MAHE 2001 PG a. Lethal Nerve Injury, b. Nerve Is Cut
Manipal Academy of Higher Education MD MS But sheath Intact, c. Sheath Is Cut But
entrance test questions -2001. Please read our Nerve Intact, d. Can Not be Repaired.
disclaimer before continuing
For more PG question downloads go to
www.AIPPG.com/pg/ 6. Not Mesodermal in origin is
Visit our forums at www.aippg.net/forum/ to a. Respiratory Tract Lining, b. Kidney, c.
discuss questions. Heart, d. Liver
This paper was contributed by Dr. Prashant Ans: (a)
Gupta , MD(patho),Ex- B.S.Medical College,
Bankura, West Bengal and Dr. Shraddha
Agarwal, Ex- Mysore Medical College,
1. A cell is put in ECF which is highly
Anatomy permeable to Na+, false is
a. Na+ Moves Along the Concentration
1. In dislocation of 5th and 6th cervical Gradient, b. The Potential Across the Cell
vertebra which of the following spinal Membrane Drops to –70mv, c. Na+
nerve is injured. Comes out of the Cell, d. The
a. VI, b. V, c. IV, d. III Electrogenic Potential is 0 at Isoelectric
Ans: (a) pH.
2. Pudendal nerve does not supply: Ans: (c)
a. Labia Minora, b. Ischiocavernosus, 2. Transport of fatty acids across the inner
c.Posterior Fornix of Vagina, d. Urethral mitochondrial membrane is carried out by
Sphincter. a. Carnitine, b. Epinephrine, c. Pyruvate
Ans: (b) Kinase, d. NADPH
3. Motor area for speech is situated in: Ans: (a)
a. Superior Temporal Gyrus, b. Inferior 3. A patient having diabetic ketoacidosis
Frontal Gyrus, c. Superior Frontal Gyrus, is passing ketones in urine, having severe
d. Inferior Parietal Gyrus. dehydration and hyperkalemia. The
Ans: (b) diabetes is insulin dependent and the
4. Which of the following match is serum levels are as follows.
incorrect a. pH = 7.1, pCO2 = 25, pO2 = 95, HCO3
a. Vermis: - Plans the Movements, b. = 12, Na+ = 135, K+ = 5.5
Cerebrocerebellum: - Receives the PCO2 is less due to:
Rubrocerebellar Connections, c. a. Metabolic Acidosis with Low
Spinocerebellum: - Proprioception, d. Bicarbonate, b. Hyperventilation with
Vestibulocerebellum: - Controls Eye Low pH, c. Hyperkalemia, d. All of the
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
5. Neuropraxia is 4. Why there is hyperkalemia in above
a. Lack of Insulin Causes K+ to Move out
of Cell, b. Lack of Insulin Causes K+ to
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 1 of 13
move inside the cell, c. Low pH causes 2. Abnormal base in t RNA is
hyperkalemia, d. Due to hyperventilation. a. Dihydrouracil, b. Orotic Acid, c.
Ans: (d) Methyl Xanthine, d. Cystine
5. Following are the values for saturation Ans: (a)
of hemoglobin with gases 3. Enzyme used in recombinant DNA
pao2 = 60mmHg, paco2 = 30mmhg technology is
O2 saturation in arterial blood = 17 a. Restriction Endonuclease, b.
Hb = 14mg/dl Pyridoxine Dehydrogenase, c. RNA
Calculate the percentage of O2 saturation Polymerase II, d. DNA Ligase
in arterial blood. Ans: (a)
a. 17 – (60x.003) x 100 4. The transfer of genetic material form
b. 14x1.34 x 100 one bacteria to other through
c. 17x1.34 x 100 bacteriophage is called as
14x1.34 17-(60x.003) a. Conjugation, b. Transcription, c.
60x.003 Transduction, d. Replication
d. 14 – (60x.003) x 100
6. Tetanising stimulus is given to a 1. Which of the following can be used
muscle. Increased stimulus is due to both as mydriatic and cycloplegic
a. Recruitment phenomenon, b. Increased a. Tropicamide, b. Homatropine, c.
