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Opthalmology 2nd long exam 2012B Infratrochlear Nerve
24.) The lower eyelid is a pain sensitive structure which gets its
1.) The most common cause of visual impairment in our country is: innervation from the
Retinopathy of prematurity Infraorbital Nerve
2.) All of the following is a common finding in a retinoblastoma 25.) This clinical presentation will have acute painless blurring of
patient, except: vision :
Large corneal diameter Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
3.) Possible consequences in amlyopia or lazy eye if not treated 26.) This condition will have a clinical presentation of gradual painless
before 8 y/o are: blurring of vision:
Abnormal extraocular muscle movement Age Related Macular Degeneration
4.) Conditions that block the visual axis and prevent the clear image 27.) The longest section of the optic nerve is:
in the eye, resulting in amblyopia are the following, except: Intraorbital Segment (Intraocular segment measures
Pupillary atrophy? 1mm, Intracanalicular segment is 6-10mm, Intracranial
5.) Abnormal or unequal red-orange reflex has been associated with segment is 10mm, and Intraorbital segment is 25-30
the following ocular conditions, except: mm and so this is the right answer).
Congenital ptosis 28.) Obstruction of this artery is responsible for anterior ischemic optic
6.) On a week old? infant weighing 800 grams was referred to the neuropathy:
ophthalmology service was screened for: Short Posterior Ciliary Artery
Retinopathy of prematurity 29.) Optic nerve structure where optic nerve damage is due to
7.) A 2-day old infant presents with a purulent eye discharge. increased intraoptical and intracranial pressure
Diagnosed with Chlamydia infection. Most likely diagnosis is: Laminar (__?__)
Opthalmia Neonatorum 30.) The blood supply of the optic nerve comes directly from the:
8.) A newborn infant, presenting with leukocoria accompanied by a Internal Carotid Artery
heart problem and an ear infection. Mother had rubella infection 31.) (Sorry didn’t get the whole question, but the answer was Optic
during the first trimester of the pregnancy. Most likely diagnosis Neuritis. So if we are asked about a question about gradual and
for this patient is: painful loss of vision, and somewhere along the line we spot “pain
Congenital Cataract (according to the Pediatric with movement of the eye, central field loss”, then its most likely
Opthalmology trans it is called Pediatric Cataract, pero Optic Neuritis.
sabi sa recording Congenital Cataract) 32.) Moderate progressive headache, more common early in the
9.) A 3-month old infant presented with progressive enlargement of morning, and worse….
the globe, or opthalmos, and large corneal diameter. Digital Papilledema
palpation revealed a hard globe. The most likely diagnosis is: 33.) On and off transient blurring of vision occurring several times a
Congenital glaucoma day:
10.) The best way to diagnose retinoblastoma is by direct Papilledema
visualization of the lesion. It is used by performing what test? 34.) Complete optic nerve transaction results in:
Indirect opthalmoscopy Negative Light Perception
11.) Visual screening test that is used to perform by using an 35.) Temporal lobe lesion would result in:
opthalmoscope, except: “Pie in the sky”
Uthoff’s Test (Test used for multiple sclerosis, so says 36.) Parietal lobe lesion would result in:
the audio recording. When patient is subject to warm “Pie on the floor”
environments, there is a presence of remarkable 37.) Wedge-shaped scotoma are caused by:
neurological deficits, especially blurring of vision) Nasal radiating nerve fiber bundle defect
12.) Which is the most common site? of Basal Cell Carcinoma? 38.) Intracameral administration of medications is the infusion of
Lower lid drugs through a space:
13.) Poor prognosis of retinoblastoma is generally associated with: Bordered by the cornea and the iris (Just remember
Optic Nerve invasion that Intracameral route is in the anterior chamber)
14.) Which of the following is an example of Choristoma? 39.) Medications that are better absorbed by ocular tissue are drugs
Dermoid Cyst that are:
15.) A stage II squamous cell carcinoma has already invaded which Lipid soluble
tissue? 40.) Medications have to pass through this barrier formed by the non-
Substantia propria pigmented layer of the ciliary epithelium and the epithelium of
16.) What is the most common presenting clinical manifestation of the iris blood vessels
retinoblastoma? Blood-aqueous barrier
Leukocoria For questions 41-43
17.) The ocular tissue that has absolutely no malignant potential is the: 41.) 20/M patient consulted at the OPD presented with blurring of
Lens vision on the right eye for 4 days after applying 3 drops of self-
18.) Which among the following features carries the best prognosis in prescribed eye medication with a red-capped bottle. Upon
Choroidal melanoma? examination, there was anisocoria with a dilated, non-reactive
