Answers to Review

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					Chapter 2 Solutions
Answers to Key Term Quiz
1. Two RJ-11 connectors identify the modem card.
2. If you install a DIMM stick, your computer will have more Random Access Memory
   (RAM).
3. The serial port transmits data on a single wire.
4. The power supply takes AC voltage from the wall outlet and converts it to DC
   voltage for the computer components.
5. Connectors are identified by their shape, gender, and by the number of pins.
6. If an expansion card contains an RJ-45 jack, it is a Network Interface Card (NIC).
7. A 25-pin female DB connector with a printer attached to it is a parallel port.
8. The monitor attaches to the video card with a 15-pin female connector.
9. An internal storage device that typically holds 20 GB or more is a hard drive.
10. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) has a make, a model, a speed, and a package.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. B. (All of the following are true about a modem except it attaches to the monitor.)
2. A. (Serial ports use a single wire to transmit data.)
3. B. (A CD-ROM drive attaches with a ribbon cable.)
4. D. (You will usually need to buy a controller card called a host adapter to use a SCSI
   hard drive.)
5. D. (Hot-swappable ports like USB and FireWire allow you to plug a device into them
   and have it function without your restarting the computer.)
6. A. (Floppy disks and hard disks measure storage capacity in megabytes or
   gigabytes.)
7. D. (A DVD has enough storage capacity to hold a movie.)
8. B. (The motherboard typically contains all of the following except a FireWire port.)
9. C. (The expansion slots create the connection that enables optional devices to
   communicate with the PC.)
10. B. (A USB port can support up to 127 devices.)
11. B. (The Centronics connector has one large central tab instead of pins and locks into
    the socket with wire “wings”.)
12. C. (A sound card takes digital information and turns it into sound that is then output
    through speakers.)
13. A and B. (Phillips-head screwdriver, and Torx Wrench are the tools found in a typical
    PC tech’s toolkit.)
14. D. (The easiest kind of electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to diagnose is
    catastrophic failure.)
15. A. (A NIC provides the interface between the network and the PC.)



Chapter 3 Solutions
Answers to Key Term Quiz
1. The external data bus allows the CPU to communicate with the motherboard and
   other devices in the computer.
2. By lifting the arm on the Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket, you can easily install a
   PGA CPU.
3. The computer uses the binary numbering system.
4. A CPU can run at any speed, as long as that speed does not exceed its clock speed.
5. Registers are areas inside the CPU where it temporarily stores internal commands
   and data while it is processing them.
6. Divided into L1 and L2, a cache consists of small amount of SRAM that serves as a
   holding area to provide data to the CPU faster than getting it from regular memory or
   when regular RAM is unavailable due to refreshes.
7. If you know the number of wires in the CPU’s address bus, you know the maximum
   amount of RAM that a particular CPU can handle.
8. A clock multiplying CPU runs at a faster speed internally and at a slower speed
   externally when using the address bus and the external data bus.
9. Especially designed for laptops, a mobile CPU usually run at only about 75 percent
   the speed of a desktop CPU.
10. The backside bus connects the CPU to the L2 cache.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. B. (With its unique SPGA case, the only microprocessor that fits into Socket 8 is the
   Pentium Pro.)
2. B. (All the following kinds of memory store date by using microscopic capacitors that
   must be refreshed except SDRAM.)
3. A. (The address bus allows the CPU to communicate with the Northbridge.)
4. B. (Often regarded as the prototype for later CPUs, the Pentium Pro was the first
   microprocessor to include both an L1 and an L2 cache.)
5. C. (The new 64-bit processors will expand the address bus, the only part of the
   computer that is not currently 64-bits.)
6. A. (CPU speed is measured in megahertz and gigahertz, while RAM capacity is
   measured in megabytes and gigabytes.)
7. D. (The Pentium 4 uses a 20-step pipeline and a quadrupled frontside bus that
   allows four data transfers per clock cycle.)
8. D. (The first processor to use a 200 or 233 MHz system bus (or frontside bus) was       Deleted: 33
   the AMD Athlon.)
9. C. (Designed to support from four to eight processors, the Xeon MP CPU also
   features a large level 3 cache.)
10. B. (Replacing the CPU may not be the upgrade that is most cost effective or that has
    the strongest impact on your system’s performance.)
11. C. (The Athlon processor comes in a SEC package that fits into Slot A.)
12. B. (The main difference between the Itanium and the Opteron is the Itanium can run
    only 64-bit code while the Opteron can run both 32-bit and 64-bit code.)
13. A. (Intel produces the Celeron as a low-end processor and the Xeon as a high-end
    processor.)
14. D. (If you have a 133 MHz system bus and your CPU runs at 2.53 GHz, the CPU
    multiplier is 19.)
15. C. (If you change the CPU, you may also have to set jumpers or switches on the
    motherboard for all of the following except address bus.)

