Miami Dade College
DEP 2100 – Spring 2010
Exam # 3 – CHAPTERS 5 & 6
Dr. Mayté Insua-Auais
Directions: Read each question carefully. Select the best answer and bubble in your answer on
your Scantron sheet. Those answers must be typed. This exam is due next Wednesday, April 21,
2010 at 10:00 AM. Good Luck!
____ 1. Which sequence of development means "from head to tail?"
a. differentiation c. integration
b. proximodistal d. cephalocaudal
____ 2. Which sequence of development means "from the center outward?"
a. proximodistal c. cephalocaudal
b. integration d. differentiation
____ 3. Which of the following can infants do or control first?
a. They can hold objects.
b. They can lift their heads off of the floor.
c. They can make coordinated movements with their feet.
d. They can control their fingers.
____ 4. A child's finger is hurt. He cries and withdraws the finger, but makes no other move. This is an
a. cephalocaudal development. c. proximodistal development.
b. differentiation in development. d. general distress syndrome.
____ 5. Which of the following is true about the relationship between infant and adult heights?
a. There is no relationship between height as an infant and height as an adult.
b. There is an almost perfect relationship between height as an infant and height
as an adult.
c. Long infants always grow up to be tall adults.
d. None of these is true about the infant/adult height relationship.
____ 6. Kiley, a 5-month-old infant, refuses to eat and has not gained any weight in 2 months. Kiley:
a. is a typical infant.
b. may have colic.
c. may have a protein deficiency.
d. may suffer from Failure to Thrive syndrome.
____ 7. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, how long should children be breastfed?
a. only for the first two weeks
b. for the first 6 months
c. It does not matter, as formulas are just as nutritious.
d. for at least one year
____ 8. Why might women not breastfeed, even if physically capable?
a. It provides more independence from traditional roles.
b. so that feeding can be a shared responsibility
c. so she can return to the work force
d. all of these may be reasons
____ 9. Which part of the brain allows for learning, thought, and memory?
a. cerebellum c. amygdala
b. medulla d. cerebrum
____ 10. Rats placed in "enriched" environments:
a. develop comparably to all other rats.
b. show significant development of the medulla.
c. develop heavier brains than those not in enriched environments.
d. show shrinkage of the visual cortex.
____ 11. Why do infants who first start to walk move about in a bowlegged fashion?
a. to support the heavy weight of the head and torso
b. because the legs are not fully developed enough to allow regular walking
c. being bowlegged is normal and we all must learn not to walk this way
d. Most infants do not walk this way.
____ 12. Research shows that:
a. even Olympic athletes represent a combination of "good genes" and the right
b. Olympic athletes are born, not made.
c. environment makes all the difference in who will and who will not become an
d. genetics are more likely to determine male accomplishments than female
____ 13. The greatest gains in visual acuity occur:
a. from 9-12 months of age. c. from birth to 6 months of age.
b. from 1-2 months of age. d. not until late childhood.
____ 14. Newborns:
a. have better peripheral vision than adults.
b. are extremely farsighted.
c. have poorer peripheral vision than adults.
d. are unable to see in black and white because the rods of the retina are not
developed at birth.
____ 15. When infants "look" at something:
a. they actually bounce from feature to feature, rather than staring.
b. they focus in on one feature and ignore all other features.
c. they are prewired to pay attention to subtle features.
d. they do not like anything out of the ordinary or different.
____ 16. Camille is crawling and she stops before crawling off an edge. This suggests:
a. that infants are prewired to avoid danger.
b. that crawling infants perceive depth.
c. that infants are afraid of changes in their environments.
d. that differences in thresholds are surprising to infants.
____ 17. In their classic study of depth perception, Gibson and Walk (1960) found that:
a. one-month olds would not cross the visual cliff.
b. boys crossed the visual cliff earlier than girls.
c. infants would cross the cliff if their mothers encouraged them to do so.
d. 8 out of 10 crawling infants would not cross onto the visual cliff.
____ 18. According to a research study by Thomas Bower (1974), at what age do infants show the ability
of size constancy?
a. 2-3 months c. 7-9 months
b. 5-6 months d. at approximately 12 months
____ 19. An example of shape constancy is:
a. recognizing that a door is a rectangle whether it be closed or ajar.
b. perceiving a ruler to be 12 inches long even when viewed from 6 feet away.
c. seeing someone in your peripheral vision.
d. scanning a human face from the edges inward.
____ 20. If stimuli A and B are the same object, but are seen from different angles, what does it mean if
the infant's heart rate and pattern of gazing do not change?
a. The infant does not recognize shape A, as it is a novel object.
b. The infant does not recognize shape B, as it is a novel object.
c. The infant recognizes shape A and B to be the same.
d. There is too little information to tell.
____ 21. Which of the following provides evidence that nature, as opposed to nurture, plays an important
role in infant perceptual development?
a. Infants are born with a tendency to track moving objects and to scan the
b. Failure to receive adequate sensory stimulation can result in sensory deficits.
c. Infants who have one eye patched for an extensive period of time may develop
impaired visual acuity.
d. none of these
____ 22. Which of the following supports the notion that nurture is important in perceptual development?
a. Neonates recognize the differences among many language sounds.
b. Neonates prefer the taste of sweet over bitter.
c. Neonates prefer their mothers’ underarm odors to other women’s odors.
d. Kittens whose eyes are patched develop few cells in their visual cortexes.
____ 23. D.C. has learned that his ball is called a toy. When he sees a round light bulb, he calls it a
"toy." This is an example of:
a. accommodation. c. assimilation.
b. differentiation. d. conceptualization.
____ 24. Latifa knows that kittens are animals. Her mother tells her that puppies are also animals. Latifa
then changes her scheme of animals to include puppies. In changing her scheme to incorporate
the new information, Latifa is using:
a. assimilation. c. augmentation.
b. reaction range. d. accommodation.