(Sorry, couldn’t understand this part. But just pupil on the right eye. The eye medication that was most likely
remember these points to determine prognosis of used was:
Choroidal melanoma: epithelioid cells, number of Atropine
mitoses, extrascleral extension, large tumor size, CB 42.) The patient begins to complain of headache, eye pain, and
involvement & greater pigmentation ) worsening of blurring of vision. Began to experience vomiting. He
19.) What is the best recommended management of a 7-year old was admitted at the ER and PE revealed a hazy cornea in the right
female with a large orbital capillary hemangioma? eye, and shallow anterior chamber on both eyes. The patient
Intra-lesional steroid injection most likely developed:
20.) What is the most common intraocular tumor? Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma
Metastatic CA 43.) His condition deteriorates as he becomes weak and complains of
21.) A tumor recurrence in an enucleated retinoblastoma patient may severe pain and vomiting. Tonometry revealed an IOP of 50mmHg
necessitate: of the right eye and 19 mmHg for the left eye. Initial treatment at
Chemotherapy the ER would be:
22.) The Iris is a pain-sensitive structure which gets its innervation Mannitol
from the: For questions 44-45
Nasociliary Nerve 44.) 35/F consulted at the the OPD because of painless progressive
23.) The extraocular muscles contains sensitive structures which gets blurring of vision. Patient had been taking a medication for
its innervation from the treatment for bronchial asthma for the past 15 years. Leukocoria
was noted on the left eye and firm hard orbits on Digital Pupillary block
Tonometry for both eyes. This condition may be due to long term 66.) 35/M came in for comprehensive eye exam as part of his annual
treatment with: eye check. The ff were taken in his eye findings: unremarkable
Prednisone (Long term use of corticosteroids = cataract past health and family hx, VA 20/20 both eyes, suspicious ___, eye
formation) pressure 23 mmHg both eyes. Most likely dx?
45.) Patient was referred to an ophthalmologist to confirm the Glaucoma suspect
presence of lens opacity on the left eye ocular hypertension for 67.) In children, the organism found in conjunctivitis:
both eyes. She was given a medication to control the increased H influenzae
IOP which causes an asthmatic attack. Eye medication that was 68.) On a newborn presented with central conjunctivitis, these
given to her was most likely: organisms are considered:
Timolol Chlamydia and Gonococcus
46.) A glaucoma patient being treated with anti-glaucoma eyedrops on 69.) This type of conjunctivitis is usually unilateral and with
the right eye developed ____. Right eye developed palpebral mucopurulent discharge
conjunctival injection with papillary reaction. Anti-glaucoma Bacterial conjunctivitis
eyedrops given was most likely: 70.) The usual serotype of virus which causes conjunctivitis is
Brimonidine Adenovirus Type 8, 19, 29, 37
47.) Topical anesthetics may aid in the examination of patients with 71.) ___
____ spasm because of ___ … should not be used in the long term 72.) The usual complication of adenovirus
treatment because of eye pain because of:: Subepithelial cornea infiltration
All of the above 73.) A person complained of recurring eye redness and itchiness ___
48.) The ___ retinal detachment ___ rhegmatogenous retinal Allergic conjunctivitis
detachment 74.) A patient with corneal ulcer
Vitreal retinal traction? 75.) The most common cause of bacterial corneal ulcer:
49.) Direct ___ Best achieved by performing: Gonococcus
Vitrectomy 76.) Hx of trauma and exposure of plants and soil indicates a strong
50.) In the treatment of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy, this area is possibility of what type of keratitis?
spared during Laser Panretinal Photocoagulation (PRP): Fungus (Fungal type keratitis)
Macula 77.) A history of contact lens wear, the keratitis is due to
51.) In a retinal drawing, the Universal Color Code in Fundus Drawing
for an Attached Retina is: 78.) R
Red 79.) W/c of the ff is not true of retinoblastoma?
52.) Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment differs from Diabetic retinal It is a rare tumor occurring reported at 1/(15,000 or
detachment in that it exhibits 50,000) live births
More rapid deterioration of vision May nag-complain daw na hindi ito daw yung sagot,
53.) A physical sign for advanced or end-stage dry/non-neovascular but I still included the answer based on the audio
AMD is: recording. Ultimately, it was decided that “they would
Geographic atrophy of RPE in macular region get back to it later”…)
54.) The clinical manifestation of impaired capillary ____ vascular 80.) The second most common clinical presentation in retinoblastoma
leakage in Diabetic Retinopathy: is:
Presence of Hard Exudates Eye misalignment
55.) Initial symptom chronic___ ____ wet type ARMD 81.) Which is the following workup for retinoblastoma is effective in
Metamorphopsia detecting Optic Nerve involvement?