Ca++ influx into muscle fibers, Atropine. d. Ipratropium Bromide
c. Contraction of different muscle fibers Ans: (c)
at different places, d. All of above. 2. Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate is used
Ans: (b) to prevent
7. About perfusion of heart not true is a. Hemorrhagic Cystitis, b. Nausea and
a. It is 84ml/min, b. Coronary flow at rest Vomiting, c. Thrombocytopenia, d.
in 250ml/min. c. At rest heart extracts 70- Diarrhea.
80% of O2 form each unit of blood given Ans: (a)
to it, d. Coronary vessels are compressed 3. Which of the following was derived
during systole. form penicillin and was used first
Ans: (a) a. Lovastatin, b. Fluvastatin, c.
Simvastatin, d. Gemfibrozil
Biochemistry Ans: (a)
4. Treatment of ascariasis are all except
1. Coenzyme responsible for single a. Pyrantel Pamoate, b. Piperazine, c.
carbon transfer is Albendazole, d. DEC
a. Acetyl Coenzyme A, b. Biotin, c. Ans: (d)
THF4, d. Pyridoxine 5. Upgrading of receptors is due to
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 2 of 13
a. Increased uptake of agonist by them, b. a. Antiestrogen , b. 5 Reductase
Increased interaction with antagonist, c. Inhibitor, c. Antiprogestogen, d. 5
Both of the above, d. None of the above. Hydrotestosterone Inhibitor.
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
6. Acid production is decreased by 14. Mechanism of action of adenosine is
a. H1 Antagonists, b. H+ K+ pump a. Increases K+ Efflux and Decreasing
blocker, c. Nicotinic receptor blockers, d. Ca++ release in heart muscle, b. Inhibiting
All of the above K+ channels, c. Inhibiting Na+ K+
Ans: (b) ATPase, d. Increases Ca++ Influx.
7. Bromocriptine acts by Ans: (a)
a. Increasing dopamine in brain, b. 15. Abciximab is
Hyperprolactinemia in brain, c. Increases a. Platelet Inhibitor, b. Anticancer, c.
GH level in Acromegaly, d. None of the Immunosuppresant, d. Anti Hypertensive.
above Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) 16. Which of the following is given in
diabetes insipidus in both children and
8. 5HT3 blocker is adults
a. Ondansetron, b. Tamsulosin, c. a. 8 Lysine Vasopressin, b. 8 Arginine
Dazoxiben, d. Primagrel Vasopressin, c. Desmopressin Acetate, d.
Ans: (a) Desmopressin lactate.
9. K+ channel blocker is Ans: (c)
a. Minoxidil, b. Cromokalin, c. 17. Treatment of meningococcal
Phenacidil, d. Sulfonyl Ureas meningitis is
Ans: (d) a. Penicillin, b. Rifampin, c.
10. Side effect of sodium nitroprusside is Ciprofloxacin, d. Ceftriaxone.
a. Metabolic Acidosis, b. Hypotension, c. Ans: (a)
Thiocyanate Toxicity, d. 18. About Vancomycin true is
Thrombocytopenia a. It is glycopeptide antibiotic against
Ans: (b) multiresistant staphylococci, b. Causes
11. levels of theophylline are increased Pseudo Membranous Colitis, c. Inhibits
by all except Protein Synthesis, d. Binds to Terminal
a. erythromycin, b. Cimetidine, c. Dipeptide sequence of Peptidoglycan
Carbamazepine, d. Propanolol Ans: (a)
12. Mechanism of action of dantrolene is Pathology
a. GABA-A inhibitor, b. GABA-B
inhibitor, c. Direct action on ca++ channel, 1.Rhinopyma is
d. uncouples contraction from a. Caused by rhinoscleromatis
depolarization of muscle membrane Klebsiellae, b. Acne Vulgaris, c.
And: (d) Rhinosporium Seeberi d. None of the
13. Finasteride is above.
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 3 of 13
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
2. Most radiosensitive tumor is 11. EBV doesn’t cause
a. Embryonal Carcinoma, b. Yolk Sac a. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, b. Kaposi’s
Tumor, c. Teratoma, d. Seminoma. Sarcoma, c. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma,
Ans: (d) d. Burkitt’s lymphoma.
