tranquilization/anxiolysis of the patient. There is no
anesthesia or it is a local, topical, or appropriate block. No drug-induced alteration of consciousness other
than minimal preoperative tranquilization of the patient is permitted and the chances of complication
requiring hospitalization are remote.
(b) Level I Surgical Procedures - Procedures authorized to be performed under Level I anesthesia include,
but are not limited to, the following:
1. Minor procedures including, but not limited to, the following:
(i) Excision of skin lesions, moles, warts, cysts, lipomas; and
(ii) Repair of lacerations or surgery limited to the skin and subcutaneous tissue,
2. Liposuction involving the removal of less than 250 cc supernatant fat,
3. Incision and drainage of superficial abscesses,
4. Limited endoscopies such as proctoscopies,
5. Skin biopsies, arthrocentesis, thoracentesis, paracentesis, endometrial biopsy,
6. IUD's, colposcopy,
7. Dilation of urethra, cysto-scopic procedures, and
8. Closed reduction of simple fractures or small joint dislocations (i.e., finger and toe joints).
(c) Standards for Level I Office Based Surgery.
1. Training required of personnel involved in Level I Surgical Procedures. The physician's continuing medical
education should include instruction in proper dosages of regional anesthetic drugs and management of
toxicity or hypersensitivity to those drugs. It is required that either the physician or someone in the operating
room at the time of the surgery has a current BCLS certification.
2. Equipment and Supplies Required - Basic medications and equipment to manage toxic or hypersensitivity
reactions which shall be age and procedure appropriate.
3. Assistance of Other Personnel Required - No assistance from other personnel is required unless the
specific surgical procedure being performed should reasonably involve an assistant.
                                                        128
(d) If the patient has not recovered sufficiently to be safely discharged within twelve (12) hours after the
initial administration of anesthesia, the patient must be transferred to a hospital for continued postoperative
care.
(6) Levels II and IIA Office Surgery
(a) Level of Anesthesia The following levels of anesthesia are authorized for use in performing Level II and
IIA surgical procedures:
1. Pre-operative medication and sedation introduced intravenously, intramuscularly, inhalation, orally, or
rectally, thus making intra and postoperative monitoring necessary; and/or
2. Local or peripheral major nerve block, including Bier Block; and/or
3. Intravenous, oral, rectal or intramuscular sedation that preserve vital reflexes. However, the use of nitrous
oxide in conjunction with other types of sedatives is not allowed for Level II or IIA surgical procedures.
4. Any level or type of anesthesia in which the patient is placed in a state that allows the patient to tolerate
unpleasant procedures while maintaining adequate cardio respiratory function and the ability to respond
purposefully to verbal command and/or light tactile stimulation. Patients whose only response is reflex
withdrawal from a painful stimulus are sedated to a greater degree than is authorized for Level II and/or
IIA surgeries.
(b) Level II Surgical Procedures - Procedures authorized to be performed under Level II anesthesia include,
but are not limited to, the following:
1. Hemorrhoidectomy,
2. Hernia repair,
3. Reduction of closed, uncomplicated fractures,
4. Large joint dislocations,
5. Breast biopsies,
6. Colonoscopy and other endoscopic procedures,
7. Diagnostic radiologic procedures requiring sedation,
8. Liposuction involving the removal of up to 4000 cc supernatant fat, and
9. Diagnostic cardiac procedures which usually require sedation.
(c) Level IIA Surgical Procedures - are those Level II office surgical procedures with a maximum planned
duration of thirty (30) minutes or less and in which chances of complications requiring hospitalization are
remote. This category includes procedures requiring sedation for diagnostic purposes including, but not
limited to, endoscopic procedures and radiologic procedures.
(d) Standards for Level II and IIA Office Based Surgery.
1. Transfers - The physician performing the surgery must have staff privileges at a licensed hospital within
reasonable proximity or a written transfer protocol to a licensed hospital within reasonable proximity.
2. Training required of personnel involved in Level II and IIA Surgical Procedures.
(i) The physician must be able to document satisfactory completion of training such as Board certification or
Board eligibility by a Board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties or comparable
background, training, or experience.
(ii) The physician or one (1) assistant must have current certification in ACLS or there must be a qualified
anesthetic provider practicing within the scope of the provider's license present to manage the anesthetic.
(iii) Individuals responsible for patients receiving sedation/analgesia should understand the pharmacology of
the agents that are administered, as well as the role of pharmacologic antagonists for opioids and
benzodiazepines.
(iv) Individuals monitoring patients receiving these agents shall be able to recognize the associated
complications.
(v) At least one (1) individual with current ACLS certification who is capable of establishing a patient airway
and positive pressure ventilation shall be continuously present whenever sedation/analgesia are administered.
There must also be a means immediately available for summoning additional assistance.
3. Equipment and Supplies: All of the following which shall be age and procedure appropriate are required:
(i) Suction devices, endotracheal tubes, laryngoscopes, etc.
(ii) Positive pressure ventilation device (e.g., Ambu) plus oxygen supply.
                                                       128
(iii) Double tourniquet for the Bier block procedure.
(iv) Monitors for blood pressure, EKG, Oxygen saturation, and temperature.
(v) Emergency intubation equipment.
(vi) Adequate operating room lighting.
(vii) Appropriate sterilization equipment.
(viii) IV solution and IV equipment.
(ix) Reversal or antagonist agents for medications used.
(x) A standard and emergency ACLS equipped cart and other such equipment as is necessary for the
procedure being performed.
4. Assistance of Other Personnel Required.
(i) During the procedure
(I) Level II Surgical Procedures - The physician must be assisted by a professional licensed pursuant to
Tennessee Code Annotated Title 63, Chapters 6, 7, 9, or 19 and practicing within the lawful scope of their
licensure functioning as an assisting anesthesia provider who cannot function in any other capacity during the
procedure.
(II) Level IIA Surgical Procedures - A certified nurse practitioner, physician assistant, registered nurse,
advanced practice nurse or licensed practical nurse must assist the physician. Additional assistance may be
required by specific procedure or patient circumstances and if so, it must be provided by a person licensed
pursuant to either Tennessee Code Annotated, Title 63, Chapters 6, 7, 9 or 19, or a nationally certified
operating room technician.
(ii) Following the procedure
(I) There must be a person with current ACLS certification present at all times with the patient while in the
recovery area; and
(II) An additional professional who has post-anesthesia care unit experience or its equivalent and a current
ACLS certification and who is licensed pursuant to either Tennessee Code Annotated, Title 63 Chapter 6, 9
or 19 or a registered or advanced practice nurse licensed pursuant to Tennessee Code Annotated, Title 63
Chapter 7 must also be immediately available on the premises to assist in monitoring the patient in the
recovery room until the patient has recovered from anesthesia.
5. Pre, Intra, Postoperative Services In General.
(i) An operative/procedure note shall be created for each surgery describing the procedure performed, the
techniques used, participating personnel and their titles, postoperative diagnosis, type of anesthesia, and
complications. Where similar procedures are performed at an office routinely, partially preprinted forms may
be utilized as a guide, provided that original data and conclusions applicable to the specific patient are
contemporaneously entered to create a complete report.
(ii) A post-procedure note shall be created for each surgery and completed prior to discharge of a patient
from the office, which shall include such post-procedure data as the patient's general condition, vital signs,
treatments ordered, and all drugs prescribed, administered or dispensed including dosages and quantities.
(iii) All patients, except those who receive minor regional blocks and/or local anesthetic only, shall receive
appropriate postoperative management. A patient may be excused from a stay in the recovery area only by a
specific order of the anesthesia personnel or the operating physician.
(iv) The patient shall be transported to the recovery area accompanied by a member of the anesthesia care
team who is knowledgeable about the patient's condition. The patient shall be continually evaluated and
treated during transport appropriate to the patient's condition.
(v) An oral report on the patient's condition shall be given to the health care personnel responsible for the
patient in the recovery area who were not present in the anesthetizing location.
(vi) The patient's recovery area condition shall be evaluated and recorded in the medical record. The blood
pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood oxygen saturation, level of consciousness, and when appropriate
temperature shall be assessed at least every fifteen (15) minutes (five [5] minutes for pediatric patients) until
they are stable and returned to preoperative baseline values and/or normal values consistent with the
patient's age and medical condition.

                                                       129
(vii) Objective criteria (for example a scoring system such as PARR or Aldrete Score) shall be established to
determine when a patient is medically ready or “fit” to be discharged.
(viii) Before discharge, the patient shall be given written and verbal instructions for follow-up care and advice
concerning complications. Emergency phone number shall be provided to the patient.
(ix) If sedation or regional blocks have been used, a responsible adult must be available to accompany the
patient and be instructed with regard to the patient care and follow-up.
(x) If a patient has not recovered sufficiently to be safely discharged within twelve (12) hours after the initial
administration of anesthesia, the patient must be transferred to a hospital for continued postoperative care.
6. Sufficient space in the room in which the surgical procedure is being performed shall be available to
accommodate all necessary equipment and personnel and to allow for expeditious access to the patient and
all resuscitation and monitoring equipment.
7. Pharmaceutical Services - The office shall maintain and provide drugs and biologicals in a safe and
effective manner in accordance with accepted standards of practice. Such drugs and biologicals must be
stored in a separate room or cabinet which shall be kept locked at all times and a log of all such drugs and
biologicals dispensed shall be maintained.
8. Ancillary Services - All ancillary or supportive health medical services, including but not limited to,
radiological, pharmaceutical, or medical laboratory services shall be provided in accordance with all applicable
state and federal laws and regulations.
(e) ASA Risk Classifications - Level II and IIA surgeries are limited to patients who fall within ASA Class 1,
2, and 3 risk classification criteria.
(7) Level III Office Based Surgery
(a) Levels of Anesthesia - Includes all levels of anesthesia which sedate a patient beyond the levels described
in subparagraph (6)(a) of this rule which includes:
1. Deep sedation as defined by subparagraph (3)(i) of this rule; and/or
2. Major Conduction Anesthesia (epidural, spinal, caudal); and/or
3. Major conduction anesthesia and pre-operative sedation; and/or
4. General Anesthesia as defined in subparagraph (3)(j) of this rule; and/or
5. The use of nitrous oxide in conjunction with other types of sedatives.
(b) Level III Surgical Procedures - Procedures authorized to be performed under Level III anesthesia are
those contained on the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) list of procedures published in
Volume 71, Number 226 of the Federal Register dated November 24, 2006 as it may from time to time be
amended that are authorized for reimbursement at the Ambulatory Surgical Center (ASC) level and only
those cosmetic surgical procedures that, based upon reasonable medical judgment, would require Level III
sedation. The surgical procedures authorized pursuant to this subparagraph are limited to those that also
have all the following characteristics:
1. Have a planned duration of less than four (4) hours. This includes multiple surgeries regardless of the level
of surgery; the combined planned duration of all planned procedures shall be less than four (4) hours; and
2. Generally result in blood loss of less than ten percent (10%) of estimated blood volume in a patient with
normal hemoglobin; and
3. Will not require major or prolonged intracranial or intrathoracic procedures; and
4. Will not require major or prolonged abdominal or major hip replacement procedures (this criteria does not
apply to laparoscopic procedures); and
5. Will not be generally emergent or life threatening in nature.
(c) Application for Certification and Renewal-
1. Application for Certification - A physician office which contains operating and recovery rooms wherein
Level III officebased surgeries are to be performed, which shall be referred to as “surgical suites” for
purposes of this rule, must obtain certification from the Board before any Level III surgical procedures may
be performed therein. The process for obtaining that certification is as follows:
(i) Obtain the Board's Level III Office Based Surgery Certification application (which shall also serve as the
official request for a site survey) and provide all the information requested thereon which shall include the
following:
                                                       130
(I) The name of a responsible physician in whose name the surgical suite certification shall be issued who
shall also arrange to have provided, for each physician in the office who will be performing Level III
procedures, the following information and/or documentation:
(II) A statement identifying all Level III procedures expected to be performed by each such physician; and
(III) A copy of what, if any, specialty board certification or board eligibility has been obtained by each such
physician; and
(IV) Written verification of medical malpractice coverage from each physicians' malpractice insurance carrier;
and
(V) Written verification of hospital staff privileges from at least one hospital at which each of the physicians
has been granted staff privileges that is within thirty (30) miles or thirty (30) minutes from the surgical suite.
(ii) Submit copies of both the office's by-laws and its documentation of the management system that will
insure that no more than three (3) patients that are in surgery or recovery are incapable of self-preservation at
the same time.
(iii) Submit the Surgical Suite Certification fee in the amount of one thousand eighty dollars ($1,080.00) and
the state regulatory fee of five dollars ($5.00).
(iv) Obtain a surgical suite site survey performed by the Department of Health to determine compliance with
the standards set forth in this rule. The Department of Health shall have the authority to:
(I) Require plans of correction from the physician office for any deficiencies they may find in compliance
with the standards set forth in this rule and to make a determination of the acceptability of the submitted
plans of correction, and verify that the plans of correction have been implemented.
(II) Initiate subsequent, unannounced site surveys during regular business hours as long as the physician
office continues to be used to perform Level III office-based surgeries but no more frequently than once
every twelve (12) months.
(III) Respond to any complaints made by patients or the public against a physician who
performs office based surgery or a physician's office at which Level III office-based surgery is being
performed at the request of the Department's office of investigations.
(v) Receive approval from the Board on the result of the surgical suite site survey.
2. Renewal of Certification - A physician office which obtains Level III Office Based Surgery Certification
for its surgical suites, must renew that certification every year by submitting to the Board the annual renewal
fee in the amount of one thousand and eighty dollars ($1,080.00) and the state regulatory fee of five dollars
($5.00), on or before its anniversary date.
3. The information required to be included on and/or with the application form as itemized in subparagraph
(c) 1 (i) and (ii) of this rule must be updated within thirty (30) days of the date on which any of the provided
information or documentation has changed or additions need to be made.
4. Transition Provisions -
(i) In order for a physician office at which Level III office-based surgeries have been performed prior to
October 1, 2007, (pursuant to certifications/accreditations received pursuant to prior Board rules) to
continue doing so, the office must submit an application and a request for a site survey and remit payment of
the Surgical Suite Certification fee and the state regulatory fee to the department by October 1, 2007. If such
office makes a timely filing in accordance with this provision, the physician's office may continue to be a site
for office-based surgeries pending completion of a survey confirming compliance with board rules and
subsequent issuance of a certification of the surgical suite(s).
(ii) A physician office at which office-based surgeries have not been performed as of October 1, 2007,
(pursuant to certifications/accreditations received pursuant to prior Board rules) shall not perform any such
procedures until an application form and payment of the Surgical Suite Certification fee and the state
regulatory fee are submitted to the board and a site survey is completed and a certification of the surgical
suite is issued by the board.
(d) Level III Surgery Standards - All physician offices for which certification for performance of Level
III surgeries is to be sought and obtained shall meet the following standards:
1. Infection Control

