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500 ENT MCQ's with answers

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500 ENT MCQ's with answers Powered By Docstoc
					ENT MCQ's

1. Commonest complication of CSOM is
a) conductive deafness
b) Meningitis
c) temporal lobe abscess
d) Cholesteotoma

2. Ototoxic drugs are all except
a) Kanamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Gentamycin
d) ampicillin

3. Unilateral nasal obstruction in a child is most often due to
a) foreign body
b) chaonal atresia
c) polyps
d) fungal infection

4. Regarding multiple papillomas in the larynx which of the following statements are
correct:
a) common in infants and children
b) viral in origin
c) vocal cords usual site
d) treatment is removal by direct laryngoscopy
e) All are correct

5. Myringitis bullosa is caused by
a) Virus
b) fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Protozoa

6.   In noise induced deafness audiometric change begins at
a)    1000 Hz
b)    2000 Hz
c)    3000 Hz
d)    4000 Hz

7. Precancerous lesion of the larynx include
a) Keratosis laryngis
b) Panchyderma laryngis
c) laryngis sicca
d) Scleroma

8. Life threatening complication is seen:
a) Unilateral complete choanal atresia
b) Bilateral complete choanal atresia
c) Unilateral incomplete choanal atresia
d) Bilateral incomplete choanal atresia


9. Hard elongated swelling in the tonsillar fossa after tonsillectomy is:
a) thrombosed vein
b) tonsilolitth
c) elongated styloid process
d) calcified esophagus

10. Lump in the throat not interfering with swallowing.
a) globus hystericus
b) cervical spondylosis
c) pharyngeal divertioula
d) carcinoma esophagus

11. Myringotomy is done on the _______ quadrant of the tympanic membrane
a) postero inferior
b) postero superior
c) antero inferior
d) antero superior

12. Colour of tympanic membrane in otosclerosis is
a) Bluish
b) reddish
c) flamingo pink
d) Pearly white

13. Cauliflower ear is due to ______ of the auricle
a) Hematoma
b) Carcinoma
c) Fungal infection
d) Herpes

14. The cricothyroid is supplied by the
a)   superior laryngtal nerve
b)   recurrent laryngeal nerve
c)   inferior laryngeal nerve
d)   None of the above

15. Treatment of choice for otosclerosis is
a) Stepedectomy
b) fenestration
c) Hearing aid
d) taympanoplasty

16. Multi perforations of the tympanic membrane is characteristic of otitis media due
to
a) Staphylococcal
b) Strepta
c) tuberculous
d) Pneumococcal




17. Commonest cause of epistaxis is
a) Hypertension
b) Drying
c) Crusting
d) Nose picking

18. Sinus not present at birth is
a) Ethmoid
b) Sphenoid
c) Maxillary
d) frontal

19. Commonest cause of supporative otitis media is
a) Streptocoocus
b) Pnevmococcus
c) Staphylococcus
d) Pseudomonas

20. In 8 year old child with bilateral conductive deafness, the diagnosis:
a) glue ear
b) Otosclerosis
c) lympanosclerosis
d) bilateral atresia of auditory canal

21. Treatment of cholesteatoma
a) Mastoidectomy
b) Radical mastoideotorny
c) sudion clearance
d) Tympanoplsty

22. Maggots in the nose can be removed by
a) Direct picking
b) Instillation of chloroform
c) Scrapping
d) Instilling nasal drops

23. Carcinoma larynx with no neck secondaries is treated by
a) laryngectomy
b) Laryngectomy and radical neck dissection
c) Radiation
d) Radiation & laryngectomy

24. Recurrent epistaxis and unilateral nasal mass in young boys is seen with
a) antrochoanal polyp
b) angiofibroma
c) Rhinolith
d) juvenile naso pharyngeal fibroma

25. The main blood supply of the tonsils is
a) Lingual artery
b) Facial artery
c) Ascending pharyngeal artery
d) Occipital arte

26. Which is true of nesopheryngeal carcinoma?
a) Good prongnosis
b) Can be cured by surgery
c) spread to lymphnodes
d) etiology is unknown

27. Treatment of nasopharyngeal fibroma is
a) Surgery
b) Radiotherapy
c) Surgery and radio therapy
d) Hormones

28. Which carcinoma present with Hoarseness early
a) Glottic
b) Subglottic
c) Supraglottic
d) all

29. Treatment of cholesteatoma of the middle ear in a 6 year old
a) Radical mastoidectomy
b) modified radical mastoidectomy
c) simple mastoidectomy
d) None

30. The earliest symptom of acoustic neuroma is
a) deafness
b) Tinnitus
c) Vertigo
d) facial weakness

31. The nasopharynx is
a) oval shaped space
b) cuboidal space
c) slit like
d) potential patent

32. Structures passing between the upper border of the superior constrictor muscle
and the base of the
    skull are:
a) styloid ligament and eustachian tube
b) superior laryngeal nerves and vessels
c) styloid ligament and superior laryngeai nerve
d) leavator palate muscle and the cartilaginous Eustachian tube




33. The eustachian tube opens into the nasopharynx approximately 1 cm behind the
a) tonsil
b) posterior end of the superior turbinate
c) posterior end of the middle turbinate
d) posterior end of the inferior turbinate

34. The maxillary s.inus has a communication with the
a) superior meatus
b) inferior meatus
c) middle meatus
d) eustation tube

35. Dangerous type of Ear refers to:
a) attic granulations
b) central perforation
c) marginal perforations
d) Multiple perforations

36. Precancerous lesions in the vocal cord is
a) Singers nodule
b) Leukoplakia
c) angioma
d) All of the above

37. The triad of meniere's disease is
a) deafness, tremors, tinnitus
b) deafness, vertigo, tinnitus
c) deafness, nystagmus, tremors
d) deafness, nystagmus, vertigo

38. Tonsils develop embryologically from
a) First pharyngeal pouch
b) Second pharyngeal pouch
c) Third pharyngeal pouch
d) Fourth phafyrfgea4pouch

39. In gradenigo's triad there is______ palsy
a) Oculomotor nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c) Abducent nerve
d) Facial nerve

40. Commonest symptoms in laryngeal carcinoma
a) Hoarseness of voice
b) cough
c) dyspnea
d) Hemoptysis.




41. Laryngeal cancers are mostly
a) Squamous cell carcinomas
b) adenocarcinomas
c) sarcpmas
d) transitional cell canrinomas

42. Tonsillectomy is done after _____ weeks of an attack of quinsy
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 12

43. Angiofibroma responds to which of the following modalities of the treatment
a) surgery
b) radiotherapy
c) Hormonal therapy
d) Immunotherapy

44. Characteristic of otosclerosis is:
a) conductive deafness
b) sensori neural deafness
c) Paracusis willisi
d) Tinnitus

45. The paramount function of the larynx is
a) protection of the lower Respiratory tract
b) speech
c) respiratory control
d) None

46. Commonest cause of deafness in children under 12 years
a) Otosclerosis
b) secretary otitis media
c) wax
d) drug induced

47. Otomycosis is commonly caused by:
a) Actinomyces
b) Aspergillus
c) Mucormyces
d) Candida

48. Commonest site of epistaxis is
a) bony septum
b) little's area
c) superior turbinate
d) lateral wall of nose




49. Commonest organism causing quinsy
a) Pneumococci
b) Hemphilus
c) Streptocooci
d) Staphylococci

50. Otosclerosis mostly affects
a) Malleus
b) Stapes
c) Incus
d) Tympanic membrane

51. Lancinating pain around the tonsils during eating is indicative of:
a) Trigeminal neuralgia
b) Glossophyngeal neuralgia
c) facial neuralgia
d) None of the above

52. Rhinne's test is positive means the ear
a) Has otosclerosis
b) conductive deafness
c) sensori neural deafness
d) None
53. Commonest cause for laryngeal stenosis is
a) strictures
b) high tracheostomy
c) low tracheostomy
d) None

54. Dysphagia for fluids but not solids is seen in
a) Carcinoma esophagus
b) achalasia cardia
c) Stricture
d) Cork screw esophagus

55. Dysphagia lusoria is because of
a) Esophageal webs
b) Achalasia
c) Esophageal stricuture
d) Aberrant great vessels

56. Rat tail appearance of a barium swallow is suggestive of:
a) Esophageal stricure
b) Esophageal carcinoma
c) Achalasia cardia
d) Dysphagia lusoria




57. Which is ototoxic
a) Gentamycin
b) Kannamycin
c) Metronidazole
d) Cefotaxine

58.   Radical mastoidectomy is done for:
a)    ASOM
b)    CSOM
c)    Aticoantral cholesteotoma
d)    Acute mastoiditis

59. Secondary haemorthage after tonsillectomy commonly occur:
a) in 2 hours after surgery
b) 2 days after
c) about 6 days after
d) at the time of surgery

60. Submucous resection is done in
a) Tonsilitis
b) Nasal polyps
c) deflected nasal septum
d) Adenoids

61.   Polyp which has a mulberry appearance and bleeding on touch is due to
a)    Malignancy
b)    Rhinosporiodisis
c)    Antrochoanal polyp
d)    Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

62. Antrochoanal polyps originate in
a) sphenoidal sinus
b) frontal sinus
c) maxillary sinus
d) Ethmoidal sinus

63. Quinsy is characterized by all except
a) peritonsillar abscess
b) Indication for tonsillectomy
c) Should be drained
d) Affects nasal mucousa

64. Sinusitis in children in commonest in ______ sinus
a) frontal
b) maxillary
c) ethmoid
d) sphenoidal




65. Cholesteatoma is seen often in the ____ region
a) attic
b) post superior marginal
c) post inferior marginal
d) central

66. Secondary deposits from the maxillary antrum is seen in _____ region
a) upper deep cervical
b) lower deep cervical
c) supra clavicular
d) submandibular

67. Oroantral fistula occur in
a) Dental extraction
b) maxillary antrum carcinoma
c) antrochaonal polyps
d) trauma

68. Unilateral conductive deafness after head injury is due to:
a) Hemotympanum
b) secretary otitis media
c) dislocation of incudostapedial
d) perforation of tympanic membrane

69. Laryngeal stridor in children is caused by
a) Unilateral choanal atresia
b) Bilateral choanal atresia
c) Laryngomalacia
d) Foreigan body

70. Early features of carcinoma larynx
a) Hoarseness of voice
b) nagging cough
c) stridor
d) Hemoptysis

71. Epistaxis in adults commonly caused by
a) Hypertension
b) Nose picking
c) Nasopharyngeal arigiofibroma
d) Bleeding diathesis

72. Carcinoma in situ of larynx is treated by
a) Radiotherapy
b) stripping
c) partial laryogectomy
d) total larynpctomy




73. Acoustic neuroma commonly affects the ______ cranial nerve
a) 5th
b) 6th
c) 7th
d) 8th

74. Nerve supply of the external auditory meatus is
a) auriculotemporal nerve
b) vagus
c) facial
d) Trigeminal

75. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is characterised by
a) Herpes zoster of geniculate ganglion
b) facial palsy lower motor neuron
c) facial palsy upper motor neuron
d) caused by bacterial infection

