unit 2 practice test by 9d04rW70

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									APES UNIT 2 Practice TEST

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____    1. The most fundamental unit of ecology is
           a. a species
           b. a population
           c. a community
           d. an ecosystem
           e. an organism
____    2. Estimates of the number of species existing on the earth range from
           a. 4 to 100.
           b. 4 to 100 thousand.
           c. 4 to 100 million.
           d. 4 to 100 billion.
           e. 4 to 100 trillion.
____    3. The largest numbers of species of organisms on the earth are currently
           a. microorganisms and fungi.
           b. amphibians and reptiles.
           c. insects and fungi.
           d. insects and microorganisms.
           e. mammals.
____    4. An example of a microbe is
           a. bacteria.
           b. protozoa.
           c. fungi.
           d. yeast.
           e. All of the above.
____    5. The following choices list levels of organization of matter that claim the attention of ecologists. Which
           correctly lists these levels in sequence from narrower to broader focus?
           a. organisms-populations-communities-ecosystems-ecosphere
           b. organisms-communities-populations-ecosystems-ecosphere
           c. organisms-populations-communities-ecosphere-ecosystems
           d. ecosphere-ecosystems-communities-populations-organisms
           e. ecosphere-populations-communities-ecosystems-organisms
____    6. A group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area at the same time is called a
           a. species.
           b. population.
           c. community.
           d. genus.
           e. niche.
____    7. A community of living organisms interacting with one another and the physical and chemical factors of their
           nonliving environment is called
           a. a species.
           b. an ecosystem.
           c. a population.
           d. a lithosphere.
           e. a community.
____    8. All of the following are characteristic of life forms except
           a. highly diffuse internal structure and organization.
           b. the ability to capture and transform matter and energy from the environment.
           c. the ability to reproduce.
           d. the ability to adapt to external change by mutations.
           e. the ability to react to stimuli.
____    9. All physical forms of water (solid, liquid, and gas) make up the
           a. atmosphere.
           b. lithosphere.
           c. biosphere.
           d. hydrosphere.
           e. troposphere.
____   10. Fossil fuels and minerals are found in the
           a. atmosphere.
           b. lithosphere.
           c. biosphere.
           d. hydrosphere.
           e. troposphere.
____   11. Where would a geologists collect rock and soil samples?
           a. atmosphere
           b. lithosphere
           c. biosphere
           d. hydrosphere
           e. troposphere
____   12. Life on earth depends on interaction of gravity, the cycling of matter and
           a. one-way flow of energy.
           b. cycling of energy.
           c. one-way flow of matter.
           d. the destruction of matter.
           e. the consumption of matter.
____   13. Which of the following statements is false?
           a. About one-third of the solar energy hitting the earth is immediately reflected back to
               space.
           b. A spectrum of electromagnetic radiation emanates from the sun.
           c. About one-third of the solar energy hitting the earth warms the land and lower atmosphere,
               runs cycles of matter, and generates winds.
           d. Less than 1% of sunlight is captured via photosynthesis.
           e. None of these answers.
____   14. Aquatic life zones are the aquatic equivalent of
           a. communities.
           b. ecosystems.
           c. biomes.
           d. ecospheres.
           e. populations.
____   15. All of the following are major causes of differences among aquatic ecosystems except
           a. temperature.
           b. precipitation.
           c. salinity.
           d. depth of sunlight penetration.
           e. dissolved oxygen.
____ 16.   The zone in which no member of a population can live is called the
           a. zone of intolerance
           b. zone of physiological stress
           c. lower limit of tolerance
           d. upper limit of tolerance
           e. optimum range
____ 17.   Autotrophs
           a. might eat heterotrophs.
           b. are known as decomposers.
           c. cannot do photosynthesis.
