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Comments on James Mill. Reading Notes.

Make sure that you understand the following key ideas and think about their significance.



Page XXV. Paragraph 1: The abstract law and the real movement

Is this distinction a particular feature of economic laws? Or of social laws? Or of all laws?

What is the real content of this distinction as a critique of political economy? Does it have a

wider application in social theory?



Paragraph 2: Two conceptions of money

Marx apparently starts by endorsing Mill’s conception of money, providing a philosophical

critique (a critique in the sense that he develops the philosophical implications of Mill’s

argument, providing the analysis with a philosophical foundation, not in the sense of

disagreeing with Mill): the essence of money is not (the mercantilist idea) that property is

alienated in it but (the substance of Mill’s idea, though Mill does not put it like this) that the

social act of the mutual exchange of products is estranged from man and becomes the

attribute of a material thing outside man. This is Marx’s key idea: it is the basis of the theory

of alienated labour in the 1844 manuscripts and of the value form and fetishism of

commodities in Capital. Do not move on until you understand it. Marx took the philosophical

idea from Moses Hess (see especially Marx’s On the Jewish Question) and the idea of the

inversion comes from Feuerbach’s critique of religion. There is an inevitable reversal of the

original relationship: the mediator has now become the real power over what it mediates.

Compare and contrast the idea with Simmel’s quasi-psychological account of the inversion of

means and ends as money is transformed from means of exchange to social power, an idea

taken up in Weber’s Iron Cage: formal rationality giving rise to substantive irrationality.

What is the basis of this inversion for Marx?



End of Paragraph 2, paragraphs 3, 4, 5: Property, money and the redeemer

Money is the ‘estranged essence of private property’. What does this mean? What does Marx

mean by private property here? Why is it now alienated?

Is the religious analogy just an analogy? Or is Christian doctrine a reflection of/on the

illusions of commodity exchange (see Alfred Sohn-Rethel on commodity fetishism as the

constitutive idea of western culture)?



Page XXV(2) The money system

Why must private property develop into the money system? Here Marx is providing a

theoretical paraphrase of Mill’s traditional story of the development of money out of

exchange and exchange value. The social relationship between things ‘is already a

relationship in which private property is estranged from itself’. Money is the `form of

existence for itself of this relationship’, it is the ‘alienation of private property’. What does

this mean?



Modern economics versus the monetary system

Now Marx moves from a purely philosophical critique, which has shown the underpinnings

of Mill’s analysis of money, to a substantive critique, showing the one-sidedness of Mill’s

view. The economist (Mill) has quite correctly pointed out to the monetarist/mercantilist that

money has no inherent value, it is just a commodity like any other that has been selected to

serve as the means of exchange. But the monetarist is quite right to respond that once the

money commodity has come to take on that role, it is money that is the embodiment,

expression, representation and measure of value.

In fact, far from debunking the monetarist myth, the economist has used his power of

abstraction to `recognise the existence of money under all forms of commodities’. The `soul

of money’ is present in all branches of production and all activities: again the religious

analogy of body and soul. How does this relate to the opposition of content and form?

So the modern economists `have conceived the essence of money in its abstract universality’,

but they have only universalised the mercantilists’ superstition. But the `economist does not

attack the essence’ of money. This is why Marx’s philosophical critique takes us beyond the

economist: it attacks (criticises) the essence of money by showing that the economist merely

describes the superficial results of the alienation of private property in the form of money

without explaining the process by which this takes place and so discovering private property

(whatever that is) lying behind money.

What is the distinction between `the personal mode of existence of money as money’ and `the

hidden social relationship between commodities’?

Why is paper money `the more perfect mode of existence of money as money’?

Why does it appear in the credit system `as if the power of the alien, material force were

broken’?

Why is `an organised banking system’ the Saint Simonian ideal?



Page XXVI Critique of the socialists

Why is this `abolition of estrangement … only an appearance’?

What is the essence of credit? Why is credit the ultimate form of self-estrangement? (Again

Marx distinguishes content, which is of only passing interest, from form/essence, which is the

focus of his critique).

What is the status of this critique of the credit system? Is it only a moral critique? Or is it a

phenomenological critique? Or is it a theoretical critique?

Where has the `antithesis between capitalist and worker’ come from? What, if anything, has

this to do with money and credit?



Page XXVII

What is `the secret contained in the lie of moral recognition’?

Marx now moves back to exchange to develop further the philosophical critique that he began

in relation to money at the beginning of the text. What is the difference between the exchange

of human activity `within production itself and of human products against one another’? Why

is this `equivalent to species activity and species-spirit’? How does this relate to Adam

Smith’s idea of the propensity of humans to `truck, barter and exchange’? What is human

nature? What is the `true community’? Why does this community appear `in the form of

estrangement’?

Why does Marx counterpose the idea of the community as being produced directly by the

life-activity of individuals to the idea of the true community as coming into being through

reflection and counterpose men as an abstraction to men as real, living particular individuals?

What would Marx think of post-modernism?

The critique comes back to political economy which `defines the estranged form of social

intercourse as the essential and original form corresponding to man’s nature’. What does

Marx mean by this?



Page XXVIII The critique of political economy and the critique of property

The key lies in the starting point: `Political economy - like the real process - starts out from

the relation of man to man as that of property owner to property owner’. If this is the real

starting point, why is it wrong to start with it in theory? Marx summarises the logic of

political economy’s argument in this and the next page, developing his critique of political

economy that will be the basis of his theory of the form of value in Capital.

`The social connection between the two property owners is that of reciprocity in alienation …

whereas in simple private property, alienation occurs only in relation to oneself, one-sidedly’.

What does this mean, precisely?

Exchange is the social act which is the opposite of the social relationship. What does this

mean?

What is alienated private property?

What does the word alienation mean?

Is it good, bad or indifferent for personal property to become alienated property?

How does the mode of existence of private property become that of an equivalent?

What is an exchange value?

What does this mean: `Its mode of existence as value is an alienated designation of itself.

Different from its immediate existence, external to its specific nature, a merely relative mode

of existence’?



Page XXIX

What is the significance of Marx’s distinction between the purpose of labour and the mode of

existence of labour?

Is the division of labour a bad thing? Or is it the exchange of the products of labour as values

that is a bad thing? Does Marx distinguish the two here? What is the difference? Look at the

second half of page XXXIII for a description of human exchange.

In the middle of the page we have the first formulation of the theory of alienated labour that is

developed shortly afterwards in the 1844 manuscripts. Compare the two passages.

`Just as the concept of the equivalent, the value, already implied the alienation of private

property, so money is the sensuous, even objective existence of this alienation’. Is this just

rhetoric? What is its theoretical basis?

Page XXX

`Political economy is only able to grasp this whole development as a fact, as the outcome of

fortuitous necessity’. Marx started off by contrasting real living individuals to abstractions.

Now he seems to be denouncing political economy for its empiricism. Is Marx offering a

metaphysical, anti-empiricist critique of political economy?





The rest of the text does not really add anything more. The bottom of page XXXI and top of

page XXXII develops the phenomenology of exchange a little bit, drawing heavily on Hegel

and getting a bit rhetorical.

At the bottom of page XXXII Marx contrasts alienated property with ‘true property’.

There is an interesting discussion of means and ends at the top of page XXXIII that adds

something to the discussion.



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