76. Epistaxis in a five year old boy is due commonly to
a) Foreign body
b) Nose picking
c) Bleeding disorder
d) Leukemia

77. Treatment of multiple papilloma of the larynx is
a) excision with laser
b) excision with cautery
c) chemotherapy
d) hormonal therapy

78. The adductors of the vocal cord are
a) lateral cricoarytenoid
b) transverse portion of interarytenoid
c) cricothyroid
d) external portion of thyroarytenoid
79. The tensors of the vocal cord are:
a) lateral cricoarytenoid
b) Cricothyroid
c) internal portion of thyoarytenoid
d) thryohyoid

80. The cause of oro antral fistula is:
a) Trauma
b) Malignancy
c) tooth extraction
d) maxillary sinusitis




81. Treatment of choice for stage I laryngeal carcinoma is
a) Resection of vocal cord
b) radiotherapy
c) striping of vocal cord
d) laryngectomy

82. Grommet tube is used in
a) Glue ear
b) Cholesteatoma
c) Acute suppurative otitis media
d) chronic suppurative otitis media

83. Commonest post operative complication of tonsillectomy is
a) palatal pelsy
b) Hemorrhage
c) injury to uvula
d) infection

84. Control of hemorrhage after adenoidectomy is by
a) Postal nasal pack
b) Local adrenaline
c) Cautery
d) all

85 Live insect trapped in the auditory canal can be killed by
a) Ether
b) H2O2
c) H2O
d) Oil

86. Commonest complication of mastoidectomy is
a) facial palsy
b) cerebral thrombosis
c) deafness
d) none

87. Commonest cause of deafness in childhood is
a) ASOM
b) CSOM
c) Deafmutism
d) foreign body

88. The following open into the middle meatus
a) lacrimal duct
b) Maxillary sinus
c) frontal sinus
d) ethmoid sinus




89. Nerve of the pterygoid canal is also known as
a) Arnolds nerve
b) vidian nerve
c) nerve of kuntz
d) criminal nerve of grassi

90. Trotters triad is seen in
a) Angiofibroma
b) nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c) laryngeal carcinoma
d) Growth in fossa of rosenmuller

91. Persistent CSF rhinorrhoea is seen in
a) anterior cranial fossa fractures
b) tumors of the anterior cranial fossa
c) Hydrocephalus
d) Middle cranial fossa fractures

92. Pendred syndrome is with nerve deafness
a) Menieres syndrome
b) thyroid swelling
c) cardiac defect
d) renal cysts

93.   Arnolds nerve is a branch of _____ nerve
a)    vagus
b)    glossopharyngeal
c)    auditory
d)    facial

94. Main vascular supply of little's area is all except
a) septal branch of superior labalartery
b) nasal branch of sphenopalatine artery
c) anterior ethmoidal artery
d) palatal branch of sphenoplatine

95. Mickulitz cell is seen in
a) Rhinosporiodiosis
b) Rhinosclerosis
c) Otomycosis
d) Ozaena

96. Speech may be interfered with by the following except
a) tongue tie
b) deafness
c) cleft palate
d) cleft lip




97. Le fort's fracture does not involve
a) zygoma
b) maxilla
c) nasal bones
d) Mandible
98. Which type of diverticulum is common in the oesophagus
a) traction type
b) pulsion type
c) rolling hernia
d) none

99. Which collagen disease most commonly affects the esophagus
a) Scleroderma
b) SLE
c) Polyarteritis nodosa
d) Wegners

100. Otogenic parapharyngeal abscess is due to
a) Petrositis
b) Mastoiditis
c) cholesteatoma in attic
d) lateral sinus phlebitis

101. High tracheostomy is indicated in ____ of larynx
a) Scleroma
b) tuberculosis
c) carcinoma
d) Multiple papillomas

102. Periodic headache is seen in
a) maxillary sinusitis
b) Ethmoidal sinusitis
c) frontal sinusitis
d) Migraine

103. Gradenigo's syndrome does not consist of
a) abducent nerve palsy
b) Retro orbital pain
c) aural discharge
d) Palatal palsy

104. Unsafe otitis media in a child with high fever and convulsion, the diagnosis is
a) temporal lobe abscess
e) cerebellar abscess
b) meningitis
c) lateral sinus thrombosis
105. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is closely related to
a) superior laryngeal artery
b) inferior thyroid artery
c) middle thyroid vein
d) Superior thyroid artery

106. Least chance of nodal metastasis is in ______ carcinoma
a) Pyriform fossa
b) Glottic
c) Supraglottic
d) Transglottic

107. Caloric test with warm and cold water stimulates
a) lateral semicircular canal
b) posterior semicircular canal
c) superior semi circular canal
d) saccule

108. Which is true regarding peritonsillar abscess?
a) known as quinsy
b) conservative treatment
c) I & D is done
d) tonsillectomy is done immediately

109. Epistaxis in elderly patient is commonest in _______ :
a) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b) foreign body
c) bleeding disorder
d) Hypertension

110. Commonest cause of unilateral vocal cord palsy is
a) Idiopathic
b) Thyroid surgery
c) Trauma
d) epiglottic tumour

111. Myringoplasty is plastic repair of
a) middle ear
b) internal ear
c) Eustachian tube
d) tympanic membrane

112. Rhinosporidiosis is due to
a) Protozoa
b) Bacteria
c) Fungus
d) Virus




113. Vasodilator of the internal ears
a) Nicotinic acid
b) Histamine
c) Serotonin
d) Kinins

114. Menierre's disease is associated with
a) cochlear deafness
b) conductive deafness
c) Retrocochlear deafness
d) mixed

115. Stridor occurs in
a) vocal nodule
b) glottic carcinoma
c) bilateral abductor cord paralysis
d) leukoplakia

116. Treatment of maxillary antral carcinoma (T3 No) is
a) Only surgery
b) surgery and radiotherapy
c) chemotherapy of radiotherapy
d) radiotherapy only

117. Incidence of rhiosporidiosis is maximum in
a) Andhra
b) Otissa
c) Bengal
d) Tamil nadu

118. In Rhinosporiodiosis, the following is true
a) fungal granuloma
b) grayish mass
c) surgery is the treatment
d) radiotherapy is treatment

119. Early maxillary carcinoma presents as
a) Bleeding per nose
b) supraclavicular lymph node
c) tooth pain
d) nasal discharge

120. The following is true about nasal allergy:
a) pale edematous mucosa
b) associated with DNS
c) eosinophils in discharge
d) Purulent discharge




121. Sensori neural deafness post natally is due to
a) Trauma to head
b) noise
c) Incudostapedial dislocation
d) ear wax


122. Penicillin should be given to a patient with group A beta hemolytic streptococcal
infection of the tonsil
a) 3-5 days
b) 10-14 days
c) 21 days
d) 1 month

123. Management of otogenic cerebral abscess is
a) radical mastoidectomy
b) drainage of abscess followed by mastoidectomy
c) conservlitive treatment with antibiotics
d) drainage of abscese only

124. 3 year old child has bilateral conductive deafness the most common cause is
a) Atresia
b) glue ear
c) Otosclerosis
d) cholestetome

125. Recurrent epistaxis in a 15 year old female, the most common cause is
a) Juvenile nasopharyngeal fibrofT'ia
b) Rhinosporiodiosis
c) foreign body
d) Hematopoietic disorder

126. 19 years old female with Aphonia has bilateral abductor paralysis the likely cause
is
a) functional
b) viral infection
c) central causes
d) tumour

127. Laryngeal mirror is warmed before use by placing
a) glass surfactronflarrie
b) back of mllTor<mflame
c) whole mil'fOr into flame
d) mirror in bomng water

128. Function of the nasal cavity is
a) warming
b) moistening
c) filtration
d) all of the $ove




129: Trachea begins at the level of
a) Lower border of thyroid cartilage
b) lower border of cricoid
c) lower border of hyoid
d) fourth cervical vertebra
130. In the external auditory meatus, the cartilaginous portion is
a) smaller than bony portion
b) larger than bony portion
c) both are equal
d) devoid of ceruminous glands

131. Rupture of an ear drum may occur at the noise level above
a) 120 db
b) 160 db
c) 90 db
d) 80 db

132. The procedure that should precede microlaryngoscopy is
a) Pharyngoscopy
b) Esophagoscopy
c) Rhinoscopy
d) Laryngoendoscopy

133. CSF Rhinorrhorea is usually due to fracture of
a) Ethmoidal bone
b) Cribriform plate
c) Orbital prate
d) Maxilla

134. In Monoaural diplacusis the lesion is in the
a) Cochlea
b) Auditary nerve
c) Brainstem
d) Oerebrum

135. The medial bulging of pharynx is seen in
a) Pharyngoxaxillary abscess
b) Retropharyngealabscess
c) Peritonsillar abscess
d) Paratonsillary abscess.

136. Black colour patch in the mouth is seen in
a) Acute tonsillitis
b) Peritonsillar abscess
c) Vincent's angina
d) Leukemta
137. What is a Rhinolith
a) foreign body in nose
b) stone in nose
c) deposition of calcium around foreign body in nose
d) Misnomer

138. Ranadiers operation is done in
a) Bells palsy
b) Meniere's disease.
c) CSOM
d) Petrositis

139. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is
a) Benign
b) Malignant
c) Benign but potentially malignant,
d) none of the above

140. Cerebello pontine angle tumour is most commonly
a) Acoustic neuroma
b) Cholesteostoma
c) meningiom
d) All of the following

141. Singers nodule is due to
a) bacteria
b) viral
c) fungus
d) voice abuse

142. Maximum stridor is seen in
a) Unilateral incomplete paralysis
b) Bilateral incomplete paralysis
c) Unilateral complete paralysis
d) Bilateral complete paralysis

143. Surgery on ear drum is done using
a)   operative microscope
b)   Laser
c)   Direct vision
d)   Blindly

144. The most common indication for tracheostomy is:
a) Laryngeal diphtheria
b) foreign body aspiration
c) Carcinoma
d) Asthma




145. The most common cause of laryngeal stridor in a 60 year old man
a) Nasopharyogeal carcinoma
b) Thyroid carcinoma
c) Foreign body aspiration
d) Carcinoma larynx

146. Positiye Rinne test is seen in
a) Otosclerosis
b) csom
c) wax impacted ear
d) presbyacuisis

147. The treatment of traumatic rupture of tympanic membrane is
a) Aural packing
b) Chloromycetin ear drops
c) Tympanoplasty
d) No active treatment

148. Patch in the throat is not caused by
a) vincents angina
b) Candida
c) Staphylococcus
d) Diphtheria

149. Acute supportive otitis media is treated using
a) Erythromycin
b) penicillin
c) Streptomycin
d) Chloramphenicol

150. Labyrinthine artery is a branch of
a) Internal carotid artery
b) Basilar artery
c) Posterior cerebellar artery
d) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

