Test Ch 13 by VlFb8K9

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									Forensics Chapter 13 Test                                            DO NOT WRITE ON TEST

1. The molecular structure of DNA was deduced by
       a. Gregor Mendel
       b. Francis Crick
       c. James Watson
       d. Linus Pauling
       e. Both B & C
2. Which nitrogenous base is NOT found in DNA?
       a. Thymine
       b. Cytosine
       c. Uracil
       d. Adenine
       e. Guanine
3. Which component of DNA forms the backbone of the molecule?
       a. Phosphate group
       b. Nitrogenous base
       c. Sugar
       d. Adenine
       e. Both A and C
4. The building blocks of the DNA molecule are known as
       a. Amino acid
       b. Polysaccharides
       c. Nucleotides
       d. Hydrocarbon
       e. Purines
5. The specific protein produced by a cell are directly related to the
       a. Sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of the cell
       b. Number of mitochondria in the cell
       c. Length of the chromosome
       d. Sequence of sugars and phosphates in the cell
       e. Size of the cell
6. What is the number of nitrogenous bases needed to code for a specific amino acid?
       a. 2
       b. 3
       c. 4
       d. 5
       e. 6
7. Information from the Human Genome Project will
       a. Help to reveal the role and implications of evolution
       b. Be useful for diagnosing and treating genetic disease
       c. Reveal the location of a gene on a particular chromosome
       d. Aid in understanding the underlying causes of cancer
       e. All of the above
8. The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism’s
        a. DNA nucleotide sequence
        b. Nitrogenous bases
        c. Amino acids
        d. Environment
        e. Decisions
9. In which hereditary disease does abnormal hemoglobin differ from normal hemoglobin by only a single
    amino acid?
        a. Phenylketonuria
        b. Sickle-cell anemia
        c. Hemophilia
        d. Cystic fibrosis
        e. Albinism
10. In DNA replication, polymerases
        a. Enable the strands to unwind from the helix
        b. Separate the strands of the double helix
        c. Help assemble the new DNA strands in proper base sequence
        d. All of the above
        e. B and C only
11. PCR is a technique that
        a. Provides a statistical analysis of the nitrogenous-base pairings
        b. Can produce many exact copies of segments of DNA
        c. Produces information regarding the sequence of nitrogenous bases
        d. Virtually eliminates operator error from DNA analysis
        e. All of the above
12. Recombinant DNA technology is useful in producing
        a. Insulin and growth hormone
        b. Clones
        c. New organs for transplant
        d. Artificial hearts and kidneys
        e. Livestock
13. Restrictive enzymes
        a. Reduce the DNA replication rate
        b. Reduce the time required for PCR
        c. Limit the amount of protein produced in a cell
        d. Cut DNA at specific sites
        e. Inhibit DNA replication
14. Which statement about tandem repeats in NOT true?
        a. More than 30% of the human genome is composed of these repeating units
        b. Their origin is a mystery
        c. It is thought that they may act as spacers between coded regions of DNA
        d. More than one STR can be analyzed at once in a process called multiplexing
        e. They are of no forensics interest
15. Which statement about RFLP’s is NOT true?
        a. Restriction enzymes are used to cut RFLP’s from their DNA helix
        b. All humans have the same type of repeats
        c. There is little variation in the number of repeats from person to person
        d. Typically a core repeat sequence would consist of 15-30 bases
        e. Analysis is undertaken using a technique called Southern blotting
16. When using a three-probe system of DNA typing, which is the maximum number of bands a typical DNA
    pattern will show?
        a. 3
        b. 6
        c. 9
        d. 12
        e. 16
17. The PCR technique requires the use of a thermal cycler to
        a. Copy DNA
        b. Synthesize protein
        c. Make probes radioactive
        d. Hydrolyze polymerase
        e. Analyze the sequence of bases

Use this DNA RFLP pattern of evidence from a rape investigation to answer #18

                                   Semen
                        Blood      recovered    Blood       Blood
                        of         from         from        from         Blood from
                        victim     Victim       suspect A   Suspect B    Suspect C




18. The evidence suggests which suspect raped the victim?
        a. Suspect A
        b. Suspect B
        c. Suspect C
        d. The evidence shows that none of these suspect is a match
        e. The evidence suggests that two of the suspects raped the victim
19. The transfer of DNA fragments onto a nylon membrane is called
        a. Southern Blotting
        b. Hybridization
        c. Replication
        d. Polymerization
        e. PCR
20. During gel electrophoresis the DNA is
        a. Undergoing hybridization
        b. Extracted from the cell nuclei
        c. Separated by fragment size
        d. Cut into fragments
        e. Visualized using x-rays
21. What is an advantage of working with short DNA fragments?
        a. They are more stable and less likely to break apart
        b. Their quantity can be greatly amplified by PCR technology
        c. They are less subject to degradation due to adverse environmental conditions
        d. All of the above
        e. A and B only
22. Means to detect the amelogenin gene are included in commercial STR kits used in crime labs because the
    gene allows determination of
        a. Ethnicity
        b. Blood type
        c. Gender
        d. Eye color
        e. Age
23. CODIS is a national system of
        a. Computers to track the movement of sex offenders released from prison
        b. Shared database of DNA typing information from convicted felons and crime scene evidence
        c. Vastly enhanced 911 emergency system
        d. Crime laboratory directors
        e. Standards for forensic science evaluators
24. HV1 and HV2 are
        a. Restriction enzymes
        b. STR types
        c. Types of viruses
        d. Regions of mtDNA
        e. CODIS search parameters
25. Luminol can be used at crime scenes to
        a. Make hair evidence fluoresce
        b. Light up the crime scene with high degree illumination
        c. Detect traces of blood without compromising potential DNA typing
        d. Locate latent prints that otherwise would be overlooked
        e. Prove the presence of illicit drugs
26. Buccal cells are obtained from
         a. The mouth and inside of the cheek
         b. Semen
         c. Urine
         d. Blood
         e. Fingers
27. Y-STR markers are useful when multiple males are involved in a sexual assault. If three men were involved
    in such an attack, the investigators would expect Y-STR analysis to show a maximum of
         a. 2 peaks
         b. 3 peaks
         c. 4 peaks
         d. 6 peaks
         e. 8 peaks
28. As currently performed, DNA-profiling technology CANNOT provide information helpful in
         a. Matching a suspect to biological evidence found at the crime scene
         b. Deciding immigration cases based on family relationships
         c. Settling matters of questioned paternity/maternity
         d. Ruling out a suspect
         e. Determining whether an individual carries a genetic defect
29. Using the low copy number DNA protocol, analysts are able to examine samples containing as few as ____
    cells
         a. 18
         b. 36
         c. 180
         d. 800
         e. 2000
30. Which statement is NOT true? Few forensics labs do analysis of mt-DNA because
         a. The analysis procedure is very rigorous
         b. It costs much more than nuclear DNA profiling
         c. Such study takes a long time
         d. Little mtDNA is present in a cell
         e. All of the above are TRUE
      Forensics Ch. 13 Answers
1.    E
2.    C
3.    E
4.    C
5.    A
6.    B
7.    E
8.    A
9.    B
10.   C
11.   B
12.   A
13.   D
14.   E
15.   C
16.   B
17.   A
18.   D
19.   A
20.   C
21.   E
22.   C
23.   B
24.   D
25.   C
26.   A
27.   B
28.   E
29.   A
30.   D

								
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