3. Dysgerminoma is Ans: (b)
a. Radiosensitive, b. Radioresistant, c. 12. Relapse of plasmodium vivax malaria
Responds to chemotherapy, d. Responds is due to
to Surgery a. Microzoites, b. Sporozoites, c.
Ans: (a) Gametocytes, d. Hypnozoites
4. Early metastasis through blood is seen Ans(d)
in 13. Paucibacillary leprosy can be
a. Teratoma, b. Choriocarcinoma, c. differentiated from multibacillary leprosy
Seminoma, d. Melanoma. by,
Ans: (b) a. Morphological Index, b.
5. Chromosome 5 is associated with Bacteriological index, c. Lepromin Test,
a. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, b. d. Lepra Reaction.
Ulcerative Colitis, c. Crohn’s disease, d. Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) Microbiology
6. Not premalignant is
a. Ulcerative Colitis, b. Familial 1. Which of the following can not be
Polyposis Coli, c. Turcot’s Syndrome, d. cultured
Peutz Jeghers Syndrome. a. Blastomyces, b. Coccidiodes, c.
Ans: (d) Sporotrichum, d. Rhinosporidium Seeberi
7. Philadelphia chromosome is Ans: (d)
a. 8:21, b. 9:22, c. 9:21, d. 8:22 2. Why staphylococus normally harbours
Ans: (b) the skin
8. Autosomal recessive is a, Because of Presence of Hyaluronidase,
a. Huntington’s Chorea, b. Von b. Catalase, c. Coagulase, d. Lipase.
Willebrand’s Disease, c. Myotonic Ans; (c)
Dystrophy, c. Hemarthrosis 3. A man had Egg Salad 1-4 hours back
Ans: (d) and developed diarrhea, vomiting and
9. Blood stored in citrate phosphate abdominal pain. He had poisoning with
dextrose has a. Staphylococcus, b. Salmonella, c.
a. Increased K+, b. Increased 2, 3, DPG, c. Bacillus Cereus, d. Clostridium
Swollen Red Blood Cells Ans: (a)
d. All of above 4. Which is not a type III hypersensitivity
Ans: (d) reaction
10. Burkitt’s lymphoma is caused by a. Tuberculosis, b. Serum Sickness
a. Epstein Bar Virus, b. Arbo Virus, c. Reaction, c. Glomerulonephritis, d.
Picorna Virus, d. Poxvirus Arthus Reaction.
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 4 of 13
Ans: (a) a. Children below 5 years, b. Children
below 4 years, c. Children up to 1 year,
Preventive and Social Medicine d. All of the above.
1. Annual growth rate is said to be 11.Etiological factor of disease is
explosive when it is more than: scientifically proved by
a. 1.5, b. 1.0, c.2.0, d. 2.5 a. Case Control study, b. Cohort study, c.
Ans: (c) Descriptive Epidemiology, d.
2. Optimum fluoride level is Randomised controlled trial.
a. 0.2-0.4mg/dl, b. 0.2-0.8mg/dl, c. 0.5- Ans: (c)
0.8mg/dl, d. 0.2-0.5mg/dl 12.Matching is done
Ans: (c) a. To remove Berkesonian bias, b.
3. Incubation period of measles is Confounding factor is removed, c.
a. 8-10days, b. 10-14days, c. 20-22days, Selection bias is removed, d. All of the
d. 8-21days. above.
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
4. Concentration of iodine at 13.Passive immunisation is
consumption level should be a. Booster Dose of TT for a cut in leg, b.
a. 100ppm, b. 150ppm. c. 200ppm, d. Antitoxin for Diptheria, c. Pertussis
15ppm. Vaccine, d. Polio Vaccine
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
5. Iron content in human milk is 14.Benzathine Prophylaxis for rheumatic
a. 0.1mg, b. 0.3mg, c. 0.5mg, d. 0.7mg fever is
Ans: (d) a. Primary Prevention, b. Primordial
6. operational efficacy of malaria is Prevention, c. Secondary Prevention, d.
a. API, b. Infant Parasite Rate, c. Spleen Tertiary Prevention.