151. Which of the following is premalignant
a) Chronic glossitis
b) Submucous fibrosis
c) Hypertrophic glossitis
d) Aphthous stomatitis

152. Management of undisplaced fracture zygoma is
a) open reduction
b) closed reduction
c) No specific treatment
d) wiring to frontal bone




153. Which is not seen in fracture maxilla
a) CSF Rhinorrhoea
b) Malocclusion
c) anesthesia upper lip
d) surgical emphysema check

154. Treatment of carcinoma larynx with stridor is
a) Bronchodilator.s
b) steroids
c) Intubation
d) planned tracheostomy

155. Nasal mucosa is supplied by
a) only external carotid artery
b) Only Internal carotid art
c) mainly external carotid artery
d) mainly internal carotid Art
156. Which is not visualised on posterior Rhinoscopy
a) Eustachian tube
b) Inferior meatus
c) middle meatus
d) super concha

157. Most Immediate treatment in CSF Rhinorrhoea is
a) Exploration
b) Head low position and vasconstrictors
c) Nasal packing
d) Prophylactic antibiotics and x-ray

158. Skin at angle of Jaw is supplied by
a) Mandibular Nerve
b) Maxillary Nerve
c) Greater Auricular N
d) Transverse cutaneous N of neck

159. Fitzgerald's caloric test uses temperature at
a) 300 C and 440 C
b) 340 C and 410 C
c) 330 C and 210 C
d) 370 C and 410 C

160. Rinne’s test negative is seen in
a) presbyaccusis
b) csom
c) labrinthitis
d) menieres disease




161. Stapedius is supplied by
a) maxillary Nerve
b) facial nerve
c) Auditory nerve
d) Mandibular nerve

162. Commonest organism causing acute tonsillitis in children
a)   Streptococcus
b)   Hemophilus
c)   Staphylococcus
d)   Treponema vincenti

163. Stapedial reflex is inediated by
a) V and VII nerves
b) V and VIII nerves
c) VII and VI nerves
d) VII and VIII nerves

164. Treatment of choice in deafness associated with Attico antral perforation
a) Simple mastoidectomy
b) modified radical mastoidectomy
c) watch and wait
d) Instillation of antibiotic drops

165. Which is not true of otospongiosis
a) paracusis wilisii
b) Sodium fluoride is therapeutic
c) autosomal dominant
d) Conductive deafness

166. CSF Otorrhoea occurs In trauma of
a) Cribriform plat
b) petrous temporal bone
c) parietal bone
d) tympanic membrane

167. Throat pain radiating to the ear following tonsillectomy is due to
a) persistent infection
b) Injury to IX nerve
c) Injury to X nerve
d) Injury to Eustachian tube

168. Most reliable landmark in otoscopy is
a) cone of light
b) umbo
c) Handle of malleus
d) Spheno ethmoidal recess
169. Bulla ethmoidal is seen in
a) Superior meatus
b) Inferior meatus
c) Middle meatus
d) Spheno ethmoidal recess


170. Bezolds abscess is located in
a) Submandibular region
b) Sternomastoid muscle
c) Digastric triangle
d) Infratemporal region

171. Most definitive diagnois of sinusitis is
a) X-ray PNS
b) proof puncture
c) Sinoscopy
d) Transillumination test

172. Acute epiglottitis is mostly due to
a) Rhinovirus
b) RSV
c) pneumococcus
d) Hemophilus

173. Percentage of newborns with deviation of nasal septum
a) 2 %
b) 10 %
c) 20 %
d) 50 %

174. Tonsils reach their maximum size by
a) 1 Year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 12 years

175. A crooked nose is due to
a) Deviated Tip and Septum
b) Deviated ala
c) Deviated septum
d) Deviated dorsum and septum

176. Which is true of cholesteatoma
a) Physiological
b) erodes bone
c) benign neoplasm
d) contains cholesterol




177. Myringitis bullosa is caused by
a) virion
b) fungus
c) Bacteria
d) Virus

178. Treatment for pin prick injury to ear durm is
a) operative closure
b) Watch and wait
c) Antibiotics
d) Cotton swab packing


179. Bluish tympanic membrane is seen in
a) Early ASOM
b) Glue ear
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Cholesterol granuloma

180. Drug of choice for acute epiglottitis in children
a) Ampicillin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Erythromycin

181. Angular movements are sensed by:
a) Cochlea
b) Saccule
c) utricle
d) Semicircular canals

182. Which of the following cartilage has signet ring shape?
a) Thyroid
b) Cricoid
c) Cuneiform
d) Arytenoid

183. Rhinitis syndrome in the "Mast cell mediator release" Category are categorized
by having the
     following except:
a) Sneezing
b) Marked post nasal drainage
c) Lacrimation
d) Marked nasal congestion

184. Apple-jelly nodules on the nasal septum are found in cases of:
a) Tuberculosis
b) Lupus vulgaris
c) Syphilis
d) Scleroma
e) None of the above
f)

185. Hypernasality may be caused by:
a) Cleft palate
b) Submucous cleft
c) Bifid uvula
d) All of the above

186. Costen's syndrome refers to neuralgia originating in the:
a) Temporomandibular joint
b) Optic foramen
c) Meatal foramen
d) Sphenopalatine ganglion

187. Areas of carcinoma of oral mucosa can be identified by staining with:
a) 1 % zinc chloride
b) 2 % silver nitrate
c) Gentian violet blue
d) 2 % toluidine blue
188. Depressed bridge may be caused by:
a) Syphilis
b) Septal abscess
c) Injury
d) All of the above

189. Complications of sinus disease include:
a) Retrobulbar neuritis
b) Orbital cellulitis
c) Cevemous sinus thrombosis
d) Superior orbital fissure syndrome
e) All of the above

190. The commonest complication of paediatric tracheostomy is:
a) Pneumothorax
b) Tracheal granuloma
c) Haemorrhage
d) Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
e) None of the above

191. Attacks of vertigo in children over 6 years age are often associated with:
a) Juvenile Diabetes Mellitus
b) Hypothyrodism
c) Seizure disorders
d) Syphilis
e) Multiple sclerosis

192. A frequent problem of tracheostomy seen especially in infants is:
a) Granuloma formation
b) Vocal cord paralysis
c) Difficult decannulation
d) Tracheocutaneous fistula


193. Hemiation of brain tissue with its dural covering into the nasal cavity is called
a) Glioma
b) Neurofibroma
c) Encephalocele
d) Olfadory Neuroblastoma

194. An U-shaped audiogram suggests:
a) Otosclerosis
b) Adhesive otitis media
c) Mumps deafness
d) Congenital deafness

195. Supraglottis' include all of the following except:
a) Ary-epiglotic folds
b) False cords
c) The lingual surface of the epiglottis
d) The laryngeal surface of the epiglottis

196. The commonest benign intramural tumor of the oesophagus is:
a) Fibroma
b) Leiomyoma
c) Angioma
d) Lipoma
e) Neuroma

197. Gustatory sweating and flushing (Frey's syndrome) follows damage to the:
a) Trigeminal nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Vagus nerve
e) Auriculotemporal nerve

198. A cricoid hook is used particularly:
a) In block dissection of the neck
b) In thyroidectomy
c) tn tracheostomy
d) For retracting recurrent laryngeal nerve
e) None of the above

199. Otoscopic occurance of retracted drumhead with a hairline or air bubbles is
diagnostic of:
a) Chronic suppurative otitis media
b) Acute suppurative otitis media
c) Chronic adhesive otitis media
d) Acute non-suppurative otitis media
e) None of the above

200. Granuloma of the vocal cords is mostly due to:
a) Intubation
b) Syphilis
c) Malignancy
d) Vocal abuse

201. Main treatment of congenital laryngeal stridor is:
a) Tracheotomy
b) Tracheostomy
c) Steroid therapy epiglottis
d) Amputation of epiglottis
e) Re- assurance to the child’s parents

202. Young's operation is done for:
a) Allergic rhinitis
b) Atrophic rhinitis
c) Vasomotor rhinitis
d) Ethmoidal polyposis

203. Cancer of the larynx is:
a) Equal in both sexes
b) Is common in third and fourth decades
c) Is differentiated from tuberculosis in that is does not arise in the posterior commissure
d) None of the above

204. All of the following are features of otosclerosis except:
a) commoner in males
b) conductive deafness
c) ParacusisWillisii
d) Tinnitus
e) Gelle testis negative

205. Excision of the superior portion of the alar cartilages will:
a) Tend to narrow the nasala tip
b) Tend to elevate the nasal tip
c) Tend to cause tip collapse
d) Tend to lead to alar collapse during inspiration.
e) Tend to cause nasal obstruction by making the limen nasi more pronounced

206. Uveo-parotitis manifestation of:
a) Syphilis
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Tuberculosis
d) Mumps
e) Lupus erythematosus
207. The following are features of Klippel - Feil syndrome
a) Deafness
b) Paralysis of lateral rectus
c) Low hair line at the back
d) Long Neck




208. A poorly developed basement membrane of the mucosa of the turbinates is almost
always found in patients with:
a) Atrophic rhinitis
b) Nasal polys
c) Vasomotor rhinitis
d) Infectious rhinitis

209. Functions of the liver include:
a) Platelet manufacture
b) Hormone production
c) BUestorage
d) Manufacture of plasma proteins
e) Urea formation.