                                                        131
(i) The surgical suite(s) must provide a sanitary environment to avoid sources and transmission of infections
and communicable diseases. There must be an active performance improvement program for the prevention,
control, and investigation of infections and communicable diseases.
(ii) The physical environment of the surgical suite(s) shall be maintained in a safe, clean and sanitary manner.
(I) Any condition on the surgical suite(s) site conducive to the harboring or breeding of insects, rodents or
other vermin shall be prohibited. Chemical substances of a poisonous nature used to control or eliminate
vermin shall be properly identified. Such substances shall not be stored with or near food or medications.
(II) Cats, dogs or other animals shall not be allowed in any part of the surgical suite except for specially
trained animals for the handicapped and except as addressed by physician office policy for pet therapy
programs. The physician's office shall designate in its policies and procedures those areas where animals will
be excluded. The areas designated shall be determined based upon an assessment of the surgical suite
performed by medically trained personnel.
(III) A bed complete with mattress and pillow shall be provided. In addition, patient units shall be provided
with at least one chair, a bedside table, an over bed tray and adequate storage space for toilet articles, clothing
and personal belongings.
(IV) Individual wash cloths, towels and bed linens must be provided for each patient. Linen shall not be
interchanged from patient to patient until it has been properly laundered.
(V) Bath basin water service, emesis basin, bedpan and urinal shall be individually provided.
(VI) Water pitchers, glasses, thermometers, emesis basins, douche apparatus, enema apparatus, urinals,
mouthwash cups, bedpans and similar items of equipment coming into intimate contact with patients shall be
disinfected or sterilized after each use unless individual equipment for each is provided and then sterilized or
disinfected between patients and as often as necessary to maintain them in a clean and sanitary condition.
Single use, patient disposable items are acceptable but shall not be reused.
(iii) The physician office shall assure that an infection control committee including members of the medical,
nursing, and administrative staff develops guidelines and techniques for the prevention, surveillance, control
and reporting of facility infections. Duties of the committee shall include the establishment of:
(I) Written infection control policies;
(II) Techniques and systems for identifying, reporting, investigating and controlling infections in the facility;
(III) Written procedures governing the use of aseptic techniques and procedures in all areas of the facility;
(IV) Written procedures concerning food handling, laundry practices, disposal of environmental and patient
wastes, traffic control and visiting rules in high risk areas, sources of air pollution, and routine culturing of
autoclaves and sterilizers;
(V) A log of incidents related to infectious and communicable diseases;
(VI) A method of control used in relation to the sterilization of supplies and water, and a written policy
addressing reprocessing of sterile supplies;
(VII) Formal provisions to educate and orient all appropriate personnel in the practice of aseptic techniques
such as hand washing and scrubbing practices, proper grooming, masking and dressing care techniques,
disinfecting and sterilizing techniques, and the handling and storage of patient care equipment and supplies;
and,
(VIII) Continuing education provided for all office personnel on the cause, effect, transmission, prevention,
and elimination of infections, as evidenced by front line employees verbalizing understanding of basic
techniques.
(iv) The physician office must ensure that the facility-wide performance improvement program and training
programs address problems identified by the infection control committee and must be responsible for the
implementation of successful corrective action plans in affected problem areas.
(v) The physician office shall develop policies and procedures for testing a patient's blood for the presence of
the hepatitis B virus and the HIV (AIDS) virus in the event that any person, employee or other health care
provider rendering services at the facility is exposed to a patient's blood or other body fluid. The testing shall
be performed at no charge to the patient, and the test results shall be confidential.
(vi) The physician office and its employees shall adopt and utilize standard precautions (per CDC) for
preventing transmission of infections, HIV, and communicable diseases.
                                                        132
(vii) The physician office shall adopt appropriate policies regarding the testing of patients and staff for
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and any other identified causative agent of acquired immune
deficiency syndrome
2. Life Safety
(i) All surgical suites and recovery areas shall conform to the current addition of the Standard Building Code,
the National Fire Protection Code (NFPA), the National Electrical Code, the AIA Guidelines for Design and
Construction of Hospital and Health Care Facilities (if applicable), and the U.S Public Health Service Food
Code as adopted by the Board for Licensing Health Care Facilities. When referring to height, area or
construction type, the Standard Building Code shall prevail. All new and existing surgical suites and recovery
areas are subject to the requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act (A.D.A.). Where there are
conflicts between requirements in the above listed codes and regulations and provisions of this chapter, the
most restrictive shall apply.
(ii) Any surgical suite(s) and recovery area(s) which complies with the required applicable building and fire
safety regulations at the time the board adopts new codes or regulations will, so long as such compliance is
maintained (either with or without waivers of specific provisions), be considered to be in compliance with
the requirements of the new codes or regulations.
(iii) A surgical suite(s) and recovery area(s) shall be provided fire protection by the elimination of fire hazards,
by the installation of necessary fire fighting equipment and by the adoption of a written fire control plan. All
fires which result in a response by the local fire department shall be reported to the Board within seven (7)
days. The report shall contain sufficient information to ascertain the nature and location of the fire, its
probable cause and any injuries incurred by any person or persons as a result of the fire. Initial reports by the
facility may omit the name(s) of patient(s) and parties involved, however, should the department find the
identities of such persons to be necessary to an investigation, the facility shall provide such information.
(iv) The following alarms are required in surgical suites and recovery areas and shall be monitored twenty-
four (24) hours per day:
(I) Fire alarms; and
(II) Generators (if applicable)
(v) A negative air pressure shall be maintained in all the following rooms encompassed within the surgical
suites and recovery areas: the soiled utility area, toilet room, janitor's closet, dishwashing and other such
soiled spaces. A positive air pressure shall be maintained in all clean areas encompassed within the surgical
suites and recovery areas including, but not limited to, clean linen rooms and clean utility rooms.
(vi) The emergency power system for surgical suites and recovery areas shall:
(I) Use either propane, gasoline or diesel fuel. The generator shall be designed to meet the surgical suite and
recovery area's HVAC and essential needs and shall have a minimum of twenty-four (24) hours of fuel
designed to operate at its rated load. The fuel quantity shall be based on its expected or known connected
load consumption during power interruptions.
(II) Automatically transfer within ten (10) seconds in Surgery Suites conducting invasive surgical procedures.
(III) Be inspected monthly and exercised at the actual load and operating temperature conditions and not on
dual power for at least thirty (30) minutes each month, including automatic and manual transfer of
equipment. A log shall be maintained for all inspections and tests and kept on file for a minimum of three (3)
years. The suite shall have trained staff familiar with the generator's operation.
(IV) Emergency generators are not required if the suite does not utilize anesthesia that renders the patient
incapable of self preservation. However, the suite shall have an emergency power source able to produce
adequate power to run required equipment for a minimum of two (2) hours.
(vii) Emergency electrical power connections shall be through a switch which shall automatically transfer the
circuits to the emergency power source in case of power failure. (It is recognized that some equipment may
not sustain automatic transfer and provisions will have to be made to manually change these items from a
non-emergency powered outlet to an emergency powered outlet or other power source.)
3. Patient Rights
(i) Each patient has at least the following rights:
(I) To privacy in treatment and personal care;
                                                         133
(II) To be free from mental and physical abuse. Should this right be violated, the physician office must notify
the department within five (5) business days and the Tennessee Department of Human Services, Adult
Protective Services immediately as required by T.C.A. §§ 71-6-101 et seq;
(III) To refuse treatment. The patient must be informed of the consequences of that decision, the refusal and
its reason must be reported to the physician and documented in the medical record;
(IV) To refuse experimental treatment and drugs. The patient's or health care decision maker's written
consent for participation in research must be obtained and retained in his or her medical record;
(V) To have their records kept confidential and private. Written consent by the patient must be obtained
prior to release of information except to persons authorized by law. If the patient lacks capacity, written
consent is required from the patient's health care decision maker. The physician office must have policies to
govern access and duplication of the patient's record;
(VI) To have appropriate assessment and management of pain; and
(VII) To be involved in the decision making of all aspects of their care.
(ii) Each patient has a right to self-determination, which encompasses the right to make choices regarding
life-sustaining treatment (including resuscitative services). This right of self-determination may be effectuated
by an advance directive.
4. Hazardous Waste
(i) Each physician office must develop, maintain and implement written policies and procedures for the
definition and handling of its infectious and hazardous wastes, these policies and procedures must comply
with the standards of this section and all other applicable state and federal regulations.
(ii) The following waste shall be considered to be infectious waste:
(I) Waste contaminated by patients who are isolated due to communicable disease, as provided in the U.S.
Centers for Disease Control “Guidelines for Isolation Precautions in Hospitals”;
(II) Cultures and stocks of infectious agents including specimen cultures collected from medical and
pathological laboratories, cultures and stocks of infectious agents from research and industrial laboratories,
wastes from the production of biologicals, discarded live and attenuated vaccines, and culture dishes and
devices used to transfer, inoculate, and mix cultures;
(III) Waste human blood and blood products such as serum, plasma, and other blood components;
(IV) Pathological waste, such as tissues, organs, body parts, and body fluids that are removed
during surgery and autopsy;
(V) All discarded sharps (including but not limited to, hypodermic needles, syringes, Pasteur pipettes, broken
glass, scalpel blades) used in patient care or which have come into contact with infectious agents during use
in medical, research, or industrial laboratories;
(VI) Contaminated carcasses, body parts, and bedding of animals that were exposed to pathogens in research,
in the production of biologicals, or in the in vivo testing of pharmaceuticals;
(VII) Other waste determined to be infectious by the physician office in its written policy.
(iii) Infectious and hazardous waste must be segregated from other waste at the point of generation (i.e., the
point at which the material becomes a waste) within the physician office.
(iv) Waste must be packaged in a manner that will protect waste handlers and the public from possible injury
and disease that may result from exposure to the waste. Such packaging must provide for containment of the
waste from the point of generation up to the point of proper treatment or disposal. Packaging must be
selected and utilized for the type of waste the package will contain, how the waste will be treated and
disposed, and how it will be handled and transported, prior to treatment and disposal.
(I) Contaminated sharps must be directly placed in leakproof, rigid, and puncture-resistant containers which
must then be tightly sealed;
(II) Whether disposable or reusable, all containers, bags, and boxes used for containment and disposal of
infectious waste must be conspicuously identified. Packages containing infectious waste which pose
additional hazards (e.g., chemical, radiological) must also be conspicuously identified to clearly indicate those
additional hazards;


