PM Exam Term 2011 2012

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					Question I
      (35 Marks)
1. When you review deliverables and work results, to whom do you
distribute formal acceptance documentation?
    A. Superiors
    B. Stakeholders
    C. PMO
    D. Project members
2. To be qualified as a critical path, what should the network path
contain?
    A. The most total float .
    B. The longest duration .
    C. The highest number of total activities .
    D. The least number of activities .
3. What is not a corrective action that should be taken in order to bring
expected performance in line with the project plan?
    A. Determine the source of the problem and its severity .
    B. Use configuration management to document and control changes to
       original product characteristics .
    C. Review the project plan and objectives .
    D. Consider factors inside and outside the project that may influence
       corrective action decisions.
4. You begin creating a project schedule by performing mathematical
analysis and evaluating the possible impact of known constraints. What
should you do next?
    A. Consider the availability of your resources.
    B. Select appropriate project management software.
    C. Calculate project durations.
    D. Consult calendars and assign activity dates.
5. Which monitor and control project work output is associated with
recommended actions that will increase future performance?
    A. Recommended forecasts
    B. Recommended defect repair
    C. Recommended corrective actions
    D. Recommended preventive actions
6. Which document, created as part of the stakeholder management
strategy for your project, describes the strategies used to manage the
stakeholders of a project?
    A. Stakeholder register
    B. Risk Management Plan
    C. Stakeholder analysis matrix
    D. Stakeholder resolution register
7. During a quality audit, what questions would auditors ask themselves
in order to evaluate the quality management plan, quality testing
procedures, and measurement criteria? (Choose three).
    A. Are the operational definitions and checklists adequate and
       appropriate to achieving the desired final results?
    B. Are testing methods being implemented correctly?
    C. What are the risks of the project?
    D. Are the quality parameters set forth in the quality management plan
       valid?
8. Which detail is required in a project charter ?
    A. Description of the business need that the project is intended to
       address .
    B. Overall risk ranking for the project .
    C. Estimate of the time and cost for each activity in the project .
    D. Likelihood of the project to meet capital budgeting requirements .
9. Which input to the estimate costs process includes project staffing
attributes, personnel rates, and its related rewards and recognitions ?
    A. Enterprise environmental factors
    B. Human resource plan
    C. Organizational process assets
    D. Project management plan
10. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique
product, service or result. The end of the project is reached ………..
(choose two)
    A. When the project's objectives has been achieved.
    B. When the project is terminated because its objectives will not or
       cannot be met.
    C. When the project manager is changed.
    D. When the time of the project exceeds double the planned time.
11. Which statements are true of the process control structure? (Choose
two).
    A. It is the general tool used to manage changes to a product or
       service that is being produced .
    B. It is a formal system that defines how modifications will be
       reviewed, documented, delivered, communicated, and revised .
    C. It is used to review deliverables and work results .
    D. It establishes standardizations within the project team .
12. Which document serves as a central repository for all relevant
management plans ?
    A. Work breakdown structure
   B. Scope management plan
   C. Project management plan
   D. Risk response plan
13. Which is not a guideline for creating a statement of work ?
   A. For ease of reading, use abbreviations as much as possible .
   B. Present information in a logical sequence .
   C. Use consistent terminology throughout .
   D. Clearly state the acceptance standards for the deliverable .
14. What will an effective risk response plan contain ?
   A. The response strategies for each customer requirement .
   B. The response strategies for each unidentified risk .
   C. The response strategies for each application area .
   D. The response strategies for each identified risk .
15. How can you create a milestone in Microsoft Project ?
   A. Create a normal task with zero duration.
   B. Create a subtask.
   C. Create a task with zero resources.
   D. Create a task using the network diagram.
16. If the scope of the project increases and stakeholders ensure that it is
not possible to increase reources. What should you do?
   A. Tell them that the quality of the project will increase.
   B. Tell them that the time of the project should be increased.
   C. Tell them that the time of the project will be decreased if people
        work harder.
   D. Tell them that the project should be cancelled because scope
        changes are not acceptable.
17. Which inputs should you review when attempting to identify risk?
(Choose two).
   A. Schedule management plan
   B. Communication management plan
   C. Project scope statement
   D. Stakeholder register
18. True or False? Once you have established an information
communications system, you should continually monitor the system for
feedback .
   A. True
   B. False
19. Which is used to track cost performance on your WBS?
   A. Decomposition
   B. Work package
    C. Code of accounts
    D. Cost analysis
20. Which tool or technique generates the most accurate estimates for
activity resources when compared to other estimates ?