Rate, d. ABER Ans: (c)
Ans: (d) 15.Wheat is deficient in
7. Which of the following is not caused a. Threonine, b. Methionine, c.
by mosquito Tryptophan, d. Leucine.
a. Q-Fever, b. Yellow Fever, c. Rift Ans: (a)
Valley Fever, d. Japanese Encephalitis. 16. Who is involved is ICDS
Ans: (a) a. Multipurpose Worker, b. Trained Dais,
8. Road to health chart was given by c. Village Health Guide, d. Anganwadi
a. Swaminathan, b. David Morley, c. Worker.
Jeffrey, d. Williams Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) 17. Which of the following is almost
9. Sullivan’s index is eradicated from India.
a. Disability rate, b. Survival rate, c. a. Measles, b. Polio, c. Tetanus, d.
Morbidity, d. Mode of Prevention Guinea Worm Disease
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
10.Child survival index involves 18. Humidity is measured by
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 5 of 13
a. Kata Thermometer, b. Sling ENT
Psychrometer, c. Micrometer, d. MANIPAL ANSWERED
Thermometer. QUESTIONS 2001 AIPPG VERSION
1. Tobey Ayer test is for
Forensic Medicine a. Petrositis, b. Cerebral Abcess, c. lateral
sinus thrombosis, d. Gradenigo syndrome
1. Least toxic lead is Ans: (c)
a. Carbonate, b. Sulphide, c. Oxide, d. 2. Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis is
Arsenate caused by
Ans: (b) a. Hemolytic Streptococci, b.
2. Two barr bodies are seen in Corynebactrium Diptheriae,
a, XXX, b. 47XXY, c. XO, d. 46XXY c. Staphylococci Aureus, d.
Ans: (a) Clostridium
3. Klinfelter’s syndrome is Ans: (b)
a. XO, b. 46XY, c. 45XY, d. XXY 3. In vocal cords web formation after
Ans: (d) radiation is prevented by
4. Split laceration resembles a. tracheostomy tube, b. Mc Knought
a. Incised wound, d. Abrasion, c. Gun heel, c. Antibiotics, d. None of the above.
shot wound, d. Contusion Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) 4. Tone decay test is used to measure
5. Antemortem drowning is diagnosed by a. Conductive deafness, b. Cochlear
a. Fine froth at mouth and nostrils, b. deafness, c. Retrocochlear deafness, d.
Cutis Anserina, c. Weeds and grass in Non organic deafness
hand, d. water in stomach, Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) 5. Rinne test is positive on both sides and
6. Most important job of medicolegal weber’s is lateralised to left the type of
autopsy is to find deafness is
a. Time Since Death, b. Manner of Death, a. Left sensorineural, b. Right
c. Mode of Death, d. Cause of Death. Sensorineural, c. Left conductive, d. Both
Ans: (b) sides conductive.
7. Alkali is neutralized by Ans: (a)
a. Hydrochloric Acid, b. Sulphuric Acid, 6. Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal
c. Nitric Acid, d. Vinegar cords is seen in
Ans: (d) a. Tuberculosis, b. Keratosis laryngis, c.
8. Cross examination of prosecution Laryngeal carcinoma, d. Diptheric
witness is done by, Laryngitis.
a. Defense Lawyer, b. Prosecutor form Ans: (a)
Outside, c. Public Prosecutor, d. Police. 7. Ossicular chain lever ratio is
Ans: (a) a. 1.3:1, b. 1.1:1, c. 1.2:1, d. 1:1
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 6 of 13
8. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is Ans: (b)
caused by, 8. Dilated fixed pupil is due to paralysis
a. Malignancy, b. Acute retropharyngeal of
abscess, c. Tuberculosis, d. Diphtheria. a. Oculomotor nerve, b. Trochlear nerve,
Ans: (c) c. Trigeminal, d. Opthalmic nerve.
9. Parosmia is Ans: (a)
a. Bad smell, b. False Perception of smell, 9. Cherry red spot in Macula is seen in all
c. Perverted, d. Pungent smell except
Ans: (c) a. Niemann pick disease, b.