           d. can live without heterotrophs.
           e. are omnivores.
____ 18.   Photosynthesis
           a. converts glucose into energy and water.
           b. requires the combustion of carbon.
           c. produces carbon dioxide and oxygen gas.
           d. yields glucose and oxygen gas as products.
           e. yields glucose and carbon dioxide gas as products.
____ 19.   You are a scientist intrigued by organisms that can create complex molecules through chemosynthesis. The
           habitat you are most likely to visit is
           a. an island paradise.
           b. an inland sand dune.
           c. a hydrothermal vent.
           d. a prairie.
           e. a forest.
____ 20.   Organisms that feed on dead organisms are called
           a. producers.
           b. carnivores.
           c. autotrophs.
           d. scavengers.
           e. omnivores.
____ 21.   Organisms that complete the final breakdown and recycling of organic materials from the remains or wastes
           of all organisms are called
           a. detritivores.
           b. carnivores.
           c. decomposers.
           d. scavengers.
           e. omnivores.
____ 22.   If something is biodegradable, it
           a. can be broken down by autotrophs.
           b. can be broken down by heterotrophs.
           c. can be broken down by decomposers.
           d. cannot be broken down by any living processes.
           e. cannot be broken down by omnivores.
____ 23.   Anaerobic respiration may produce all of the following except
           a. methane gas.
           b. hydrogen sulfide.
           c. carbon dioxide and water.
           d. ethyl alcohol.
           e. lactic acid.
____ 24.   The process which results in alcoholic beverages is
           a. aerobic respiration.
           b. anaerobic respiration.
           c. photosynthesis.
           d. chemosynthesis.
           e. inspiration.
____ 25.   Which of the following terms includes the others?
           a. ecological diversity
           b. biological diversity
           c. genetic diversity
           d. ecological diversity
           e. functional diversity
____ 26.   Most of the energy input in a food chain is
           a. in the form of heat.
           b. converted to biomass.
           c. recycled as it reaches the chain's end.
           d. degraded to low-quality heat.
           e. converted to carbon dioxide.
____ 27.   The ecological efficiency at each trophic level of a particular ecosystem is 20%. If the green plants of the
           ecosystem capture 100 units of energy, about ____ units of energy will be available to support herbivores, and
           about ____ units of energy will be available to support carnivores.
           a. 120 . . . 140
           b. 120. . . 240
           c. 20. . . 2
           d. 20. . . 4
           e. 20 . . .1
____ 28.   The pyramid which best explains why there are typically only four to five links in a food chain is the pyramid
           of
           a. energy.
           b. biomass.
           c. numbers.
           d. matter.
           e. productivity.
____ 29.   Net primary productivity
           a. is the rate at which producers manufacture chemical energy through photosynthesis.
           b. is the rate at which producers use chemical energy through respiration.
           c. is the rate of photosynthesis plus the rate of respiration.
           d. is usually reported as the energy output of an area of producers over a given time.
           e. is the energy input of an area of producers over a given time.
____ 30.   Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest level of kilocalories per square meter per year?
           a. open ocean
           b. tropical rain forest
           c. agricultural land
           d. lakes and streams
           e. temperate forest
____ 31.   A cross-sectional view of the ____ in a soil is properly termed a soil ____.
           a. horizons . . . profile
           b. horizons . . . sample
           c. profile . . . sample
           d. surface litter . . . profile
           e. profile . . . horizon.
____ 32.   The ____-horizon of a soil contains no organic material and is composed of parent material.
           a. A
           b. B
           c. C
           d. O
           e. D
____ 33.   The A-horizon of soil is commonly referred to as
           a. topsoil.
           b. surface litter.
           c. subsoil.
           d. parent rock.
           e. humus.
____ 34.   As it is weathered, ____ gives rise to the C-horizon.
           a. parent material
           b. leaching
           c. subsoil
           d. bed rock
           e. B-horizon
