"Semester 2 Final Exam Study Guide Dental Assisting 1"
Dental Assisting 1 Semester 2 Study Guide Multiple Choice: Select the best answer. 1. The links in the chain of infection are: virulence, susceptible host, and _____. a. anaphylaxis b. portal of entry c. immunity d. occupational exposure 2. The strength of an organism in its ability to produce disease is _____. a. virulence b. bioburden c. pathogens d. infectious disease 3. An infection that is short in duration is a(n) _____. a. chronic infection b. latent infection c. acute infection d. opportunistic infection 4. A(n) _____ disease is one that is communicable or contagious. a. percutaneous b. permucosal c. infectious d. dermatitic 5. Transmission of a disease to a susceptible person through the handling of contaminated instruments or by touching contaminated surfaces is a form of _____. a. direct transmission b. indirect transmission c. airborne transmission d. spatter transmission 6. Mist-like aerosols are _____. a. visible to the naked eye b. are not created during dental procedures c. not capable of transmitting respiratory infections d. finer sized particles than sprays and spatter 7. Pathogens that are carried in the blood and body fluids of infected individuals and that can be transmitted to others are referred to as _____. a. bloodborne b. parenteral c. virulent d. acquired 8. It is _____ that allows the body to resist disease and prevent foreign bodies from causing infection. a. susceptibility b. immunity c. good health d. heredity 9. When immunity is present at birth, it is called _____ immunity. a. inherited b. acquired c. active d. artificially acquired 10. Transmission of a disease, from the dental office to the family of a member of the dental team, is an example of _____ disease transmission in the dental office. a. dental team-to-patient b. patient-to-patient c. dental office-to-community d. community-to-dental office-to-patient 11. The most common route of disease transmission in the dental office is through _____. a. droplet infection b. direct contact with the patient’s blood or saliva c. indirect contact with surfaces 12. The CDC _____. a. is a regulatory agency b. issues specific recommendations on health-related matters, based on sound scientific evidence c. issues specific standards to protect the health of employees in the United States d. issued the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. 13. The regulatory agency whose role it is to issue specific standards to protect the health of employees in the United States is _____. a. HIPAA b. CDC c. OSHA. d. FDA 14. The Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings—2003, which is now the standard of care, was released by what agency? a. OSHA b. CDC c. Health and Human Services 15. The law designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to bloodborne disease-causing organisms such as HBV, HIV, and HCV is _____. a. the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard b. Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings—2003 c. the OSHA Health and Safety Standards d. the exposure control plan 16. The written exposure control plan that describes how the dental office complies with the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard must be reviewed and updated _____. a. twice a year b. every five years c. annually d. only when the law changes 17. According to the CDC, _____ represent a standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluid, excretion, or secretion. a. Standard Precautions b. Universal Precautions c. Domestic Precautions d. Continental Precautions 18. The CDC term “Standard Precautions” applies to contact with _____. a. sweat b. all body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, but only if they contain blood c. all body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, regardless of whether or not they contain blood. d. intact skin 19. Following an exposure incident, the _____ should be notified of the injury immediately after initial first aid is provided. a. employer b. employee’s physician c. source patient d. Worker’s Compensation provider 20. The first procedural step after an exposure incident is to _____. a. contact the source patient b. stop operations immediately c. remove your gloves d. wash your hands thoroughly 21. The BBP Standard requires the dentist/employer to provide training in infection- control and safety issues to _____. a. all patients b. all personnel, including a financial manager who is never exposed to blood, saliva, or both c. all personnel who may come in contact with blood, saliva, or contaminated instruments or surfaces, including a receptionist or office manager who may occasionally clean a treatment room or handle instruments or impressions d. only personnel who are routinely exposed to blood, saliva, or both 22. After administration of the HBV vaccine, the CDC recommends _____. a. routine booster doses b. routine blood testing to monitor the HBV antibody level c. routine blood testing to monitor the HBV antigen level d. a blood test to make sure that the individual has developed immunity 23. Handwashing guidelines recommend that you _____. a. wash your hands before you put on gloves, but not after you remove gloves b. wash your hands before you put on gloves and immediately after you remove gloves c. wash your hands only after you remove gloves d. do not need to wash your hands if you wear gloves 24. Which of the following statements about reducing microbes is true? a. Alcohol-based hand rubs are more effective at reducing microbial flora than plain soap or antimicrobial handwashes. b. Plain soap or antimicrobial handwashes are more effective at reducing microbial flora than alcohol-based hand rubs. c. Alcohol-based hand rubs, antimicrobial handwashes, and plain soap are equally effective at reducing microbial flora. 