Chapter 4 Solutions
Answers to Key Term Quiz
1. If your motherboard uses RDRAM, you must fill each slot with either a RIMM or a
   Continuity RIMM (CRIMM).
2. Older types of memory measure access speed in nanoseconds while newer types of
   memory that use clocking measure speed in megahertz.
3. If the LED for your hard drive stays on most of the time, your computer is suffering
   from disk thrashing, a sure sign you need to add more memory.
4. It takes two 72-pin Dual Inline Memory Modules (DIMMs) to fill a bank on a 64-bit
   Pentium-class computer.
5. Small Outline DIMM (SO DIMM) refers to a special kind of memory stick for laptops.
6. Memory that makes two data accesses during each clock tick is called Double Data
   Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM).
7. A SIPP is the earliest kind of memory that came on a stick and had a pin edge.
8. If the computer adds an extra bit to every byte, it uses parity for error checking.
9. Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is tied to the system clock, unlike regular DRAM.
10. Unlike regular DRAM, Error Correction Code (ECC) DRAM enables error checking
    and correcting.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. B. (Because DDR-SDRAM has a throughput of 8 bytes per second, PC1600 has an
   actual speed of 200 MHz.)
2. C. (If you install a third DIMM in a motherboard with a NVIDIA nForce2 chipset, it will
   revert to a single channel.)
3. A. (A computer that can use 168-pin DIMMs needs one stick(s) to fill a bank.)
4. A. (If you upgrade your memory but notice that the RAM count does not reflect the
   additional memory, you should remove the RAM and try to reinstall it.)
5. A. (A non-maskable interrupt causes the CPU to produce the Blue Screen of Death.)
6. C. (Memory is defined as any device that holds programs or data that the CPU can
   access via the address bus.)
7. D. (The fastest FPM-DRAM is 60 ns.)
8. D. (All of the following statements are true about RDRAM except AMD and Intel
   uses it with their newest processors.)
9. A. (SDRAM with a 66 MHz speed will not work with a 100 MHz motherboard.)
10. B. (The width of RAM is quoted in byte-wide terminology.)
11. A. (If you are running Windows 2000 or Windows XP, you can use all of the following
    methods to find out how much RAM is installed in your computer except from the
    Control Panel, select System, and then the Hardware tab.)
12. C. (A 72-pin SIMM can deliver 32 bits of data at a time.)
13. D. (DDR-SDRAM uses a 184-pin package for desktop PCs.)
14. B. (If a 30-pin SIMM has an even number of chips on it, it does not use parity.)
15. D. (If you mix memory sticks of different speeds, it may cause your system to lock up
    every few seconds or to provide corrupted data.)