210. In sinus X-rays pictures, Water's view (occipito-mental) provides good
visualization of following except:
a) Maxillary sinus
b) Orbito frontal sinus
c) Frontal sinus
d) Sphenoid sinus

211. Carcinoma of the tongue:
a) Occurs most commonly on the lateral border of the middle third of tongue
b) Metastasized readily to cervical lymph nodes
c) Is usually radiosensitive
d) Treated surgically should include homolateral neck except for very small

212. Hyposthesia of the posterior aspect of the external auditory canal may be an early
sign of:
a)   Trigeminal neuralgia
b)   Costen’s syndrome
c)   Lateral sinus thrombosis
d)   Multiple sclerosis
e)   Acoustic neuroma

213. The usual treatement of congenital laryngeal stridor is:
a) Steroids
b) Traoheotomy
c) Amputatien of the epigolttis
d) Reassurance of child’s parents
e) Radiation of thymus

214. The treatment of choice for pus in the middle ear, when under tension is:
a) Mastoidectomy
b) Antibiotics
c) Analgesi
d) Myringotomy




215. A patient of complete anosmia would respond to inhalation of:
a) Tobacco
b) Coffee
c) Ammonia
d) Oil of lemon
e) Chocolate

216. The primary aetiological factor in contact ulcer of the larynx is:
a) Syphilis
b) Tubereulosis
c) Viral
d) vocal abuse

217. The temporal bone air cell groups include all of the following, except:
a) Petrosal
b) Retrofacial
c) Promontory
d) Hypotympanic
e) Sublabyrinthine

218. Speech discrimination score is lowest in which of the following:
a) Cochlear deafness
b) Normal hearing
c) Conductive deafness
d) Retor-cochlear sensi-neural deafness

219. The aphonia of abductor paralysis can be overcome by:
a) Tracheostomy
b) Speech therapy
c) Arytenoid mobilization
d) Arytenoidectomy .
e) Teflon injection of the involved vocal cord

220. Appreciation of sound occurs in:
a) Organ of corti
b) Basilar membrane
c) Transverse temporal gyrus
d) Transverse temporal gyrus

221. Operative considerations in head and neck surgery:
a) The vertical limb of a Hayes-Martin type skin incision for a radical neck dossection
should be ‘S’ shaped
b) Platysma should not be included in-the skin flaps
c) Mac fee incision is suited for the patient who has received radiotherapy
d) continuity resection is not appropriate to the head and neck
e) The skin incision should be marked with a pen as a preliminary




222. Mogiphonia means:
a) Hesitation in starting conversation
b) frequent interruptions during speech
c) Sudden glottic spasm during ordinary conversation
d) Sudden glottic spasm at the start of professional speech only

223. Fistula test is _________ after the operation of labyrinth fenestration;
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) No definite response
d) None of the above

224. Submuscosal resection is indicated in: -
a) All cases of nasal septal deviation
b) In all cases of septaldevia1ion with spur formation
c) In cases having repeated attacks of epistaxis
d) In cases of deviated ,septum with constant complaints due to nasal, obstruction

225. The most important constitutent of endolymph is:
a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Chloride
d) Protein

226. Antro-choanal polypi are usually:
a) Single and unilateral
b) Multiple and bilateral
c) Single and bilateral
d) Single and bilateral

227. Local anaesthetic used for nasal surgery:
a) Cocaine paste
b) Xylocaine
c) Both
d) None of the above

228. Oro-antral fistulae:
a) Most occur following dental extractions
b) Small fistulae usually heal -spontaneously
c) Sinus X -rays are only of limited value
d) Surgical repair of a fistula should be accompanied by a sinus drainage procedure
e) Surgical closure is usually accomplished by primary apposition.

229. Tightening of the Facial and oral commissure suggests:
a) Plumbism
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Scleroderma
d) Riboflavine deficiency
230. The cervical oesphagus receive its blood supply from the:
a) Superior thyroid artery
b) Inferior thyroid artery
c) Lingual artery
d) Bronchial artery

231. Absolute Bone conduction test (ABC) is shortened in:
a) Conductive deafness
b) Perceptive deafness
c) None of the above

232. The landmark on the lateral surface of temporal bone which acts as a guide to
surgery to the antrum is the:
a) Trautman's triangle
b) Temporl line
c) Suprameatal spine of Henle
d) Notch of Rivinus
e) None of the above

233. Sluder's syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:
a) Coryza
b) Pain at root of nose and about the eye
c) Pain beyond mastoid and in occiput
d) Pain or itching of hard palate
e) Myosis

234. The Kobrak test is used for:
a) Minimal caloric stimulation
b) Measuring taste
c) Demonstrating recruitment
d) Demonstrating muscosal area of leucoplakia

235. Father of Microsurgery of the ear is:
a) Gunnar Holmgren
b) George von Bekesy
c) Hemholtz
d) Zollener

236. Laryngofissure is:
a) Opening the larynx in midline
b) Making window in thyroid cartilage
c) Removal of arytenoids
d) Removal of epiglottis

237. Septal chemosis and proptosis following an ENT infections suggest:
a) Lateral sinus thrombosis
b) Frontal osteomyelitis
c) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
d) Brain abscess




238. Submaxillary calculi can be visulaized by X-ray in:
a) 20% of cases
b) 50% of cases
c) 60% of cases
d) 80% of cases
e) 100% of cases

239. A valsalva maneuver generates about _____ mm Hg of pressure:
a) 10-20
b) 20-40
c) 80-100
d) 120-160

240. Key-hole appearance of glottis is seen on laryngoscopy in:
a) Functional aphonia
b) Bilateral complete paralysis of vocal cords
c) Bilateral partial paralysis of vocal cords
d) Phonasthenia

241. Endoscopy is contraindicated in:
a) Oesophageal varices
b) Aortic aneurysm
c) Lung abscess
d) Bronchial adenoma

242. The usual location of glomus jugulare tumour is:
a) Epitympanum
b) Hypotympanum
c) Mastoid lip cells
d) Promontory
e) Internal auditory meatus

243. Pressure differential between middle ear and eustachian tube of ____ mm Hg
produces tympanaic
     membrane rupture:
a) 30
b) 50
c) 70
d) 100

244. Organ of Corti is arranged along the inner edge of:
a) Reissrier's membrane
b) Basilar membrane
c) Stria.vascularis
d) None of the above

245. Dermabrasion is contraindicated on:
a) Eyelids
b) Pyodermic skin infection
c) Skin with severe radiation dermatitis
d) aasal cell carcinoma
e) All of the above

246. The pain of migraine headache is due to:
a) An idiopathic neuropathy
b) Dilatation of cranial arteries
c) Constriction of cranial arteries
d) Psychogenic overlay
e) None of the above

247. The most frequent symptom of Cancer of nasopharynx is:
a) Mass in the neck
b) Blocked nose
c) Diplopia
d) Epistaxis

248. The Cody tack oppration is used in the treatment of:
a) Otosclerosis
b) Meniere's disease
c) Adhesive otitis media
d) Facial nerve damage
e) N6ne of the above
249. During indirect laryngoscopy:
a) The right and left vocal cords appear reversed
b) The anterior and posterior regions are reversed
c) Both
d) Neither

250. In conductive deafness Weber's test is lateralized to:
a) Deaf ear
b) Normal ear
c) Both ear
d) Any of the above


251. Mastoid infection which erodes through the outer cortex of bone results in:
a) Sub-periosteal abscess
b) Epidural abscess
c) Perichondritis
d) Lateral sinus thrombosis

252. Meniere's disease is characterized by:
a) Deafness
b) Tinnitus
c) Vertigo
d) All of the above

253. A patient with traumatic nasal deformity seen .one month after the injury should
have:
a) Closed reduction as soon as possible
b) Closed reduction in six months
c) Rhinoplasty in six months
d) Rhinoplasty as soon as possible
e) No treatment if nasal airway is adequate

254. The most frequent cause of respiratory allergy is:
a) House dust
b) Smoke
c) Insecticides
d) Atmospheric mold

255. Anesthesia of the larynx may occur with:
a) Diptheria
b) Lead poisoning
c) Multiple sclerosis
d) All of the above

256. Vasodilators in Meniers disease are useful because they
a) dilate lymphatic vessels
b) decrease endolymph secretion
c) increase endolymph reabsorption
d) are of no use

257. Destruction of right labyrinth causes nystagmus to
a) right side
b) left side
c) rotatory nystagmus
d) no nystagmus.

258. Kiss ulcer of larynx is due to
a) Vocal abuse
b) papilloma
c) vocal nodule
d) tuberculosis




259. In majority of the cases with otosclerosis the tympanic membrane is
a) normal
b) flamingo pink
c) blue
d) yellow;

260. The commonest cause of hoarseness of voice in elderly man of more than 3 months
duration
a) cancer larynx
b) chronic bronchitis
c) acute laryngitis
d) nodular goitre

261. Common cold is caused primarily by
a) viruses
b) bacteria
c) fungi
d) allergy

262. Medication which may prevent rapid progress of cochlear otosclerosis is
a) steroids
b) antibiotics
c) fluorides
d) vitamins

263. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is present as
a) epistaxis
b) mass
c) headache
d) vertigo

264. Vestibule is present in all except
a) nose
b) middle ears
c) larynx
d) pharynx

265. Processes chochleaformis attaches to
a) tendon of tensor tympani
b) basal turns of helix
c) handle of malleus
d) incus

266. The cause for contact ulcer in vocal cords is
a) voice abuse
b) smoking
c) TB
d) malignancy




267. Angiofibroma of nose is common in
a) young males
b) young females
c) young adults
d) adolescents of both sexes
268. In maxillary antrum commonest malignancy is
a) squamous cell
b) adenocystic
c) adenocarcinoma
d) transitional cell.

269. In unsafe CSOM with cholesteatoma and sensorineural deafness treatment of
choice is
a) simple mastoidectomy
b) modified radical mastoidectomy
c) radical mastoidectomy
d) tympanoplasty

270. Otospongiosis' is inherited as
a) autosomal dominant
b) X-linked recessive
c) Autosomal recessive
d) X- linked dominant

271. Membrane in throat is caused by
a) streptococcus
b) staphylococcus
c) pneumonia
d) borrelia vincenti.

272. Nerve supply of tympanic membrane is
a) auriculo temporal
b) auriculo branch of vagus
c) lesser occipital
d) greater occipital

273. Senaory nerve supply of middle ear cavity is provided by
a) facial
b) glossopharyngeal
c) vagus
d) trigeminal

274. One of the following is true regarding Zenke’s diverticulum
a) it is asymptomatic
b) occurs in the mid oesophagus
c) treatment is simple excision
d) It occurs in children.
275. One of the following is not a complication of deviated nasal septum
a) inferior turbinate hypertrophy
b) recurrent sphenoiditis
c) recurrent maxillary sinusitis
d) nasal spur

276.Thyroid carcinoma with neck nodes is seen in
a) papillary carcinoma
b) medullary carcinoma
c) anaplastic
d) follicular

277. A3 year old child presents with fever and ear ache. On examination there is
congested tympanic
     membrane with slight bulge. The treatment of choice is:
a) myrigotomy with penicillin
b) myringotomy with grommet
c) only antibiotics
d) wait and watch.

