Test 5 - Ch. 15, 16, 22, 34 NAME____________________
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural
adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a. similarities of the birds’ embryos. c. length of the birds’ necks.
b. birds’ different-shaped beaks. d. number of eggs in each bird’s nest.
____ 2. Darwin began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after
a. experimentation with animals.
b. observations in the Galapagos of many species and their geographical location.
c. reading the writings of Wallace.
d. agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution.
____ 3. What did Charles Darwin learn from reading the work of James Hutton and Charles Lyell?
a. Earth is relatively young.
b. Earth is millions of years old.
c. All geological change is caused by living organisms.
d. The processes that formed old rocks on Earth do not operate today.
____ 4. Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many
similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches
a. have the ability to interbreed.
b. acquired traits through use and disuse.
c. all eat the same type of food.
d. descended from a common ancestor.
____ 5. When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is
a. natural selection. c. artificial variation.
b. artificial selection. d. survival of the fittest.
____ 6. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have
a. characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.
b. characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.
c. the greatest number of offspring.
d. variations best suited to the environment.
____ 7. In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur
shown in Figure 15–1 are
a. examples of fossils. c. acquired traits.
b. vestigial structures. d. examples of natural variation.
____ 8. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates.
Most biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of
a. the needs of the organisms. c. the struggle for existence.
b. a common ancestor. d. the inheritance of acquired traits.
____ 9. If an allele makes up one fourth of a population’s alleles for a given trait, its relative frequency is
a. 100 percent. c. 25 percent.
b. 75 percent. d. 4 percent.
____ 10. A change in a sequence of DNA is called a
a. recombination. c. single-gene trait.
b. polygenic trait. d. mutation.
____ 11. Compared to a polygenic trait (like height), a single-gene trait (like widow’s peak) tends to have
a. fewer phenotypes.
b. more phenotypes.
c. the same number of phenotypes.
d. phenotypes that form a bell-shaped curve.
____ 12. When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a. not predictable. c. directional selection.
b. disruptive selection. d. stabilizing selection.
____ 13. Genetic drift tends to occur in populations that
a. are very large. c. are formed from new species.
b. are small. d. have unchanging allele frequencies.
____ 14. The situation in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant is called
a. evolution. c. genetic equilibrium.
b. genetic drift. d. natural selection.
____ 15. The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called
a. temporal isolation. c. behavioral isolation.
b. geographic isolation. d. genetic equilibrium.
____ 16. The geographic isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase differences between their gene
pools because it
a. prevents interbreeding between the populations.
b. prevents interbreeding within each population.
c. causes temporal isolation of the two populations.
d. increases differences in courtship behavior.
____ 17. A plant is a(an)
a. unicellular prokaryote. c. unicellular eukaryote.
b. multicellular prokaryote. d. multicellular eukaryote.
____ 18. Without gas exchange, a plant would be unable to
a. make food. c. make minerals.
b. absorb sunlight. d. absorb water from the soil.
____ 19. Because bryophytes do not have vascular tissue, they
a. lack xylem and phloem.
b. grow close to the ground.
c. can draw up water only a few centimeters above the ground.
d. all of the above
____ 20. Which of the following includes a plant embryo, a food supply, and a protective covering?
a. pollen grain c. seed
b. spore d. gametophyte
____ 21. The four groups of gymnosperms are conifers, cycads, ginkgoes, and
a. bryophytes. c. liverworts.
b. horsetails. d. gnetophytes.
____ 22. Angiosperms produce seeds inside protective structures called
a. pollen grains. c. ovaries.
b. cones. d. petals.
____ 23. Unlike a dicot, a monocot has
a. four or five petals per flower. c. taproots.
b. two cotyledons. d. parallel leaf veins.
____ 24. Flowering plants that complete a life cycle within a single growing season are called
a. annuals. c. perennials.
b. dicots. d. monocots.