Chapter 5 Solutions
Answer to Key Term Quiz
1. Loaded when the system boots, a device driver is a file that contains instructions to
   support a hardware device.
2. If the computer appears dead with no beeps or screen responses, you can insert a
   POST card in an expansion slot to diagnose what is wrong.
3. The combination of a specific Northbridge and a specific Southbridge is collectively
   referred to as the chipset.
4. If a disk contains the operating system files necessary to start the computer, it is
   called a bootable disk.
5. A flash ROM chip can be reprogrammed without removing the chip.
6. Unlike RAM that loses all data when the computer is shut down, a ROM chip is non-
   volatile, retaining the information even when the power is off.
7. The hundreds of programs in the system ROM chip are collectively called the Basic
   Input/Output Services (BIOS).
8. The Registry is a complex binary file used with Windows that combines the
   CONFIG.SYS, SYSTEM.INI, and other configuration files.
9. The low-energy chip that holds configuration information and keeps track of date and
   time is called the Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip.
10. When the computer starts, it runs a program on the system BIOS called Power-On
    Self Test (POST) that checks the hardware.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. A. (When you are booting the computer, you get the error message “Non-system
   disk or disk error”, the most likely cause of this error message is that you left a non-
   bootable disk in the floppy drive.)
2. B. (Every PC reserves the last 384 K of the first megabyte of memory space for
   BIOS.)
3. D. (The safest way to change the Registry is by using the Control Panel.)
4. C. (The CMOS chip stores information about all of the following except the scan
   codes for the keyboard.)
5. A. (When you turn on your computer, the CPU is accessed first.)
6. B. (REGEDT32 does not include an adequate search function, but REGEDIT does.)
7. C. (Although the ROM chip has room for as much as 2 MB of programs, the BIOS
   only takes up a maximum of 65,536 bytes.)
8. C. (BIOS contains programs that let the CPU communicate with other hardware.)
9. B. (If the video card is not seated properly, it will result in a POST beep code
   message.)
10. B. (CMOS is a low-energy chip that draws power from a battery while the computer
    is turned off.)
11. D. (You can upgrade a Flash ROM chip by running a small command-line program
    combined with a BIOS update file.)
12. B. (The major manufacturers of BIOS programs include all of the following except
    IBM.)
13. B. (You should run the BIOS setup program when you add new hardware, such as
   a second hard drive.)
14. A. (The Southbridge chip extends the external data bus to enable all devices in the
    PC to send data to and from the CPU.)
15. D. (Device drivers may be loaded through the Registry, the CONFIG.SYS, or the
    SYSTEM.INI.)

Chapter 6 Solutions
Answers to Key Term Quiz
1. The first address in the range of I/O addresses used by a device is called the base
   I/O address.
2. The expansion bus runs at its own standardized speed, set by the expansion bus
   crystal.
3. Introduced by IBM with the 386 computers, the proprietary Microchannel
   Architecture (MCA) was the first 32-bit bus.
4. The Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is usually a brown slot used only by the video
   card.
5. The CPU uses the I/O address, a unique pattern of 1’s and 0’s on the address bus to
   communicate with a device.
6. The most common bus on today’s computers, whether PC or Apple Macintosh, is
   the flexible Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI).
7. Used on ISA motherboards, the now obsolete VESA Local (LB) bus provided two or
   three slots with 32-bit access by tapping into what is now called the frontside bus.
8. A LPT port is a parallel port that has been assigned a particular IRQ and I/O
   address, traditionally for a printer.
9. A device uses its Interrupt Request (IRQ), controlled by an 8259 chip to get the
   attention of the CPU.
10. An older device that does not have PnP capabilities is known as a legacy device.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. C. (All the following devices use an IRQ except the joystick.)
2. A. (Legacy card is not a requirement for PnP.)
3. B. (The floppy drive controller uses DMA 2.)
4. D. (The expansion bus crystal sets the speed for the expansion bus.)
5. D. (Hexadecimal is a sixteen-digit numbering system that can express all its values
   by using four wires.)
6. B. (All of the following buses are obsolete except PCI.)
7. C. (Because both COM1 and COM3 share the same IRQ, you cannot use both ports
   at the same time.)
8. B. (MCA and EISA have all of the following similar capabilities except both can use
   ISA cards.)
9. D. (The ISA bus is either a(n) 8 or 16-bit bus with a maximum speed of 8 MHz.)
10. C. (All of the following are limitations of DMA except it offers only four DMA
    channels.)
11. B. (The standard resource assignments for LPT2 are I/O address 278 and IRQ5.)
12. B. (To install an expansion card, you must overcome all of these hurdles except Plug
    and Play.)
13. D. (To determine if a device is compatible with a current operating system such as
    Windows XP, you should check the HCL.)
14. C. (The term "system resources" includes all of the following except LPTs.)
15. D. (If the Device Manager has a red “X” next to a device, it is an error symbol
    indicating that the device has been disabled because it is either damaged or has a
    system resource conflict.)