278. CSF Rhinorrhea is common with fractures of
a) cribriform plate
b) frontals
c) sphenoids
d) maxilla.

279. Acoustic dip occurs at
a) 2000 Hz
b) 4000 Hz
c) 500 Hz
d) 1500 Hz.

280. All of the following are indications for tonsillectomy except
a) foreign body tonsils
b) unilateral enlargement of tonsils with suspected malignancy
c) keratin tonsil
d) recurrent quincy
281. The commonest lymph node to enlarge in acute tonsillitis is:
a) Jugulo omohyoid
b) Jugulo digastric
c) Post – cervical
d) Submandibular

282. Lymph mode metastasis in neck is almost never seen with
a) Carcinoma vocal cords
b) supraglottic carcinoma
c) Carcinoma a tonsil
d) Papillary carcinoma thyroid




283. In Maggots of nose the treatment a choice is
a) Liquid puaffin
b) Chloroform water
c) ether
d) acetone

284. Dryness of eyes is caused by injury to facial nerve at
a) chora tympani
b) cerebellopontine angle
c) tympanico canal

285. Recurrent epistaxis is not a common feature of:
a) DNS
b) atrophic rhinitis
c) Nasal polypi
d) maxillary carcinoma

286. In Acute epiglottis, the commonest cause of death is:
a) Acidosis
b) respiratory obstruction
c) atelactasis
d) Laryngospsm

287. Most common cause of unilateral nasal obstruction in children is:
a) foreign body
b) rhinitis
c) carcinoma
d) polyp

288. Meniere desease is manifested by all of the symptoms except:
a) Tinnitus
b) vertigo
c) Deafness
d) Otorrhoea

289. Vocal cord is lined by
a) Stratified columnnar epithelium
b) pseudociliated columnnar epithelium
c) stratified squamous epithelium
d) cuboidal epithelium

290. The lymphatic drainage of pyriform fossa is to
a) upper deep cervical nodes
b) prelaryngeal node
c) parapharyngeal nodes
d) mediastinal nodes




291. Stridor in adults is most commonly caused by
a) Reinke's edema
b) malignancy
c) Acute severe asthma
d) Toxic gas Inhalation

292. Treatment of choice in Juvenile papilloma
a) Surgical excision
b) Cauterisation
c) Antibiotics
d) Radiotherapy

293. The most common cause of unilateral left vocal cord palsy is
a) carcinoma thyroid
b) trauma
c) Carcinoma Esophagus
d) idiopathic

294. Fungus causing otomycosis most commonly is
a) Aspergillus fumigatus
b) Candida
c) Mucor
d) Penicillium

295. The typical characteristic of diptheric membrane is
a) Loosely attached
b) Pearly white in color
c) Firmly attached & bleeds on touch
d) Yellowish in color & proteb1aceous

296. Caloric test has
a) Slow component only
b) fast component only
c) Slow + fast component
d) fast component occasionally

297. Mastoid tip appears at the age of:
a) 1 year
b) 2 Years
c) 3 years
d) 4 Years

298. A patient hears better in Noise. The diagnosis is:
a) Hyperacusis
b) Hypoacusis
c) Presbyacusis
d) Paracusis




299. Bony septal perforation occurs in:
a) T.B.
b) Leprosy
c) Syphlis
d) Sarcoidosis
300. Narrowest part of infantle larynx is
a) supraglottic
b) subglottic
c) glottic
d) None of the above

301. Pneumatocele is seen in fracture of
a) Maxillary sinus
b) frontal sinus
c) Ethamoid sinus
d) Sphenoid

302. Partial recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy produces vocal cord in which position
a) cadaveric
b) abducted
c) adducted
d) paramedian

303. In throat of an adult, not normally seen is
a) Hemophilus
b) streptococcus
c) Neisseria
d) E. coli

304. In otosclerosis dip in audiogram is seen at:
a) 0.5 K Hz.
b) 1.5 K Hz.
c) 2 KHz.
d) 4 K Hz.


305. The Syndrome of sensorineural hearing loss together with hereditary nephritis is
a) Alports syndrome
b) Fabry's syndrome
c) Nail patella syndrome
d) Edward syndrome

306. Commonest cause of hearing loss in chicken is
a) Chronic supportive otitis media
b) Chronic adhesive otitis media
c) acute OM
d) glomus tumour
307. Condition where a pulsatile tumor is found in external auditry meatus which
bleeds to touch.
a) choesteatoma
b) polyp
c) glomus tumor
d) malignancy middle ear

308. Which is the most common cause of bilateral conductive hearing loss in a child of
8 years?
a) Microtia with atresia of external auditory meatus
b) Trauma
c) Otitis media with effusion
d) bony canal

309. Prolonged and repeated use of nasal decongestants leads to
a) Rhinitis medicamentosa
b) Bronchitis
c) Both.
d) None

310. What is the colour of the normal tympanic membrane
a) Pearly white
b) Grey
c) Yellow
d) Red

311. Weber's test in conductive deafness
a) Sound louder in normal ear
b) Sound louder in diseased ear
c) Heard with equal intensity in both ears
d) Inconclusive test

312. Anatomical landmark indicating position of Mastoid antrum:
a) Suprameatal triangle
b) Spine of Henle
c) Tip of the mastoid process
d) None
313. At birth the following structures are of adult size except:
a) Tympanic cavity
b) Mastoid antrum
c) Malleus
d) Tympanic ring

314. The treatment of traumatic rupture of Tympanic membrane is:
a) Conservative
b) Tympanoplasty
c) Mastoidectomy
d) Myringotomy




315. Common cause of Eustachian tube disease is due to:
a) Adenoids
b) Sinusitis
c) Otitis Media
d) Pharyngitis

316. Commonest complication CSOM is
a) Conductive deafness
b) Meningitis
c) Temporal Lobe abscess
d) Cholesteatoma

317. Prolonged exposure to noise levels greater than the following can impair hearing
permanently:
a) 40 decibels
b) 85 decibels
c) 100 decibels
d) 140 decibels

318. Threshold for Bone conduction is decreased and that for air conduction is
increased in disease of
a) Middle ear
b) Inner ear
c) Cochlear nerve
d) temporal Lobe
319. Malignant Otitis externa is caused by
a) S.aureus
b) S.albus
c) P. aeroginosa
d) E.coli

320. Most Common sinusitis in children is
a) Frontal
b) Ethmoidal
c) Maxillary
d) Sphenoid

321. Stridor is caused by all except
a) hyocalcomla
b) Asthma.
c) Epiglptitis
d) Largyngeal tumor


322. In a case of glottic carcinoma with fully mobile cords, the treatment of choice is
a) Total laryngectomy
b) Radio therapy
c) hemilaryngectomy
d) Chemotherapy




323. All of the following are true of Sub-mucous resection (SMR) operation for DNS
except
a) Indicated in septal deviation
b) Mucoperichondrium is removed
c) Preferably done after 16 years of age
d) Done in some cases of epistaxis

324. The most common cause of cerebrospinal otorrhoea is:
a) Rupture of tympanic membrane
b) Fracture of petrous ridge
c) Fracture of mastoid air cells
d) Fracture of parietal bone.
325. Primary replacement in a bone is done with
a) Lower alvoelar Ca in middle arch of mandible
b) Lower alveolar ca in ramus mandible
c) Maxiliary Ca
d) Ca tongue near the mandible

326. Immediate treatment of CSF Rhinorrhoea require
a) Antibiotics & observation
b) Plugging with paraffin gauge
c) Blowing of nose
d) Craniotomy

327. Ideal treatment of Rhinosporidiosis is
a) Rifampicin
b) Exclsslon with cautery at base
c) Dapasone
d) Laser

328. Ethmoidal sinusitis is more common with
a) Fire workers
b) Wood Workers
c) Chimney smokers
d) None

329. All the following cause membranous pharyngitis except
a) Adenovirus
b) Streptoccal
c) Ludvigs angina
d) Diphtheria

330. 2-yrs old child present with bilateral nasal obstruction on examination there is a
greyish pink mass
      the next investigation of choice
a) FNAC
b) Biopsy
c) Anterior rhinostomy
d) CT scan




331. Radical mastoidectomy involves all steps except
a)   Lowering of facial ridge
b)   Scrapping of middle ear mucosa
c)   Opening of eustachian tube to promote drainage
e)   Removal of all ossicle except foot plate of stapes

332. All are manifestations of meniere's disease, except
a) Tinnitus
b) Vertigo
c) Sensorineural deafness
d) loss of consciousness

333. IDDM patient presents with septal perforation of nose with brownish black
discharge probable
    diagnosis is
a) Rhinosporidiosis
b) Midline granuloma
c) Leprosy
d) Mucor myocis

334. Commonest presentation of Nasopharyngeal Ca is
a) Bleeding per nose
b) Dysphagia.
c) Breathlessness
d) Cervical adenopathy

335. frature Zygoma shows all the features except
a) Diplopa
b) CSF rhinorhoea
c) Epistaxis
d) Trimus

336. Frontal mucocele presents as
a) Swelling above medial canthus, below the floor of frontal sin
b) Swelling above eyebrowisteral to grabella
c) External proptosis
d) Intlanasal swelling

337. Treatment of choice for anterochoanal polyp in a 10yr old child
a) Caldwell luc's
b) Intranasal polypectomy
c) Conservative treatment till 16,years
d) Exploratory rhinotomy
338. True statement about malignant external otitis is
a) Not painful
b) Common in diabetics & old age
c) Caused by streptococcus
d) All of the above




339. True statement about infraglottic carcinoma larynx
a) Commonly spreads to mediastinal nodes
b) Second most common carcinoma
c) Most common carcinoma
d) Spreads to submental nodes

340. All statement about plummer winson syndrome are true except
a) Commonly leads to carcinoma In lower third of esophagus
b) Commonly with iron deficiency
c) Common In females
d) Pema1igf0'8nt

341. A child with ottitis media not responding to ampicillin presents with bulging
membrane with dull
     look treatment of choice
a) Ciprqfloxacin
b) Mastoidectomy
c) Myringotomy
d) Grommet insertion

342. For carcinoma larynx stage III Treatment of choice
a) Radiotherapy and Surgery,
b) Chemotherapy with cisplatinum
c) Partial laryngectomy with chemotherapy
d) Radiotherapy with chemotherapy

343. Deep lobe of parotid is related to
a) Palatine tonsil
b) Pharyngeal tonsil
c) Soft palate
d) Angle of mandible
344. Facial Nerve Palsy due to trauma [Immediate onset], treatment of choice is
a) Masterly inactivity
b) Decompresseion
c) High dose steroids
d) Elevation of mandible with nerve repair

345. Cone of light is formed by
a) Anterior malleolar fold
b) Handle of malleus
c) Antero inferior quadrant
d) pars tensa and pars flacida

346. Reinke's oedema is seen in
a) vestibular folds
b) edges of vocal cords
c) between true & false vocal cords
d) in pyriform fossa




347. Gelle's test is done in
a) Senile deafness
b) Traumatic deafness
c) Otosclerosis
d) Serous otitis media

348. Site where endolymph is seen
a) Scala vestibuli
b) Scala media
c) Helicotrema
d) Organ of corti

349. Acoustic neuroma of 1 cm diameter, the Investigation of choice:
a) CT Scan
b) MRI Scan
c) Plain X-ray Skull
d) Air encephalography

350. The ideal time for operation of quincy after an attack of acute tonsilitis is
a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 12 weeks

351. Frontonasal duct opens into
a) Inferior meatus
b) middle meatus
c) superioi meatus
d) Inferior turbinate

352. Which air cells do not open into middle meatus
a) Frontal
b) Anterior ethmoidal
c) osterior ethmoidal cells
d) maxillary Sinus

353. Oblique and horizontal fracture of nasal septum is called as _____ fracture
a) Jarjavah
b) Arnold
c) cittelli
d) thudiclum

354. Schwartz operations is also called
a) cortical mastoidectomy
b) simple mastoidectomy
c) Radical mastoidectomy
d) Modified radicalmastodeqtomy




355. Which artery does not contribute to little's area?
a) Anterior ethmoidal Artery
b) septal branch of facial artery
c) sphenopalatine artery
d) posterior ethmoidal artery

356. Narrowest part of middle ear
a) epitympanum
b) hypotympanum
c) anterior tympanum
d) Mesotympanum

357. Material used in Tympanoplasty
a) temporalis fascia
b) cartilage
c) Muscle
d) mucous membrane

358. Inner ear is present in which bone
a) occipital
b) petrous part of temporal bone
c) squamous part of temporal
d) parietal bone

359. What is called hyperaccusis
a) Normal sounds are heard as loud and painful
b) completely deaf
c) only very loud sounds are heard
d) Ability to hear in noisy surroundings.