Mucolipiodosis, c. Tay sach’s disease, d.
Ophthalmology Wilson’s disease.
1. Treatment of extended panopthalmitis 10. Pulsating proptosis is seen in
is a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis, b.
a. Exentration, b. Evisceration, c. Retinoblastoma, c. Caroticocavernous
Enucleation, d. Antibiotics fistula, d. Papilledema
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
2. Retrobulbar neuritis is characterized by 11. Terminal stage of chronic simple
a. Keratic precipitates, b. Disc edema, c. glaucoma is
Vitreous hemorrhage, d. Afferent a. Temporal island vision, b. Double
pupillary defect. arcuate scotoma, c. Nasal step, d.
Ans: (d) Bjerrum’s scotoma.
3. Rosette cataract is caused by Ans: (a)
a. Trauma, b. retinitis pigmentosa, c.
CRAO, d. Diabetes Orthopedics
4. Lens protein glaucoma is caused by 1. Osteoarthritis involves
a. Morgagnian cataract, b. Nuclear a. Knee joint in female more than 50
cataract, c. Traumatic cataract, d. years, b. Shoulder joint in females more
Intumescent cataract. than 50 years, c. Hip joint in females less
Ans: (a) than 50 years, d. Knee joint in males
5. Inert intraocular foreign body is more than 50 years.
a. Aluminum, b. Gold, c. Copper, d. Iron Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) 2. A young boy having PIVD is having
6. Cobble stone appearance is seen in pain in right big toe and weakness of
a. Trachoma, b. Spring catarrah, c. Vernal extensor hallucis longus tendon, ankle
Keratitis, d. Herpes zoster keratitis jerk is preserved on right side. The lesion
Ans: (b) is between
7. Inability to seen laterally and a. L4 and L5, b. L5 and S1, c. L3 and L4,
downward is due to paralysis of d. L1 and L2
a. Trochlear nerve, b. Abducent nerve, c. Ans: (a)
Oculomotor, d. Trigeminal nerve
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 7 of 13
3. Congential club foot is characterized 1. Isolated limb perfusion is done in
by malignant melanoma by:
a. Plantar flexion, inversion and fore foot a. Cytosine arabinoside, b.
adduction, b. Dorsiflexion, inversion and Cyclophosphamide, c. Methotrexate, d.
forefoot adduction, c. Plantar extension, Melphalan.
inversion and forefoot adduction, d. Ans: (d)
Dorsiflexion, eversion and forefoot 2. Most malignant melanoma is
abduction. a. Acral lentigenous, b. Nodular, c.
Ans: (a) Lentigo maligna, d. Amelanotic.
4. Lytic lesion on metaphysis is seen in Ans: (b)
a. Osteosarcoma, b. Osteoid osteoma, c. 3. Schmorl’s node signifies:
Osteoclastoma, d. Osteochondroma a. Good prognosis, b. Bad prognosis, c. Is
Ans: (a) of utmost significance, d. Is of no
5. Complication of supracondylar fracture significance.
are all except Ans: (d)
a. Median nerve injury, b. Non union, 4. A patient with AIIDS having fistula in
c.Cubitus varus, d. Volkman’s ischemic ano and who CD4 cell count is less than
contracture 400 is treated by
Ans: (b) a. Seton, b. Fistulectomy, c. Fissurotomy,
6. Medial epicondyle injury causes: d. None.
a. Adduction of digit not possible due to Ans: (d)
injury to ulnar nerve, b. Flexion at 5. Most common hernia to occur
metacarpophalangeal joint not possible, c. spontaneously is
Apposition of thumb in not possible, d. a. Inguinal, b. Femoral, c. Incisional, d.
Abduction of digits not possible. Umbilical
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
7. Medial leminiscus injury is due to 6. Lithogenic bile is formed due to
a. Its attachment to medial collateral a. Increased bile salts, b. Increased bile
ligament, b. Rotation on extended knee, c. pigments, c. Increased cholesterol, d.
excessive flexion of knee, d. Attachment Increased oxalates.
to lateral meniscus. Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) 7. In carcinoma peritonei main
8. Hansen’s disease is characterized by, mechanism of spread of malignant cells is
a. Extension of both MP and IP joints, b. a. Cytokines, b. Capillary action, c.
