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					Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection

Multiple Choice

1.    Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper
      safeguards is considered _____.
      a. improper hiring
      b. negligent hiring
      c. appropriate depending upon the job
      d. negligent intent
      e. unwise, but not illegal
      (b; moderate)

2.    Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?
      a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two
         alternate forms of the test
      b. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better
         score on the same test taken on a different occasion
      c. one that yields the same score from two different people taking
         the test on the same occasion
      d. one that yields different scores from two different people
         taking the test on different occasions
      e. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way
      (a; difficult)

3.    If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and
      scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that
      this test is _____.
      a. valid
      b. invalid
      c. reliable
      d. unreliable
      e. inconsistent
      (d; moderate)

4.    If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when
      retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is
      _____.
      a. valid
      b. invalid
      c. reliable
      d. unreliable

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e. inconsistent
(c; moderate)




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5.   _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers
     the same test to the same people at two different points in time
     and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at
     time 1.
     a. Equivalent form estimate
     b. Retest estimate
     c. Internal consistency
     d. Internal comparison estimate
     e. Criterion validity
     (b; moderate)

6.   Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess
     reliability?
     a. administer the same test to the same people at two different
         points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the
         scores at time 1
     b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a
         topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses
         to the items vary together
     c. administer different tests to different people and compare
         test scores of the different people
     d. administer the same test to different people and compare test
         scores of the different people
     e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually
         needs to know to do the job in question well
     (a; difficult)

7.   _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers
     two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares
     the test scores from the two tests.
     a. Equivalent form estimate
     b. Retest estimate
     c. Internal consistency
     d. Internal comparison estimate
     e. Criterion validity
     (a; moderate)

8.   _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a
     test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then
     statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items
     vary together.
     a. Equivalent form estimate

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b. Retest estimate
c. Internal consistency
d. Internal comparison estimate
e. Criterion validity
(c; moderate)




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9.    Which of the following describes using an internal consistency as
      an assessment of reliability?
      a. administer the same test to the same people at two different
         points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the
         scores at time 1
      b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a
         topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses
         to the items vary together
      c. administer different tests to different people and compare
         test scores of the different people
      d. administer the same test to different people and compare test
         scores of the different people
      e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually
         needs to know to do the job in question well
      (b; difficult)

10.   When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of
      reliability is likely being measured?
      a. retest estimate
      b. internal consistency
      c. equivalent form
      d. test validity
      e. criterion validity
      (b; moderate)

11.   Which of the following describes using an equivalent form estimate
      to assess reliability?
      a. administer the same test to the same people at two different
         points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the
         scores at time 1
      b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a
         topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses
         to the items vary together
      c. administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then
         compare participants’ test scores for test one and test two
      d. different tests to different people and compare test scores of
         the different people
      e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually
         needs to know to do the job in question well
      (c; difficult)




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12.   Which of the following describes using an internal comparison
      estimate to assess reliability?
      a. administer the same test to the same people at two different
         points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the
         scores at time 1
      b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a
         topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses
         to the items vary together
      c. administer different tests to different people and compare
         test scores of the different people
      d. administer the same test to different people and compare test
         scores of the different people
      e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually
         needs to know to do the job in question well
      (b; difficult)

13.   Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be
      unreliable?
      a. questions may not represent material
      b. tests used to estimate equivalence may not have been equivalent
      c. testing conditions could vary
      d. the test may not predict actual performance
      e. all are reasons for unreliable tests
      (d; difficult)

14.   The first step in the validation process is to _____.
      a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job
      b. analyze the job
      c. administer tests
      d. relate test scores and job criteria
      e. cross-validate
      (b; easy; p. 197)

15.   The second step in the validation process is to _____.
      a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job
      b. analyze the job
      c. administer tests
      d. relate test scores and job criteria
      e. cross-validate
      (a; easy)

16.   The final step in the validation process is to _____.

                                                                                 85
     a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job
     b. analyze the job
     c. administer tests
     d. relate test scores and job criteria
     e. cross-validate
     (e; easy)




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17.   Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content
      validity?
      a. demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test are
             represent the tasks performed on the job
      b. demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample
             of tasks performed on the job
      c. demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the
             test resemble the work situation
      d. demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor
             of criterion like job performance
      e. all of the above are part of demonstrating content validity
      (d; difficult)

18.   A(n) _____ aims to measure an array of possible predictors for job
      performance.
      a. test validity
      b. test criterion
      c. test battery
      d. job analysis
      e. assessment rating
      (c; moderate)

19.   To use _____, one administers a test to employees presently on
      the job and then compares their test scores with current
      performance.
      a. concurrent validation
      b. predictive validation
      c. correlation analysis
      d. expectancy assessment
      e. test batteries
      (a; moderate)

20.   To use _____, one administers the test to applicants before they
      are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection
      techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job
      performance measures are compared to the test scores under
      development.
      a. concurrent validation
      b. predictive validation
      c. correlation analysis
      d. expectancy assessment
      e. test batteries