____ 35.   The soil layer containing unique colors and often iron, aluminum, humus, and clay leached from higher layers
           is the
           a. parent material.
           b. zone of leaching.
           c. subsoil.
           d. topsoil.
           e. bed rock.
____ 36.   Freshly fallen leaves, organic debris, and partially decomposed organic matter are indicative of the
           a. surface litter.
           b. zone of leaching.
           c. parent material.
           d. subsoil.
           e. humus.
____ 37.   The dissolving of material from the upper layers of the soil and its movement to lower horizons is called
           a. percolation.
           b. weathering.
           c. accumulation.
           d. leaching.
           e. humus.
____ 38.   Leaching occurs when
           a. humus is dissolved.
           b. water removes soluble soil components.
           c. organic compounds slowly decay.
           d. rock is shattered by frost action.
           e. water stays in the soil.
____ 39.   Red and yellow colors in a soil horizon usually indicate a
           a. high percentage of sand.
           b. high percentage of lime and gypsum.
           c. lack of iron oxide.
           d. low organic matter content.
           e. large number of soil organisms.
____ 40.   Leaf mold, a humus-mineral mixture, and silty loam are indicative of
           a. coniferous forest soil.
           b. deciduous forest soil.
           c. tropical forest soil.
           d. grassland soil.
           e. desert soil.
____ 41.   A soil sample of closely packed pebbles that is a mixture of minerals and low in humus probably came from a
           a. coniferous forest.
           b. desert.
           c. deciduous forest.
           d. tropical forest
           e. grassland.
____ 42.   If you were a farmer, which type of soil would you choose for your crops?
           a. silt
           b. loam
           c. clay
           d. sand
           e. gravel
____ 43.   Which of the following types of soils has the least pore space?
           a. silt
           b. loam
           c. clay
           d. sand
           e. they all have equal pore space.
____ 44.   Which of the following types of soils holds the most water?
           a. silt
           b. loam
           c. clay
           d. sand
           e. gravel
____ 45.   Sand has ____ permeability and ____ porosity.
           a. high . . . high
           b. high . . . low
           c. low . . . high
           d. low . . . low
           e. medium . . . medium
____ 46.   The nitrogen cycle is an example of a(an)
           a. hydrologic cycle.
           b. sedimentary cycle.
           c. carbohydrate cycle.
           d. atmospheric cycle.
           e. rock cycle.
____ 47.   The hydrologic cycle is driven primarily by
           a. solar energy and gravity.
           b. solar energy and the moon.
           c. solar energy and mechanical energy.
           d. mechanical and chemical energy.
           e. chemical energy from the moon.
____ 48.   The amount of water vapor found in a certain mass of air is the
           a. relative humidity.
           b. absolute humidity.
           c. average humidity.
           d. air pressure.
           e. altitude.
____ 49.   Condensation nuclei form from all of the following except
           a. sea salt.
           b. soil dust.
           c. carbon monoxide emitted from vehicles.
           d. volcanic ash.
           e. smoke.
____ 50.   Water covers about ____% of earth's surface.
           a. 54
           b. 64
           c. 74
           d. 84
           e. 94
____ 51.   Water molecules ____ each other.
           a. attract
           b. repel
           c. have no effect on
           d. dissolve
           e. diffuse
____ 52.   Which of the following statements is false?
           a. Water has a very high heat capacity and changes temperature very slowly.
           b. Water tends to ameliorate temperatures so that coastal towns do not show the temperature
              ranges of towns in the interior of continents.
           c. Water has a low heat of vaporization; that is, it evaporates very easily.
           d. Water functions well as a coolant.
           e. None of the above statements are false.
____ 53.   Which element could be called the "currency for energy exchange in living systems?"
           a. nitrogen
           b. oxygen
           c. carbon
           d. sulfur
           e. phosphorus
____ 54.   Transfer of carbon between organisms depends primarily on
           a. fuel combustion and decomposition.
           b. photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
           c. soil bacteria and precipitation.