25. Which of the following is considered personal protective equipment that the employer should provide free of charge to the employee? a. disposable patient treatment gloves b. shoes c. TB skin test d. ultrasonic cleaner 26. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard states that contaminated protective clothing _____. a. may be taken home and laundered b. can be laundered in the dental office c. can be picked up by a laundry service d. both b and c 27. The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the _____. a. gloves b. protective eyewear c. gown d. mask 28. The BBP Standard requires use of protective eyewear _____. a. with front but not side protection b. with front and side protection (solid side shields) c. including contact lenses, which are considered to be protective d. along with a face shield 29. Exam gloves used during dental treatment can be made of _____. a. latex b. vinyl c. clear plastic d. both a and b 30. The most serious type of latex allergy, one that can even result in death, is called _____. a. anaphylaxis b. sensitivity c. irritation 31. CDC guidelines and the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard consider saliva to be a _____. a. potentially infectious body fluid b. non-infectious body fluid c. hazardous waste d. contaminated waste 32. Waste that has had contact with blood or other body fluids is considered contaminated and is disposed of as _____ waste in most states. a. hazardous b. contaminated c. general d. biohazard 33. Infectious waste is _____. a. not found in the dental office b. contaminated waste that is capable of transmitting an infectious disease c. disposed of as general waste d. equivalent to medical waste 34. The best time to clean and disinfect dental prostheses or impressions that will be handled in the in-office laboratory is _____. a. after they have had time to dry b. as soon as possible after removal from the patient’s mouth c. after they are in the laboratory d. whenever you have time 35. The _____ bone(s) form(s) the prominence of the cheek. a. maxillary b. zygomatic c. sphenoid d. ethmoid 36. The _____ form(s) the upper jaw. a. mandible b. palatine bones c. maxillae d. nasal bones 37. The strongest, longest, and only movable bone of the face is the _____. a. mandible b. zygomatic bone c. maxilla d. frontal bone 38. _____ is the habitual grinding of teeth, especially at night. a. Crepitus b. Bruxism c. Clenching d. Trismus 39. _____ salivary glands are located just below and in front of each ear. a. Parotid b. Von Ebner’s c. Sublingual d. Submandibular 40. Which artery supplies blood to the mandibular teeth? a. facial b. lingual c. maxillary d. inferior alveolar 41. How many pairs of cranial nerves are connected to the brain? a. 7 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 42. Which nerve is the primary source of innervation for the oral cavity? a. trigeminal b. nasopalatine c. anterior superior palatine d. buccal 43. Axillary lymph nodes are located _____. a. in the head b. in the neck c. under the arms d. in the lower abdomen 44. The _____ sinuses are located within the forehead, just above the eyes. a. maxillary b. frontal c. ethmoid d. sphenoid 45. The only bone in the human body that does not articulate with another bone is the _____. a. hyoid b. mandible c. maxilla d. ethmoid 46. Which of the following choices represents a developmental cause of orthodontic problems? a. interference with eruption b. jaw size discrepancy c. fetal molding d. damage to permanent tooth buds when an injury to primary teeth has occurred 47. Class II occlusion _____. a. is normal occlusion b. is mesiocclusion c. occurs when the maxilla is too far forward compared to the mandible d. occurs when the mandible is too far forward compared to the maxilla 48. The radiograph most commonly exposed for an orthodontic patient is the _____. a. FMX b. panoramic c. cephalometric d. bite-wing 49. Orthodontic fixed appliances are also known as _____. a. braces b. separators c. retainers d. clear “aligners” 50. The most common type of attachment used in braces is the _____. a. orthodontic band b. bonded bracket c. arch wire d. separator 51. Dental arch wires are held in place by _____. a. ligature ties b. dental cement c. elastomeric ties d. both a and c 52. Sticky foods should be avoided during orthodontic treatment because they _____. a. weaken cement beneath bands causing bands to loosen and attack tooth enamel causing cavities b. loosen bands, pull out ligature ties, and bend arch wires c. may lodge between bands and beneath arch wires, causing irritation to gum tissues d. loosen bands, pull out the wires, and bend arch wires 53. An orthodontic positioner is