    A. Bottom-up estimating
    B. Published estimation data
    C. Resource breakdown structure
    D. Activity resource requirements
21. True or False? When determining the nature of a cost change, you
need to review the cost management plan to identify corrective actions
and baseline adjustments .
    A. True
    B. False
22. Which are tools and techniques of the plan procurements process?
(Choose three).
    A. Make-or-buy analysis
    B. Expert judgment
    C. Contract types
    D. Teaming agreements
23. Which document may be supplied by the project's sponsor in response
to an organizational need ?
    A. A project management plan
    B. A business case
    C. A contract
    D. A project statement of work
24. Which statement of the following is true regarding projects?
    A. Stakeholders' risks and influences are greatest at the start of the
       project.
    B. Cost is high at the start of the project and low at the middle of the
       project.
    C. Cost increases dramatically at the end of the project.
    D. The scope increases dramatically at the end of the project.
25. The project sponsor is
    A. The person/organization that provides financial resources.
    B. The person/organization who use the output of the project
    C. The main person/organization who will work in the project.
    D. The main person/organization who will manage multiple related
       projects.
26. You are creating a cost baseline. You have gathered the necessary
inputs and determined when activities will be taking place. What should
you do next ?
   A. Determine the total costs for each time period .
   B. Distribute the baseline to stakeholders .
   C. Create an S-curve of the baseline .
   D. Use a cost assignment method to allocate funds for each activity .
27. What is the benefit of a weighting system ?
   A. It allows you to factor in personal opinion about sellers .
   B. It allows you to quantify qualitative data about sellers .
   C. It allows you to bargain effectively with potential sellers .
   D. It allows you to learn more about a seller's position .
28. What is the first step in the close procurements process?
   A. Conduct a procurement audit.
   B. Ensure required products or services were provided by the seller.
   C. Address outstanding invoices.
   D. Archive the completed contract file with the project archives.
29. What method should you use to keep stakeholders informed of project
progress and performance?
   A. Daily emails
   B. A weekly note
   C. A performance report
   D. Biweekly phone updates
30. Which term is used to refer to business requirements?
   A. SOWs
   B. Opportunities
   C. SLAs
   D. Conditions

Question II
    (35 Marks)
31. Which is not a step in creating a risk management plan ?
   A. Review project objectives .
   B. Conduct risk planning meetings .
   C. Establish a budget for risk management .
   D. Consult your organization's risk management policy .
32. Which are outputs of the conduct procurements process? (Choose
three).
   A. Teaming agreements
   B. Resource calendars
   C. Selected sellers
   D. Change requests
33. When acquiring project team members, with whom is it important to
foster a good relationship ?
   A. Functional managers
   B. The project manager
   C. Subject matter experts
   D. Prospective team members
34. What results can typically be expected when fast-tracking ?
   A. There will be additional resources required .
   B. There will be additional incurred costs .
   C. Greatest schedule compression will be obtained for the least
       incremental cost .
   D. There will be FS relationships that are done in parallel .
35. What should you do if stakeholder expectations are not in line with
project performance ?
   A. Document the level of dissatisfaction amongst stakeholders .
   B. Continue to monitor stakeholder reaction as the project progresses .
   C. Produce additional project performance reports for all stakeholders .
   D. Take corrective action to bring performance in line with
       expectations .
36. What is a common project management term that may refer to an
independently manageable component of an existing project ?
   A. Subprojects
   B. Programs
   C. Project Management Office (PMO)
   D. Portfolios
37. Which guideline would be ineffective for managing conflict within
your project team ?
   A. Separate the issue from the emotions.
   B. Take a wider view of the conflict.
   C. Allow both sides to speak.
   D. Listen carefully.
38. What method should you use to determine risks that have the most
potential impact on your project ?
   A. Sensitivity analysis
   B. Feasibility analysis
   C. Decision tree analysis
   D. Monte Carlo analysis
39. When evaluating appropriate communications technologies to use,
which step is not appropriate ?
    A. Evaluating any constraints to determine their impact.
    B. Determining the immediacy of the need for information.
    C. Analyzing the availability of technology systems.
    D. Conducting research to determine if there will be changes to the
       proposed technology before the project is over.
40. Which type of management involves maintaining the related projects'
alignment with business objectives in an integrated manner ?
    A. Portfolio management
    B. Project management
    C. Program management
    D. Agile project management
41. Identify the items that constitute a quality management plan. (Choose
three).
    A. The approach to implementing the plan.
    B. The resources required for implementation.
    C. Roles and responsibilities pertaining to quality management.
    D. The organization's existing quality policy.
42. True or False? You should rely on the PMIS for managing problems .
    A. True
    B. False
43. Using which option can you determine risk factor scores ?
    A. Project network diagrams
    B. Flowcharts
    C. A probability and impact risk matrix
    D. A risk response plan
44. What quality control tool is used to rank the causes of problems in a
hierarchical format ?