                                                       134
(III) Reusable containers for infectious waste must be thoroughly sanitized each time they are emptied,
unless the surfaces of the containers have been completely protected from contamination by disposable
liners or other devices removed with the waste;
(IV) Opaque packaging must be used for pathological waste.
(v) After packaging, waste must be handled and transported by methods ensuring containment and
preserving the integrity of the packaging, including the use of secondary containment where necessary.
(I) Waste must not be compacted or ground (i.e., in a mechanical grinder) prior to treatment, except that
pathological waste may be ground prior to disposal;
(II) Plastic bags of infectious waste must be transported by hand.
(vi) Waste must be stored in a manner which preserves the integrity of the packaging, inhibits rapid microbial
growth and putrefaction, and minimizes the potential of exposure or access by unknowing persons.
(I) Waste must be stored in a manner and location which affords protection from animals, precipitation,
wind, and direct sunlight, does not present a safety hazard, does not provide a breeding place or food source
for insects or rodents and does not create a nuisance.
(II) Pathological waste must be promptly treated, disposed of, or placed into refrigerated storage.
(vii) In the event of spills, ruptured packaging, or other incidents where there is a loss of containment of
waste, the physician office must ensure that proper actions are immediately taken to:
(I) Isolate the area from the public and all except essential personnel;
(II) To the extent practicable, repackage all spilled waste and contaminated debris in accordance with the
requirements of subpart (vi) of this part;
(III) Sanitize all contaminated equipment and surfaces appropriately. Written policies and procedure must
specify how this will be done; and
(IV) Complete incident report and maintain copy on file.
(viii) Except as provided otherwise in this section a physician office must treat or dispose of infectious waste
by one or more of the methods specified in this part.
(I) A physician office may treat infectious waste in an on-site sterilization or disinfection device, or in an
incinerator or a steam sterilizer, which has been designed, constructed, operated and maintained so that
infectious wastes treated in such a device are rendered non-infectious and is, if applicable, authorized for that
purpose pursuant to current rules of the Department of Environment and Conservation. A valid permit or
other written evidence of having complied with the Tennessee Air Pollution Control Regulations shall be
available for review, if required. Each sterilizing or disinfection cycle must contain appropriate indicators to
assure conditions were met for proper sterilization or disinfection of materials included in the cycle, and
records kept. Proper operation of such devices must be verified at least monthly, and records of these
monthly checks shall be available for review. Waste that contains toxic chemicals that would be volatilized by
steam must not be treated in steam sterilizers. Infectious waste that has been rendered to a carbonized or
mineralized ash shall be deemed non-infectious. Unless otherwise hazardous and subject to the hazardous
waste management requirements of the current rules of the Department of Environment and Conservation,
such ash shall be disposable as a (nonhazardous) solid waste under current rules of the Department of
Environment and Conservation.
(II) The physician may discharge liquid or semi-liquid infectious waste to the collection sewerage system of a
wastewater treatment facility which is subject to a permit pursuant to T.C.A. §§ 69-3-101, et seq., provided
that such discharge is in accordance with any applicable terms of that permit and/or any applicable municipal
sewer use requirements.
(III) Any physician office accepting waste from another state must promptly notify the Department of
Environment and Conservation, county and city public health agencies, and must strictly comply with all
applicable local, state and federal regulations.
(ix) The physician office may have waste transported off-site for storage, treatment, or disposal. Such
arrangements must be detailed in a written contract, available for review. If such off-site location is located
within Tennessee, the physician office must ensure that it has all necessary State and local approvals, and
such approvals shall be available for review. If the off-site location is within another state, the physician
office must notify in writing all public health agencies with jurisdiction that the location is being used for
                                                       135
management of the facility's waste. Waste shipped off-site must be packaged in accordance with applicable
Federal and State requirements. Waste transported to a sanitary landfill in this state must meet the
requirements of current rules of the Department of Environment and Conservation.
(x) Human anatomical remains which are transferred to a mortician for cremation or burial shall be exempt
from the requirements of this subparagraph. Any other human limbs and recognizable organs must be
incinerated or discharged (following grinding) to the sewer.
(xi) All garbage, trash and other non-infectious wastes shall be stored and disposed of in a manner that must
not permit the transmission of disease, create a nuisance, provide a breeding place for insects and rodents, or
constitute a safety hazard. All containers for waste shall be water tight, be constructed of easily cleanable
material and be kept on elevated platforms.
5. Equipment and Supplies
(i) Adequate equipment and supplies must be available to the operating room suites and to the postoperative
care area which, when applicable shall be age and procedure appropriate and shall include but not be limited
to the following;
(I) Call-in system (OR)
(II) Cardiac monitor
(III) Pulse Oximeter
(IV) Resuscitator
(V) Defibrillator
(VI) Aspirator
(VIII) Tracheotomy set
(ii) A crash cart must be available and include at a minimum all the medication and supplies recommended by
the current ACLS guidelines of the American Heart Association and:
(I) Dantrolene.
6. Administration
(i) Physician offices that perform office-based surgery must adopt bylaws that put in place a management
system and documentation that will insure that no more than three (3) patients that are in surgery or recovery
are incapable of self-preservation at the same time.
(ii) Except for emergencies, a surgical suite certified for office based surgery may be utilized only by physician
employees of the practice in which the surgical suite is located. Surgical suites may not be shared with other
practices or other physicians.
(iii) When licensure is applicable for a particular job within the surgery suite, a copy of the current license
must be included as a part of the personnel file. Each personnel file shall contain accurate information as to
the education, training, experience, and personnel background of the employee.
(iv) The Surgery Suite shall have available a plan for emergency transportation to a licensed local hospital.
(v) As needed, the patient and family members or interested persons must be taught and/or counseled to
prepare them for post-operative care.
(vi) There must be a complete history and physical work-up in the chart of every patient within 30 days prior
to surgeryand updated within 24 hours prior to surgery. If the history has been dictated, but not yet recorded
in the patient's chart, there must be a statement to that effect and an admission note in the chart by the
practitioner who admitted the patient.
(vii) Properly executed informed consent forms must be in the patient's chart before surgery, except in
emergencies.
7. Reporting
(i) Surgery Suites are subject to all reporting requirements in Tenn. Code Ann. §§63-6-221(1) and 68-11-211,
as well as any other reporting required by law.
(ii) The Surgery Suite shall report information contained in the medical records of patients who have cancer
or pre-cancerous or tumorous diseases as provided by existing regulations. These reports shall be sent to the
Cancer Reporting System of the department on a quarterly schedule no later than six (6) months after the
date of the diagnosis or treatment.

                                                        136
(iii) The Surgery Suite shall report to the Department of Health each case of communicable disease detected
in the center. Repeated failure to report communicable diseases shall be cause for revocation of
a Surgery Suite's license.
8. Hospital Staff Privileges required - The physician performing the surgery must have staff privileges to
perform the same procedure as that being performed in the office setting at a licensed hospital within
reasonable proximity.
9. Training Required - The physician performing the surgery must have documentation of training to
perform the particular surgical procedures and must have knowledge of the principles of general anesthesia.
The physician performing thesurgery and at least one (1) assistant must be currently certified in ACLS.
10. Assistance of Other Personnel Required.
(i) An anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist licensed pursuant to Tennessee Code
Annotated, Title 63, Chapter 7 and practicing within the lawful scope of that license, must administer the
general or regional anesthesia. The anesthesia provider cannot function in any other capacity during the
procedure and shall be physically present with the patient at all times during the intra-operative period.
(ii) When general anesthesia using volatile anesthetic gases, succinylcholine or other agents known to trigger
malignant hyperthermia are administered, the facility shall maintain or have immediate access to thirty-six
(36) ampules of dantrolene and its diluent for injection. If dantrolene is administered, appropriate monitoring
must be provided postoperatively.
(iii) Following the procedure -
(I) There must be a person with current ACLS certification present at all times with the patient while in the
recovery area; and
(II) An additional professional who has post-anesthesia care unit experience or its equivalent and a current
ACLS certification and who is licensed pursuant to either Tennessee Code Annotated, Title 63 Chapter 6, 9
or 19 or a registered or advanced practice nurse licensed pursuant to Tennessee Code Annotated, Title 63
Chapter 7 must also be immediately available on the premises to assist in monitoring the patient in the
recovery room until the patient has recovered from anesthesia.
(III) If the patient has not recovered sufficiently to be safely discharged within twelve (12) hours after the
initial administration of anesthesia, the patient must be transferred to a hospital for continued postoperative
care.
11. Level III surgical suites shall be used exclusively for surgery and recovery, respectively and for no other
purpose.
12. Physicians performing Level III surgery in an office setting shall obtain written informed consent prior to
the procedure from the patient or the patient's representative which shall be documented in the patient's
health record. The consent shall explain to the patient the risks and benefits of the procedure; the alternative
treatments to the surgical procedure; the type of anesthesia to be used and its risks; and the qualifications of
the professional who is expected to administer the anesthesia during the procedure.
13. A physician performing Level III surgery in an office setting must inform the patient, in writing, that the
medical office is not a licensed facility and that the patient may elect to have the surgery performed at a
licensed ASTC or hospital. The patient or the patient's representative must consent in writing to have
the surgery performed in a medical office.
(e) ASA Risk Classifications - Only patients classified under the ASA risk classification criteria as Class 1 or 2
are appropriate candidates for Level III office based surgical procedures.
(f) The Board shall post on its web site a list, including the names and locations of physician offices that have
qualified as sites for Level III surgeries and have been issued certification by the Board. Information on the
list shall be updated at least quarterly.
(8) Procedure Specific Restrictions
(a) Liposuction - Liposuction procedures performed pursuant to these rules shall be performed only by
physicians with appropriate training following prescribed national professional guidelines. These procedures
shall be within the scope of practices of the physician and capabilities of the office. Provided however, no
such procedures may be performed if the anticipated supernatant fat removal is to be greater than 4000 cc. In
addition the following shall also apply:
                                                        137
1. When combined with other surgical procedures, liposuction may not exceed 2000 cc of supernatant fat.
2. A maximum of 50mg/kg of Lidocaine can be injected for tumescent liposuction in the office setting. A
maximum of 35mg/kg of Lidocaine can be injected for nontumescent liposuction in the office setting.
(b) Laser surgery - Laser surgeries performed pursuant to these rules require written policies and procedures
that include, but are not limited to, laser safety, education, training, and the supervision of other licensed
health care practitioners who are performing laser treatments. A safe environment shall be maintained for
laser surgery.
(9) The Board shall appoint a standing Office Based Surgery Committee comprised of three (3) members of
the Board who shall meet twice a year to review and make whatever recommendations for revision of these
rules as circumstances require. All comments and suggestions for revision and improvement of these rules
should be addressed to that committee and sent to the Board's Administrative Office.
(10) Any violation of these rules shall be grounds for disciplinary actions before the board pursuant to T.C.A.
§ 63-6-214 (b) (1), (2) or (4) or Public Chapter 373 of the Public Acts of 2007.
(a) When an office-based surgical suite is found by the department to have committed a violation of this rule,
the department will issue to the office a statement of deficiencies. Within ten (10) days of the receipt of the
statement of deficiencies the office must return a plan of correction indicating the following:
(i) How the deficiency will be corrected;
(ii) The date upon which each deficiency will be corrected;
(iii) What measures or systemic changes will be put in place to ensure that the deficient practice does not
recur; and
(iv) How the corrective action will be monitored to ensure that the deficient practice does not recur.
(b) Failure to submit a plan of correction in a timely manner, a finding by the department that the plan of
correction is unacceptable, or a finding that the plan of correction was not implemented shall subject
the office based surgical suite's certification to possible disciplinary action.