____ 25. Dylan picks up an object he has not seen before. He immediately puts it in his mouth. Dylan's
behavior is representative of which stage of cognitive development?
a. concrete operations c. sensorimotor stage
b. oral-cognitive stage d. physio-emotive stage
____ 26. Which of the following is an example of a simple reflex?
a. reaching for an object c. looking to see if one's mother is near
b. purposefully searching for an object d. turning toward the source of a noise
____ 27. In which substage of sensorimotor development would you first witness goal-directed behavior?
a. simple reflexes c. primary circular reactions
b. secondary circular reactions d. tertiary circular reactions
____ 28. Emma is 7-months-old. She shakes a rattle so it will make a noise she likes. This is an example
a. simple reflex. c. secondary circular reaction.
b. primary circular reaction. d. tertiary circular reaction.
____ 29. How do primary and secondary circular reactions differ?
a. Primary involve only reflexes, whereas secondary involve thoughts.
b. They are the same; one is just engaging in a more complex behavior.
c. Primary focuses on the body, whereas secondary focus on the environment.
d. Primary involves more important behaviors than secondary.
____ 30. If an infant reaches for a toy hidden under a cloth, what does this suggest?
a. What it means depends upon the age of the child.
b. What it means depends upon the gender of the child.
c. It is still random activity at this age.
d. The child has a mental representation of the object in mind.
____ 31. By what age will a child demonstrate coordination of secondary schemes?
a. by 2-3 months c. not until 8-9 months
b. by 4-5 months d. not until 12-18 months
____ 32. Object permanence refers to:
a. an understanding that changes in shape do not change the object.
b. a realization that objects can look different, but still be the same.
c. a recognition that things exist that cannot readily be seen.
d. none of these
____ 33. What does the phrase "A not B error" mean?
a. Children will not search for hidden objects unless given an incentive.
b. Children will randomly search for hidden objects, but will quickly become
frustrated and give up.
c. A child may reach for a hidden object where it has always been, yet still reach
there even when they see the toy hidden somewhere else.
d. A child will search for a hidden toy but will quickly become distracted by other,
more interesting objects.
____ 34. Piaget's cognitive-developmental theory:
a. has been validated - infant cognitive development occurs in discrete stages.
b. has not been observed cross-culturally.
c. is an excellent theory for understanding infant social development.
d. is a very comprehensive theory of cognitive development.
____ 35. A stage theory of cognitive development assumes that:
a. development progresses according to discrete, age-based steps.
b. development occurs regardless of experience.
c. development is a continuous process that never ends.
d. development occurs at different ages for different children.
____ 36. Jocelyn watches as her mother puts her toys in a basket. Three weeks later, after never having
engaged in this behavior, Jocelyn attempts to put her toys in the basket. This illustrates:
a. memory. c. deferred imitation.
b. recognition. d. all of these.
____ 37. Which of the following is true of infant memory?
a. Infants demonstrate memory for experiences they had while in-utero.
b. Infants do not demonstrate reliable memory until about 3 months of age.
c. Infants can only remember after 6 months of age.
d. Infants can memorize things with only one exposure.
____ 38. Rovee-Collier and her colleagues (1993) tied one end of a ribbon to a brightly colored mobile
and tied the other end ties to an infant's ankle. What did these studies measure?
a. object permanence
d. the age of onset of primary circular reactions
____ 39. Research studies have shown that infants can imitate adults opening their mouths and sticking
out their tongues. How early has this imitative behavior been observed in infants?
a. at 2 days of age c. not before 3 days of age
b. less than 1 hour old d. after 1 week
____ 40. Why might newborns possess an imitation reflex?
a. It contributes to caregiver-infant bonding.
b. It helps ensure survival of the newborn.
c. It may be due to "mirror neurons" in the human brain.
d. all of these
____ 41. A child is shown two objects for 20 seconds. After this, one of the objects is replaced and the
infant spends more time looking at the new object. What does this represent?
a. visual recognition c. memory
b. habituation d. all of these
____ 42. Higher visual recognition scores in infancy are related to:
a. attention deficit disorder in later childhood.
b. creativity in later childhood.
c. better memory in later childhood.
d. higher IQ scores later in childhood.
____ 43. Recognition memory is related to:
a. preference for novel stimulation.
b. later IQ scores.
c. the infant's ability to scan stimuli and retain images.
d. all of these.
____ 44. Is infant crying a primitive form of language?
a. Yes, because crying represents language.
b. No, because cries do not represent objects or events.
c. It depends upon the type of cry emitted.
d. It depends upon the gender of the child.
____ 45. When is an infant's first word typically spoken?
a. between 11 and 13 months of age
b. usually by 10 months of age
c. not before 24 months of age
d. It depends upon the child's cultural background.
____ 46. A specific nominal refers to:
a. classes of objects. c. proper nouns.
b. personal pronouns. d. words longer than two syllables.
____ 47. At 18-months of age, Ben could speak approximately 50 words. However, by 22-months of age,
his vocabulary had increased to almost 300 words, most of which were nouns. What is this
a. the expressive explosion c. the naming explosion
b. the specific nominal explosion d. referential style
____ 48. Expressive language style refers to:
a. using language to label objects in the environment.
b. using personal pronouns to refer to the self.
c. words that make no particular reference but allow practice with the vocal
d. using language as a means for engaging in social interaction.
____ 49. What is a holophrase?
a. the first complete sentence that a child utters
b. a double-word utterance that a child speaks around 14-months of age
c. a single word utterance that expresses a complex meaning
d. a first word from the infant accompanied by physical gestures
____ 50. By what age do most children begin using two-word sentences?
a. 12 months c. 24 months
b. 16 months d. 36 months