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					             MAHE 2001 PG                        a. Lethal Nerve Injury, b. Nerve Is Cut
Manipal Academy of Higher Education MD MS        But sheath Intact, c. Sheath Is Cut But
entrance test questions -2001. Please read our   Nerve Intact, d. Can Not be Repaired.
disclaimer before continuing
                                                 Ans: (b)
For more PG question downloads go to
www.AIPPG.com/pg/                                6. Not Mesodermal in origin is
Visit our forums at www.aippg.net/forum/ to      a. Respiratory Tract Lining, b. Kidney, c.
discuss questions.                               Heart, d. Liver
This paper was contributed by Dr. Prashant       Ans: (a)
Gupta , MD(patho),Ex- B.S.Medical College,
Bankura, West Bengal and Dr. Shraddha
                                                 Physiology
Agarwal, Ex- Mysore Medical College,
Mysore.
                                          1. A cell is put in ECF which is highly
Anatomy                                   permeable to Na+, false is
                                          a. Na+ Moves Along the Concentration
1. In dislocation of 5th and 6th cervical Gradient, b. The Potential Across the Cell
vertebra which of the following spinal    Membrane Drops to –70mv, c. Na+
nerve is injured.                         Comes out of the Cell, d. The
a. VI, b. V, c. IV, d. III                Electrogenic Potential is 0 at Isoelectric
Ans: (a)                                  pH.
2. Pudendal nerve does not supply:        Ans: (c)
a. Labia Minora, b. Ischiocavernosus,     2. Transport of fatty acids across the inner
c.Posterior Fornix of Vagina, d. Urethral mitochondrial membrane is carried out by
Sphincter.                                a. Carnitine, b. Epinephrine, c. Pyruvate
Ans: (b)                                  Kinase, d. NADPH
3. Motor area for speech is situated in:  Ans: (a)
a. Superior Temporal Gyrus, b. Inferior   3. A patient having diabetic ketoacidosis
Frontal Gyrus, c. Superior Frontal Gyrus, is passing ketones in urine, having severe
d. Inferior Parietal Gyrus.               dehydration and hyperkalemia. The
Ans: (b)                                  diabetes is insulin dependent and the
4. Which of the following match is        serum levels are as follows.
incorrect                                 a. pH = 7.1, pCO2 = 25, pO2 = 95, HCO3
a. Vermis: - Plans the Movements, b.      = 12, Na+ = 135, K+ = 5.5
Cerebrocerebellum: - Receives the         PCO2 is less due to:
Rubrocerebellar Connections, c.           a. Metabolic Acidosis with Low
Spinocerebellum: - Proprioception, d.     Bicarbonate, b. Hyperventilation with
Vestibulocerebellum: - Controls Eye       Low pH, c. Hyperkalemia, d. All of the
Movements.                                Above.
Ans: (a)                                  Ans: (d)
5. Neuropraxia is                         4. Why there is hyperkalemia in above
                                          situation
                                          a. Lack of Insulin Causes K+ to Move out
                                          of Cell, b. Lack of Insulin Causes K+ to



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                       Page 1 of 13
move inside the cell, c. Low pH causes        2. Abnormal base in t RNA is
hyperkalemia, d. Due to hyperventilation.     a. Dihydrouracil, b. Orotic Acid, c.
Ans: (d)                                      Methyl Xanthine, d. Cystine
5. Following are the values for saturation    Ans: (a)
of hemoglobin with gases                      3. Enzyme used in recombinant DNA
pao2 = 60mmHg, paco2 = 30mmhg                 technology is
O2 saturation in arterial blood = 17          a. Restriction Endonuclease, b.
Hb = 14mg/dl                                  Pyridoxine Dehydrogenase, c. RNA
Calculate the percentage of O2 saturation     Polymerase II, d. DNA Ligase
in arterial blood.                            Ans: (a)
a. 17 – (60x.003) x 100                       4. The transfer of genetic material form
b. 14x1.34 x 100                              one bacteria to other through
c. 17x1.34 x 100                              bacteriophage is called as
    14x1.34                 17-(60x.003)      a. Conjugation, b. Transcription, c.
60x.003                                       Transduction, d. Replication
                                              Ans: (c)
d. 14 – (60x.003) x 100
        17x1.34                               Pharmacology
Ans: (a)
6. Tetanising stimulus is given to a          1. Which of the following can be used
muscle. Increased stimulus is due to          both as mydriatic and cycloplegic
a. Recruitment phenomenon, b. Increased       a. Tropicamide, b. Homatropine, c.
Ca++ influx into muscle fibers,               Atropine. d. Ipratropium Bromide
c. Contraction of different muscle fibers     Ans: (c)
at different places, d. All of above.         2. Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate is used
Ans: (b)                                      to prevent
7. About perfusion of heart not true is       a. Hemorrhagic Cystitis, b. Nausea and
a. It is 84ml/min, b. Coronary flow at rest   Vomiting, c. Thrombocytopenia, d.
in 250ml/min. c. At rest heart extracts 70-   Diarrhea.
80% of O2 form each unit of blood given       Ans: (a)
to it, d. Coronary vessels are compressed     3. Which of the following was derived
during systole.                               form penicillin and was used first
Ans: (a)                                      a. Lovastatin, b. Fluvastatin, c.
                                              Simvastatin, d. Gemfibrozil
Biochemistry                                  Ans: (a)
                                              4. Treatment of ascariasis are all except
1. Coenzyme responsible for single            a. Pyrantel Pamoate, b. Piperazine, c.
      carbon transfer is                      Albendazole, d. DEC
a. Acetyl Coenzyme A, b. Biotin, c.           Ans: (d)
THF4, d. Pyridoxine                           5. Upgrading of receptors is due to
Ans: (c)




Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                   Page 2 of 13
a. Increased uptake of agonist by them, b.   a. Antiestrogen , b. 5 Reductase
Increased interaction with antagonist, c.    Inhibitor, c. Antiprogestogen, d. 5
Both of the above, d. None of the above.     Hydrotestosterone Inhibitor.
Ans: (a)                                     Ans: (b)
6. Acid production is decreased by           14. Mechanism of action of adenosine is
a. H1 Antagonists, b. H+ K+ pump             a. Increases K+ Efflux and Decreasing
blocker, c. Nicotinic receptor blockers, d.  Ca++ release in heart muscle, b. Inhibiting
All of the above                             K+ channels, c. Inhibiting Na+ K+
Ans: (b)                                     ATPase, d. Increases Ca++ Influx.
7. Bromocriptine acts by                     Ans: (a)
a. Increasing dopamine in brain, b.          15. Abciximab is
Hyperprolactinemia in brain, c. Increases    a. Platelet Inhibitor, b. Anticancer, c.
GH level in Acromegaly, d. None of the       Immunosuppresant, d. Anti Hypertensive.
above                                        Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)                                     16. Which of the following is given in
                                             diabetes insipidus in both children and
8. 5HT3 blocker is                           adults
a. Ondansetron, b. Tamsulosin, c.            a. 8 Lysine Vasopressin, b. 8  Arginine
Dazoxiben, d. Primagrel                      Vasopressin, c. Desmopressin Acetate, d.
Ans: (a)                                     Desmopressin lactate.
9. K+ channel blocker is                     Ans: (c)
a. Minoxidil, b. Cromokalin, c.              17. Treatment of meningococcal
Phenacidil, d. Sulfonyl Ureas                meningitis is
Ans: (d)                                     a. Penicillin, b. Rifampin, c.
10. Side effect of sodium nitroprusside is Ciprofloxacin, d. Ceftriaxone.
a. Metabolic Acidosis, b. Hypotension, c. Ans: (a)
Thiocyanate Toxicity, d.                     18. About Vancomycin true is
Thrombocytopenia                             a. It is glycopeptide antibiotic against
Ans: (b)                                     multiresistant staphylococci, b. Causes
11. levels of theophylline are increased     Pseudo Membranous Colitis, c. Inhibits
by all except                                Protein Synthesis, d. Binds to Terminal
a. erythromycin, b. Cimetidine, c.           Dipeptide sequence of Peptidoglycan
Carbamazepine, d. Propanolol                 Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
12. Mechanism of action of dantrolene is Pathology
a. GABA-A inhibitor, b. GABA-B
inhibitor, c. Direct action on ca++ channel, 1.Rhinopyma is
d. uncouples contraction from                a. Caused by rhinoscleromatis
depolarization of muscle membrane            Klebsiellae, b. Acne Vulgaris, c.
And: (d)                                     Rhinosporium Seeberi d. None of the
13. Finasteride is                           above.




Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                  Page 3 of 13
Ans: (d)                                      Ans: (a)
2. Most radiosensitive tumor is               11. EBV doesn’t cause
a. Embryonal Carcinoma, b. Yolk Sac           a. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, b. Kaposi’s
Tumor, c. Teratoma, d. Seminoma.              Sarcoma, c. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma,
Ans: (d)                                      d. Burkitt’s lymphoma.
3. Dysgerminoma is                            Ans: (b)
a. Radiosensitive, b. Radioresistant, c.      12. Relapse of plasmodium vivax malaria
Responds to chemotherapy, d. Responds         is due to
to Surgery                                    a. Microzoites, b. Sporozoites, c.
Ans: (a)                                      Gametocytes, d. Hypnozoites
4. Early metastasis through blood is seen     Ans(d)
in                                            13. Paucibacillary leprosy can be
a. Teratoma, b. Choriocarcinoma, c.           differentiated from multibacillary leprosy
Seminoma, d. Melanoma.                        by,
Ans: (b)                                      a. Morphological Index, b.
5. Chromosome 5 is associated with            Bacteriological index, c. Lepromin Test,
a. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, b.         d. Lepra Reaction.
Ulcerative Colitis, c. Crohn’s disease, d.    Ans: (b)
Peutz Jeghers.
Ans: (a)                                      Microbiology
6. Not premalignant is
a. Ulcerative Colitis, b. Familial            1. Which of the following can not be
Polyposis Coli, c. Turcot’s Syndrome, d.      cultured
Peutz Jeghers Syndrome.                       a. Blastomyces, b. Coccidiodes, c.
Ans: (d)                                      Sporotrichum, d. Rhinosporidium Seeberi
7. Philadelphia chromosome is                 Ans: (d)
a. 8:21, b. 9:22, c. 9:21, d. 8:22            2. Why staphylococus normally harbours
Ans: (b)                                      the skin
8. Autosomal recessive is                     a, Because of Presence of Hyaluronidase,
a. Huntington’s Chorea, b. Von                b. Catalase, c. Coagulase, d. Lipase.
Willebrand’s Disease, c. Myotonic             Ans; (c)
Dystrophy, c. Hemarthrosis                    3. A man had Egg Salad 1-4 hours back
Ans: (d)                                      and developed diarrhea, vomiting and
9. Blood stored in citrate phosphate          abdominal pain. He had poisoning with
dextrose has                                  a. Staphylococcus, b. Salmonella, c.
a. Increased K+, b. Increased 2, 3, DPG, c.   Bacillus Cereus, d. Clostridium
Swollen Red Blood Cells                       Ans: (a)
d. All of above                               4. Which is not a type III hypersensitivity
Ans: (d)                                      reaction
10. Burkitt’s lymphoma is caused by           a. Tuberculosis, b. Serum Sickness
a. Epstein Bar Virus, b. Arbo Virus, c.       Reaction, c. Glomerulonephritis, d.
Picorna Virus, d. Poxvirus                    Arthus Reaction.



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                    Page 4 of 13
Ans: (a)                                      a. Children below 5 years, b. Children
                                              below 4 years, c. Children up to 1 year,
Preventive and Social Medicine                d. All of the above.
                                              And: (a)
 1. Annual growth rate is said to be          11.Etiological factor of disease is
     explosive when it is more than:              scientifically proved by
a. 1.5, b. 1.0, c.2.0, d. 2.5                 a. Case Control study, b. Cohort study, c.
Ans: (c)                                      Descriptive Epidemiology, d.
 2. Optimum fluoride level is                 Randomised controlled trial.
a. 0.2-0.4mg/dl, b. 0.2-0.8mg/dl, c. 0.5-     Ans: (c)
0.8mg/dl, d. 0.2-0.5mg/dl                     12.Matching is done
Ans: (c)                                      a. To remove Berkesonian bias, b.
 3. Incubation period of measles is           Confounding factor is removed, c.
a. 8-10days, b. 10-14days, c. 20-22days,      Selection bias is removed, d. All of the
d. 8-21days.                                  above.
Ans: (b)                                      Ans: (b)
 4. Concentration of iodine at                13.Passive immunisation is
     consumption level should be             a. Booster Dose of TT for a cut in leg, b.
a. 100ppm, b. 150ppm. c. 200ppm, d.          Antitoxin for Diptheria, c. Pertussis
15ppm.                                       Vaccine, d. Polio Vaccine
Ans: (d)                                     Ans: (b)
 5. Iron content in human milk is             14.Benzathine Prophylaxis for rheumatic
a. 0.1mg, b. 0.3mg, c. 0.5mg, d. 0.7mg            fever is
Ans: (d)                                      a. Primary Prevention, b. Primordial
 6. operational efficacy of malaria is        Prevention, c. Secondary Prevention, d.
a. API, b. Infant Parasite Rate, c. Spleen    Tertiary Prevention.
Rate, d. ABER                                 Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)                                      15.Wheat is deficient in
 7. Which of the following is not caused      a. Threonine, b. Methionine, c.
     by mosquito                              Tryptophan, d. Leucine.
a. Q-Fever, b. Yellow Fever, c. Rift          Ans: (a)
Valley Fever, d. Japanese Encephalitis.       16. Who is involved is ICDS
Ans: (a)                                      a. Multipurpose Worker, b. Trained Dais,
 8. Road to health chart was given by         c. Village Health Guide, d. Anganwadi
 a. Swaminathan, b. David Morley, c.          Worker.
 Jeffrey, d. Williams                         Ans: (d)
 Ans: (b)                                     17. Which of the following is almost
 9. Sullivan’s index is                       eradicated from India.
a. Disability rate, b. Survival rate, c.      a. Measles, b. Polio, c. Tetanus, d.
Morbidity, d. Mode of Prevention                  Guinea Worm Disease
Ans: (a)                                     Ans: (a)
 10.Child survival index involves            18. Humidity is measured by