Tennessee – Osteopathic

T. C. A. § 63-9-117. Office-based surgery
 (a) For the purposes of this section, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) “Board” means the board of osteopathic examination;
(2) “Level II office-based surgery” means Level II surgery as defined by the board of osteopathic medical
examination in its rules and regulations that is performed outside of a hospital, ambulatory surgical treatment
center or other medical facility licensed by the department of health;
(3) “Office-based surgery” means Level III surgery requiring a level of sedation beyond the level of sedation
defined by the board of medical examiners as Level II surgery that is performed outside a hospital, an
ambulatory surgical treatment center or other medical facility licensed by the department of health;
(4) “Physician” means any person licensed under this chapter; and
(5) “Surgical suite” means both the operating and recovery room or rooms located in a physician's office
where Level III office-based surgery is to be performed.
(b) The board shall have the duty and responsibility to regulate the practice of office-based surgery, including
the promulgation of rules necessary to promote patient health and safety in such practices, including, but not
limited to, a mechanism by which all office-based surgical suites are surveyed and certified by the board.
(c) The board shall specifically identify in rules the parameters to be used in determining Level III surgical
procedures and multiple procedures that may be performed in an office-based setting pursuant to the level of
anesthesia involved in the procedures. In addition, the board shall promulgate age and risk classification
criteria of patients eligible for Level III office-based surgical procedures.
(d) By December 30, 2007, the board shall adopt rules establishing a specific list of approved Level III
surgical procedures that can be performed in a physician's office in this state. The ambulatory surgical center
covered procedures list promulgated by the centers of medicare and medicaid shall be used as a guide. No
physician shall perform any Level III surgical procedures that are not included on the list promulgated by the
                                                       138
board. The board may modify the list as the board deems necessary. The board shall also promulgate rules
addressing the minimum requirements deemed necessary by the board for the safe performance of office-
based surgery.
(e) Using the rules established for ambulatory surgical treatment centers as guidelines, the board shall
promulgate rules relative to infection control, life safety, patient rights, hazardous waste and equipment and
supplies necessary to assure the safety of patients undergoing office-based surgery. Any provision in the
ambulatory surgical treatment center rules addressing infection control, life safety, patient rights, hazardous
waste and equipment and supplies that is not adopted by the board shall require a statement entered into the
official minutes from the board justifying the board's decision.
(f) No more than three (3) patients undergoing Level III office-based surgery in a physician's office may be
incapable of self-preservation at the same time. The board shall promulgate rules requiring physician offices
that perform office-based surgery to adopt bylaws that put in place a management system and documentation
that will insure that no more than three (3) patients that are in surgery or recovery are incapable of self-
preservation at the same time. The bylaws and documentation of the management system shall be included in
the application for surgical suite certification.
(g) Except for emergencies, a surgical suite certified for office-based surgery may be utilized only by
physician employees of the practice in which the surgical suite is located. Surgical suites may not be shared
with other practices or other physicians.
(h) The board shall enter into a memorandum of understanding, contract or other written arrangement with
the department of health such that the department:
(1) Provides a site survey of the surgical suites sought to be certified to perform office-based surgery. A
physician office at which office-based surgeries are being performed as of October 1, 2007, shall submit both
a request for a site survey on an application form developed by the board and remit payment of the office-
based surgery fee to the department by October 1, 2007. If the office makes a timely filing in accordance
with this subdivision (h)(1), the physician's office may continue to be a site for office-based surgeries pending
completion of a survey confirming compliance with board rules and subsequent issuance of a certification of
the surgical suite or suites. A physician office at which office-based surgeries are not being performed as of
October 1, 2007, shall not perform any such procedures until an application form and payment of the office-
based surgery fee is submitted to the board and a site survey is completed by the department and a
certification of the surgical suite is issued by the board;
(2) Is authorized to require plans of correction and to verify that the plans of correction have been
implemented;
(3) Is authorized to initiate subsequent, unannounced site surveys during regular business hours as long as the
physician office continues to be used to perform office-based surgeries, but no more frequently than once
every twelve (12) months; and
(4) Is authorized to respond to any complaints made by patients or the public against a physician who
performs office-based surgery or a physician's office at which office-based surgery is being performed at the
request of the office of investigations.
(i) The results of all site surveys shall be transmitted by the department to the board. The results shall include
any requirement for plans of correction, the department's determination of the acceptability of the submitted
plans of correction, and the department's verification that the plans of correction have been implemented.
The board shall make a final determination on certifying the surgical suite for performance of office-based
surgeries. The results of site surveys and board determinations shall be shared on a routine basis with the
board for licensing health care facilities.
(j) The results of all complaint investigations by department staff shall be transmitted to the board for
resolution; however, the information shall at all times be maintained as confidential and not available to the
public except to the extent § 63-1-117(b) applies.
(k) Any physician office that desires to be certified to perform office-based surgery shall pay to the
department an annual office-based surgery fee as set by the board.
(l) A physician office at which office-based surgery is being performed shall ensure that claims data is
reported to the commissioner of health on a form approved by the department of health. The data shall be
                                                       139
submitted through a third party approved by the department of health for the purpose of editing the data
according to rules and regulations established by the commissioner. The physician office shall be responsible
for the costs associated with processing of the data by the approved vendors. The claims data shall be
reported at least quarterly to the commissioner. No information shall be made available to the public by the
commissioner that reasonably could be expected to reveal the identity of any patient. The claims data
reported to the commissioner under this section are confidential and not available to the public until the
commissioner processes and verifies the data. The commissioner shall prescribe conditions under which the
processed and verified data are available to the public.
(m)(1) Except as provided in subdivision (h)(1), a physician office surgical suite is required to be certified by
the board in order to perform office-based surgery. A physician office that proposes to perform the surgery
shall submit to the board, on an application form provided by the board, at least the following:
(A) Level III procedures expected to be performed by each physician;
(B) The specialty board certification or board eligibility of the physician or physicians performing Level III
procedures, if any;
(C) Verification of health care liability coverage for all physicians performing Level III procedures;
(D) Verification of hospital staff privileges for all physicians performing Level III procedures;
(E) The name of a responsible physician in whose name the surgical suite certification shall be issued for that
office and a list of the physicians with the practice who are going to be performing Level III office-based
surgeries; and
(F) The documentation required by subsection (f) regarding incapacitated patient limits.
(2) The form required by subdivision (m)(1) shall serve as an application form, but the information on the
form shall be updated as appropriate when any information on it has changed.
(n) The board shall notify all physicians of the office-based surgery certification requirements. Failure of a
physician performing office-based surgery, or a physician office at which office-based surgery is being
performed, to abide by this section, any rules promulgated pursuant to this section or of § 68-11-211 may be
grounds for disciplinary action or termination of either the rights of the physician to perform office-based
surgery or the surgical suite's certification by the physician's licensing board, or both disciplinary action and
termination. For purposes of § 4-5-320(c), the public health, safety and welfare imperatively require
emergency action at any time that a previously authorized surgical suite fails to maintain the standards set by
the board.
(o) Applicants for initial licensure or reinstatement of a previously issued license shall indicate to the board
on the appropriate licensure application if they intend to perform Level II office-based surgery procedures as
defined by the rules of the board of osteopathic examination and that are integral to a planned treatment
regimen and not performed on an urgent or emergent basis.
(p) Licensed osteopathic physicians who perform Level II office-based surgery at the time of licensure
renewal shall indicate to the board on the licensure renewal application if the licensee currently performs
Level II office-based surgery procedures as defined in the rules of the board of osteopathic examination and
that are integral to a planned treatment regimen and not performed on an urgent or emergent basis.
(q) In order for health care providers and the board to work together to collect meaningful health care data,
so as to minimize the frequency and severity of certain unexpected events and improve the delivery of health
care services, each osteopathic physician who performs any Level II office-based surgery that results in any
of the following unanticipated events shall notify the board in writing within fifteen (15) calendar days
following the physician's discovery of the event:
(1) The death of a patient during any Level II office-based surgery or within seventy-two (72) hours
thereafter;
(2) The transport of a patient to a hospital emergency department except those related to a natural course of
the patient's illness or underlying condition;
(3) The unplanned admission of a patient to a hospital within seventy-two (72) hours of discharge, only if the
admission is related to the Level II office-based surgery except those related to a natural course of the
patient's illness or underlying condition;

                                                       140
(4) The discovery of a foreign object erroneously remaining in a patient from a Level II office-based surgery
at that office; or
(5) The performance of the wrong surgical procedure, surgery on the wrong site or surgery on the wrong
patient.
(r) Records of reportable events should be in writing and should include at a minimum the following:
(1) The physician's name and license number;
(2) The date and time of the occurrence or discovery of the incident;
(3) The office and address where the incident took place;
(4) The name and address of the patient;
(5) The type of Level II office-based surgery that was performed;
(6) The type and dosage of sedation or anesthesia utilized during the procedure;
(7) The circumstances surrounding the incident; and
(8) The type or types of events required to be reported as provided in subsection (q).
(s) The filing of a report as required by subsection (q) does not, in and of itself, constitute an
acknowledgement or admission of health care liability, error or omission. Upon receipt of the report, the
board may, in its discretion, obtain patient and other records pursuant to authority granted to it in § 63-1-
117. The reporting form and any supporting documentation reviewed or obtained by the board pursuant to
this section and any amendments to the reports shall be confidential and not subject to discovery, subpoena
or legal compulsion for release to any person or entity; nor shall they be admissible in any civil or
administrative proceeding, other than a disciplinary proceeding by the board; nor shall they be subject to any
open records request made pursuant to title 10, chapter 7, part 5 or any other law. This section shall not
affect any of the provisions of or limit the protections provided by §§ 63-6-219 and 63-9-114.
(t) Failure to comply with the requirements of subsections (o)-(s) constitutes grounds for disciplinary action
by the board in its discretion pursuant to § 63-9-111.