360. Cahart's notch is characteristically seen at
a) 1000 hz
b) 2000 hz
c) 4000 hz
d) 6000 hz

361. Ethmoidal sinus adenocarcinoma is seen most often in
a) Wood workers
b) chimney sweeper
c) Nickel industry
d) Leather industry

362. In blast injury most common organ affected
a) eardrum
b) stomach
c) lungs
d) All of the above




363. Vidian neurotomy is done in
a)   Vasomotor Rhinitis
b)   Rhinitis Sicca
c)   allergic sinusitis
d)   Epistaxis

364. The most mobile part at the tympanic membrane
a) central
b) peripheral
c) both
d) none of the above

365. A 10 year old boy presents with nasal obstruction and intermittent profuse
epistaxis. He has a
    firm pinkish mass in the nasopharynx. All pf the following investigations are
indicated in this case
    EXCEPT
a) x-ray base of skull
b) Carotid angiography
c) CT scan
d) Biopsy

366. All of the following are the features of cholesteatoma except
a) Filled with Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
b) Deafness
c) erodes bone
d) Lymphatic permeation

367 Pulsatile otorrhea seen in
a) Glomus tumour
b) CSF otorrhea
c) ASOM
d) Fistula

368. Commonest cause of deafness is
a) Trauma
b) wax
c) Acute mastoiditis
d) Meniere's disease

369. Acute mastoiditis is characterized by all except
a) Clouding of air cells
b) Obliteration of retroauricularsulcus
c) Deaf'1ess
d) Outward & downward deviation of the pinna

370. Mc Evans triangle is the landmark for:
a) Maxillary sinus
b) mastoid antrum
c) Frontal sinus
d) none




371. Commonest site of Ivory osteoma
a) Fronto-ethmodial region
b) Mandible
c) Sphenoid
d) Maxilla

372. Monoaural diplacusis is present in a lesion of
a) Acoustic nerve
b) Pontine glioma
c) Cochlea
d) efferent auditory neurons

373. Following is an ototoxic drug -
a) Tetracycline
b) Vincristine
c) Ampicillin
d) Pencillin

374. Pain in post 1/3 tongue after tonsillectomy indicates injury to
a) VII nerve
b) IX nerve
c) V nerve
d) XII nerve

375. Sphenoidal sinus opens into:
a) Inferior meatus
b) Middle meatus
c) Superior meatus
d) Sphenoethmoidal recess

376. Organ of corti is situated
a)   Scala media
b)   S.Tympanum
c)   S. vestibule
d)   Saccule

377. Most common congenital cause of stridor is
a) Laryngeal web
b) Laryngeal atresia
c) Laryngomalacia
d) Laryngeaf polyp
e) Ca larynx

378. Otosclerosis affects
a) Round window
b) Oval window
c) Utricle
d) Ossicles
e) Tympanic membrane




379. True about tracheostomy tube are all except
a) Double tube
b) Made of titanium silver alloy
c) Cuffed tube for IPPV
d) Has to be changed ideally in every 2 to 3 days

380. Alkaline douch solution of Nose does not contain
a) Nacl
b) Na borate
c) NaHCo3
d) Glucose

381. Commonest occurrence of acoustic neuroma is in
a) Cochlear nerve
b) Superior vestibular nerve
c) Facial nerve
d) Inferior vestibular nerve

382. Allodynia is
a) Increased perception of painful stimulus
b) Perception of non painful stimulus as pain
c) Pain felt as abnormal sensation
d) None

383. Most common congenital anomaly of larynx
a) Laryngeal web
b) Laryngomalacia
c) Laryngeal stenosis
d) Vocal and pals

384. Perforation of anterior septum is commonly seen in
a) Chrome toxicity
b) Syphilis
c) Leprosy
d) Lupus vulgaris

385. Regarding atrophic rhinitis which is incorrect
a) Common in females
b) Seen at 50-60 years of life
c) Due to chronic nasal drops
d) Anosmia,

386. Which of the following is not a feature of rhinosporidosis
a) Bleeding polyp
b) Russel bodies are seen
c) Oral dapsone is useful in treatment
d) Excision with the knife is the treatment




387. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is seen is
a) Rhinolalia clausa
b) Rhinolalia aperta
c) Hotpotato voice
d) Scatacto voice

388. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares in
a) Atrophic rhinitis
b) Rhinosporidosis
c) Deviated nasal septum
d) Hypertrophied inferior turbinate
389. Dyshonia plica ventricularis is producing sound with
a) True cords
b) False cords
c) Ventricle
d) Buccal walis

390. A patient with Furuncle of Ear is presented. What is the commonest method of
treatment?
a) Ear pack with 10% Ichthamol in glycerine wick
b) Antibiotic and rest
c) Antibiotic and drainage
d) Analgesic

391. 68 year old Chandu is a diabetic and presented with black, foul smelling discharge
from the nose.
     Examination revealed blackish discoloration of the inferior turbinate. The
diagnosis is
a) Mucor mycosis
b) Aspergillosi
c) Infarct of inferior turbinate
d) Foreign body

392. Regarding steapedial reflex, which of the following is true
a) It helps to enhance the sound conduction in middle ear
b) It is a protective reflex against loud sound
c) It helps in masking the sound waves
d) It is unilateral reflex

393. Reinki's layer seen in
a) Vocal cord
b) Tympanic membrane
c) Cochlea
d) Reissner's membrane

394. All are true about sinusitis except
a) Blood stained rhinorrhoea
b) Diplopia
c) Nasal blockage
d) Facial oedema
395. Bell's palsy not responding to steroid. What will be the further line of
management?
a) Increase the dose of steroid
b) Vasodilators and ACTH decompression
c) Surgical
d) Electrical nerve stimulation

396. Route of approach of glossopharyngeal neurectomy
a) Tonsilectomy approach
b) Transpalatal approach
c) Transmandibular approach
d) Transpharyngeal approach

397. Most common cause of stridor in newborn is
a) Foreign body aspiration
b) Laryngo malacia
c) Pneumonia
d) Epiglottis

398. Schwartze operation is done in
a) CSOM
b) Serous otitis media
c) Otosclerosis
d) Acute mastoiditis

399. Which of the following is a precancerous lesion?
a) Pachydermia of larynx
b) Laryngitis sicca
c) Keratosis of larynx
d) Scleroma larynx

400. A patient presents with complaints of epistaxis. On examination there is no active
bleeding. He is
 found to have a pulse rate of 96/mt and Blood Pressure of 200/100. What is the
treatment of
 choice?
a) Anterior nasal packing
b) Anterior and posterior nasal packing
c) Observe the patient
d) Give nitroprusside to reduce BP
401. 10 year old boy is having sensorineural deafness, not benefited by hearing aids.
Next best
management is:
a) Cochlear implant
b) Stapes fixation
c) Stapedectomy
d) Fenestration

402. A patient who had undergone tooth extraction for dental caries, presents with
swelling in posterior
 pan of middle 1/3 of sternomastoid and tonsil is pushed medially. The diagnosis is
a) Retropharyngeal abscess
b) Parapharyngeal abscess
c) Ludwig's angina
d) Vincent's angina

403. Mouse - nibbled appearance of vocal cord
a) TB
b) Syphillis
c) Cancer
d) Papilloma

404. Flat tympanogram is a feature of
a) Ossicular discontinuity
b) Serous otitis media
c) Perforation of eardrum
d) Otosclerosis
e) CSOM

405. Regarding laryngea1paplllomu which of the following is/are true?
a) Single
b) Multiple
c) Seen in children
d) Recurrent
e) Associated with HPV

406. 40 db compared to 20 db is
a) Double
b) 10 times
c) 100 times
d) 1000 times
407. The quality of voice in a patient with gross adenoid hypertrophy is described as:
a) Hoarse
b) Rhinolalia clausa
c) Rhinolalia aperta
d) ‘Hot Potato’ voice

408. Reinke’s oedema is:
a) Oedema of the Uvula
b) Oedema of the free margin of the vocal cord
c) Oedema of the Ventricular band
d) Cyst of the Ventricle of the Larynx


409. In a classical case of Meniere’s disease which one of the following statement is true
a) Carhart’s Notch is a characteristic feature in pure tone audiogram
b) Schwartz’s sign is usually present in the Tympanic Membrane
c) Low frequency sensory neural deafness is often seen in pure tone audiogram
d) Decompression of Fallopian Canal is the treatment of choice

410. Tuberculous laryngitis affects primarily
a) Anterior commissure
b) Posterior commissure of larynx
e) Anywhere with the larynx
c) Superior surface of larynx




411. Pulsatile Tinnitus in ear is due to
a) Malignant otitis modes
b) Osteoma
c) Mastoid reservoir
d) Glomus jugulare tumour

412. Hiatus semilunaris is present in
a) Superior meatus
b) Middle meatus
c) Inferior meatus
d) Spenoethmoidal recess

413. In indirect laryngoscopy, seen is
a)   Base of tonsil
b)   Pyriform fossa
c)   Glottis
e)   Sub glottis

414. Ideal site for myringotomy and grommet insertion
a) Anterior superior quadrant
b) Anterior inferior quadrant
c) Posterior superior
d) Posterior inferior

415. Tone decay test is done for
a) Cochlear deafness
b) Neural deafness
c) Middle ear problem
d) Otosclerosis

416. Toby Ayer test is done for
a) Lateral sinus thrombosis
b) Glue ear
c) Asom
d) Otosclerosis

417. Definitive diagnosis of sinusitis is by
a) Transillumination
b) Endoscopy
c) X- ray
d) Proof puncture

418. Which one of the following lesions of vocal cord is dangerous to life?
a) Bilateral adductor paralysis
b) Bilateral abductor paralysis
c) Combined paralysis of left side superior and recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) Superior laryngeal nerve paralysis




419. Young's operation is done for
a) Allergic rhinitis
b) Atropic rhinitis
c) Vasomotor rhinitis
d) Idiopathic rhinitis

420. In pure tone audiogram, the symbol X is used to mark
a) Air conduction in right ear
b) Air conduction in left ear
c) Bone conduction in right ear
d) No change in air conduction in right ear

421. Mikulicz cells & Russel bodies are characteristic of
a) Rhinoscleroma
b) Rhinosporidiosis
c) Plasma cell disorder
d) Lethal midline granuloma

422. True about laryngomalacia
a) Most common cause of congenital stridor
b) Inspiratory stridor normal on crying
c) Prone position worsens condition
d) 50% of patients
e) Omega shaped epiglottis