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                   Page 5 of 13
a. Kata Thermometer, b. Sling               ENT
Psychrometer, c. Micrometer, d.             MANIPAL ANSWERED
Thermometer.                                QUESTIONS 2001 AIPPG VERSION
Ans: (b)
                                          1. Tobey Ayer test is for
Forensic Medicine                         a. Petrositis, b. Cerebral Abcess, c. lateral
                                          sinus thrombosis, d. Gradenigo syndrome
1. Least toxic lead is                    Ans: (c)
a. Carbonate, b. Sulphide, c. Oxide, d.   2. Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis is
Arsenate                                  caused by
Ans: (b)                                      a.  Hemolytic Streptococci, b.
2. Two barr bodies are seen in                    Corynebactrium Diptheriae,
a, XXX, b. 47XXY, c. XO, d. 46XXY              c. Staphylococci Aureus, d.
Ans: (a)                                      Clostridium
3. Klinfelter’s syndrome is               Ans: (b)
a. XO, b. 46XY, c. 45XY, d. XXY           3. In vocal cords web formation after
Ans: (d)                                  radiation is prevented by
4. Split laceration resembles             a. tracheostomy tube, b. Mc Knought
a. Incised wound, d. Abrasion, c. Gun     heel, c. Antibiotics, d. None of the above.
shot wound, d. Contusion                  Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)                                  4. Tone decay test is used to measure
5. Antemortem drowning is diagnosed by a. Conductive deafness, b. Cochlear
a. Fine froth at mouth and nostrils, b.   deafness, c. Retrocochlear deafness, d.
Cutis Anserina, c. Weeds and grass in     Non organic deafness
hand, d. water in stomach,                Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)                                  5. Rinne test is positive on both sides and
6. Most important job of medicolegal      weber’s is lateralised to left the type of
autopsy is to find                        deafness is
a. Time Since Death, b. Manner of Death, a. Left sensorineural, b. Right
c. Mode of Death, d. Cause of Death.      Sensorineural, c. Left conductive, d. Both
Ans: (b)                                  sides conductive.
7. Alkali is neutralized by               Ans: (a)
a. Hydrochloric Acid, b. Sulphuric Acid, 6. Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal
c. Nitric Acid, d. Vinegar                cords is seen in
Ans: (d)                                  a. Tuberculosis, b. Keratosis laryngis, c.
8. Cross examination of prosecution       Laryngeal carcinoma, d. Diptheric
witness is done by,                       Laryngitis.
a. Defense Lawyer, b. Prosecutor form     Ans: (a)
Outside, c. Public Prosecutor, d. Police. 7. Ossicular chain lever ratio is
Ans: (a)                                  a. 1.3:1, b. 1.1:1, c. 1.2:1, d. 1:1
                                          Ans: (a)




Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                  Page 6 of 13
8. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is       Ans: (b)
caused by,                                  8. Dilated fixed pupil is due to paralysis
a. Malignancy, b. Acute retropharyngeal     of
abscess, c. Tuberculosis, d. Diphtheria.    a. Oculomotor nerve, b. Trochlear nerve,
Ans: (c)                                    c. Trigeminal, d. Opthalmic nerve.
9. Parosmia is                              Ans: (a)
a. Bad smell, b. False Perception of smell, 9. Cherry red spot in Macula is seen in all
c. Perverted, d. Pungent smell              except
Ans: (c)                                    a. Niemann pick disease, b.
                                            Mucolipiodosis, c. Tay sach’s disease, d.
Ophthalmology                               Wilson’s disease.
                                            Ans: (d)
1. Treatment of extended panopthalmitis 10. Pulsating proptosis is seen in
is                                          a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis, b.
a. Exentration, b. Evisceration, c.         Retinoblastoma, c. Caroticocavernous
Enucleation, d. Antibiotics                 fistula, d. Papilledema
Ans: (b)                                    Ans: (c)
2. Retrobulbar neuritis is characterized by 11. Terminal stage of chronic simple
a. Keratic precipitates, b. Disc edema, c. glaucoma is
Vitreous hemorrhage, d. Afferent            a. Temporal island vision, b. Double
pupillary defect.                           arcuate scotoma, c. Nasal step, d.
Ans: (d)                                    Bjerrum’s scotoma.
3. Rosette cataract is caused by            Ans: (a)
a. Trauma, b. retinitis pigmentosa, c.
CRAO, d. Diabetes                           Orthopedics
Ans: (a)
4. Lens protein glaucoma is caused by       1. Osteoarthritis involves
a. Morgagnian cataract, b. Nuclear          a. Knee joint in female more than 50
cataract, c. Traumatic cataract, d.         years, b. Shoulder joint in females more
Intumescent cataract.                       than 50 years, c. Hip joint in females less
Ans: (a)                                    than 50 years, d. Knee joint in males
5. Inert intraocular foreign body is        more than 50 years.
a. Aluminum, b. Gold, c. Copper, d. Iron Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)                                    2. A young boy having PIVD is having
6. Cobble stone appearance is seen in       pain in right big toe and weakness of
a. Trachoma, b. Spring catarrah, c. Vernal extensor hallucis longus tendon, ankle
Keratitis, d. Herpes zoster keratitis       jerk is preserved on right side. The lesion
Ans: (b)                                    is between
7. Inability to seen laterally and          a. L4 and L5, b. L5 and S1, c. L3 and L4,
downward is due to paralysis of             d. L1 and L2
a. Trochlear nerve, b. Abducent nerve, c. Ans: (a)
Oculomotor, d. Trigeminal nerve



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                  Page 7 of 13
3. Congential club foot is characterized      1. Isolated limb perfusion is done in
by                                            malignant melanoma by:
a. Plantar flexion, inversion and fore foot   a. Cytosine arabinoside, b.
adduction, b. Dorsiflexion, inversion and     Cyclophosphamide, c. Methotrexate, d.
forefoot adduction, c. Plantar extension,     Melphalan.
inversion and forefoot adduction, d.          Ans: (d)
Dorsiflexion, eversion and forefoot           2. Most malignant melanoma is
abduction.                                    a. Acral lentigenous, b. Nodular, c.
Ans: (a)                                      Lentigo maligna, d. Amelanotic.
4. Lytic lesion on metaphysis is seen in      Ans: (b)
a. Osteosarcoma, b. Osteoid osteoma, c.       3. Schmorl’s node signifies:
Osteoclastoma, d. Osteochondroma              a. Good prognosis, b. Bad prognosis, c. Is
Ans: (a)                                      of utmost significance, d. Is of no
5. Complication of supracondylar fracture     significance.
are all except                                Ans: (d)
a. Median nerve injury, b. Non union,         4. A patient with AIIDS having fistula in
c.Cubitus varus, d. Volkman’s ischemic        ano and who CD4 cell count is less than
contracture                                   400 is treated by
Ans: (b)                                      a. Seton, b. Fistulectomy, c. Fissurotomy,
6. Medial epicondyle injury causes:           d. None.
a. Adduction of digit not possible due to     Ans: (d)
injury to ulnar nerve, b. Flexion at          5. Most common hernia to occur
metacarpophalangeal joint not possible, c.    spontaneously is
Apposition of thumb in not possible, d.       a. Inguinal, b. Femoral, c. Incisional, d.
Abduction of digits not possible.             Umbilical
Ans: (a)                                      Ans: (a)
7. Medial leminiscus injury is due to         6. Lithogenic bile is formed due to
a. Its attachment to medial collateral        a. Increased bile salts, b. Increased bile
ligament, b. Rotation on extended knee, c.    pigments, c. Increased cholesterol, d.
excessive flexion of knee, d. Attachment      Increased oxalates.
to lateral meniscus.                          Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)                                      7. In carcinoma peritonei main
8. Hansen’s disease is characterized by,      mechanism of spread of malignant cells is
a. Extension of both MP and IP joints, b.     a. Cytokines, b. Capillary action, c.
Extension of MP and flexion of IP joints,     Angiogenesis, d. Gravity, e. Diffuse
c. Extension of IP and flexion of MP          Adhesions.
joints, d. Extension of wrist and flexion     Ans: (d)
of MP joints.                                 8. In gall bladder inflammation, pain is
Ans: (b)                                      referred to
                                              a. Hypogastrium, b. Epigastrium, c.
Surgery                                       Shoulder tip, d. Periumbilical region
                                              Ans: (c)