Chapter 7 Solutions
Answer to Key Term Quiz
1. Wires on the motherboard that carry data or information are called traces.
2. A unique feature of the slimline motherboard is a riser card that contains expansion
   slots to allow card to be inserted horizontally.
3. The older AT form factor motherboard used the P8/P9 to attach the power.
4. It is a good idea to insert the CPU, the CPU fan, and the memory before you insert
   the motherboard in the case to prevent flexing or bending the board.
5. With the 82875P chipset, Intel uses the term Memory Controller Hub (MCH) to refer
   to the chip that functions as the Northbridge.
6. The layout of the motherboard is referred to as the form factor.
7. The newer ATX form factor motherboard includes soft power that allows the
   operating system to turn the computer on or off.
8. A catastrophic failure of the motherboard will usually occur within 30 days and
   necessitates replacing the motherboard.
9. Before you install a motherboard, you must insert standouts into the bottom of the
   case.
10. The ATX form factor includes a rear plate that provides access to ports such as PS/2
    keyboard and mouse, serial and parallel port, and USB.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. C. (All of the following are characteristics of ethereal motherboard failure except the
   PC will not boot at all.)
2. C. (The ATX form factor uses a single connector from the power supply.)
3. B. (Some chipsets support only Intel processors or only AMD processors while
   others may support CPUs manufactured by both companies.)
4. A. (Whether you will use an Intel or an AMD CPU is not a consideration when buying
   a case to go with a particular motherboard.)
5. D. (The fourth motherboard that includes USB 2.0, FireWire, and Serial ATA
   capabilities has the most current technology.)
6. A. (The wires that connect LEDs and buttons from the front of the box to the
   motherboard have a positive and a negative side.)
7. C. (The form factor of the motherboard determines all of the following except the
   kind of processor you can use.)
8. C. (The most common causes of component failure are electrical surges and ESD.)
9. A. (Most modern chipsets include all of the following chips except FireWire.)
10. A. (The chipset determines all of the following except the type of keyboard connector
    on the motherboard.)
11. D. (The four characteristics that define modern motherboards are layout, chipset,
    expansion slots, and components.)
12. D. (The ATX form factor offers all the following advantages except more flexibility by
    including connectors for both the 5-pin AT keyboard and the PS/2 keyboard.)
13. A. (NLX and LPX identify Slimline AT motherboard form factors.)
14. D. (All of the following may cause ethereal motherboard failure except ESD.)
15. C. (If you have a motherboard failure, all of the following except upgrading the
    operating system may solve the problem.)

Chapter 8 Solutions
Answers to Key Term Quiz
1. Supply power to the floppy drive by using the mini connector from the power supply.
2. The electric company provides alternating current (AC) power that the power supply
   converts to direct current (DC) for use by the computer components.
3. Connect the older AT form factor power supply to the motherboard by placing the
   black wires together on the P8 and P9 connectors.
4. If the slot covers are left off the expansion slots, the computer may overheat.
5. The newer AT form factor power supply attaches to the motherboard with a P1
   connector and supplies 5 V to the motherboard at all times.
6. Be sure your surge suppressor has a joule rating of at least an 800.
7. Amperes (amps or A) is a measurement unit for the amount of electrons flowing past
   a certain point on a wire.
8. The power supply fan provides the basic cooling for the PC.
9. A standby UPS (SPS) switches to provide battery power to the computer only when
   the AC drops below ~80-90 V.
10. Be sure the wattage (watts or W) rating for your power supply is greater than the
    minimum required by all devices in the computer.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. B. (Online UPS offers power conditioning.)
2. D. (The ATX form factor power supply introduced all the following new features
   except it has an internal power supply fan for cooling. All PC power supplies have
   included a power supply fan.)
3. B. (The statement that best describes the differences between a UPS and a SPS is
   “A UPS is called an online UPS because it supplies power to the PC from a battery
   all the time, while a SPS provides battery power only when the AC current drops
   significantly.”)
4. C. (A Class C fire extinguisher should be used for computer equipment.)
5. D. (A PC technician should never work inside the power supply because it has
   capacitors that hold electrical charges that may harm the technician.)
6. C. (The power supply dies slowly over time if one of its internal electrical
   components has begun to fail. All of the following statements may be indicators that
   the power supply is “dying slowly” except “The computer will not start and the fan in
   the power supply will not turn.” This statement probably more likely describes a
   power supply that has died suddenly.)
7. B. (When you test voltage with a multimeter, assume the outlet or connector is
   functioning properly if the reading is within 10 percent of the expected number.)
8. D. (An ATX12V P4 connector provides 12-volts for some higher end motherboards.)
9. A. (When inserting the motherboard power connectors(s) from an ATX power supply
   into a motherboard, the P1 connector is keyed so it goes in easily one way. Press it
   in firmly.)
10. C. (When testing an AC outlet, the multimeter should show 0 V between the neutral
    and ground wires.)
11. A. (Hard drives typically use a Molex power connector.)
12. C. (Samwise needs a power supply with a P4 connector for plugging into Pentium IV
    and some Athlon XP motherboards.)
13. C. (The system will not boot or turn on at all after exceeding the wattage capabilities
    of a power supply by inserting too many devices.)
14. B. (A mini connector’s red wire should be at 5 volts; the yellow wire should be at 12
    volts.)
15. A. (When testing a Molex connector the red lead should always touch the red wire
   and the black lead should touch a black ground wire.)