423. Sensorineural deafness is seen in,
a) Alport's syndrome
b) Usher's syndrome
c) Pendred's syndrome
d) Kallmarin's syndrome
e) Treacher Coliin syndrome

424. Most common complication of acute otitis media in children
a) Deafness
b) Chronic mastoiditis
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Facial nerve palsy

425. Rinnie's test is negative if deafness is
a) 15 - 20 dB
b) 25 - 30 dB
c) 35 - 40 dB
d) 15 – 50 dB

426. Which is not a part of hypopharynx?
a)   Posterior cricoid region
b)   Ary epiglottic folds
c)   Posterior pharyngeal wall
d)   Pyriform fossa




427. Ground glass appearance on X - ray is seen in
a) Inverted papilloma
b) Ossifying fibroma of antrum
c) Septal angiofibroma
d) Osteoclastoma

428. Latest treatment in BPPV is
a) Intralabrynthine streptomycin
b) Intralabrynthine steroids
c) Valsava manouvre
d) Osteoclastoma

429. Which is not done in Septoplasty?
a) Elective hypotension
b) Throat pack
c) Nasal preparation With 10% cocaine
d) All

430. After tonsillectomy, secondary hemorrhage occurs
a) Within 24 hours
b) After 2 weeks
c) 5 - 10 post operative days
d) After 1 month

431. The position adopted for tonsillectomy is also adopted for this procedure. (Rose
Position).
a) Direct laryngoscopy
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Tracheostomy
d) Indirect laryngoscopy

432. Facial nerve palsy is seen in this condition.
a) Seborrhoeic otitis externa
b) Otomycosis
c) Malignant otitis externa
d) Eczematous otitis externa

433. Griesinger's sign is seen in
a) lateral sinus thrombosis
b) Meningitis
c) Brain abscess
d) Cerebellar abscess

434. Choana is
a) Anterior nares
b) Posterior nares
c) Junction of cartilageous and bony external canal
d) Maxillary antrum




435. Thudichum's nasal speculum is used to visualize
a) anterior nasal cavity
b) Posterior nares
c) Tonsils
d) Larynx

436. Carharts notch is audiogram is deepest frequency of:
a) 0.5 KHz
b) 2 KHz
c) 4 KHz
d) 8 KHz

437. Type I thyroplasty is for:
a) Vocal cord medialization
b) Vocal cord lateralization
c) Vocal cord shortening
d) Vocal cord lengthening

438. A 31 year old female patient complaints of bilateral impairment of hearing for the
past 5 years.
On examination, tympanic membrane is normal and audiogram shows a bilateral
conductive deafness. Impedance audiometry shows as type of curve and acoustic
reflexes are absent. All constitute part of treatment, EXCEPT:
a) Hearing aid
b) Stapedectomy
c) Sodium fluoride
d) Gentamycin

439. The etiology of anterior ethmoidal neuralgia is:
a) Inferior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
b) Middle turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
c) Superior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
d) Causing obstruction of sphenoid opening

440. Persistent bucconasal membrane results in:
a) Cleft lip
b) Choanalatresia
c) Cleft plate
d) T. O fistula

441. Prussack's space is situated in
a) Epitympanum
b) Mesotympanum
c) Hypotympanum
d) Ear canal

442. FESS means
a) Factual endoscopic sinus surgery
b) Functional endonasalsinus surgery
c) Factualendona.sal sinus surgery
d) Functional endoscopic sinus surgery


443. Direction of water jet while doing syringing of ear should be
a) Anterior
b) Posterior
c) Anterosuperior
d) Posteroinferior

444. Contraindications to tonsitectomy are all except:
a) Submucus fibrosis
b) Bleeding disorders
c) Epedemic of polio
d) Tonsititls

445. Following statements are true about otitis media with effusion in a child:
a)   Immediate myringotomy is done
b)   Type B tympanogram
c)   The effusion of middle ear is sterile
d)   Most common of deafness in a child in day care patients

446. Early mediators of allergic rhinitis are:
a) Leukotriene
b) IL – 4
c) IL – 5
d) Bradykinin
e) PAF

447. True about larynx in neonate:
a) Epiglottis is large and omega shaped
b) Cricoid narrowest part
c) It extends C 4, 5, 6
d) Tongue is small in comparison to oral cavity
e) Funnel shaped

448. Ankylosis of temporomandibular Joint is caused by:
a) Septic arthritis
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Fracture of condyl of mandible
d) Prolonged fixation of mandible
e) Osteoarthritis

449. Complications of acute sinusitis:
a) Orbital cellulites
b) Pott’s puffy tumour
c) Conjunctival chemosis
d) Subdural abscess

450. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery is indicated in:
a) Allergic polyps
b) Frontoethmoidal mucocele
c) Inverted papilloma
d) Maxillary polyp
e) Mucoromycocis

451. CSF - Rhinorrhoea is associated with fractures of:
a) Nasal bone
b) Zygomatic bone
c) Mandibular bon
d) Frontoethmoidal fracture
e) Lefort - I

452. All of the following are pneumatic bones except
a) Maxilla
b) Parietal
c) Ethmoid
d) Mastoid

453. Which of the following is not the site for paraganglioma?
a) Carotid bifurcation
b) Jugular foramen
c) Promontory in middle car
d) Geniculate ganglion

454. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for
rehabilitation of patient who
has bilateral profound deafness following surgery for bilateral acoustic schwannoma?
a) Bilateral high powered digital hearing AID
b) Bilateral cochlear implants
c) Unilateral cochlear implant
d) Brain stem implant

455. Collar stud abscess is seen in
a) Pyogenic cervical abscess
b) Peritonsillar abscess
c) Retropharyngeal abscess
d) TB lymphadenitis

456. Septoplasty indications are:
a) DNS with nasal obstruotion
b) Chronic sinusitis
c) Sluder's neuralgia
d) Obstructive sleep apnea

457. Adenotonsillectomy contraindications are:
a) <3 years
b) Polio epldemic
c) Obstructive sleep apnea
d) Hemophilia
e) Recent URTI
458. Endoscopic nasal surgery Indicated in
a) Chronic sinusitis
b) Epistaxis
c) Both
d) None




459. Inferior turbinate is a
a) Part of maxilla
b) Part of Sphenoid
c) Separate bone
d) Part of ethmoid

460. Chorditis Tuberosa is
a) syphilitic lesion of ear cartilage
b) Chronic laryngitis
c) Tuberculosis infection of ear cartilage
d) Infection of cartilage of pinna of ear

461. Site of origin of angiofibroma
a) Roof of nasopharynx
b) Anterior wall of sphenoid bone
c) Posterior part of nasal cavity close to the sphenopalatine ganglion
d) Lateral wall of nasal canary

462. Laryngofissure is
a) Opening the larynx in midline
b) Making window in thyroid cartilage
c) Removal of arytenoids
d) Removal of epiglottis

463. Main treatment of congenital laryngeal stridor is
a) Tracheostomy
b) Steroid therapy
c) Reassurance to the child's parents
d) Amputating epiglottis

464. Commonest site of origin of nasopharyngeal-carcinoma is?
a) Lateral lingual
b) Base of tongue
c) Tonsillar bed
d) All

465. A child presents with barotrauma pain. There is no inflammation of middle ear
the management is
a) Anitibiotic
b) Paracetaml
e) Supportive
c) Grommet tube insertion

466. Ear is sensitive to which frequency of sound
a) 500- 3500 Hz
b) 1000 - 3000 Hz
c) 3000 - 5000 Hz
d) 5000 - 8000 Hz




467. Tuberculous otitis media is characterized by all except
a) Multiple perforations
b) Pale granulations
c) Ear aohe
d) Thin odourless flyuid

468. Motion sickness cannot be prevented by
a) Promethazine
b) Asthemizole
c) Hyoscine
d) Buclizine

469. In acoustic neuroma, the earliest ocular finding is
a) Diplopia
b) Ptosis
c) Loss of pupillary reflex
d) Loss of corneal

470. Most common cause of stridor shortly after birth is:
a) Laryngeal papilloma
b) Laryngeal web
c) Laryngomalacia
d) Higher function disorder
471. Most common location of vocal nodule:
a) Anterior 1/3 & posterior 2/3 junction
b) Anterior commisure
c) Posterior 1/3 & anterior 2/3 junction
d) Posterior commisure

472. All of the following cause a grey – white membrane in the throat except
a) Streptococcal tonsillitis
b) Diphtheria
c) Ludwig's angina
d) Adenovirus pharyngitis.

473. Palatal Myoclonus is seen in:
a) Epiiepsy
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Cerebellar infarction
d) Guillain Barre syndrome

474. Craniofacial dissociation is seen in
a) Le forts-1 fracture
b) Le forts-2 fracture
c) Le forte -3 fracture
d) Tripoid fracture




475. Steeple sign is seen in:
a) Croup
b) Acute epiglottitis
c) Laryngomalacla
d) Quinsy

476. Arterial blood supply to Little's Area is from the following except
a) Sphenopalatine artery
b) Anterior ethmoidal artery
c) Superior labial artery
d) Greater palatine artery

477. The most common complication of chronic suppurative otitis media is
a)   Meningitis
b)   Intracerebral abscess
c)   Cholesteatoma
d)   Conductive deafness

478. The most common cause of vocal cord palsy is
a) Total thyroidectomy
b) Bronchogenic carcinoma
c) Aneurysm of aorta
d) Tubercular lymph nodes

479. Earlist sign seen in Acoustic neuroma is
a) Facial weakness
b) Unilateral deafness
c) Reduced corneal reflex
d) Cerebellar signs

480. Common cause of eustachian tube diseases is due to
a) Adenoids
b) Sinusitis
c) Otitis Media
d) Pharyngitis.

481. Schwartz sign seen in:
a) Glomus Jugulars
b) Otosclerosis
c) Meniere's diseases
d) Acoustic neuroma

482. What are the features of pontine angle lesions.
a) Deafness
b) Vertigo
c) Tinnitus
d) Comeal sensitively lost
e) Horner's syndrome

483. Complication of total thyroidectomy includes all except:
a) Hoarseness
b) Airway obstruction
c) Hemorrhage
d) Hypercalcemia
484. Ceruminous glands present in the ear are:
a) Modified eccrine glands
b) Modified apocrine glands
c) Mucous gland
d) Modified holocrine gland

485. In normal adult wave V is generated from
a) Cochlear nucleus
b) Superior olivary complex
c) Lateral leminiscus
d) Inferior colliculus

486. Maintenance of airway during laryngectomy in a patient with carcinoma of larynx
is best done by
a) Tracheostomy
b) Laryngenal mask airway
c) Laryngeal tube
d) Combi tube

487. Acoustic neuroma commonly arise from:
a) Superior - vestibular nerve
b) Inferior - vestibular nerve
c) Cochlear nerve
d) Facial nerve

488. Citelli’s angle is:
a) Sold angle
b) CP angle
c) Sinodural angle
d) Part of Mac Evans triangle

489. A patient presented with a 3.5 cm size lymph node enlargement, which was hard
and present in the
     submandibular region. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion.
The next
      investigation to be done:
a) Chest x ray
b) Triple endoscopy
c) Supra vital oral mucosa staining
d) Laryngoscopy
490. A 10 year old boy developed hoarseness of voice following an, attack of
diphtheria. On examination,
     his Rt vocal cord was paralysed. The treatment of choice for paralysed vocal cord
will be:
a) Gel foam injection of right vocal cord.
b) Fat injection of right vocal cord;
c) Thyroplasty - Type - I
d) Wait for spontaneous recovery of vocal cord.