Texas

Chapter 192. Office-Based Anesthesia Services
The following words and terms, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the
contents indicate otherwise.
(1) ACLS--Advanced Cardiac Life Support, as defined by the AHA.
(2) AED--Automatic External Defibrillator.
(3) AHA--American Heart Association.
(4) ASHI--American Safety and Health Institute.
(5) Analgesics--Dangerous or scheduled drugs that alleviate pain.
(6) Anesthesia--The loss of feeling or sensation resulting from the use of dangerous or scheduled drugs to
depress nerve function. Anesthetics are scheduled or dangerous drugs used to induce anesthesia.
(7) Anesthesia Services--The use of dangerous and scheduled drugs, including anesthetics, analgesics, and
anxiolytics, for the performance of Level II-IV services.
(8) Anxiolytics--Dangerous or scheduled drugs used to treat episodes of anxiety.
(9) Anesthesiologist assistant--A graduate of an approved anesthesiologist assistant training program.
(10) Anesthesiology resident--A physician who is presently in an approved Texas anesthesiology residency
program who is either licensed as a physician in Texas or holds a postgraduate resident permit issued by the
Texas Medical Board.
(11) BLS--Basic Life Support, as defined by the AHA.
(12) Certified registered nurse anesthetist--A person licensed by the Texas Board of Nursing (TBN) as a
registered professional nurse, authorized by the TBN as an advanced practice nurse in the role of nurse
anesthetist, and certified by a national certifying body recognized by the TBN.
(13) Dangerous drugs--Medications defined by the Texas Dangerous Drug Act, Chapter 483, Texas Health
and Safety Code. Dangerous drugs require a prescription, but are not included in the list of scheduled drugs.
                                                      141
A dangerous drug bears the legend “Caution: federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription” or
“Prescription Only.”
(14) Level I services--Delivery of analgesics or anxiolytics by mouth, as prescribed for the patient on order of
a physician, at a dose level low enough to allow the patient to remain ambulatory.
(15) Level II services--The administration of tumescent anesthesia or the delivery of analgesics or anxiolytics
by mouth in dosages greater than allowed at Level I, as prescribed for the patient on order of a physician.
(16) Level III services--Delivery of analgesics or anxiolytics other than by mouth, including intravenously,
intramuscularly, or rectally.
(17) Level IV services--Delivery of general anesthetics, including regional anesthetics and monitored
anesthesia care.
(18) Monitored anesthesia care--Situations where a patient undergoing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure
receives doses of medication that create a risk of loss of normal protective reflexes or loss of consciousness
and the patient remains able to protect the airway during the procedure. If the patient is rendered
unconscious and loses normal protective reflexes, then anesthesia care shall be considered a general
anesthetic.
(19) Outpatient setting--Any facility, clinic, center, office, or other setting that is not a part of a licensed
hospital or a licensed ambulatory surgical center with the exception of all of the following listed in
subparagraphs (A)-(D) of this paragraph:
(A) a clinic located on land recognized as tribal land by the federal government and maintained or operated
by a federally recognized Indian tribe or tribal organization as listed by the United States secretary of the
interior under 25 U.S.C. § 479-1 or as listed under a successor federal statute or regulation;
(B) a facility maintained or operated by a state or governmental entity;
(C) a clinic directly maintained or operated by the United States or by any of its departments, officers, or
agencies; and
(D) an outpatient setting accredited by either the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations relating to ambulatory surgical centers, the American Association for the Accreditation of
Ambulatory Surgery Facilities, or the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care.
(20) Board--The Texas Medical Board.
(21) PALS--Pediatric Advanced Life Support, as defined by the AHA.
(22) Physician--A person licensed by the Texas Medical Board as a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathic
medicine who diagnoses, treats, or offers to treat any disease or disorder, mental or physical, or any physical
deformity or injury by any system or method or effects cures thereof and charges therefor, directly or
indirectly, money or other compensation. “Physician” and “surgeon” shall be construed as synonymous.
(23) Scheduled Drugs--Medications defined by the Texas Controlled Substances Act, Chapter 481, Texas
Health and Safety Code. This Act establishes five categories, or schedules of drugs, based on risk of abuse
and addiction. (Schedule I includes drugs that carry an extremely high risk of abuse and addiction and have
no legitimate medical use. Schedule V includes drugs that have the lowest abuse/addiction risk.)

§ 192.2. Provision of Anesthesia Services in Outpatient Settings
 (a) The purpose of these rules is to identify the roles and responsibilities of physicians providing, or
overseeing by proper delegation, anesthesia services in outpatient settings and to provide the minimum
acceptable standards for the provision of anesthesia services in outpatient settings.
(b) The rules promulgated under this title do not apply to physicians who practice in the following settings
listed in paragraphs (1)-(8) of this subsection:
(1) an outpatient setting in which only local anesthesia, peripheral nerve blocks, or both are used;
(2) any setting physically located outside the State of Texas;
(3) a licensed hospital, including an outpatient facility of the hospital that is separately located apart from the
hospital;
(4) a licensed ambulatory surgical center;


                                                         142
(5) a clinic located on land recognized as tribal land by the federal government and maintained or operated by
a federally recognized Indian tribe or tribal organization as listed by the United States secretary of the interior
under 25 U.S.C. § 479-1 or as listed under a successor federal statute or regulation;
(6) a facility maintained or operated by a state or governmental entity;
(7) a clinic directly maintained or operated by the United States or by any of its departments, officers, or
agencies; and
(8) an outpatient setting accredited by:
(A) the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations relating to ambulatory surgical
centers;
(B) the American Association for the Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities; or
(C) the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care.
(c) Standards for Anesthesia Services. The following standards are required for outpatient settings providing
anesthesia services that are administered within two hours before an outpatient procedure. If personnel and
equipment meet the requirements of a higher level, lower level anesthesia services may also be provided.
(1) Level I services:
(A) at least two personnel must be present, including the physician who must be currently certified by AHA
or ASHI, at a minimum, in BLS; and
(B) the following age-appropriate equipment must be present:
(i) bag mask valve;
(ii) oxygen;
(iii) AED or other defibrillator; and
(iv) epinephrine, atropine, adreno-corticoids, and antihistamines.
(2) Level II services:
(A) at least two personnel must be present, including the physician who must be currently certified by AHA
or ASHI, at a minimum, in ACLS or PALS, as appropriate;
(i) another person must be currently certified by AHA or ASHI, at a minimum, in BLS; and
(ii) a licensed health care provider, who may be one of the two required personnel, must attend the patient,
until the patient is ready for discharge; and
(B) a crash cart must be present containing drugs and equipment necessary to carry out ACLS protocols,
including, but not limited to, the following age-appropriate equipment:
(i) bag mask valve and appropriate airway maintenance devices;
(ii) oxygen;
(iii) AED or other defibrillator;
(iv) pre-measured doses of first line cardiac medications, including epinephrine, atropine, adreno-corticoids,
and antihistamines;
(v) IV equipment;
(vi) pulse oximeter; and
(vii) EKG Monitor.
(3) Level III services:
(A) at least two personnel must be present, including the physician who must be currently certified by AHA
or ASHI, at a minimum, in ACLS or PALS, as appropriate;
(i) another person must be currently certified by AHA or ASHI, at a minimum, in BLS;
(ii) a licensed health care provider, which may be either of the two required personnel, must attend the
patient, until the patient is ready for discharge; and
(iii) a person, who may be either of the two required personnel, must be responsible for monitoring the
patient during the procedure; and
(B) the same equipment required for Level II.
(4) Level IV services: Physicians who practice medicine in this state and who administer anesthesia or
perform a procedure for which anesthesia services are provided in outpatient settings at Level IV shall follow
current, applicable standards and guidelines as put forth by the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA)
including, but not limited to, the following listed in subparagraphs (A)-(H) of this paragraph:
                                                        143
(A) Basic Standards for Preanesthesia Care;
(B) Standards for Basic Anesthetic Monitoring;
(C) Standards for Postanesthesia Care;
(D) Position on Monitored Anesthesia Care;
(E) The ASA Physical Status Classification System;
(F) Guidelines for Nonoperating Room Anesthetizing Locations;
(G) Guidelines for Ambulatory Anesthesia and Surgery; and
(H) Guidelines for Office-Based Anesthesia.
(d) A physician delegating the provision of anesthesia or anesthesia-related services to a certified registered
nurse anesthetist shall be in compliance with ASA standards and guidelines when the certified registered
nurse anesthetist provides a service specified in the ASA standards and guidelines to be provided by an
anesthesiologist.
(e) In an outpatient setting, where a physician has delegated to a certified registered nurse anesthetist the
ordering of drugs and devices necessary for the nurse anesthetist to administer an anesthetic or an anesthesia-
related service ordered by a physician, a certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, obtain and
administer drugs, including determination of appropriate dosages, techniques and medical devices for their
administration and in maintaining the patient in sound physiologic status. This order need not be drug-
specific, dosage specific, or administration-technique specific. Pursuant to a physician's order for anesthesia
or an anesthesia-related service, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may order anesthesia-related
medications during perianesthesia periods in the preparation for or recovery from anesthesia. In providing
anesthesia or an anesthesia-related service, the certified registered nurse anesthetist shall select, order, obtain
and administer drugs which fall within categories of drugs generally utilized for anesthesia or anesthesia-
related services and provide the concomitant care required to maintain the patient in sound physiologic status
during those experiences.
(f) The anesthesiologist or physician providing anesthesia or anesthesia-related services in an outpatient
setting shall perform a pre-anesthetic evaluation, counsel the patient, and prepare the patient for anesthesia
per current ASA standards. If the physician has delegated the provision of anesthesia or anesthesia-related
services to a CRNA, the CRNA may perform those services within the scope of practice of the CRNA.
Informed consent for the planned anesthetic intervention shall be obtained from the patient/legal guardian
and maintained as part of the medical record. The consent must include explanation of the technique,
expected results, and potential risks/complications. Appropriate pre-anesthesia diagnostic testing and
consults shall be obtained per indications and assessment findings. Pre-anesthetic diagnostic testing and
specialist consultation should be obtained as indicated by the pre-anesthetic evaluation by the
anesthesiologist or suggested by the nurse anesthetist's pre-anesthetic assessment as reviewed by the surgeon.
If responsibility for a patient's care is to be shared with other physicians or non-physician anesthesia
providers, this arrangement should be explained to the patient.
(g) Physiologic monitoring of the patient shall be determined by the type of anesthesia and individual patient
needs. Minimum monitoring shall include continuous monitoring of ventilation, oxygenation, and
cardiovascular status. Monitors shall include, but not be limited to, pulse oximetry and EKG continuously
and non-invasive blood pressure to be measured at least every five minutes. If general anesthesia is utilized,
then an O2 analyzer and end-tidal CO2 analyzer must also be used. A means to measure temperature shall be
readily available and utilized for continuous monitoring when indicated per current ASA standards. An
audible signal alarm device capable of detecting disconnection of any component of the breathing system
shall be utilized. The patient shall be monitored continuously throughout the duration of the procedure.
Postoperatively, the patient shall be evaluated by continuous monitoring and clinical observation until stable
by a licensed health care provider. Monitoring and observations shall be documented per current ASA
standards. In the event of an electrical outage which disrupts the capability to continuously monitor all
specified patient parameters, at a minimum, heart rate and breath sounds will be monitored on a continuous
basis using a precordial stethoscope or similar device, and blood pressure measurements will be reestablished
using a non-electrical blood pressure measuring device until electricity is restored. There should be in each
location, sufficient electrical outlets to satisfy anesthesia machine and monitoring equipment requirements,
                                                        144
including clearly labeled outlets connected to an emergency power supply. A two-way communication source
not dependent on electrical current shall be available. Sites shall also have a secondary power source as
appropriate for equipment in use in case of power failure.
(h) All anesthesia-related equipment and monitors shall be maintained to current operating room standards.
All devices shall have regular service/maintenance checks at least annually or per manufacturer
recommendations. Service/maintenance checks shall be performed by appropriately qualified biomedical
personnel. Prior to the administration of anesthesia, all equipment/monitors shall be checked using the
current FDA recommendations as a guideline. Records of equipment checks shall be maintained in a
separate, dedicated log which must be made available upon request. Documentation of any criteria deemed to
be substandard shall include a clear description of the problem and the intervention. If equipment is utilized
despite the problem, documentation must clearly indicate that patient safety is not in jeopardy. All
documentation relating to equipment shall be maintained for seven years or for a period of time as
determined by the board.
(i) Each location must have emergency supplies immediately available. Supplies should include emergency
drugs and equipment appropriate for the purpose of cardiopulmonary resuscitation. This must include a
defibrillator, difficult airway equipment, and drugs and equipment necessary for the treatment of malignant
hyperthermia if “triggering agents” associated with malignant hyperthermia are used or if the patient is at risk
for malignant hyperthermia. Equipment shall be appropriately sized for the patient population being served.
Resources for determining appropriate drug dosages shall be readily available. The emergency supplies shall
be maintained and inspected by qualified personnel for presence and function of all appropriate equipment
and drugs at intervals established by protocol to ensure that equipment is functional and present, drugs are
not expired, and office personnel are familiar with equipment and supplies. Records of emergency supply
checks shall be maintained in a separate, dedicated log and made available upon request. Records of
emergency supply checks shall be maintained for seven years or for a period of time as determined by the
board.
(j) The operating surgeon shall verify that the appropriate policies or procedures are in place. Policies,
procedure, or protocols shall be evaluated and reviewed at least annually. Agreements with local emergency
medical service (EMS) shall be in place for purposes of transfer of patients to the hospital in case of an
emergency. EMS agreements shall be evaluated and re-signed at least annually. Policies, procedure, and
transfer agreements shall be kept on file in the setting where procedures are performed and shall be made
available upon request. Policies or procedures must include, but are not limited to the following listed in
paragraphs (1)-(2) of this subsection:
(1) Management of outpatient anesthesia. At a minimum, these must address:
(A) patient selection criteria;
(B) patients/providers with latex allergy;
(C) pediatric drug dosage calculations, where applicable;
(D) ACLS (advanced cardiac life support) or PALS (pediatric advanced life support) algorithms;
(E) infection control;
(F) documentation and tracking use of pharmaceuticals, including controlled substances, expired drugs and
wasting of drugs; and
(G) discharge criteria.
(2) Management of emergencies. At a minimum, these must include, but not be limited to:
(A) cardiopulmonary emergencies;
(B) fire;
(C) bomb threat;
(D) chemical spill; and
(E) natural disasters.
(k) All equipment and anesthesia-related services must remain available at the office-based anesthesia site
until the patient is discharged.
(l) Physicians or surgeons must notify the board in writing within 15 days if a procedure performed in any of
the settings under these rules resulted in an unanticipated and unplanned transport of the patient to a
                                                       145
hospital for observation or treatment for a period in excess of 24 hours, or a patient's death intraoperatively
or within the immediate postoperative period. Immediate postoperative period is defined as 72 hours.