           d. volcanic activity and organic decay.
           e. the rock cycle.
____ 55.   The two ways in which humans have most interfered with the carbon cycle are
           a. removal of forests and aerobic respiration.
           b. aerobic respiration and burning fossil fuels.
           c. respiration and photosynthesis.
           d. burning fossil fuels and removal of forests and brush.
           e. respiration and removal of forests.
____ 56.   Nitrogen is a major component of all of the following except
           a. proteins.
           b. nucleic acids.
           c. ammonia.
           d. groundwater.
           e. DNA.
____ 57.   The form of nitrogen most usable to plants is
           a. ammonia.
           b. nitrogen gas.
           c. proteins.
           d. nitrates.
           e. nitrites.
____ 58.   When organisms die, their nitrogenous organic compounds are converted to simpler inorganic compounds
           such as ammonia through the process of
           a. nitrification.
           b. nitrogen fixation.
           c. denitrification.
           d. ammonification.
           e. leaching.
____ 59.   Inorganic nitrogen-containing ions are converted into organic molecules through
           a. nitrification.
           b. nitrogen fixation.
           c. denitrification.
           d. assimilation.
           e. leaching.
____ 60.   When nitrogen is added to aquatic systems, it is least likely to result in
           a. depletion of oxygen in the water.
           b. stimulated algae growth.
           c. immediate decrease in gross primary productivity.
           d. fish kills.
           e. anoxic conditions.
____ 61.   Which of the following is not one of the common phosphorous reservoirs in the ecosystem?
           a. soil
           b. organisms
           c. atmosphere
           d. rocks
           e. marine sediment
____ 62.   Phosphorous is used in the composition of all of the following except
           a. fats in cell membranes.
           b. DNA molecules.
           c. bones and teeth.
           d. proteins.
           e. carbohydrates
____ 63.   All of the following are sources of phosphorous except
           a. inorganic fertilizer.
           b. runoff of animal wastes from feedlots.
           c. detergents.
           d. acid rain.
           e. guano.
____ 64.   The major plant nutrient most likely to be a limiting factor is
           a. phosphorous.
           b. calcium.
           c. manganese.
           d. potassium.
           e. nitrogen.
____ 65.   Organic sulfur-containing compounds include
           a. sulfates.
           b. carbohydrates and proteins.
           c. fats and vitamins.
           d. proteins and vitamins.
           e. sulfites.
____ 66.   Humans add sulfur to the atmosphere by
           a. refining petroleum.
           b. smelting sulfur compounds or metallic minerals.
           c. burning sulfur-containing fossil fuels.
           d. All of these answers.
           e. None of these answers.
____ 67.   Which statement describes field research least?
           a. It has been used to develop most of our knowledge about ecosystems.
           b. It is comparatively easy to set up controlled experiments.
           c. It is relatively time-consuming.
           d. It is relatively expensive.
           e. None of these answers.
____ 68.   Which statement least characterizes laboratory research?
           a. It allows measurement of model ecosystems and populations under controlled conditions.
           b. It is faster than similar field research.
           c. It is cheaper than similar field research.
           d. It has been used to develop most of our knowledge about ecosystems.
           e. None of these answers.
____ 69.   Which statement least characterizes systems analysis as a research strategy?
           a. It is usually carried out by an expert in the field.
           b. It has developed over the last twenty-five years.
           c. It can be applied to complex systems that cannot be adequately studied in the field or
              laboratory.
           d. It can simulate ecosystems.
           e. None of these answers.
____ 70.   One member of a system analysis team is a person who loves to tinker with variables to see the potential
           impact of trying different solutions, to engage fully in the study of cause and effect. If you were a system
           manager, to which stage of the system analysis would you assign this person?
           a. system measurement
           b. system simulation
           c. system optimization
           d. system modeling
           e. data optimization