491. The current treatment of choice for a large Antro-choanal polyp in a 30 year old
man is:
a) Intranasal polypectomy.
b) Caldwell Luc operation.
c) E.S.S. (Endoscopic sinus surgery)
d) Lateral Rhinotomv and excision.

492. Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following
membrane:
a) Thyrohyoid.
b) Cricothyroid.
c) Crico-tracheal.
d) Cricosternal.

493. The-most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present time is:
a) Transcranial.
b) Transethmoidal.
c) Transphenoidal.
d) Transcallosal.

494. Chondritis of aural cartilage is most commonly due to
a) Staphylococcus
b) Pseudomonas
c) cardida
d) Both Staph & Pseudomonas

495. Isshiki thyroplasty type I is
a) Lateralisation of the vocal cord
b) Shortening of the vocal cord
c) Medialisation of the vocal cord
d) Lengthening of the vocal cord

496. Periodicity is a characteristic feature in which sinus infection
a)   Maxillary sinus infection
b)   Frontal sinus infection
c)   Sphenoid sinus infection
d)   Ethmoid Sinus infection

497. A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and
right vocal cord,
 developed perichondritis of thyroid cartilage. Which of the following statements is
true for the
 management of this case?
a) He should be given radical radiotherapy as this can cure earlytumours.
b) He should be treated with combination of chemotherapy & radiotherapy.
c) He should first receive radiotherapy and if residual tumour is present then should under
go laryngectomy.
d) He should first undergo laryngectomy and then post-operative radiotherapy.

498. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus
mycoses?
a) Aspergillus spp.
b) Histoplasma.
c) Conidiobolus coronatus.
d) Candida albicans.

499. What is the treatment for Benign Positional Vertigo?
a) Vestibular exercises
b) Vestibular sedatives
c) anthistamines
d) Diuretics

500. All of the following are of the size of adult at birth expect?
a) Tympanic annulus
b) Ossicles
c) Tympanic annulus
d) Mastoid cavity

501. At what angle is hall pike thermal caloric test done
a) 15°
b) 30°
c) 45o
d) 60o

502. The focal length of the mirror used in head lamp
a)   85 mm
b)   150 mm
c)   250 mm
d)   400 mm

503. Fluctuating recurring variable sensorineural deafness is seen in
a) Serous otitis media
b) Heamotympanum
c) Perilabyrinthine fistula
d) Labrinthine concussion

504. Which of the following is the most common cause of tonsillitis in children?
a) Follicular
b) Atrophic
c) Hypertrophic
d) Parenchymatous

505. Maxilta acheives maximum size at
a) At birth
b) At primary dentition
c) At secondary dentition
d) At puberty




506. Surface area of tympanic membrance
a) 55 m2
b) 70 m2
c) 80 m2
d) 4.90 m2

507. Cauliflower ear is
a) Keloid
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Perchondritis in Boxers
d) Anaplastic cell.carcinoma

508. Most common site for the initiation of otosclerosis is
a) Foot plate of stapes
b)     Margins of stapes
c)     Fossula antefenestrum
d)     Fossula post fenestrum

509. Tegmen seperates middle ear from the middle cranial fossa containing temporal
lobe of brain by
a) Medical wall of middle ear
b) Lateral wall of middle ear
c) Roof of middle ear
d) Anterior wall of middle ear

510. Inner ear bony labrynth is
a) Strongest bone in the body
b) Cartilagenous bone
c) Cancellous bone
d) Membranous bone

511. Tuning fork of 512 FPS is used to test the hearing because it is
a) Better heard
b) better felt
c) Produces over tones
d) Not heard.


 1.                                                                                   a
 2.                                                                                  d
 3.                                                                                   a
 4.                                                                                   e
 5.                                                                                   a
 6.                                                                                  d
 7.                                                                                  ab
 8.                                                                                  b
 9.                                                                                   c
 10.                                                                                  a
 11.                                                                                  a
 12.                                                                                 d
 13.                                                                                  a
 14.                                                                                  a
 15.                                                                                  a
 16.                                                                                  c
 17.                                                                                 d
 18.                                                                                 d
19.    b
20.     a
21.    b
22.    b
23.     c
24.    d
25.    b
26.     c
27.     a
28.     a
29.    b
30.     a
31.     a
32.    d
33.    d
34.     c
35.     a
36.    b
37.    b
38.    b
39.     c
40.     a
41.     a
42.     c
43.   abc
44.    ac
45.     a
46.    b
47.    b
48.    b
49.     c
50.    b
51.    b
52.     c
53.    b
54.    b
55.    d
56.    b
57.    b
58.     c
59.     c
60.     c
61.      b
62.       c
63.      d
64.      b
65.      ab
66.      d
67.     abd
68.    abcd
69.      cd
70.       a
71.      b
72.       a
73.      d
74.      ab
75.      ab
76.      b
77.      b
78.     abd
79.      bc
80.     abc
81.      b
82.       a
83.      b
84.       a
85.       a
86.       a
87.      b
88.     bcd
89.      b
90.      b
91.       a
92.      b
93.       a
94.      d
95.      b
96.      d
97.      d
98.      b
99.       a
100.      a
101.      c
102.      c
103.    d
104.     a
105.    b
106.    b
107.     a
108.    ac
109.    d
110.     c
111.    d
112.     c
113.     a
114.     a
115.    bc
116.    b
117.    d
118.    ac
119.    ad
120.   abc
121.    ab
122.    b
123.    b
124.    b
125.    d
126.     a
127.     a
128.    d
129.    b
130.     a
131.    b
132.    d
133.    b
134.     a
135.     a
136.     c
137.     c
138.    d
139.     c
140.     a
141.    d
142.    b
143.     a
144.    b
145.    d
146.    d
147.    d
148.    c
149.    b
150.    d
151.    b
152.    c
153.    c
154.    d
155.    c
156.    b
157.    d
158.    c
159.    a
160.    b
161.    b
162.    a
163.    d
164.    b
165.   All
166.    b
167.   ab
168.    c
169.    c
170.    b
171.    b
172.    d
173.    c
174.    c
175.    a
176.    b
177.    d
178.    b
179.    c
180.    a
181.    d
182.    b
183.    d
184.    b
185.    d
186.    a
187.    d
188.    d
189.     c
190.     a
191.     c
192.     c
193.     c
194.    d
195.     c
196.    b
197.     e
198.     c
199.    d
200.    d
201.     e
202.    b
203.    d
204.     a
205.    ab
206.    b
207.    d
208.    b
209.    de
210.    d
211.     e
212.     e
213.    d
214.    d
215.     c
216.    d
217.     c
218.    d
219.    d
220.    d
221.   ace
222.    d
223.    b
224.    d
225.    b
226.     a
227.     c
228.   abd
229.   d
230.   b
231.   b
232.    c
233.    e
234.    a
235.   d
236.    a
237.    c
238.   d
239.   b
240.   d
241.   b
242.   b
243.   d
244.   b
245.    e
246.   b
247.    a
248.   b
249.   b
250.    a
251.    a
252.   d
253.    e
254.    a
255.   ac
256.    c
257.   b
258.   d
259.    a
260.    a
261.    a
262.    c
263.   b
264.   b
265.    a
266.    a
267.    a
268.    a
269.   b
270.    a
271.    a
272.   ab
273.   b
274.    c
275.   b
276.    a
277.    a
278.    a
279.   b
280.    a
281.   b
282.    a
283.   b
284.   d
285.    c
286.   b
287.    a
288.   d
289.    c
290.    a
291.   b
292.    a
293.    a
294.    a
295.    c
296.    c
297.   b
298.   d
299.    c
300.   b
301.   b
302.   d
303.   d
304.    c
305.    a
306.   b
307.    c
308.    c
309.    a
310.    a
311.   b
312.    a
313.   b
314.    a
315.    a
316.    a
317.    c
318.    a
319.    c
320.    c
321.   b
322.   b
323.   b
324.   b
325.    a
326.    a
327.   b
328.   b
329.    a
330.   d
331.    c
332.   d
333.   d
334.   d
335.   b
336.    a
337.   b
338.   b
339.    a
340.    a
341.    c
342.    a
343.    a
344.   b
345.   b
346.   b
347.    c
348.   b
349.   b
350.    c
351.    a
352.    c
353.    a
354.   ab
355.   d
356.   d
357.   a
358.   b
359.   a
360.   b
361.   a
362.   a
363.   a
364.   a
365.   d
366.   d
367.   c
368.   b
369.   d
370.   b
371.   a
372.   c
373.   b
374.   b
375.   d
376.   a
377.   c
378.   b
379.   d
380.   d
381.   b
382.   a
383.   b
384.   b
385.   c
386.   b
387.   a
388.   c
389.   b
390.   a
391.   a
392.   b
393.   a
394.   b
395.   c
396.   a
397.    b
398.    d
399.     c
400.    d
401.     a
402.    b
403.     a
404.    b
405.   bcde
406.    b
407.    b
408.    b
409.     c
410.    b
411.    d
412.    b
413.   bcd
414.    b
415.    b
416.     a
417.    d
418.    b
419.    b
420.    b
421.     a
422.    ab
423.   abce
424.     a
425.     a
426.    b
427.     c
428.     a
429.     c
430.     c
431.     c
432.     c
433.     a
434.    b
435.     a
436.    b
437.     a
438.    d
439.     b
440.     b
441.      a
442.     d
443.     d
444.     d
445.    bcd
446.    acd
447.    abe
448.    abc
449.   abcd
450.    abd
451.     d
452.     b
453.      c
454.     d
455.     d
456.     ad
457.   abde
458.      a
459.      c
460.      c
461.      c
462.      a
463.      c
464.      c
465.      c
466.      a
467.      c
468.     b
469.     d
470.      c
471.      a
472.     d
473.      c
474.      c
475.      a
476.     d
477.     d
478.      a
479.      c
480.     d
481.     b
482.   abcd
483.     d
484.     b
485.     d
486.     a
487.     a
488.     c
489.     b
490.     d
491.     c
492.     a
493.     c
494.     b
495.     d
496.     b
497.     d
498.     a
499.     a
500.     d
501.     b
502.     c
503.     c
504.     a
505.     c
506.     b
507.     b
508.     c
509.     c
510.     b
511.     b
.
.
.
.   .
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