§ 192.3. Compliance with Office-Based Anesthesia Rules
 (a) A physician who provides anesthesia services or performs a procedure for which anesthesia services are
provided in an outpatient setting shall comply with the rules adopted under this title.
(b) The board may require a physician to submit and comply with a corrective action plan to remedy or
address any current or potential deficiencies with the physician's provision of anesthesia services in an
outpatient setting in accordance with the Medical Practice Act, Title 3 Subtitle C §§ 162.101-.107 of the
Texas Occupations Code, or rules of the board.
(c) Any physician who violates these rules shall be subject to disciplinary action and/or termination of the
registration issued by the board as authorized by the Medical Practice Act or rules of the board.

§ 192.4. Registration
 (a) Each physician who provides anesthesia services or performs a procedure for which anesthesia services
are provided in an outpatient setting, excluding level I services, shall register with the board on a form
prescribed by the board and pay a fee to the board in an amount established by the board.
(b) The board shall coordinate the registration required under this section with the registration required
under the Medical Practice Act, Texas Occupations Code Chapter 156, so that the times of registration,
payment, notice, and imposition of penalties for late payment are similar and provide a minimum of
administrative burden to the board and to physicians.

§ 192.5. Inspections
 (a) The board may conduct inspections to enforce these rules, including inspections of an office site and of
documents of a physician's practice. The board may contract with another state agency or qualified person to
conduct these inspections.
(b) Unless it would jeopardize an ongoing investigation, the board shall provide at least five business days'
notice before conducting an on-site inspection under this section.
(c) This section does not require the board to make an on-site inspection of a physician's office.

§ 192.6. Requests for Inspection and Advisory Opinion
 (a) The board may consider a request by a physician for an on-site inspection offering office-based
anesthesia. The board may, in its discretion and on payment of a fee in an amount established by the board,
conduct the inspection and issue an advisory opinion.
(b) An advisory opinion issued by the board under this section is not binding on the board, and the board,
except as provided by subsection (c) of this section, may take any action under the Medical Practice Act, in
relation to the situation addressed by the advisory opinion that the board considers appropriate.
(c) A physician who requests and relies on an advisory opinion of the board may use the opinion as
mitigating evidence in an action or proceeding to impose an administrative or civil penalty under the Medical
Practice Act. The board or court, as appropriate, shall take proof of reliance on an advisory opinion into
consideration and mitigate the imposition of administrative or civil penalties accordingly.


Utah – Medical

None


Utah – Osteopathic

None
                                                       146
Vermont – Medical

None


Vermont – Osteopathic

None


Virgin Islands

None


Virginia

Part VIII. Office-Based Anesthesia

18 VAC 85-20-310. Definitions.
 “Advanced resuscitative techniques” means methods learned in certification courses for Advanced
Cardiopulmonary Life Support (ACLS), or Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS).
“Deep sedation” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be easily
aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. The ability to independently
maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients often require assistance in maintaining a patent
airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
“General anesthesia” means a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable even
by painful stimulation. The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired. Patients
often require assistance in maintaining a patent airway, and positive-pressure ventilation may be required
because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function.
Cardiovascular function may be impaired.
“Local anesthesia” means a transient and reversible loss of sensation in a circumscribed portion of the body
produced by a local anesthetic agent.
“Minimal sedation/anxiolysis” means a drug-induced state during which a patient responds normally to verbal
commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular
functions are usually not affected.
“Moderate sedation/conscious sedation” means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients
respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation. No
interventions are usually required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is usually
adequate. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
“Monitoring” means the continual clinical observation of patients and the use of instruments to measure and
display the values of certain physiologic variables such as pulse, oxygen saturation, level of consciousness,
blood pressure and respiration.
“Office-based” means any setting other than (i) a licensed hospital as defined in § 32.1-123 of the Code of
Virginia or state-operated hospitals or (ii) a facility directly maintained or operated by the federal government.
“Physical status classification” means a description used in determining the physical status of a patient as
specified by the American Society of Anesthesiologists. Classifications are Class 1 for a normal healthy
patient; Class 2 for a patient with mild systemic disease; Class 3 for a patient with severe systemic disease
limiting activity but not incapacitation; Class 4 for a patient with incapacitating systemic disease that is a
                                                       147
constant threat to life; and Class 5 for a moribund patient not expected to live 24 hours with or without
surgery.
“Regional anesthesia” means the administration of anesthetic agents to a patient to interrupt nerve impulses
without the loss of consciousness and includes minor and major conductive blocks.
“Minor conductive block” means the injection of local anesthesia to stop or prevent a painful sensation in a
circumscribed area of the body (local infiltration or local nerve block), or the block of a nerve by
refrigeration. Minor conductive nerve blocks include, but are not limited to, peribulbar blocks, pudenal
blocks and ankle blocks.
“Major conductive block” means the use of local anesthesia to stop or prevent the transmission of painful
sensations from large nerves, groups of nerves, nerve roots or the spinal cord. Major nerve blocks include,
but are not limited to epidural, spinal, caudal, femoral, interscalene and brachial plexus.
“Topical anesthesia” means an anesthetic agent applied directly to the skin or mucous membranes, intended to
produce a transient and reversible loss of sensation to a circumscribed area.

18 VAC 85-20-320. General provisions.
A. Applicability of requirements for office-based anesthesia.
1. The administration of topical anesthesia, local anesthesia, minor conductive blocks, or minimal
sedation/anxiolysis, not involving a drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal
preoperative tranquilization, is not subject to the requirements for office-based anesthesia. A health care
practitioner administering such agents shall adhere to an accepted standard of care as appropriate to the level
of anesthesia or sedation, including evaluation, drug selection, administration and management of
complications.
2. The administration of moderate sedation/conscious sedation, deep sedation, general anesthesia, or
regional anesthesia consisting of a major conductive block are subject to these requirements for office-based
anesthesia.
3. Levels of anesthesia or sedation referred to in this chapter shall relate to the level of anesthesia or sedation
intended by the practitioner in the anesthesia plan.
B. A doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or podiatry administering office-based anesthesia or
supervising such administration shall:
1. Perform a preanesthetic evaluation and examination or ensure that it has been performed;
2. Develop the anesthesia plan or ensure that it has been developed;
3. Ensure that the anesthesia plan has been discussed and informed consent obtained;
4. Ensure patient assessment and monitoring through the pre-, peri-, and post-procedure phases, addressing
not only physical and functional status, but also physiological and cognitive status;
5. Ensure provision of indicated post-anesthesia care; and
6. Remain physically present or immediately available, as appropriate, to manage complications and
emergencies until discharge criteria have been met.
C. All written policies, procedures and protocols required for office-based anesthesia shall be maintained and
available for inspection at the facility.

18 VAC 85-20-330. Qualifications of providers.
A. Doctors who utilize office-based anesthesia shall ensure that all medical personnel assisting in providing
patient care are appropriately trained, qualified and supervised, are sufficient in numbers to provide adequate
care, and maintain training in basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
B. All providers of office-based anesthesia shall hold the appropriate license and have the necessary training
and skills to deliver the level of anesthesia being provided.
1. Deep sedation, general anesthesia or a major conductive block shall be administered by an anesthesiologist
or by a certified registered nurse anesthetist. If a major conductive block is performed for diagnostic or
therapeutic purposes, it may be administered by a doctor qualified by training and scope of practice.
2. Moderate sedation/conscious sedation may be administered by the operating doctor with the assistance of
and monitoring by a licensed nurse, a physician assistant or a licensed intern or resident.
                                                        148
C. Additional training.
1. On or after December 18, 2003, the doctor who provides office-based anesthesia or who supervises the
administration of anesthesia shall maintain current certification in advanced resuscitation techniques.
2. Any doctor who administers office-based anesthesia without the use of an anesthesiologist or certified
registered nurse anesthetist shall obtain four hours of continuing education in topics related to anesthesia
within the 60 hours required each biennium for licensure renewal, which are subject to random audit by the
board.