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                   Page 8 of 13
9. Chancroid is caused by                      a. Devascularisation and resection, b.
a. Chlamydia, b. Treponema pallidum, c.        Portocaval shunt, c. Any of the above, d.
Hemophilus ducreyi, d. Hemophilus              None of the above.
influenzae.                                    Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)                                       18. Increase amylase and Lipase are seen
10. Treatment of chronic                       in
pseudopancreatic cyst is                       a. Acute pancreatitis, b. chronic
a. Cystogastrotomy, b. Gastrectomy, c.         pancreatitis, c. Pancreatic abcess, d.
Cystectomy, d. Cystopancreatomy                Pancreatic carcinoma.
Ans: (a)                                       Ans: (a)
11. For by pass surgery, diameter of vein      19. In dequervain’s thyroiditis all are seen
should be at least                             except
a. 9.5mm, b. 7mm, c. 5mm, d. 1cm               a. Increased ESR, b. Increased
Ans: (b)                                       radioiodine uptake, c. Thyroxine is of no
12. Suture material used to suture             help, d. Hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism
intestine is                                   both are seen.
a. Silk, b. Catgut, c. Vicryl, d. PDS          Ans: (b)
Ans: (d)                                       20. Ascitis is said to be present only when
13. Polydioxanone dissolves with in            fluid is more than
a. 7 days, b. 21 days, c. 100 days, d. 221     a. 500ml, b. 1000ml, c. 1500ml, d.
days.                                          2000ml.
Ans: (d)                                       Ans: (c)
14. Death due to aortic aneurysm occurs        21. Thoracotomy is indicated in all except
in                                             a. Hemetemesis is 100ml in 24 hrs, b.
a. 60 percent, b. 80 percent, c. 90 percent,   Rigid bronchoscopy is used, c. Non
d. 100 percent.                                involved areas are kept in dependent
Ans: (b)                                       position, d. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
15. Most common complication after             Ans: (c)
surgery of aortic aneurysm is
a. Hemorrhage, b. Infection, c.                Obstetrics and gynecology
    respiratory complication, d. Renal
    failure                                    1. Endometriosis is characterized by
Ans: (c)                                       a. Secondary dysmenorrhea, b. Secondary
16. Peu de orange is due to                    amenorrhea, c. Menorrhagia, d.
a. Acute lymphedema, b. Orange color of        Secondary infertility.
skin of breast, c. Both of above, d. None.     Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)                                       2. Most common cause of PID in women
17. If bleeding does not stop after            is
sclerotherapy and balloon tamponade in         a. Chlamydia, b. T.B, c. Mycoplasma, d.
esophageal varices what is the next step       Virus.
of management.                                 Ans: (a)
                                               3. Safe period is