    A. Pareto diagrams
    B. Process adjustments
    C. Control charts
    D. Flowcharts
45. What should be the first step in the process of requesting seller
responses ?
    A. Conduct research to identify qualified sellers.
    B. Hold a bidders conference.
    C. Gather and review all procurement documents.
    D. Advertise to expand the list of potential sellers.
46. Which are outputs of the collect requirements process that form the
basis for planning the cost, schedule, and quality for the project? (Choose
three).
    A. Requirements management plan
    B. Stakeholder register
    C. Requirements documentation
    D. Requirements traceability matrix
47. Which of these tasks should you verify after completing the project
network diagram? (Choose three).
    A. All activities on the activity list are included in the diagram.
    B. All precedence relationships are correctly indicated.
    C. All activities are approved by the stakeholders.
    D. Any known lags or leads are included.
48. True or False? If you want to make revisions to an already approved
schedule baseline, you will have to go through a formal process that is
approved by management .
    A. True
    B. False
49. Why is it important to include project milestones in your scope
statement ?
    A. So the client can measure progress.
    B. So the schedule will be easier to understand.
    C. So the project team has dates for setting goals.
    D. So billing can be done more easily.
50. To ensure accuracy, who should provide activity duration estimates
for a project ?
    A. Project management team
    B. Project schedule manager
    C. Project manager
    D. Work package owners
51. What is the final step of the close project or phase procedure ?
    A. Prepare a final project report.
    B. Celebrate the success of the project with team members.
    C. Demonstrate to the customer or sponsor that the deliverables meet
       the defined acceptance criteria.
    D. Analyze project success and effectiveness and document lessons
       learned.
52. Which steps would you use when formulating an activity list?
(Choose three).
    A. Update project objectives.
   B. Consult subject matter experts.
   C. Evaluate constraints for their impact on activity definition.
   D. Review records of similar projects.
53. What are the details that can be obtained from a well-constructed
procurement document? (Choose three).
   A. Schedule and budgetary details
   B. Clear response instructions
   C. Proposal evaluation criteria
   D. Contractual provisions
54. When creating a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), in what
format should you include key project stakeholders ?
   A. Matrixed
   B. Alphabetical
   C. Chronological
   D. Logical
55. What are the inputs that you will need when reconciling funding and
costs? (Choose three).
   A. Project budget
   B. Scope statement
   C. Statement of work
   D. Contracts
56. A contractor has proposed changes to his contract terms. What should
you use as a guide when evaluating the proposed changes ?
   A. The contract change control system
   B. The change control board
   C. The work breakdown structure
   D. The contract scope management plan
57. What are appropriate professional reasons for you to share your
knowledge and experiences with other project managers? (Choose three).
   A. To demonstrate that you have superior skills and abilities and to
       establish yourself as a leader in the field.
   B. To provide information that will help others improve their skills.
   C. To share successes and failures that could be helpful to those
       facing similar obstacles.
   D. To encourage a dialogue with others in the project management
       community.
58. The objective of a university project is "to ensure that students learn
better". Which objectives are not satisfying the SMART Principle?
(Choose two).
   A. Relevant.
   B. Measureable.
   C. Achievable.
   D. Time Based.
59. Which is normally not regarded as an element of cost of quality?
(Choose Two)
   A. Prevention costs
   B. Maintenance cost
   C. Construction costs
   D. Failure costs
60. What does the acronym RACI commonly stand for in project
management?
   A. Responsible, Accountable, to be Consulted, to be Informed
   B. Remote, Attached, Connected, Integrated
   C. Risk Analysis and Caution Initiative
   D. Randomly Accessible Cashflow Information
                   Model Answer
          Part 1                      Part 2
     A   B     C    D   E        A   B     C   D   E
1                       1   31                     1
2                       1   32                     3
3                       1   33                     1
4                       1   34                     1
5                       1   35                     1
6                       1   36                     1
7                       3   37                     1
8                       1   38                     1
9                       1   39                     1
10                      1   40                     1
11                      2   41                     3
12                      1   42                     1
13                      1   43                     1
14                      1   44                     1
15                      1   45                     1
16                      1   46                     3
17                      3   47                     3
18                      1   48                     1
19                      1   49                     2
20                      1   50                     1
21                      1   51                     1
22                      3   52                     3
23                      1   53                     1
24                      1   54                     1
25                      1   55                     3
26                      1   56                     1
27                      1   57                     1
28                      1   58                     2
29                      1   59                     2
30                      1   60                     1

				
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