____ 25. Which type of plant lives the longest?
a. annual c. perennial
b. biennial d. none of the above
____ 26. Which of the following terms is NOT closely related to the others?
a. innate behavior c. inborn behavior
b. learned behavior d. instinct
____ 27. Complex inborn behaviors include each of the following EXCEPT
a. web building in spiders. c. potato washing in macaques.
b. nest building in birds. d. suckling of newborn mammals.
____ 28. In Pavlov’s experiments on classical conditioning, dogs
a. learned to associate food with salivation.
b. learned to ring a bell whenever they were hungry.
c. associated a stimulus with a reward.
d. were conditioned to produce an innate behavior in response to food.
____ 29. Closely related species often look similar but have courtship behaviors that are slightly different. One
function of courtship in such species would be to
a. increase competition between the species.
b. increase communication between the species.
c. ensure that mating occurs between members of the same species.
d. promote the evolution of new species through interbreeding.
____ 30. An animal can benefit most by defending a territory if
a. that territory has more resources than surrounding areas.
b. that territory has many predators.
c. there are more than enough resources in that territory for all competitors.
d. the animals it defends against do not use the same resources.
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the
sentence or statement true.
____ 31. After his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin wondered whether similar species from the Galápagos
Islands could once have been members of the same species. _________________________
____ 32. In Charles Darwin’s time, many people thought that Earth and its living things were formed about a few
thousand years ago. _________________________
____ 33. In the type of reproductive isolation called behavioral isolation, two populations are separated by barriers
such as rivers or mountains. _________________________
Complete each sentence or statement.
34. James Hutton and Charles Lyell held similar views about Earth’s age. Both thought that Earth was
____________________ of years old.
35. According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, ____________________ change over time.
36. Darwin proposed that natural selection took place as individuals best suited to their
____________________ survived and reproduced.
37. The number of possible phenotypes for a given trait depends on how many ____________________
control the trait.
38. Apes shake branches, make arm gestures, and vocalize loudly when competing with one another. These
behaviors are manifestations of ____________________.
Short Answer (You may leave ONE blank. Honors must answer ALL)
39. What evidence did Charles Darwin collect in addition to specimens of organisms alive during his time?
40. What did Charles Darwin learn about the land tortoises of the various Galápagos Islands?
41. How could vestigial structures like the whale pelvis and femur shown in Figure 15–1 (on Page 2 of Test)
contribute to the theory of evolution?
42. Why might a geographic barrier such as a large river cause the formation of a new species of small
rodents but not a new species of birds?
43. What are three mechanisms for reproductive isolation? Which mechanism isolates two populations of
similar frogs with different mating calls?
44. What could cause a palm tree to grow a long distance from the location of its parent tree?
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Leaves Parallel veins Branching veins
Flowers Parts in multiples Parts in multiples of
of three four or five
Vascular Scattered throughout Arranged in a ring
Roots Fibrous Taproot
Seeds One seed leaf Two seed leaves
45. Comparing and Contrasting Which plants in Figure 22–4 are monocots? Which are dicots?
Essay (Choose ONE. Honors must choose TWO)
46. What was Charles Darwin’s greatest contribution to science, and how did he develop it?
47. Suppose selective breeding has produced a population of very similar chickens. Would that population
survive if it were released into the wild? Explain.
48. How is the idea of common descent supported by examples of homologous structures?
49. The front end of some caterpillars becomes larger when the caterpillar is disturbed by a potential predator.
The caterpillar then waves this enlarged front end, which looks very similar to the head of a snake. How
is this behavior an adaptive advantage?
50. Shortly after hatching, before seeing anything else, a duckling sees a dog walking slowly in front of it.
What will probably happen the next time the dog walks in front of the duckling? Explain.
Extra Credit Test 5
1. Why is Equisetum sometimes called scouring rush (we saw this at Swaner Eco Center)?
2. What is the offspring of a horse and a donkey?
3. In Figure 34–2, what type of behavior does drawing A show? Drawing B? C?