56.) 72/M white man history of Type 1 DM presented to you MRI
complaining of incomplete vision. He has not seen an eye doctor 82.) What is the best tx for retinoblastoma tumors measuring 3mm in
in years. On examination, there are presence of numerous dot- diameters and 3mm thickness located behind the ___?
blot hemorrhages, hard exudates and areas with abnormal Photocoagulation (just remember that if the mass is
vasculature in the retina. Panretinal Photocoagulation might be small enough and is located predominantly anteriorly,
done in this patient to: don’t think of enucleation right away. The problem is, I
Cure? the ischemic retina don’t know the cutoff size to indicate enucleation for
57.) Conjunctival hyperemia, ___of eyelashes, ocular pruritus, ocular RB patients…)
dryness, visual disturbance, ocular burning?, foreign body 83.) Extraretinal fiber vascular proliferation is seen in what stage of
sensation, eye pain, pigmentation of the periocular skin, perforitis, active retinopathy of prematurity?
cataract, superficial ____, ocular irritation island erythema, are Stage 3
complications when taking this anti-glaucoma medication 84.) What type of retinal detachment is seen in active retinopathy of
Bimatoprost prematurity?
58.) Which of the ff best characterizes primary open angle glaucoma? Tractional RD
It is a gradually progressive blinding disease 85.) W/c of the ff is not a key feature of persistent hyperplastic
59.) One of the ff is a risk factor for the dev’t of glaucoma: primary vitreous?
Intake of oral steroids It is usually bilateral
60.) 60/F complains of difficulty of driving characterized as inability to 86.) Tx of choice for unilateral retinoblastoma?
see the sidewalk for the past 6 mos. Past health history reveals Enucleation
that she is diabetic for 5 years. She claims that she has a sister 87.) ___
who is blind. Eye exam show VA of 20/20 both eyes, eye pressure Initially associated with clear lens/minimal lens opacity
30 mmHg, open ___. Most likely diagnosis is: that may later become dense cataract
Primary Open Angle Glaucoma 88.) The pathognomonic sign of active ROP
61.) Diagnostic test that would identify the mechanism of glaucoma Dev’t of a thin gray white line?
Gonioscopy 89.) W/c of the ff structures form part of the ant. segment of the eye?
62.) The most preferred first line of treatment for newly diagnosed Ciliary bodies
mild open angle glaucoma 90.) The combined convergence power of cornea and lens is 50
Latanoprost diopters. This is divided into:
63.) In the tx of glaucoma, Timolol should not be given to patients with 40 diopters (cornea) + 20 diopters (lens)
Bronchial Asthma 91.) What type of refractive error does the px have if the image falls
64.) Aqueous fluid is introduced in which chamber? behind/focuses at the back of the retina?
Posterior chamber Hyperopia
65.) The most common mechanism identified in patients with primary 92.) Error of refraction wherein the images of distant objects focus in
angle closure glaucoma is: front of the retina in an unaccomodated eye
Myopia
93.) Convex lenses converge light towards the retina, to correct what
type of error of refraction?
Hyperopia (
94.) What type of laser is used for cornea ___
95.) Which of the ff errors of refraction are not indications for corneal
refractive surgery?
Presbyopia
96.) This type of corneal refractive radiosurgery reshapes the cornea
by direct ablating the Bowman’s and stromal layers without
creating a corneal flap?
Photorefractive Keratectomy (PRK)
97.) This type of corneal refractive radiosurgery reshapes the cornea
by direct ablating the Bowman’s and stromal layers after creating
a corneal flap?
LASIK
98.) Advantage of LASIK vs. PRK
Less pre-op pain
99.) W/c of the ff is not an indication for corneal transplant? (I didn’t
hear the correct answer very well, but just remember these
indications for corneal transplant):
Bullous Keratopathy – cornea opacifies due to S/P
cataract surgery wherein cornea fails or there is
trauma during the surgery
Keratoconus – failing of cornea that makes the cornea
to prolapsed
Corneal Dystrophy
Corneal Scarring
100.) In cataract surgery, this method is the removal of the lens
including the anterior and posterior capsule:
Intracapsular cataract extraction