____ 71.   The American alligator is now listed as threatened because
           a. their nesting mounds are easy targets.
           b. their skins are used to make shoes, belts, and pocketbooks.
           c. their meat is considered exotic.
           d. All of these answers.
           e. None of these answers.
____ 72.   Where is most of the world's biodiversity?
           a. high-latitude forests
           b. middle-latitude grasslands
           c. low-latitude forests
           d. polar grasslands
           e. tundra
____ 73.   Which term means the opposite of the others?
           a. exotic species
           b. native species
           c. alien species
           d. nonnative species
           e. generalist species
____ 74.   Which of the following statements about amphibians is false?
           a. The oldest of today's amphibians were living as long as 150 million years ago.
           b. Amphibians are important indicator species.
           c. Amphibians are experiencing sharp population declines in a variety of habitats.
           d. Amphibians eat many insects, second in number only to birds.
           e. They are often considered keystone species.
____ 75.   Birds and trout make good
           a. nonnative species.
           b. native species.
           c. keystone species.
           d. indicator species.
           e. generalist species.
____ 76.   Sea otters, dung beetles, and gopher tortoises are generally considered to be
           a. nonnative species.
           b. native species.
           c. keystone species.
           d. specialist species.
           e. generalist species.
____ 77.   Species that can create and enhance habitats that can benefit other species in a community such as birds that
           regenerate deforested areas and spread seeds through their droppings are called
           a. keystone species
           b. foundation species
           c. native species
           d. indicator species
           e. invasive species
____ 78.   Which of the following statements is false?
           a. When environmental conditions are changing rapidly, a generalist is usually better off than
               a specialist.
           b. The fundamental niche of a species is the full range of physical, chemical, and biological
               factors it could use if there were no competition.
           c. The competitive exclusion principle states that no two species with the same fundamental
               niche can indefinitely occupy the same habitat.
           d. Interspecific competition is competition between two members of the same species.
           e. Intraspecific competition is competition between two members of the same species.
____ 79.   The relationship between fire ants and native ant populations is best described as
           a. mutualism.
           b. commensalism.
           c. intraspecific competition.
           d. interspecific competition.
           e. parasitism.
____ 80.   A new kitten is added to a home with an established older cat. The older cat is observed to gobble up its food
           as well as that of the younger cat. This behavior is best described as
           a. interference competition.
           b. exploitation competition.
           c. mutualism.
           d. predation.
           e. parasitism.
____ 81.   A new kitten is added to a home with an established older cat. You observe the older cat hiss and swat at the
           younger kitten in the kitchen where they are fed. This behavior is best described as
           a. interference competition.
           b. exploitation competition.
           c. mutualism.
           d. predation.
           e. parasitism.
____ 82.   Interspecific competition can be avoided by
           a. eating at different times.
           b. resource partitioning.
           c. character displacement.
           d. All of these answers.
           e. None of these answers.
____ 83.   A shark is least likely to be killed
           a. by a predator.
           b. for sport.
           c. out of fear.
           d. for food.
           e. for their jaws.
____ 84.   A relationship in which one species benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed to any significant
           degree is best labeled
           a. competition.
           b. predation.
           c. commensalism.
           d. parasitism.
           e. mutualism.
____ 85.   Of the following relationships, the one most likely to be described as a positive feedback loop is
           a. competition.
           b. predation.
           c. mutualism.
           d. parasitism.
           e. commensalism.
____ 86.   All of the following are ectoparasites except
           a. fleas and ticks.