Chapter 9 Solutions
Answers to Key Term Quiz
1. Radial misalignment is the most common cause of floppy drive failure.
2. You should use a cleaning kit at least once a month as part of your basic floppy
   drive maintenance.
3. Windows won’t reread a floppy drive until the drive change signal is activated.
4. Floppy drives use a 34-pin ribbon cable to connect the floppy drive to the
   motherboard.
5. The term for the way data is organized on a floppy disk is formatting.
6. All floppy drive formats except double-sided, high density disks are now obsolete.
7. A modern floppy drive uses a Mini power connector to connect to the power supply.
8. The red stripe on a floppy drive cable must be oriented to pin 1 on the controller.
9. The capacity of the most commonly used floppy diskette used today is 1.44 MB.
10. The hardware is the floppy drive while the removable storage medium itself is the
    floppy diskette.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. D. (When you tried to boot your computer, you got the error message:
       Non-System disk or disk error
       Replace and strike any key when ready
       You left a non-bootable floppy diskette in Drive A:. You need to remove it.)
2. B. (When you install a floppy drive that you want to function as the A: drive, you
       should attach it to the end connector on the cable.)
3. A. (Floppy disks have been made in all the following types except single-sided low
       density.)
4. B. (The maximum number of floppy drives you can install is two.)
5. C. (If you just installed a floppy drive and you notice that the floppy drive LED stays
       on, you did not attach the colored stripe on the ribbon cable to Pin 1 at the drive
       or at the controller.)
6. D. (After installing a 3½-inch double-sided, high density floppy drive, you should go
        to the CMOS setup and double-check that the drive capacity is set to 1.44 MB.)
7. A. (If the floppy disk you used last week will not work today in your floppy drive, you
        should first try another disk in the drive or try the disk in another drive.)
8. B. (During the POST, your system reports a FDD Controller Failure, the most likely
        cause is that either the data cable or the power plug is loose.)
9. C. (The IT department prevents someone from booting the computer using a floppy
        disk by changing the Boot Sequence to C: only in the CMOS setup program.)
10. A. (No component on a typical PC fails more often than the floppy drive. )
11. B. (If you have a floppy disk that contains data you want to keep, choose the format
        option Copy System Files Only to make the disk bootable.)
12. B. (A floppy drive ribbon cable has 34 pins and may have a 7-wire twist.)
13. C. (If the floppy controller built onto the motherboard goes bad, you should disable
        the floppy drive controller through CMOS setup and install an I/O card with a
        floppy controller.)
14. A. (The 5¼-inch floppy drive got its power from a Molex power connector while a
        3½-inch floppy drive uses a Mini power connector.)
15. C. (If your CMOS setup includes Report No FDD for Win 95, enabling this option will
        release IRQ 6 for use by another device.)