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      (b; moderate)

21.   Which method of test validation is considered more dependable?
      a. content validation
      b. criterion validation
      c. predictive validation
      d. concurrent validation
      e. face validation
      (c; difficult)




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22.   Which statistical tool is used to determine if a significant
      relationship exists between the predictor scores and the
      performance criterion?
      a. regression analysis
      b. discriminant analysis
      c. correlation analysis
      d. canonical correlational analysis
      e. confirmatory factor analysis
      (c; moderate)

23.   The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following
      except _____.
      a. using a new sample of employees
      b. administering more tests
      c. evaluating the relationship between scores and performance
      d. assessing predictive validation
      e. analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance
      (e; moderate)

24.   Which form of validation emphasizes the use of judgment as a
      validation tool?
      a. criterion validation
      b. predictive validation
      c. content validation
      d. concurrent validation
      e. all of the above
      (c; moderate)

25.   All of the following are considered “pink collar” jobs except
      a. waitress
      b. secretary
      c. nursing
      d. teaching
      e. psychologist
      (e; easy)

26.   Traditionally female professions are referred to as _____ jobs.
      a. purple collar
      b. white collar
      c. pink collar
      d. blue collar
      e. none of the above

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      (c; easy)

27.   _____ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of
      specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
      a. Motor ability
      b. Personality
      c. Achievement
      d. Cognitive
      e. Physical ability
      (d; easy)

28.   Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory,
      vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called _____.
      a. aptitude tests
      b. intelligence tests
      c. achievement tests
      d. personality tests
      e. comprehensive tests
      (b; easy)

29.   Joh is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body
      coordination and stamina during the selection period at a goods
      delivery company. The company is using _____ tests.
      a. aptitude
      b. personality
      c. motor and physical abilities
      d. achievement
      e. comprehensive
      (c; moderate)

30.   _____ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity,
      and reaction time.
      a. Motor ability
      b. Personality
      c. Achievement
      d. Cognitive
      e. Interest
      (a; easy)

31.   _____ tests measure a person’s level of introversion, stability, and
      motivation.
      a. Motor ability

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      b. Personality
      c. Achievement
      d. Cognitive
      e. Physical ability
      (b; easy)

32.   Most people are fired due to _____.
      a. lack of qualifications
      b. lack of aptitude
      c. nonperformance
      d. lack of necessary motor abilities
      e. cognitive abilities
      (c; moderate)




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33.   Because nonperformance is usually the result of _____, it is
      important to measure motivation and interpersonal skills as well as
      cognitive and physical abilities during the selection process.
      a. attitude
      b. motivation
      c. temperament
      d. all of the above
      e. none of the above
      (d; moderate; p. 206)

34.   Which of the following is not a type of projective technique for
      measuring aspects of an applicant’s personality?
      a. Make a Picture Story
      b. House-Tree-Person
      c. Thematic Apperception Test
      d. Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test
      e. All of the above are projective
      (c; moderate)



35.   The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following
      except
      a. neuroticism
      b. optimism
      c. extraversion
      d. conscientiousness
      e. agreeableness
      (b; moderate)

36.   _____ represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment
      and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and
      hostility.
      a. Neuroticism
      b. Extraversion
      c. Conscientiousness
      d. Agreeableness
      e. Openness to experience
      (a; easy)

37.   _____ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, active, and
      to experience positive effects such as energy and zeal.
      a. Neuroticism

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b. Extraversion
c. Conscientiousness
d. Agreeableness
e. Openness to experience
(b; easy)




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38.   Mak has recently applied for a position in pharmaceutical sales.
      Which personality characteristic is most predictive of Mak’s
      likelihood of success in a sales position?
      a. neuroticism
      b. extraversion
      c. conscientiousness
      d. agreeableness
      e. openness to experience
      (b; moderate)

39.   Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be
      imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?
      a. neuroticism
      b. extraversion
      c. conscientiousness
      d. agreeableness
      e. openness to experience
      (e; moderate)



40.   Which personality characteristic refers to the tendency for one to
      be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle?
      a. neuroticism
      b. extraversion
      c. conscientiousness
      d. agreeableness
      e. openness to experience
      (d; difficult)

41.   Which personality characteristic captures a combination of
      achievement and dependability?
      a. neuroticism
      b. extraversion
      c. conscientiousness
      d. agreeableness
      e. openness to experience
      (c; difficult)

42.   While some personality characteristics are associated with success
      in different types of jobs, which one characteristic tends to be
      associated with job performance across types?
      a. neuroticism

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b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
(c; difficult)




                                                                  95
43.   Which of the following best describes how the work sampling
      technique is executed?
      a. applicants submit work samples from previous jobs
      b. applicants are tested on their ability to perform several tasks
         crucial to performing the job of interest
      c. applicants are tested on their ability to perform a range of
         tasks related to several positions in a company
      d. applicants are asked to respond to questions about how they
         would perform various tasks
      e. applicants are given video-based situational interviews
      (b; moderate)