           b. mosquitoes.
           c. mistletoe.
           d. tapeworms.
           e. athlete's foot fungus.
____ 87.   All of the following illustrate the relationship of mutualism except
           a. lichens.
           b. epiphytes.
           c. ants and acacias.
           d. Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules of legumes.
           e. flowering plants and insects.
____ 88.   The relationship between redwood trees and redwood sorrel is
           a. competition.
           b. predation.
           c. parasitism.
           d. commensalism.
           e. mutualism.
____ 89.   Forms of nondestructive behavior between organisms include all of the following except
           a. sharing resources by hunting at different times.
           b. sharing resources by looking for food in different places.
           c. parasitism.
           d. mutualism.
           e. commensalism.
____ 90.   Which of the following statements about primary succession is false?
           a. It is initiated by pioneer species.
           b. It often involves species changing the environment so that they can no longer thrive and
               must be replaced by other species.
           c. It generally results in more complex, more self-sustaining stages than the preceding ones.
           d. It is an orderly progression from pioneer species to climax species indicative of the region
               being studied.
           e. All of these statements are true.
____ 91.   How long does it take natural processes to produce fertile soil?
           a. weeks to months
           b. months to years.
           c. decades to a few centuries.
           d. several centuries to several thousands of years.
           e. several thousand years to millions of years.
____ 92.   Which of the following would undergo secondary succession?
           a. cooled volcanic lava
           b. an abandoned parking lot
           c. a heavily polluted stream that has been cleaned up
           d. a bare rock outcrop
           e. a newly created shallow pond
____ 93.   Soil formation in primary succession is encouraged by
           a. physical weathering.
           b. lichens and mosses trapping soil particles.
           c. secretion of acids by lichens.
           d. All of these answers.
           e. None of these answers.
____ 94. A field ecologist observes primary succession occurring over a period of years. Bare rock is colonized by
          lichens that give way to moss that give way to ferns. She is most likely to report that the process guiding
          succession in this ecosystem is
          a. interspecific competition.
          b. tolerance.
          c. facilitation.
          d. inhibition.
          e. intraspecific competition.
____ 95. You observe a stand of dense hemlocks. You know squirrels from an adjacent area have brought pine cones to
          the ecosystem, but no pine seedlings have sprouted. Of the following choices, the best label for this
          observation is
          a. primary succession.
          b. tolerance.
          c. tertiary succession.
          d. inhibition.
          e. facilitation.
____ 96. You observe a maple seedling grow successfully in a birch stand. All species thrive. The best label for this
          observation would be
          a. primary succession.
          b. tolerance.
          c. tertiary succession.
          d. inhibition.
          e. facilitation.
____ 97. In mature ecosystems
          a. most plants are annuals.
          b. species diversity is low.
          c. the efficiency of energy use is high.
          d. the efficiency of nutrient recycling is low.
          e. there are few, mostly generalized, ecological niches.
____ 98. Ecologists would consider all of the following to be natural disturbances except
          a. droughts.
          b. floods.
          c. deforestation.
          d. fires.
          e. frost.
____ 99. Most terrestrial ecosystems are a dynamic patchworks of vegetation providing
          a. great biodiversity and sites for early successional species to gain a foothold.
          b. great biodiversity and sites that favor late successional species.
          c. moderate biodiversity and sites for all successional species.
          d. moderate biodiversity and sites for early successional species to gain a foothold.
          e. None of these answers.
____ 100. Which of the following refers to the ability of an organism to return to its former condition after a period of
          stress?
          a. stability
          b. inertia
          c. constancy
          d. resilience
          e. persistence
Essay