designed to _____. a. move the teeth b. retain the teeth in their desired position c. reposition the teeth during orthodontic treatment d. both a and c 54. Which tissues surround the root of the tooth? a. periradicular b. periapical c. gingival d. root canal 55. Which dentist specializes in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of the dental pulp and the tissues that surround the root of the tooth? a. periodontist b. endodontist c. oral surgeon d. prosthodontist 56. Pulpal nerve damage can occur from _____. a. physical irritation b. trauma c. poor nutritional habits d. both a and b 57. The most common symptom of pulpal damage is _____. a. pain b. swelling c. bleeding d. leukoplakia 58. Which vitality test is the least useful? a. heat test b. cold test c. percussion test d. electronic pulp test 59. When the pulp displays symptoms of lingering pain and the clinical diagnostic findings show that the pulp is incapable of healing, _____. a. irreversible pulpitis is a treatment option b. root canal therapy is a treatment option c. an extraction is a treatment option d. both b and c are treatment options 60. The treatment that is used to attempt to save the pulp and encourage the formation of dentin at the site of the injury is _____. a. a pulpotomy b. pulp capping c. a pulpectomy d. an apicoectomy 61. The natural rubber material used to obturate the pulpal canal after treatment is completed is called _____. a. gutta percha b. hydrogen peroxide c. glass ionomer d. both b and c 62. Which of the following steps in root canal therapy takes place first? a. estimated working length b. access preparation c. debridement and shaping the canal d. obturation 63. The process used to remove bacteria, necrotic tissue, and organic debris from the root canal is called _____. a. obturation b. opening the canal c. debridement d. shaping Matching: Write the letter of the correct answer next to the question number for questions #64-95. The answer choices are found in the word bank that follows the questions. _____ 64. An oral yeast infection that shows as a large area of white plaque _____ 65. Oral blisters often called canker sores _____ 66. Dark pigmentation of the gingival tissues _____ 67. A raised rhombus-shaped lesion on the middle of the tongue _____ 68. An exostosis or protruding area of bone found in the middle of the palate _____ 69. Surgical removal of tissue sent to a lab for microscopic diagnosis _____ 70. Cancer that forms in connective tissues _____ 71. A lesion of the tongue resembling a map that changes its location _____ 72. The eroding away of a tooth that starts inside the tooth _____ 73. An area of infection that forms at the apex of a tooth root and causes pain _____ 74. The eroding away of a tooth that starts outside the tooth _____ 75. Calcified stones that form inside the pulp chamber _____ 76. An area of a radiograph that shows as very dark _____ 77. Condition of the tongue where deep grooves form _____ 78. A fungal infection that shows as cracks in the corners of the mouth _____ 79. A lesion of the mouth that is filled with blood _____ 80. An area of a radiograph that shows as very white _____ 81. Cancer that forms in epithelial tissues _____ 82. A condition that shows as dark brown teeth and blue sclera of the eyes _____ 83. A term meaning non-cancerous or harmless _____ 84. A white patch or lesion of the mouth _____ 85. A red patch or lesion of the mouth _____ 86. A small, pimple-like lesion of pus _____ 87. Any patch or flat area raised from the surface _____ 88. A defect or break in the mucosa that forms a crater _____ 89. A sac of epithelium filled with fluid or semisolid material _____ 90. Dry mouth _____ 91. A shallow defect in the mucosa caused by trauma _____ 92. Inflammation of the tongue _____ 93. Infection spreading into deep tissues or organs _____ 94. White lesions on the mucosa with a circular pattern and lines called Wickham striae _____ 95. Vesicle filled with a watery liquid, usually caused by irritation * See the next page for the word bank of answers for questions #64-95. Essay Questions: Use a separate piece of paper and answer the following questions in COMPLETE SENTENCES. (25 points each) A. List and describe five oral diseases that an AIDS patient may develop. Describe each disease in detail as to appearance, symptoms, how they can be treated. Explain why it is important for a dental assistant to be able to recognize these diseases in the dental office. B. Explain all of the steps in infection control necessary to prevent the dental assistant from contracting an infectious disease such as hepatitis or AIDS from a patient. Be thorough and include PPE, room setup and cleanup, instrument and needle handling, sterilization, barriers, etc. A. dentinogenesis imperfecta Q. melanin pigmentation B. fissured tongue R. median rhomboid glossitis C. torus palatinus S. internal resorption D. external resorption T. pulp stones E. biopsy U. angular cheilitis F. radiopaque V. radioluscent G. ulcer W. erosion H. abscess X. cyst I. blister Y. pustule J. hematoma Z. plaque K. leukoplakia AB. erythroplakia L. carcinoma AC. sarcoma M. benign AD. lichen planus N. candidiasis (thrush, monoliasis) AE. xerostomia O. aphthous ulcers AF. cellulitis P. glossitis AG. geographic tongue