Extension of MP and flexion of IP joints, Angiogenesis, d. Gravity, e. Diffuse
c. Extension of IP and flexion of MP Adhesions.
joints, d. Extension of wrist and flexion Ans: (d)
of MP joints. 8. In gall bladder inflammation, pain is
Ans: (b) referred to
a. Hypogastrium, b. Epigastrium, c.
Surgery Shoulder tip, d. Periumbilical region
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 8 of 13
9. Chancroid is caused by a. Devascularisation and resection, b.
a. Chlamydia, b. Treponema pallidum, c. Portocaval shunt, c. Any of the above, d.
Hemophilus ducreyi, d. Hemophilus None of the above.
influenzae. Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) 18. Increase amylase and Lipase are seen
10. Treatment of chronic in
pseudopancreatic cyst is a. Acute pancreatitis, b. chronic
a. Cystogastrotomy, b. Gastrectomy, c. pancreatitis, c. Pancreatic abcess, d.
Cystectomy, d. Cystopancreatomy Pancreatic carcinoma.
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
11. For by pass surgery, diameter of vein 19. In dequervain’s thyroiditis all are seen
should be at least except
a. 9.5mm, b. 7mm, c. 5mm, d. 1cm a. Increased ESR, b. Increased
Ans: (b) radioiodine uptake, c. Thyroxine is of no
12. Suture material used to suture help, d. Hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism
intestine is both are seen.
a. Silk, b. Catgut, c. Vicryl, d. PDS Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) 20. Ascitis is said to be present only when
13. Polydioxanone dissolves with in fluid is more than
a. 7 days, b. 21 days, c. 100 days, d. 221 a. 500ml, b. 1000ml, c. 1500ml, d.
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
14. Death due to aortic aneurysm occurs 21. Thoracotomy is indicated in all except
in a. Hemetemesis is 100ml in 24 hrs, b.
a. 60 percent, b. 80 percent, c. 90 percent, Rigid bronchoscopy is used, c. Non
d. 100 percent. involved areas are kept in dependent
Ans: (b) position, d. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
15. Most common complication after Ans: (c)
surgery of aortic aneurysm is
a. Hemorrhage, b. Infection, c. Obstetrics and gynecology
respiratory complication, d. Renal
failure 1. Endometriosis is characterized by
Ans: (c) a. Secondary dysmenorrhea, b. Secondary
16. Peu de orange is due to amenorrhea, c. Menorrhagia, d.
a. Acute lymphedema, b. Orange color of Secondary infertility.
skin of breast, c. Both of above, d. None. Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 2. Most common cause of PID in women
17. If bleeding does not stop after is
sclerotherapy and balloon tamponade in a. Chlamydia, b. T.B, c. Mycoplasma, d.
esophageal varices what is the next step Virus.
of management. Ans: (a)
3. Safe period is
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 9 of 13
a. 5th day of menstruation to 16th day of a. O.C pills, b. Pregnancy, c. Diabetes, d.
cycle, b. 1 week before menstruation and Hypertension
1 week from the 1st day of menstruation, Ans: (d)
c. 14-18 day of cycle, d. None of the 12. Normal pelvis in a female is
above a. Android, b. Anthropoid, c. Gynecoid,
Ans: (b) d. Platypelloid
4. First sign of carcinoma of fallopian Ans: (c)
tube is 13. Abnormal polarity is not seen in
a. watery discharge per vagina, b. a. Hypotonic inert uterus, b. Incoordinate
Irregular bleeding, c. Mass per rectum, d. uterine action, c. Bandl’s ring, d. Cervical
Mass per abdomen. dystocia
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
5. Follwing ovarian tumor is associated
with genital complications Pediatrics
a. Theca cell, b. Granulosa cell, c.
Dysgerminoma, d. Choriocarcinoma. 1. Milk prevents which of the following
Ans: (c)’ infections
6. Which of the following hormones does a. Pulmonary, b. Skin, c. Urinary, d.
not cross placenta Enteric
a. Insulin, b. Growth hormone, c. Ans: (d)
Adrenaline, d. Thyroxine 2. Wide anterior fontanelle are not seen in
Ans: (d) a. Craniostosis, b. Rubella, c.