44.   A _____ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12
      candidates perform realistic management tasks under the
      observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s potential.
      a. work sampling event
      b. video-based situational testing
      c. management assessment center
      d. personality test
      e. retreat
      (c; moderate)

45.   Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment
      centers include all of the following except _____.
      a. the in basket
      b. leaderless group discussion
      c. tests of motor abilities
      d. interviews
      e. management games
      (c; moderate)

46.   Which of the following is an advantage of using management
      assessment centers in the selection process?
      a. cost of development
      b. time required to administer and assess results
      c. use of managers as assessors
      d. peer evaluations of candidates
      e. use psychologists as performance assessors
      (d; difficult)

47.   Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job
      performance during the selection process?

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a. intelligence tests
b. miniature job training and evaluation
c. management assessment center
d. work sampling technique
e. video-based simulation technique
(a; moderate)




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48.   Which of the following is a direct method for predicting job
      performance during the selection process?
      a. intelligence tests
      b. motor abilities tests
      c. personality tests
      d. work sampling technique
      e. interests inventories
      (d; moderate)

49.   An employer’s selection process is likely to include any of the
      following methods except
      a. testing
      b. reference checks
      c. honesty testing
      d. substance abuse screening
      e. all of the above may be included in an employer’s selection
          process
      (e; easy)

50.   Employers may conduct background investigations and reference
      checks to verify a candidate’s _____.
      a. age
      b. marital status
      c. identification
      d. ethnic background
      e. all of the above
      (c; moderate)

51.   In most Asian countries, which of the following is not usually
      verified by an employer before hiring a job candidate?
      a. legal eligibility for employment
      b. education
      c. age
      d. credit
      e. citizenship
      (d; moderate)

52.   Which of the following is not a possible motivation for a current
      employer to give a fair reference to an employee who is applying
      for a different position with another company?
      a. fear of legal consequences
      b. desire to improve employee’s chances for a new job

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c. desire to remove employee from company
d. respect for employee privacy
e. all are possible motivations
(d; difficult)




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53.   Which selection tool is considered the least useful by HR
      managers?
      a. interview
      b. reference letters
      c. application form
      d. academic record
      e. psychological tests
      (b; moderate)

54.   One of the most useful features of an applicant tracking system is
      its ability to report metrics including _____.
      a. applicant EEO data
      b. applicant source statistics
      c. time taken to fill
      d. cost to hire
      e. all of the above
      (e; easy)



55.   Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also
      called _____.
      a. numerology
      b. astrology
      c. handwriting analysis
      d. reasoning analysis
      e. polygraph output assessment
      (c; moderate)

56.   What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and
      establish a baseline for future insurance claims?
      a. physical examinations
      b. personality tests
      c. handwriting analysis
      d. drug testing
      e. all of the above
      (a; moderate)

True/ False

57.   Under equal employment opportunity laws, employers must use non-
      discriminatory selection procedures. (T; easy)


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58.   Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of
      validity but not reliability. (F; moderate)

59.   A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person
      takes two alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the
      same test on two or more different occasions. (T; easy)

60.   An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency. (T;
      easy)

61.   Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test
      administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.
      (F; moderate)

62.   Test validity answers the question, “Does this test measure what
      it’s supposed to measure?” (T; easy)

63.   Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to
      measure. (F; moderate)

64.   Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently. (F;
      moderate)

65.   There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyze
      the job and concluding with revalidation. (F; easy)

66.   A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can
      then measure an array of predictors. (T; easy)

67.   Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a
      selection test. (F; moderate)

68.   To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants
      before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing
      selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later,
      job performance measures are compared to the test scores under
      development. (T; moderate)

69.   If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one
      can develop an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship
      between test scores and job performance graphically. (T;
      moderate)

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70.   Criterion validity emphasizes judgment. (F; moderate)

71.   Developing, validating, and using selection standards including
      selection tests generally require a qualified psychologist. (T; easy)

72.   Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses
      them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations.
      (F; moderate)

73.   Selection tests are used as supplements to other tools like
      interviews and background checks. (T; moderate)

74.   EEO guidelines and laws apply to application forms and selection
      tests but not to interviews. (F; easy)

75.   A selection test may be used as long as it does not discriminate. (T;
      difficult)

76.   The American Psychological Association’s standards for educational
      and psychological tests are legally enforceable worldwide. (F; easy)

77.   Cognitive tests are the most difficult tests to evaluate and use. (F;
      moderate)

78.   Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they
      compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those
      people in various occupations. (T; moderate)

79.   In the US, rejected applicants who receive bad references could
      sue the source of a reference for defamation of character. (T;
      easy)

80.   Most employers favor written references to telephone references
      because written letters provide a permanent record for the
      employer’s files. (F; moderate)

81.   Most prospective employees prove their eligibility for employment
      in the United States by showing a U.S. passport. (F; moderate)




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