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                     Page 9 of 13
a. 5th day of menstruation to 16th day of      a. O.C pills, b. Pregnancy, c. Diabetes, d.
cycle, b. 1 week before menstruation and       Hypertension
1 week from the 1st day of menstruation,       Ans: (d)
c. 14-18 day of cycle, d. None of the          12. Normal pelvis in a female is
above                                          a. Android, b. Anthropoid, c. Gynecoid,
Ans: (b)                                       d. Platypelloid
4. First sign of carcinoma of fallopian        Ans: (c)
tube is                                        13. Abnormal polarity is not seen in
a. watery discharge per vagina, b.             a. Hypotonic inert uterus, b. Incoordinate
Irregular bleeding, c. Mass per rectum, d.     uterine action, c. Bandl’s ring, d. Cervical
Mass per abdomen.                              dystocia
Ans: (a)                                       Ans: (d)
5. Follwing ovarian tumor is associated
with genital complications                     Pediatrics
a. Theca cell, b. Granulosa cell, c.
Dysgerminoma, d. Choriocarcinoma.              1. Milk prevents which of the following
Ans: (c)’                                      infections
6. Which of the following hormones does        a. Pulmonary, b. Skin, c. Urinary, d.
not cross placenta                             Enteric
a. Insulin, b. Growth hormone, c.              Ans: (d)
Adrenaline, d. Thyroxine                       2. Wide anterior fontanelle are not seen in
Ans: (d)                                       a. Craniostosis, b. Rubella, c.
7. Formation pf amniotic fluid in a full       Achondroplasia. d. Hydrocephalus
term amniotic cavity is by                     Ans” (b)
a. Urine form fetus, b. Mothers urine, c.      3. Physiological jaundice is which
Placenta, d. Umblical vein                     a. Appears on day 2 and disappears by
Ans: (a)                                       day 7, b. Appears on day 1 and persists
8. Most Lengthy portion of fallopian tube      for 15 days, c. Appears at birth and
is                                             remains for 6 month, d. Appears at birth
a. Isthmus, b. Interstitial, c. Ampulla, d.    and disappears by 1 month.
Fimbriae.                                      Ans: (a)
Ams: (c)
9. Contraceptive which is not an               Medicine
interceptive is
a. RU-486, b. Cu-T, c. O.C Pills, d.           1. Acute bacterial endocarditis is caused
Norplant                                       by,
Ans: (d)                                       a. Staph epidermidis, b.Staph aureus, c.
10. Menorrhagia is a complication of           streptococcus viridans, d. Strepto coccus
a. O.C pills, b. Triphasic pills, c. Copper-   pyogens.
T, d. Progestasert                             Ans: (b)
Ans: (d)                                       2. About I.V drug users false is
11. Candidiasis cannot be caused by



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                    Page 10 of 13
a. Contaminated drug is the cause of          a. Von Gierke’s disease, b. Lesh nyhan
endocarditis, b. Tricuspid valve is           syndrome, c. Renal failure, d. Gilbert’s
commonly affected, c. Staph aureus is         disease
causative organism, d. Contaminated           Ans: (d)
needles pass the infection.                   10. Painless hematuria in a young
Ans: (a)                                      normotensive male is caused by
3. Bence Jones proteins are seen in           a. Ig A nephropathy, b. Stone in urinary
a. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia, b.        bladder, c. Stone in renal bladder, d.
Malignant melanoma,c. Multiple                Trauma.
myeloma, d. Chronic renal failure.            Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)                                      11. Testicular feminising syndrome is
4. Heat stroke is characterized by all        a. 45xy, b. 47xy, c. 46xy, d. 47xy
except                                        Ans: (a)
a. High temperature, b. High pulse, c.        12. Splenomegaly is not found in later
Fever, d. Sweating.                           stages in
Ans: (d)                                      a. Hereditary spherocytosis, b.
5. Asbestos doesn’t cause                     Thalassemia, c. Tropical splenomegaly, d.
a. Pleural fibroma, b. Gastric carcinoma,     Sickle cell disease.
c. Mesothelioma d. Bronchogenic               Ans: (d)
carcinoma.                                    13. Subdural hemorrhage is due to
Ans: (a)                                      rupture of
6. AIIDS when associated with which           a. Middle meningeal artery, b. Dural
does not follow CDC criteria                  venous sinus, c. Bridging veins, d. Middle
a. Cryptococcal, b. Kaposi’s sarcoma, c.      meningeal vein.
Oral candidiasis, d. Disseminated MAIC        Ans: (c)
infection.                                    14. Following is not done in Digoxin
Ans: (d)                                      toxicity
7. Post operative hypertension can be due     a. Hemodialysis, b. Quinidine, c.
to all except                                 Phenytoin, d. verapamil
a. Pain, b. Fear, c. Hypovolemia, d. Blood    Ans: (a)
leak                                          15.Hypokalemia occurs due to
Ans: (c)                                      a. Polyuria, b. Polydipsia, c. All of the
8. In Huntington’s chorea all are seen        above, d. None of the above
except                                        Ans: (c)
a, Autosomal dominant, b. Caudate             16. Metabolic acidosis occurs in all
nucleus calcification in CT, c. Inheritence   except
increases after middle age, d. Males and      a. Congential hypertrophic pyloric
females are equally affected                  stenosis, b. Lactic Acidosis, c. Ethanol
Ans: (c)                                      toxicity, d. Diabetes
9. Hyperuricemia is caused by all except      Ans: (a)
                                              17. In acute MI all can be given except




Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                  Page 11 of 13
a. Nifedipine , b. ACE inhibitors, c.         Ans: (c)
Metoprolol, d. Aspirin.                       24. False statement about purpura is
Ans: (a)                                      a. Palpable, b. More than 3mm, c.
18. In pregnancy iron stores can be           Accumulation of RBC in dermis, d.
measured by doing                             Blanch on pressure
a. Serum ferritin, b. Serum transferrin, c.   Ans: (d)
Apoferritin, d. Serum iron                    25. About drug induced lupus, false
Ans: (a)                                      statement is
19. A person is having confabulations         a. Acetylation makes a change, b. Anti Ds
early memory loss, is suffering from,         DNA are rare, c. Can resolve
a. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, b.              spontaneously, d. Renal manifestation are
Korsakoff’s psychosis, c. Huntington          common.
chorea, d. Alzheimer’s disease.               Ans: (d)
Ans: (b)                                      26. A patient of acute intermittent
20. CSF findings in a person shows            porphyria presents with
increased lymphocytes, slightly elevated      a. Passage of dark urine, b. Skin rashes, c.
proteins and normal glucose levels. The       Neurological manifestation, d.
person is suffering from                      Abdominal pain.
a. Pyogenic Meningitis, b. Tuberculous        Ans: (d)
meningitis, c. Syphilitic meningitis, d.
viral meningitis                              Skin
Ans: (d)
21. In chronic renal failure which of the     1. Erysipelas is caused by,
following is not given.                       a. B hemolytic streptococci, b.
a. Calcium carbonate with meal, b.            Staphylococus epidermidis, c. Staph
Aluminum hydroxide before meal, c.            aureus, d. Pseudomonas
Magnesium hydroxide with meal, d. All         Ans” (a)
of the above                                  2. Honey coloured crusts are seen in
Ans: (b)                                      a. Impetigo, b. Erysipelas, c. Erythrasma,
22. About parkinsonism which of the           d. Psoariasis
following is not true                         Ans: (a)
a. most of the patients have head tremors     3. Calcipotriol is given in
at rest, b. Primitive reflexes are            a. Lichen planus, b. Psoariasis, c. Acne
preserved, c. Cog wheel rigidity is           vulgaris, d. Erythema multiforme
present, d. festinant gait is there.          Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)                                      4. Tzanck smear is done in
23. About sarcoidosis false is                a. Malignancy, b. Psoariasis, c. Fungal
a. Bilateral lymphadenopathy is present,      infection, d. Herpes infection
b. Increased angiotensin converting           Ans: (d)
enzyme is present, c. Tuberculin is           5. Following is not given in urticaria
strongly positive, d. Egg shell               a. Antihistaminics, b. Cyproheptadine, c.
calcification on x-ray chest.                 Corticosteroids, d. None of the above.



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                   Page 12 of 13
Ans: (d)                                    a. Puerperal psychosis, b. Postnatal
                                            depression, c. Postnatal blues, d. None of
Anaesthesia                                 the above.
                                            Ans: (c)
1. During anaesthesia, hypothermia is not 3. Severe depression with anxiety is
caused by                                   treated by
a. Vasodilatation, b. Vasoconstriction, c. a. Fluoxetine, b. Clomipramine, c.
Low B.P, d. None of the above               Reserpine, d. ECT
Ans: (a)                                    Ans: (d)
2. Thiopentone is given because
a. Smooth induction rapid recovery, b.
Good analgesia, c. Less mortality, d.       AIPPG Manipal PG Questions and
Prolonged duration of action                Answers.
Ans: (a)
3. Local anesthetics are combined with
adrenaline for                              This paper was contributed by Dr. Prashant
a. Enhancing the effect, b. Shorten the     Gupta , MD(patho),Ex- B.S.Medical College,
duration, c. both of the above, d. none of Bankura, West Bengal and Dr. Shraddha
                                            Agarwal, Ex- Mysore Medical College,
the above.                                  Mysore.
Ans: (c)
4. Local anaesthetics are not preferred in Visit our message-boards to discuss
infection because                           Questions, pg queries and tips with the largest
a. They can’t act in acidic pH, b. they     community of pg aspirants in INDIA.
spread the infection, c. Both of the above,
d. None of the above.
Ans: (c)
5. Mortality during anesthesia increases
due to
a. Porphyria, b. Hyperpyrexia, c. Both of
the above, d. None of the above.
Ans: (c)

Psychiatry

1. Flooding is done for
a. Phobia, b. Obsessive compulsive
neurosis, c. Mania, d. Shizophrenia
Ans: (a)
2. A mother who has delivered a baby 1
week back comes with tearfulness,
irritability and excessive anxiety about
her baby is suffering from.



Manipal questions with answers 2002  2001-3 www.AIPPG.com                    Page 13 of 13

				
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