    101. Measurements of dissolved oxygen (DO) are used to determine primary productivity in bodies of water.

          a. Explain the relationship of dissovled oxygen to primary productivity.




          b. How would the predicted levels of DO differ in each of the following pairs of water samples? Proved
          suppor tfor your prediction. Be sure to include a discussion of net productivity and gross productivity in your
          answer.

                  i. Pond water at 25 degrees Celsius vs. pond water at 15 degrees Celsius



                  ii. Pond water placed in the dark for 24 hours vs. pond water placed in light for 24
                  hours.
APES UNIT 2 Practice TEST
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

     1.   ANS:   E     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     2.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     3.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     4.   ANS:   E     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     5.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     6.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     7.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     8.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   D   TOP:   The Nature of Ecology
     9.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   The Earth's Life Support Systems
    10.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   The Earth's Life Support Systems
    11.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   The Earth's Life Support Systems
    12.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   The Earth's Life Support Systems
    13.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   D   TOP:   The Earth's Life Support Systems
    14.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    15.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    16.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    17.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    18.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    19.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    20.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    21.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    22.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    23.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    24.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Ecosystem Components
    25.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Biodiversity
    26.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Energy Flow in Ecosystems
    27.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Energy Flow in Ecosystems
    28.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Energy Flow in Ecosystems
    29.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Energy Flow in Ecosystems
    30.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Energy Flow in Ecosystems
    31.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    32.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    33.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    34.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    35.   ANS:   C     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    36.   ANS:   A     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    37.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    38.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    39.   ANS:   D     PTS:   1   DIF:   M   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    40.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
    41.   ANS:   B     PTS:   1   DIF:   E   TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
42.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
43.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
44.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
45.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Soil: A Renewable Resource
46.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
47.   ANS:   A              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
48.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
49.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
50.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
51.   ANS:   A              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
52.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: D        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
53.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
54.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
55.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: D        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
56.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
57.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
58.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
59.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
60.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: D        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
61.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
62.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
63.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: D        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
64.   ANS:   A              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
65.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
66.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: D        TOP:   Matter Cycling in Ecosystems
67.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: M
      TOP:   How Do Ecologists Learn About Ecosystems?
68.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: D
      TOP:   How Do Ecologists Learn About Ecosystems?
69.   ANS:   A              PTS: 1               DIF: D
      TOP:   How Do Ecologists Learn About Ecosystems?
70.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: D
      TOP:   How Do Ecologists Learn About Ecosystems?
71.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: E
72.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: M
      TOP:   Community Structure and Species Diversity
73.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Types of Species
74.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: M        TOP:   Types of Species
75.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Types of Species
76.   ANS:   C              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Types of Species
77.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: E        TOP:   Types of Species
78.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: D
      TOP:   Species Interactions: Competition and Predation
79.   ANS:   D              PTS: 1               DIF: E
      TOP:   Species Interactions: Competition and Predation
80.   ANS:   B              PTS: 1               DIF: M
      TOP:   Species Interactions: Competition and Predation
    81. ANS:    A              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Competition and Predation
    82. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Competition and Predation
    83. ANS:    A              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Competition and Predation
    84. ANS:    C              PTS: 1                 DIF: E
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Parasitism, Mutualism, and Commensalism
    85. ANS:    C              PTS: 1                 DIF: E
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Parasitism, Mutualism, and Commensalism
    86. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Parasitism, Mutualism, and Commensalism
    87. ANS:    B              PTS: 1                 DIF: D
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Parasitism, Mutualism, and Commensalism
    88. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: E
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Parasitism, Mutualism, and Commensalism
    89. ANS:    C              PTS: 1                 DIF: E
        TOP:    Species Interactions: Parasitism, Mutualism, and Commensalism
    90. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: D
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    91. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: E
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    92. ANS:    C              PTS: 1                 DIF: E
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    93. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    94. ANS:    C              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    95. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    96. ANS:    B              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    97. ANS:    C              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    98. ANS:    C              PTS: 1                 DIF: E
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
    99. ANS:    A              PTS: 1                 DIF: D
        TOP:    Ecological Succession: Communities in Transition
   100. ANS:    D              PTS: 1                 DIF: M
        TOP:    Ecological Stability and Sustainability


ESSAY

   101. ANS:
        a. Primary productivity (4 points maximum)
                *Primary productivity: rate at which autotrophs convert light energy into stored chemical engery
                *Increase in oxygen = increase in primary productivity
                *Rate of carbon compound formation measured indirectly through oxygen production
        *6CO2 + 6H2O--> C6H12O6 + 6O2
        *Gross productivity\GPP = rate at which primary producer synthesizes O2
        *Net productivity= GPP- producer respiration

b i. Pond water at 25 degrees C vs. pond water at 15 degrees C (4 points max)
         *prediction: DO at 15 degrees C greater than DO at 25 degrees C
         *Why: saturation DO concentration at 15 degrees is higher than saturation DO concentration at 25
degrees C
         *Example
                 *Higher metabolic rate of aquatic orgnanisms at warmer temperature = less available oxygen
                 *Fish die in summer ponds/trout live in cold streams
                 *Drinks at room temperature hold less DO than when cold
         *Elaboration of the example
b ii. pond water placed in the dark for 24 hrs vs. pond water placed in the light for 24 hours (4 points max)
         * Prediction: DO in light greater than DO in dark
         *Why: photosynthesis higher so DO higher
                 *photosynthesis is light dependent
                 *light bottle is the NET productivity because both photosynthesis and cellular respiration are
occuring
                 * dark bottle uses oxygen and respiration only

PTS: 1

								
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