Chapter 10 Solutions
Answers to Key Term Quiz
1. A drive that uses a voice coil motor parks its read/write heads automatically when
   power is removed from the drive.
2. An ATA hard drive connects to the controller with a 40-pin ribbon cable while an
   UltraATA drive uses an 80-wire cable.
3. A cylinder is composed of a group of tracks of the same diameter that the read/write
   heads can access without moving.
4. To install a parallel ATA device to a serial ATA controller, use a tiny card called a
   SATA bridge.
5. LBA developed by Western Digital and ECHS developed by Seagate both use
   sector translation to get around the limits of 1024 cylinders, 16 heads, and 63
   sectors/track.
6. Also known as RAID 5, disk striping with distributed parity uses at least three drives
   and combines the best features of disk mirroring and disk striping.
7. An Advanced Technology Attachment Packet Interface (ATAPI)-compliant CD-ROM
   drive installs and cables just like an EIDE drive.
8. The ANSI ATA committee adopted the ATA/ATAPI-6 standard, called “Big Drives” by
   Maxtor that allows drives with more than 144 petabytes.
9. ATA/133 (Ultra DMA 6) drives transfer data at 133 MBps.
10. Drives that use Direct Memory Access (DMA) bypass the CPU and send data
    directly to memory.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1.    B. (CHS disk geometry computes storage capacity by using all of the following
      except tracks.)
2.    C. (Disk striping with distributed parity is also known as RAID 5.)
3.    A. (The most efficient encoding method is Partial Response Maximum Likelihood
      (PRML).
4.    D. (Counting both channels, EIDE can support a maximum of four
      drives/devices.)
5.    D. (All of the following are true about cable select except position of the drives on
      the cable does not matter. The drive placed closer to the controller will function
      as the Master in a cable select configuration.)
6.    B. (You must set jumpers to determine which drive functions as master and
      which functions as slave.)
7.    C. (Using the CHS method, a drive is limited to 504 megabytes.)
8.    C. (All of the following terms describe parallel ATA devices except SCSI.)
9.    D. (Shelby wants to add a new 100 GB hard drive to her computer. INT13 will
      allow her to do so. INT13 supports drives up to 137 GB.)
10.   B. (Drive duplexing provides redundancy by using two disks and two controllers.)
11.   D. (An ultra ATA cable contains 80 wires.)
12.   D. (Billy just installed a second hard drive, but the auto detection utility in CMOS
      does not detect it. Sara told him he probably had the jumpers set incorrectly or
      had forgotten to connect the Molex power connector. John told him his new hard
      drive is probably bad and he should return it. Either Sara or John may be correct,
      but it is more likely that Sara is correct.)
13.   D. (Serial ATA provides all the following advantages except SATA cables must
      be shorter than PATA cables. In fact, SATA cables have a maximum length of
      one meter, much longer than PATA cables.)
14.   D. (The CMOS configuration options write precompensation and landing zone
      are obsolete with today’s hard drives.)
15.   A. (ANSI ATA committee adopted ATA/ATAPI-6, a new standard that increased
      disk storage capacity to more than 144 petabytes.)
Chapter 11 Solutions
Answer to the Key Term Quiz
1. The MBR checks the partition table to find the active or bootable partition.
2. If a file is not stored in contiguous clusters, you can improve hard drive performance
   by using the defragmentation tool.
3. Instead of using an FAT, NTFS uses a master file table (MFT) with a backup copy
   placed in the middle of the disk for better security.
4. If you are installing Windows 2000 or XP, the best file system to choose is NTFS5.
5. You can issue the command FDISK/MBR to repair a bad master boot record.
6. Scandisk is the tool included with Windows that attempts to fix invalid filenames,
   erases lost clusters, and seals off bad clusters.
7. Autodetection is a great way to verify that a drive is installed correctly.
8. If an operating system file has become corrupted or is missing, you can replace it by
   using extract/expand to remove a specific file from a CAB file.
9. Only a single primary partition may be set to Active.
10. Slack is wasted space in a cluster or allocation unit that is not used by a file.

Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. C. (Windows 2000 and XP can use all of the following file systems except NTFS4.
   Windows NT uses NTFS4.)
2. C. (The Disk Cleanup utility removes all of the following types of unneeded files
   except backup copies of files.)
3. D. (The maximum number of logical drives that a hard disk may have is 24. These
   are drive letters C: through Z:)
4. B. (The true statement is “If you plug the power cable in backwards, it will destroy
   the drive.”)
5. C. (The four possible entries in a file allocation table are an end of file marker, a bad
   sector marker, code indicating the cluster is available, the number of the cluster
   where the next part of the file is stored.)
6. C. (If you get an error that indicates that the drive is not accessible or an “Invalid
   media” error, it probably means that the drive has not been formatted.)
7. D. (“It allows two physical hard disks to function as a single volume” is not an
   advantage of partitioning a hard drive into more than one partition.)
8. A. (The correct sequence when assigning alphabetical drive letters to the drives, if
   you have four drives, each with a single primary partition is primary master, primary
   slave, secondary master, secondary slave.)
9. B. (Instead of the old FDISK program of DOS and Windows 9x, Windows NT uses
   the Disk Administrator while Windows 2000 and XP use the Disk Management
   console to partition and format a drive.)
10. C. (Because NTFS views individual files and folders as objects, it can provide
    security for those objects through a(n) Access Control List.)
11. D. (Windows 2000 and XP operating systems allow dynamic drives.)
12. A. (The true statement about extended partitions is they are optional.)
13. C. (The maximum number of partitions on a single hard drive is four but you can
    have only one extended partition.)
14. B. (The correct sequence in which partitions should be removed using FDISK is by
    removing the logical drives in the extended partition, extended partition, and then the
    primary partition.)
15. A. (The primary master, also called the system partition, cannot become part of a
    dynamic drive.)

Chapter 12 Solutions
Answer to Key Term Quiz
1. You can readily see programs loading in the background by looking at the system
   tray.
2. The registry stores information about all the hardware, drivers, and applications on a
   Windows NT system.
3. The first place you should look on a PC with malfunctioning hardware is Device
   Manager.
4. Most tech tools in Windows 2000 can be found in Administrative Tools.
5. The Windows 98 command line interface is not DOS, but DPMI.
6. In Windows XP, NTLDR starts the boot process.
7. The Quick Launch in Windows Me offers a great spot for accessing favorite
   programs without resorting to the Start menu.
8. Jill accidentally deleted a critical file. Winona the tech assures her that the file is no
   doubt in the recycle bin and not lost forever.
9. Windows uses the swap file for virtual memory.
10. You can edit the MSDOS.SYS file in Windows 9x to change the default boot menu.


Answers to Multiple Choice Quiz
1. B. (The SYSTEM.DAT and USER.DAT files are the Windows 9x/Me registry files.)
2. C. (Start | Run. At the prompt, type REGEDIT and click OK is the best way to access
   the Registry Editor in Windows 9x/Me.)
3. A. (Safe mode boot menu option in Windows 9x enables the system to boot to the
   GUI for troubleshooting purposes, but without the advanced functions of Windows.)
4. D. (Windows 9x needs to load none of the above files.)
5. A. (HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE is not a Registry root key in Windows 9x/Me.)
6. C. (Long filenames is not an advantage of running Windows 2000 on NTFS as
   opposed to FAT32.)
7. D. (BOOT.INI is the file that NTFS loader reads to know what OS to boot to.)
8. B. (NTBOOTDD.SYS file is not necessary for all Windows NT/2000 systems.)
9. A. (CMD command entered in the Start | Run dialog box will start the Windows XP
   32-bit command interpreter.)
10. C. (Windows XP provides a number of ready-made MMC snap-ins stored in the
    Administrative Tools applet in the Control Panel.)
11. D. (All of the above are the major functions of an operating system (OS).)
12. C. (C:\> shows a typical DOS prompt.)
13. B. (The user interface provides a display of the programs and data on a system to
    the user.)
14. B and C. (The operating system must provide a method to identify data according to
    the type of program that uses that particular data and a naming system for each
    drive.)
15. D. (System Restore feature of Windows Me enables you to revive a PC that crashes
    hard after installing some new application.)

				
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