Ex3A BI102 W07 by BKKESqq0

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									BI102: GENERAL BIOLOGY                                                                 WINTER, 2007

MIDTERM #3A                                    Student Name:

 1. Which of these sequences correctly describes the cell cycle?
        A) G1 => G2 => S => prophase => metaphase => anaphase => telophase

           B) S => G2 => prophase => metaphase => anaphase => telophase => G1

           C) G1 => S => G2 => prophase => anaphase => metaphase => telophase

           D) prophase => metaphase => telophase => anaphase => G1      =>   S => G2

           E) G1 => S => G2 => metaphase => prophase => anaphase => telophase


 Answer questions 2 through 5 by matching the term on the left with the definition on the right

 2.   centromere           A. a single DNA molecule
 3.   chromatid            B. chromosomes with the same genes, but may have different alleles
 4.   diploid cells        C. contain pairs of homologous chromosomes.
 5.   homologs             D. point of attachment of the replicated arms of a chromosome.

 Using the following phases of the cell cycle as answers, pick the single most correct choice for each
 of the statements numbered 6 through 9.
                 A. S   B. G1     C. G2               D. Cytokinesis           E. All of these

 6) Spindle proteins are made.             7) DNA synthesis occurs.

 8) Most cell growth occurs.               9) chromosomes composed of two attached chromatids



 Answer questions 10 through 13 by matching the following. Each choice may be used more than once.
   A. Prophase              B. Metaphase           C. Telophase              D. Anaphase   E. Interphase

 10) Chromosomes move to the equator              11) Chromosomes duplicate

 12) Chromosomes shorten and thicken              13) Sister chromatids move to opposite poles

 14) Centromeres split during
 A) anaphase I and anaphase II of meiosis.    B) anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis.
 C). cytokinesis of mitosis and meiosis I     D) the S portion of interphase.
 E) anaphase of mitosis and anaphase II of meiosis.

 15) Homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis) during
 A) mitosis.      B) meiosis I.      C) meiosis II. D) mitosis and meiosis II. E) protein synthesis.
16) The chromosome number is reduced from diploid to haploid during
A) mitosis.      B) meiosis I.     C) meiosis II. D) interphase. E) S phase of mitosis.

17) Chromosomes of a homologous pair separate from each other during
A) anaphase I.   B) anaphase II.     C) metaphase I.      D) prophase II.            E) metaphase II.

18) If there are 12 chromosomes in a cell that has just completed meiosis II, what is the diploid
number of chromosomes for that organism?
       A) 6        B) 12     C) 24 D) 24 pairs        E) either 6 or 24, depending on the cell type

19) Haploid cells
       A) can result from meiosis.                    B) cannot be produced by mitosis.
       C) function as gametes or spores in sexually reproducing organisms.
       D) have one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes.
                                E) Both choices A and C are correct.

20) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Meiosis separates homologous chromosomes in a diploid cell to produce haploid daughter
        cells containing one copy of each type of chromosome.
B) During prophase I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange DNA.
C) During meiosis II, paired homologous chromosomes
        move up to the equator of the cell.
D) During anaphase I, homologous chromosomes
        separate.
E) In meiosis II, the sister chromatids of each
        chromosome separate.



Answer questions 21 through 25 by matching the
following term to its number in either of these two
diagrams. Each choice may be used more than once or
not at all.
A. DNA               B. mRNA          C. transcription
         D. translation               E. protein

Answer questions 26 through 28 by matching the
following term to its number in in either of these two
diagrams. Each choice may be used more than once or
not at all.
A. anticodon           B. peptide bond formation
C. codon               D. mRNA
           E. tRNA

29) Which is NOT found in DNA?
A) deoxyribose sugar         B) adenine
C) phosphate group           D) phospholipid group
                     E) thymine
30) In Griffith's experiments, what happened when heat-killed S-strain pneumococcus were injected
into a mouse along with live R-strain pneumococcus?
A) DNA from the live R-strain was taken up by the heat-killed S-strain, converting them to R-strain
and killing the mouse.
B) DNA from the heat-killed S-strain was taken up by the live R-strain, converting them to S-strain
and killing the mouse.
C) Proteins released from the heat-killed S-strain killed the mouse.
D) RNA from the heat-killed S-strain was translated into proteins that killed the mouse.
E) nothing

31) The DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30% of its bases. What percentage of its bases
would be adenine?
A) 0%            B) 10%             C) 20%                  D) 30%               E) 40%

32) The correct structure of a nucleotide is
A) phosphate-5 carbon sugar-nitrogen base.         B) phospholipid-sugar-base.
C) phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar.                D) adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine.
                                     E) base-phosphate-glucose.