7. Formation pf amniotic fluid in a full Achondroplasia. d. Hydrocephalus
term amniotic cavity is by Ans” (b)
a. Urine form fetus, b. Mothers urine, c. 3. Physiological jaundice is which
Placenta, d. Umblical vein a. Appears on day 2 and disappears by
Ans: (a) day 7, b. Appears on day 1 and persists
8. Most Lengthy portion of fallopian tube for 15 days, c. Appears at birth and
is remains for 6 month, d. Appears at birth
a. Isthmus, b. Interstitial, c. Ampulla, d. and disappears by 1 month.
Fimbriae. Ans: (a)
9. Contraceptive which is not an Medicine
a. RU-486, b. Cu-T, c. O.C Pills, d. 1. Acute bacterial endocarditis is caused
Ans: (d) a. Staph epidermidis, b.Staph aureus, c.
10. Menorrhagia is a complication of streptococcus viridans, d. Strepto coccus
a. O.C pills, b. Triphasic pills, c. Copper- pyogens.
T, d. Progestasert Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) 2. About I.V drug users false is
11. Candidiasis cannot be caused by
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 10 of 13
a. Contaminated drug is the cause of a. Von Gierke’s disease, b. Lesh nyhan
endocarditis, b. Tricuspid valve is syndrome, c. Renal failure, d. Gilbert’s
commonly affected, c. Staph aureus is disease
causative organism, d. Contaminated Ans: (d)
needles pass the infection. 10. Painless hematuria in a young
Ans: (a) normotensive male is caused by
3. Bence Jones proteins are seen in a. Ig A nephropathy, b. Stone in urinary
a. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia, b. bladder, c. Stone in renal bladder, d.
Malignant melanoma,c. Multiple Trauma.
myeloma, d. Chronic renal failure. Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 11. Testicular feminising syndrome is
4. Heat stroke is characterized by all a. 45xy, b. 47xy, c. 46xy, d. 47xy
except Ans: (a)
a. High temperature, b. High pulse, c. 12. Splenomegaly is not found in later
Fever, d. Sweating. stages in
Ans: (d) a. Hereditary spherocytosis, b.
5. Asbestos doesn’t cause Thalassemia, c. Tropical splenomegaly, d.
a. Pleural fibroma, b. Gastric carcinoma, Sickle cell disease.
c. Mesothelioma d. Bronchogenic Ans: (d)
carcinoma. 13. Subdural hemorrhage is due to
Ans: (a) rupture of
6. AIIDS when associated with which a. Middle meningeal artery, b. Dural
does not follow CDC criteria venous sinus, c. Bridging veins, d. Middle
a. Cryptococcal, b. Kaposi’s sarcoma, c. meningeal vein.
Oral candidiasis, d. Disseminated MAIC Ans: (c)
infection. 14. Following is not done in Digoxin
Ans: (d) toxicity
7. Post operative hypertension can be due a. Hemodialysis, b. Quinidine, c.
to all except Phenytoin, d. verapamil
a. Pain, b. Fear, c. Hypovolemia, d. Blood Ans: (a)
leak 15.Hypokalemia occurs due to
Ans: (c) a. Polyuria, b. Polydipsia, c. All of the
8. In Huntington’s chorea all are seen above, d. None of the above
except Ans: (c)
a, Autosomal dominant, b. Caudate 16. Metabolic acidosis occurs in all
nucleus calcification in CT, c. Inheritence except
increases after middle age, d. Males and a. Congential hypertrophic pyloric
females are equally affected stenosis, b. Lactic Acidosis, c. Ethanol
Ans: (c) toxicity, d. Diabetes
9. Hyperuricemia is caused by all except Ans: (a)
17. In acute MI all can be given except
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 11 of 13
a. Nifedipine , b. ACE inhibitors, c. Ans: (c)
Metoprolol, d. Aspirin. 24. False statement about purpura is
Ans: (a) a. Palpable, b. More than 3mm, c.