18 VAC 85-20-340. Procedure/anesthesia selection and patient evaluation.
A. A written protocol shall be developed and followed for procedure selection to include but not be limited
to:
1. The doctor providing or supervising the anesthesia shall ensure that the procedure to be undertaken is
within the scope of practice of the health care practitioners and the capabilities of the facility.
2. The procedure shall be of a duration and degree of complexity that will permit the patient to recover and
be discharged from the facility in less than 24 hours.
3. The level of anesthesia used shall be appropriate for the patient, the surgical procedure, the clinical setting,
the education and training of the personnel, and the equipment available. The choice of specific anesthesia
agents and techniques shall focus on providing an anesthetic that will be effective, appropriate and will
address the specific needs of patients while also ensuring rapid recovery to normal function with maximum
efforts to control post-operative pain, nausea or other side effects.
B. A written protocol shall be developed for patient evaluation to include but not be limited to:
1. The preoperative anesthesia evaluation of a patient shall be performed by the health care practitioner
administering the anesthesia or supervising the administration of anesthesia. It shall consist of performing an
appropriate history and physical examination, determining the patient's physical status classification,
developing a plan of anesthesia care, acquainting the patient or the responsible individual with the proposed
plan and discussing the risks and benefits.
2. The condition of the patient, specific morbidities that complicate anesthetic management, the specific
intrinsic risks involved, and the nature of the planned procedure shall be considered in evaluating a patient
for office-based anesthesia.
3. Patients who have pre-existing medical or other conditions that may be of particular risk for complications
shall be referred to a facility appropriate for the procedure and administration of anesthesia. Nothing relieves
the licensed health care practitioner of the responsibility to make a medical determination of the appropriate
surgical facility or setting.
C. Office-based anesthesia shall only be provided for patients in physical status classifications for Classes I, II
and III. Patients in Classes IV and V shall not be provided anesthesia in an office-based setting.
18 VAC 85-20-350. Informed consent.
Prior to administration, the anesthesia plan shall be discussed with the patient or responsible party by the
health care practitioner administering the anesthesia or supervising the administration of anesthesia.
Informed consent for the nature and objectives of the anesthesia planned shall be in writing and obtained
from the patient or responsible party before the procedure is performed. Informed consent shall only be
obtained after a discussion of the risks, benefits, and alternatives, contain the name of the anesthesia provider
and be documented in the medical record.

18 VAC 85-20-360. Monitoring.
A. A written protocol shall be developed for monitoring equipment to include but not be limited to:
1. Monitoring equipment shall be appropriate for the type of anesthesia and the nature of the facility. At a
minimum, provisions shall be made for a reliable source of oxygen, suction, resuscitation equipment and
emergency drugs.
2. In locations where anesthesia is administered, there shall be adequate anesthesia apparatus and equipment
to ensure appropriate monitoring of patients. All equipment shall be maintained, tested and inspected

                                                        149
according to manufacturer's specifications, and backup power shall be sufficient to ensure patient protection
in the event of an emergency.
3. When anesthesia services are provided to infants and children, the required equipment, medication and
resuscitative capabilities shall be appropriately sized and calibrated for children.
B. To administer office-based moderate sedation/conscious sedation, the following equipment, supplies and
pharmacological agents are required:
1. Appropriate equipment to manage airways;
2. Drugs and equipment to treat shock and anaphylactic reactions;
3. Precordial stethoscope;
4. Pulse oximeter with appropriate alarms or an equivalent method of measuring oxygen saturation;
5. Continuous electrocardiograph;
6. Devices for measuring blood pressure, heart rate and respiratory rate;
7. Defibrillator; and
8. Accepted method of identifying and preventing the interchangeability of gases.
C. In addition to requirements in subsection B of this section, to administer general anesthesia, deep sedation
or major conductive blocks, the following equipment, supplies and pharmacological agents are required:
1. Drugs to treat malignant hyperthermia, when triggering agents are used;
2. Peripheral nerve stimulator, if a muscle relaxant is used; and
3. If using an anesthesia machine, the following shall be included:
a. End-tidal carbon dioxide monitor (capnograph);
b. In-circuit oxygen analyzer designed to monitor oxygen concentration within breathing circuit by displaying
oxygen percent of the total respiratory mixture;
c. Oxygen failure-protection devices (fail-safe system) that have the capacity to announce a reduction in
oxygen pressure and, at lower levels of oxygen pressure, to discontinue other gases when the pressure of the
supply of oxygen is reduced;
d. Vaporizer exclusion (interlock) system, which ensures that only one vaporizer, and therefore only a single
anesthetic agent can be actualized on any anesthesia machine at one time;
e. Pressure-compensated anesthesia vaporizers, designed to administer a constant non-pulsatile output, which
shall not be placed in the circuit downstream of the oxygen flush valve;
f. Flow meters and controllers, which can accurately gauge concentration of oxygen relative to the anesthetic
agent being administered and prevent oxygen mixtures of less than 21% from being administered;
g. Alarm systems for high (disconnect), low (subatmospheric) and minimum ventilatory pressures in the
breathing circuit for each patient under general anesthesia; and
h. A gas evacuation system.
D. A written protocol shall be developed for monitoring procedures to include but not be limited to:
1. Physiologic monitoring of patients shall be appropriate for the type of anesthesia and individual patient
needs, including continuous monitoring and assessment of ventilation, oxygenation, cardiovascular status,
body temperature, neuromuscular function and status, and patient positioning.
2. Intraoperative patient evaluation shall include continuous clinical observation and continuous anesthesia
monitoring.
3. A health care practitioner administering general anesthesia or deep sedation shall remain present and
available in the facility to monitor a patient until the patient meets the discharge criteria. A health care
practitioner administering moderate sedation/conscious sedation shall routinely monitor a patient according
to procedures consistent with such administration.

18 VAC 85-20-370. Emergency and transfer protocols.
A. There shall be written protocols for handling emergency situations, including medical emergencies and
internal and external disasters. All personnel shall be appropriately trained in and regularly review the
protocols and the equipment and procedures for handing emergencies.
B. There shall be written protocols for the timely and safe transfer of patients to a prespecified hospital or
hospitals within a reasonable proximity. There shall be a transfer agreement with such hospital or hospitals.
                                                       150
18 VAC 85-20-380. Discharge policies and procedures.
A. There shall be written policies and procedures outlining discharge criteria. Such criteria shall include stable
vital signs, responsiveness and orientation, ability to move voluntarily, controlled pain, and minimal nausea
and vomiting.
B. Discharge from anesthesia care is the responsibility of the health care practitioner providing the anesthesia
care and shall only occur when patients have met specific physician-defined criteria.
C. Written instructions and an emergency phone number shall be provided to the patient. Patients shall be
discharged with a responsible individual who has been instructed with regard to the patient's care.
D. At least one person trained in advanced resuscitative techniques shall be immediately available until all
patients are discharged.

18 VAC 85-20-390. Reporting requirements.
The doctor administering the anesthesia or supervising such administration shall report to the board within
30 days any incident relating to the administration of anesthesia that results in patient death, either
intraoperatively or within the immediate 72-hour postoperative period or in transport of a patient to a
hospital for a stay of more than 24 hours.


Washington – Medical

WAC 246-919-601. Safe and effective analgesia and anesthesia administration in office-based surgical
settings.
(1) Purpose. The purpose of this rule is to promote and establish consistent standards, continuing
competency, and to promote patient safety. The medical quality assurance commission establishes the
following rule for physicians licensed under this chapter who perform surgical procedures and use anesthesia,
analgesia or sedation in office-based settings.
(2) Definitions. The following terms used in this subsection apply throughout this rule unless the context
clearly indicates otherwise:
(a) „Commission„ means the medical quality assurance commission.
(b) „Deep sedation„ or „analgesia„ means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients
cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. The ability to
independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may require assistance in maintaining
a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is usually
maintained.
(c) „General anesthesia„ means a state of unconsciousness intentionally produced by anesthetic agents, with
absence of pain sensation over the entire body, in which the patient is without protective reflexes and is
unable to maintain an airway. Sedation that unintentionally progresses to the point at which the patient is
without protective reflexes and is unable to maintain an airway is not considered general anesthesia.
(d) „Local infiltration„ means the process of infusing a local anesthetic agent into the skin and other tissues to
allow painless wound irrigation, exploration and repair, and other procedures, including procedures such as
retrobulbar or periorbital ocular blocks only when performed by a board eligible or board certified
ophthalmologist. It does not include procedures in which local anesthesia is injected into areas of the body
other than skin or muscle where significant cardiovascular or respiratory complications may result.
(e) „Major conduction anesthesia„ means the administration of a drug or combination of drugs to interrupt
nerve impulses without loss of consciousness, such as epidural, caudal, or spinal anesthesia, lumbar or
brachial plexus blocks, and intravenous regional anesthesia. Major conduction anesthesia does not include
isolated blockade of small peripheral nerves, such as digital nerves.
(f) „Minimal sedation„ means a drug-induced state during which patients respond normally to verbal
commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular
functions are unaffected. Minimal sedation is limited to oral or intramuscular medications, or both.
                                                        151
(g) „Moderate sedation„ or „analgesia„ means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which
patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by tactile stimulation. No
interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
(h) „Office-based surgery„ means any surgery or invasive medical procedure requiring analgesia or sedation,
including, but not limited to, local infiltration for tumescent liposuction, performed in a location other than a
hospital or hospital-associated surgical center licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW, or an ambulatory surgical
facility licensed under chapter 70.230 RCW.
(i) „Physician„ means an individual licensed under chapter 18.71 RCW.
(3) Exemptions. This rule does not apply to physicians when:
(a) Performing surgery and medical procedures that require only minimal sedation (anxiolysis), or infiltration
of local anesthetic around peripheral nerves. Infiltration around peripheral nerves does not include
infiltration of local anesthetic agents in an amount that exceeds the manufacturer's published
recommendations.
(b) Performing surgery in a hospital or hospital-associated surgical center licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW,
or an ambulatory surgical facility licensed under chapter 70.230 RCW.
(c) Performing surgery utilizing general anesthesia. Facilities in which physicians perform procedures in
which general anesthesia is a planned event are regulated by rules related to hospital or hospital-associated
surgical center licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW, or an ambulatory surgical facility licensed under chapter
70.230 RCW.
(d) Performing oral and maxillofacial surgery, and the physician:
(i) Is licensed both as a physician under chapter 18.71 RCW and as a dentist under chapter 18.32 RCW;
(ii) Complies with dental quality assurance commission regulations;
(iii) Holds a valid:
(A) Moderate sedation permit; or
(B) Moderate sedation with parenteral agents permit; or
(C) General anesthesia and deep sedation permit; and
(iv) Practices within the scope of his or her specialty.
(4) Application of rule.
This rule applies to physicians practicing independently or in a group setting who perform office-
based surgery employing one or more of the following levels of sedation or anesthesia:
(a) Moderate sedation or analgesia; or
(b) Deep sedation or analgesia; or
(c) Major conduction anesthesia.
(5) Accreditation or certification. Within three hundred sixty-five calendar days of the effective date of
this rule, a physician who performs a procedure under this rule must ensure that the procedure is performed
in a facility that is appropriately equipped and maintained to ensure patient safety through accreditation or
certification and in good standing from one of the following:
(a) The Joint Commission;
(b) The Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care;
(c) The American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities;
(d) The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services; or
(e) Planned Parenthood Federation of America or the National Abortion Federation, for facilities limited
to office-basedsurgery for abortion or abortion-related services.
(6) Competency. When an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist is not present, the
physician performingoffice-based surgery and using a form of sedation defined in subsection (4) of this
section must be competent and qualified both to perform the operative procedure and to oversee the
administration of intravenous sedation and analgesia.
(7) Qualifications for administration of sedation and analgesia may include:
(a) Completion of a continuing medical education course in conscious sedation;
(b) Relevant training in a residency training program; or
                                                       152
(c) Having privileges for conscious sedation granted by a hospital medical staff.
(8) At least one licensed health care practitioner currently certified in advanced resuscitative techniques
appropriate for the patient age group (e.g., ACLS, PALS or APLS) must be present or immediately available
with age-size-appropriate resuscitative equipment throughout the procedure and until the patient has met the
criteria for discharge from the facility.
(9) Sedation assessment and management.
(a) Sedation is a continuum. Depending on the patient's response to drugs, the drugs administered, and the
dose and timing of drug administration, it is possible that a deeper level of sedation will be produced than
initially intended.
(b) If an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist is not present, a physician intending to
produce a given level of sedation should be able to „rescue„ a patient who enters a deeper level of sedation
than intended.
(c) If a patient enters into a deeper level of sedation than planned, the physician must return the patient to
the lighter level of sedation as quickly as possible, while closely monitoring the patient to ensure the airway is
patent, the patient is breathing, and that oxygenation, heart rate and blood pressure are within acceptable
values. A physician who returns a patient to a lighter level of sedation in accordance with this subsection (c)
does not violate subsection (10) of this section.
(10) Separation of surgical and monitoring functions.
(a) The physician performing the surgical procedure must not administer the intravenous sedation, or
monitor the patient.
(b) The licensed health care practitioner, designated by the physician to administer intravenous medications
and monitor the patient who is under moderate sedation, may assist the operating physician with minor,
interruptible tasks of short duration once the patient's level of sedation and vital signs have been stabilized,
provided that adequate monitoring of the patient's condition is maintained. The licensed health care
practitioner who administers intravenous medications and monitors a patient under deep sedation or
analgesia must not perform or assist in the surgical procedure.
(11) Emergency care and transfer protocols. A physician performing office-based surgery must ensure that in
the event of a complication or emergency:
(a) All office personnel are familiar with a written and documented plan to timely and safely transfer patients
to an appropriate hospital.
(b) The plan must include arrangements for emergency medical services and appropriate escort of the patient
to the hospital.
(12) Medical record. The physician performing office-based surgery must maintain a legible, complete,
comprehensive and accurate medical record for each patient.
(a) The medical record must include:
(i) Identity of the patient;
(ii) History and physical, diagnosis and plan;
(iii) Appropriate lab, X ray or other diagnostic reports;
(iv) Appropriate preanesthesia evaluation;
(v) Narrative description of procedure;
(vi) Pathology reports, if relevant;
(vii) Documentation of which, if any, tissues and other specimens have been submitted for histopathologic
diagnosis;
(viii) Provision for continuity of postoperative care; and
(ix) Documentation of the outcome and the follow-up plan.
(b) When moderate or deep sedation, or major conduction anesthesia is used, the patient medical record
must include a separate anesthesia record that documents:
(i) The type of sedation or anesthesia used;
(ii) Drugs (name and dose) and time of administration;
(iii) Documentation at regular intervals of information obtained from the intraoperative and postoperative
monitoring;
                                                        153
(iv) Fluids administered during the procedure;
(v) Patient weight;
(vi) Level of consciousness;
(vii) Estimated blood loss;
(viii) Duration of procedure; and
(ix) Any complication or unusual events related to the procedure or sedation/anesthesia.