33) The sequence of subunits in the DNA "backbone" is
      A) --base--phosphate--base--phosphate--base--phosphate-.
      B) --phosphate--sugar--phosphate--sugar--phosphate--sugar.
      C) --sugar--base--sugar--base--sugar--base--sugar--base-.
      D) --base--sugar--phosphate--base--sugar--phosphate-.
      E) --base--phosphate--sugar--base--phosphate--sugar-.



34) The two polynucleotide chains in a DNA molecule are attracted to each other by
A) covalent bonds between carbon atoms.              B) hydrogen bonds between bases.
C) peptide bonds between amino acids.                D) covalent bonds between phosphates & sugars
                         E). ionic bonds between "R" groups in amino acids.



35) How does the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure help explain DNA replication?
A) Deoxyribose sugar always bonds to a nitrogenous base.
B) Precise base pairing allows the base sequence to be copied.
C) Phosphate groups always bond to deoxyribose sugar.
D) The number of purines equals the number of pyrimidines.
E) Four types of bases are found in DNA.



36) In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the uprights of the ladder represent
A) nitrogenous bases linked together.                 B) deoxyribose linked to phosphates.
C) deoxyribose linked to sulfates.                    D) nitrogenous bases linked to phosphates.
                                   E) hydrogen bonds between bases.
37) Which of the following is TRUE about the accuracy of DNA replication?
      A) Many errors are made during DNA replication, but this does not matter because of the
      immense size of the DNA molecule.
      B) Many errors are made during DNA replication, but this does not matter because repair
      enzymes will mend the errors.
      C) The few errors made by DNA polymerase are usually corrected by repair enzymes.
      D) DNA polymerase makes very few errors, so no repair enzymes are needed.
      E) DNA polymerase always makes a perfect copy of the original DNA.



Answer questions 38 through 40 by matching the
following term to its number in the diagrams. Each
choice may be used more than once or not at all.

A. 3’ end          B. origin of replication

C. helicase        D. 5’ end

E. makes sure that complementary base pairing
occurs

41) According to the Law of Segregation, in an
organism with the genotype Aa
       A) all the gametes will have gene A.
       B) half the gametes will have A and half will
                   have a
       C). all the gametes will have gene a.
       D) 3/4 of the gametes will have A and 1/4 will
                   have a.
        E) 1/4 of the gametes will have A and 3/4 will
                   have a.

42) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Individuals with the same phenotype might have different genotypes.
B) Matings between individuals with dominant phenotypes cannot produce offspring with recessive
phenotypes.
C) Matings between individuals with recessive phenotypes usually do not produce offspring with
dominant phenotypes.
D) Individuals with the same genotype might have different phenotypes.
E) All of the above choices are correct.

43) When genes are linked, the reason a few of the recombinant genotypes still occur in the
offspring is because of
A) mutation.            B) linkage.          C) crossing over.            D) natural selection.
                                    E) independent assortment.
Answer questions 44 through 47 by matching the following. Each choice may be used more than once
        A. Genotype        B. Incomplete dominance                       C. Heterozygote
                D. Homozygote                                    E. Phenotype

44) An individual having 2 identical alleles at a particular locus.             45) The Bb individual.

46) The appearance of a Bb individual.           47) The entire genetic constitution of an individual.



48) The failure of chromosomes to segregate properly during meiosis is called
A) nondisjunction.          B) translocation.              C) replication.              D) inversion.
                                   E) independent assortment.

Answer numbers 49 and 50 by filling in selection “A” on your answer sheet if the answer is true an “B”
if the statement is false

49) Only males can express sex-linked traits.

50) Males always inherit sex-linked traits from their fathers
51. Diagram a cross between heterozygotes for both the “B” and the “E” genes if the e gene is sex
linked
Only answers within the boxes will be graded




      Genotypic ratio:



      Phenotypic ratio:




52. Determine the genotype and phenotype of the parents that produced a litter with only chocolate
puppies
                        The boxes below are provided for your assistance –
          you don’t have to use them if you don’t need to in order to answer the question.




      Genotypic ratio:



      Phenotypic ratio:

								
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