18. In pregnancy iron stores can be Accumulation of RBC in dermis, d.
measured by doing Blanch on pressure
a. Serum ferritin, b. Serum transferrin, c. Ans: (d)
Apoferritin, d. Serum iron 25. About drug induced lupus, false
Ans: (a) statement is
19. A person is having confabulations a. Acetylation makes a change, b. Anti Ds
early memory loss, is suffering from, DNA are rare, c. Can resolve
a. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, b. spontaneously, d. Renal manifestation are
Korsakoff’s psychosis, c. Huntington common.
chorea, d. Alzheimer’s disease. Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) 26. A patient of acute intermittent
20. CSF findings in a person shows porphyria presents with
increased lymphocytes, slightly elevated a. Passage of dark urine, b. Skin rashes, c.
proteins and normal glucose levels. The Neurological manifestation, d.
person is suffering from Abdominal pain.
a. Pyogenic Meningitis, b. Tuberculous Ans: (d)
meningitis, c. Syphilitic meningitis, d.
viral meningitis Skin
21. In chronic renal failure which of the 1. Erysipelas is caused by,
following is not given. a. B hemolytic streptococci, b.
a. Calcium carbonate with meal, b. Staphylococus epidermidis, c. Staph
Aluminum hydroxide before meal, c. aureus, d. Pseudomonas
Magnesium hydroxide with meal, d. All Ans” (a)
of the above 2. Honey coloured crusts are seen in
Ans: (b) a. Impetigo, b. Erysipelas, c. Erythrasma,
22. About parkinsonism which of the d. Psoariasis
following is not true Ans: (a)
a. most of the patients have head tremors 3. Calcipotriol is given in
at rest, b. Primitive reflexes are a. Lichen planus, b. Psoariasis, c. Acne
preserved, c. Cog wheel rigidity is vulgaris, d. Erythema multiforme
present, d. festinant gait is there. Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) 4. Tzanck smear is done in
23. About sarcoidosis false is a. Malignancy, b. Psoariasis, c. Fungal
a. Bilateral lymphadenopathy is present, infection, d. Herpes infection
b. Increased angiotensin converting Ans: (d)
enzyme is present, c. Tuberculin is 5. Following is not given in urticaria
strongly positive, d. Egg shell a. Antihistaminics, b. Cyproheptadine, c.
calcification on x-ray chest. Corticosteroids, d. None of the above.
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 12 of 13
Ans: (d) a. Puerperal psychosis, b. Postnatal
depression, c. Postnatal blues, d. None of
Anaesthesia the above.
1. During anaesthesia, hypothermia is not 3. Severe depression with anxiety is
caused by treated by
a. Vasodilatation, b. Vasoconstriction, c. a. Fluoxetine, b. Clomipramine, c.
Low B.P, d. None of the above Reserpine, d. ECT
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
2. Thiopentone is given because
a. Smooth induction rapid recovery, b.
Good analgesia, c. Less mortality, d. AIPPG Manipal PG Questions and
Prolonged duration of action Answers.
3. Local anesthetics are combined with
adrenaline for This paper was contributed by Dr. Prashant
a. Enhancing the effect, b. Shorten the Gupta , MD(patho),Ex- B.S.Medical College,
duration, c. both of the above, d. none of Bankura, West Bengal and Dr. Shraddha
Agarwal, Ex- Mysore Medical College,
the above. Mysore.
4. Local anaesthetics are not preferred in Visit our message-boards to discuss
infection because Questions, pg queries and tips with the largest
a. They can’t act in acidic pH, b. they community of pg aspirants in INDIA.
spread the infection, c. Both of the above,
d. None of the above.
5. Mortality during anesthesia increases
a. Porphyria, b. Hyperpyrexia, c. Both of
the above, d. None of the above.
1. Flooding is done for
a. Phobia, b. Obsessive compulsive
neurosis, c. Mania, d. Shizophrenia
2. A mother who has delivered a baby 1
week back comes with tearfulness,
irritability and excessive anxiety about
her baby is suffering from.
Manipal questions with answers 2002 2001-3 www.AIPPG.com Page 13 of 13