Washington – Osteopathic

WAC 246-853-650. Safe and effective analgesia and anesthesia administration in office-based settings.
(1) Purpose. The purpose of this rule is to promote and establish consistent standards, continuing
competency, and to promote patient safety. The board of osteopathic medicine and surgery establishes the
following rule for physicians licensed under chapter 18.57 RCW who perform surgical procedures and use
anesthesia, analgesia or sedation in office-based settings.
(2) Definitions. The following terms used in this subsection apply throughout this rule unless the text clearly
indicates otherwise:
(a) „Board„ means the board of osteopathic medicine and surgery.
(b) „Deep sedation„ or „analgesia„ means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients
cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation. The ability to
independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired. Patients may require assistance in maintaining
a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate. Cardiovascular function is maintained.
(c) „General anesthesia„ means a state of unconsciousness intentionally produced by anesthetic agents, with
absence of pain sensation over the entire body, in which the patient is without protective reflexes and is
unable to maintain an airway. Sedation that unintentionally progresses to the point at which the patent is
without protective reflexes and is unable to maintain an airway is not considered general anesthesia.
(d) „Local infiltration„ means the process of infusing a local anesthetic agent into the skin and other tissues to
allow painless wound irrigation, exploration and repair, and other procedures, including procedures such as
retrobulbar or periorbital ocular blocks only when performed by a board eligible or board certified
ophthalmologist. It does not include procedures in which local anesthesia is injected into areas of the body
other than skin or muscle where significant cardiovascular or respiratory complications may result.
(e) „Major conduction anesthesia„ means the administration of a drug or combination of drugs to interrupt
nerve impulses without loss of consciousness, such as epidural, caudal, or spinal anesthesia, lumbar or
brachial plexus blocks, and intravenous regional anesthesia. Major conduction anesthesia does not include
isolated blockade of small peripheral nerves, such as digital nerves.
(f) „Minimal sedation„ or „analgesia„ means a drug-induced state during which patients respond normally to
verbal commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, ventilatory and
cardiovascular functions are unaffected. Minimal sedation is limited to oral or intramuscular medications, or
both.
(g) „Moderate sedation„ or „analgesia„ means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which
patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by tactile stimulation. No
interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
Cardiovascular function is maintained.
(h) „Office-based surgery„ means any surgery or invasive medical procedure requiring analgesia or sedation,
including, but not limited to, local infiltration for tumescent liposuction performed in a location other than a
hospital, or hospital-associated surgical center licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW, or an ambulatory surgical
facility licensed under chapter 70.230 RCW.
(i) „Physician„ means an osteopathic physician licensed under chapter 18.57 RCW.
(3) Exemptions. This rule does not apply to physicians when:
(a) Performing surgery and medical procedures that require only minimal sedation (anxiolysis), or infiltration
of local anesthetic around peripheral nerves. Infiltration around peripheral nerves does not include
                                                        154
infiltration of local anesthetic agents in an amount that exceeds the manufacturer's published
recommendations.
(b) Performing surgery in a hospital or hospital-associated surgical center licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW,
or an ambulatory surgical facility licensed under chapter 70.230 RCW.
(c) Performing surgery using general anesthesia. Facilities in which physicians perform procedures in which
general anesthesia is a planned event are regulated by rules related to hospitals or hospital-associated surgical
centers licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW, or ambulatory surgical facilities licensed under chapter 70.230
RCW.
(d) Performing oral and maxillofacial surgery, and the physician:
(i) Is licensed both as a physician under chapter 18.57 RCW and as a dentist under chapter 18.32 RCW;
(ii) Complies with dental quality assurance commission regulations;
(iii) Holds a valid:
(A) Moderate sedation permit; or
(B) Moderate sedation with parenteral agents permit; or
(C) General anesthesia and deep sedation permit; and
(iv) Practices within the scope of his or her specialty.
(4) Application of rule. This rule applies to physicians practicing independently or in a group setting who
perform office-based surgery employing one or more of the following levels of sedation or anesthesia:
(a) Moderate sedation or analgesia; or
(b) Deep sedation or analgesia; or
(c) Major conduction anesthesia.
(5) Accreditation or certification. Within three hundred sixty-five calendar days of the effective date of this
rule, a physician who performs a procedure under this rule must ensure that the procedure is performed in a
facility that is appropriately equipped and maintained to ensure patient safety through accreditation or
certification and in good standing from one of the following:
(a) The Joint Commission (JC);
(b) The Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care (AAAHC);
(c) The American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities (AAAASF);
(d) The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS); or
(e) Planned Parenthood Federation of America or the National Abortion Federation, for facilities limited to
office-based surgery for abortion or abortion-related services.
(6) Competency. When an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist is not present, the
physician performing office-based surgery and using a form of sedation defined in subsection (4) of this
section must be competent and qualified both to perform the operative procedure and to oversee the
administration of intravenous sedation and analgesia.
(7) Qualifications for administration of sedation and analgesia may include:
(a) Completion of a continuing medical education course in conscious sedation; or
(b) Relevant training in a residency training program; or
(c) Having privileges for conscious sedation granted by a hospital medical staff.
(8) Resuscitative preparedness. At least one licensed health care practitioner currently certified in advanced
resuscitative techniques appropriate for the patient age group (e.g., advanced cardiac life support (ACLS),
pediatric advanced life support (PALS) or advanced pediatric life support (APLS)) must be present or
immediately available with age-size appropriate resuscitative equipment throughout the procedure and until
the patient has met the criteria for discharge from the facility.
(9) Sedation, assessment and management.
(a) Sedation is a continuum. Depending on the patient's response to drugs, the drugs administered, and the
dose and timing of drug administration, it is possible that a deeper level of sedation will be produced than
initially intended.
(b) If an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist is not present, a physician intending to
produce a given level of sedation should be able to „rescue„ patients who enter a deeper level of sedation than
intended.
                                                       155
(c) If a patient enters into a deeper level of sedation than planned, the physician must return the patient to
the lighter level of sedation as quickly as possible, while closely monitoring the patient to ensure the airway is
patent, the patient is breathing, and that oxygenation, the heart rate, and blood pressure are within acceptable
values. A physician who returns a patient to a lighter level of sedation in accordance with this subsection (c)
does not violate subsection (10) of this section.
(10) Separation of surgical and monitoring functions.
(a) The physician performing the surgical procedure must not administer the intravenous sedation, or
monitor the patient.
(b) The licensed health care practitioner, designated by the physician to administer intravenous medications
and monitor the patient who is under moderate sedation, may assist the operating physician with minor,
interruptible tasks of short duration once the patient's level of sedation and vital signs have been stabilized,
provided that adequate monitoring of the patient's condition is maintained. The licensed health care
practitioner who administers intravenous medications and monitors a patient under deep sedation or
analgesia must not perform or assist in the surgical procedure.
(11) Emergency care and transfer protocols. A physician performing office-based surgery must ensure that in
the event of a complication or emergency:
(a) All office personnel are familiar with a written and documented plan to timely and safely transfer patients
to an appropriate hospital.
(b) The plan must include arrangements for emergency medical services and appropriate escort of the patient
to the hospital.
(12) Medical record. The physician performing office-based surgery must maintain a legible, complete,
comprehensive and accurate medical record for each patient.
(a) The medical record must include:
(i) Identity of the patient;
(ii) History and physical, diagnosis and plan;
(iii) Appropriate lab, X ray or other diagnostic reports;
(iv) Appropriate preanesthesia evaluation;
(v) Narrative description of procedure;
(vi) Pathology reports, if relevant;
(vii) Documentation of which, if any, tissues and other specimens have been submitted for histopathologic
diagnosis;
(viii) Provision for continuity of postoperative care; and
(ix) Documentation of the outcome and the follow-up plan.
(b) When moderate or deep sedation or major conduction anesthesia is used, the patient medical record must
include a separate anesthesia record that documents:
(i) Type of sedation or anesthesia used;
(ii) Drugs (name and dose) and time of administration;
(iii) Documentation at regular intervals of information obtained from intraoperative and postoperative
monitoring;
(iv) Fluids administered during the procedure;
(v) Patient weight;
(vi) Level of consciousness;
(vii) Estimated blood loss;
(viii) Duration of procedure; and
(ix) Any complication or unusual events related to the procedure or sedation/anesthesia.


West Virginia – Medical

None

                                                        156
West Virginia – Osteopathic

None


Wisconsin

None


Wyoming

None




                              157

				
DOCUMENT INFO
Shared By:
Categories:
Tags:
Stats:
views:15
posted:1/13/2013
language:Unknown
pages:157