AVIATION SAFETY REVIEW
Charles W. Chesnut
January 16, 2012
Topics
1. Pilot Challenge
2. Regulations
3. V-Speeds and Airspeed Indicator Markings
4. Emergency Procedures
5. Thunderstorms
6. Operations at Towered Airports
7. Airport Lighting – VFR
8. Tailwheel Operations
9. Ups and Downs of Takeoffs and Landings
10. Flight Review
QUIT
Pilot Challenge
1. Are winds aloft forecasted relative to true or magnetic north?
A. True
B. Magnetic
1. Are winds aloft forecasted relative to true or magnetic north?
A. True
B. Magnetic
• Winds aloft are forecast in true direction. Keep this in mind when flight planning, as you
should figure in the wind correction angle before adding or subtracting the magnetic
variation from the planned course.
2. What is an isobar?
A. A taxiway marking denoting the barrier between a movement area and a non-movement area
B. A line connecting areas of equal/constant barometric pressure
C. A line connecting areas of equal/constant temperature
D. A line of magnetic variation
2. What is an isobar?
A. A taxiway marking denoting the barrier between a movement area and a non-movement
area
B. A line connecting areas of equal/constant barometric pressure
C. A line connecting areas of equal/constant temperature
D. A line of magnetic variation
• An isobar is used on weather charts to connect areas of equal barometric pressure.
They can be helpful in showing the intensity of the pressure gradient (which correlates
to wind speed) and the general direction of the wind flow (parallel to the isobars).
3. The stall speed in landing configuration is indicated on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
of the ________ arc.
A. White
B. Green
C. Yellow
3. The stall speed in landing configuration is indicated on the airspeed indicator by the bottom
of the ________ arc.
A. White
B. Green
C. Yellow
• The stall speed in landing configuration (VSO) is depicted on the airspeed indicator by the
bottom of white arc.
• The bottom of the green arc shows the stalling speed in the clean configuration (VS1).
• The yellow arc denotes the caution range
4. Nighttime, as applicable to pilot currency for carrying passengers, is defined as:
A. Sunset to sunrise
B. One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise
C. 30 minutes after civil twilight to 30 minutes before civil twilight
D. 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise
4. Nighttime, as applicable to pilot currency for carrying passengers, is defined as:
A. Sunset to sunrise
B. One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise
C. 30 minutes after civil twilight to 30 minutes before civil twilight
D. 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise
• As applicable to pilot currency for carrying passengers, nighttime is defined as one hour after
sunset to one hour before sunrise, as stated in FAR 61.57(b)(1).
5. According to FAR 61.60, if you change your permanent mailing address, you must notify the
FAA within ________ days in order to exercise the privileges of your certificate.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
5. According to FAR 61.60, if you change your permanent mailing address, you must notify the
FAA within ________ days in order to exercise the privileges of your certificate.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
• According to FAR 61.60, you must notify the FAA within 30 days of a change in permanent
mailing address.
6. What is magnetic variation?
A. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north
B. The corrections shown on the compass card that account for magnetic interference from the
avionics and engine
C. The tendency of a heading indicator to precess over time
6. What is magnetic variation?
A. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north
B. The corrections shown on the compass card that account for magnetic interference from the
avionics and engine
C. The tendency of a heading indicator to precess over time
• Magnetic variation is the term used to describe the angular difference between true north
and magnetic north, and should be used in flight planning to determine magnetic courses
and headings. The corrections noted on a compass card refer to magnetic deviation.
7. In the Northern Hemisphere, on an easterly or westerly heading, a magnetic compass will
indicate a turn to the _________ when ________ .
A. north, decelerating
B. north, accelerating
C. south, accelerating
7. In the Northern Hemisphere, on an easterly or westerly heading, a magnetic compass will
indicate a turn to the _________ when ________ .
A. north, decelerating
B. north, accelerating
C. south, accelerating
• When on an easterly or westerly heading, a magnetic compass will indicate a turn to the
north when accelerating. Remember the memory device "ANDS" - Accelerate North,
Decelerate South.
8. A "fouled plug" is a spark plug that _____ .
A. has been damaged by detonation and does not spark
B. is beyond its useful life and in need of replacement
C. is inhibited by lead or carbon deposits
8. A "fouled plug" is a spark plug that _____ .
A. has been damaged by detonation and does not spark
B. is beyond its useful life and in need of replacement
C. is inhibited by lead or carbon deposits
• A fouled plug refers to a spark plug that has lead or carbon running engine, run the engine
at full throttle briefly with the mixture leaned to burn off any contamination deposits which
prevent it from firing properly. A common cause of fouling is running the engine too rich,
especially during taxi. If the magneto check reveals a rough, and try the magneto check again.
If the engine runs smoothly during the second mag check, the problem is resolved. If not, it's
best to have a mechanic take a look.
9. Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual inspection?
A. Yes
B. No
9. Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual inspection?
A. Yes
B. No
• A 100-hour inspection will not count for an annual inspection, but an annual
inspection will count for a 100-hour inspection. According to FAR 91.409(b), 100-
hour checks are only required if the aircraft is to be used for flight training or
carrying passengers for hire.
10. An ATC clearance to "taxi to runway one-eight" means that you may cross other runways
that intersect the taxi route to runway one-eight.
A. True
B. False
10. An ATC clearance to "taxi to runway one-eight" means that you may cross other runways
that intersect the taxi route to runway one-eight.
A. True
B. False
• Unless the tower specifies you must hold short, a clearance to taxi to a runway means that
you may cross other runways that intersect the taxi route.
END OF QUIZ
Regulations
1. You have ____ days to inform the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of a change of address.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
1. You have ____ days to inform the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of a change of address.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
• Per Part 61.60, pilots have 30 days to inform the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of a change
of address. If you fail to do so, you may not exercise the privileges of your certificate(s) until
you provide your current address.
2. You must have a current medical certificate to exercise the privileges of any airman
certificate.
A. True
B. False
2. You must have a current medical certificate to exercise the privileges of any airman
certificate.
A. True
B. False
• FAR 61.3(c)(2) describes several instances when current medical certificates are not required.
For example, CFIs may exercise the privileges of their certificates without a current medical,
provided they are not acting as PIC. Also, sport pilots are not required to hold a current
medical, which is one of the attractive features of that certificate. However, sport pilots must
have a valid U.S. driver's license, and may not have been denied (or know they have a
condition that would prevent the issuance of) a medical certificate, had the most recently
issued medical certificate revoked, or a special-issuance medical withdrawn.
3. A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate is valid for ____ days.
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
3. A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate is valid for ____ days.
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
• A temporary certificate is valid for 120 days, as specified in FAR 61.17. If your temporary
certificate is about to expire and you haven't received a permanent certificate, you should
contact the local FAA flight standards district office (FSDO) to request an extension or to have
the temporary certificate reissued.
4. Your first-class medical certificate expired 12 months ago. In order to exercise private pilot
privileges, you must ____.
A. Renew the first-class medical certificate
B. Obtain a second-class medical certificate
C. Obtain a third-class medical certificate
D. None of the above
4. Your first-class medical certificate expired 12 months ago. In order to exercise private pilot
privileges, you must ____.
A. Renew the first-class medical certificate
B. Obtain a second-class medical certificate
C. Obtain a third-class medical certificate
D. None of the above
• You needn't do anything. A first-class medical certificate that expired 12 months ago is still
valid for exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate. Here's why: A first-class medical
(required for ATPs) is valid for six months. If a pilot chooses not to renew the first-class
certificate during this time, it reverts to second-class privileges (required for commercial
pilots) for the following six months. At that point, the certificate continues to provide third-
class medical privileges (required for private pilots) for another 12 to 24 months, depending
on whether the pilot was over or under age 40 on the date of the exam. For more
information, see FAR 61.23 or AOPA's Medical Certification Center. Note: For pilots under age
40, the FAA recently proposed increasing the duration of first-class medical certificates (from
six to 12 months) and third-class medical certificates (from 36 to 60 months).
5. A flight review must include a minimum of ____ hour(s) of ground training and ____ hours(s)
of flight time.
A. One; one
B. One; two
C. Two; one
D. Two; two
5. A flight review must include a minimum of ____ hour(s) of ground training and ____ hours(s)
of flight time.
A. One; one
B. One; two
C. Two; one
D. Two; two
• As specified by FAR 61.56, a flight review consists of a minimum of one hour of ground
training and one hour of flight training. Note that these are minimum times and many flight
reviews take longer. Also, the requirements of FAR 61.56 can be met in ways other than a
flight review, such as acquiring a new rating or certificate or completing a phase of the FAA's
pilot proficiency award program (Wings).
6. Federal aviation regulations require pilots to log every flight in which they served as PIC.
A. True
B. False
6. Federal aviation regulations require pilots to log every flight in which they served as PIC.
A. True
B. False
• According to FAR 61.51, you must log only that time used for training for a rating or
certificate, or to satisfy recent experience requirements. You do not need to record any other
time in your logbook, though pilots may also record flight time to satisfy insurance
requirements or simply to have a record of their flight time and flying experiences.
7. You have ____ days to retake the relevant portions of a failed practical test (check ride)
before having to retake it in its entirety.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
7. You have ____ days to retake the relevant portions of a failed practical test (check ride)
before having to retake it in its entirety.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
• FAR 61.43(f)(1) specifies that you must retake the relevant portions of the flight test within
60 days. After 60 days, you'll have to retake the entire checkride.
8. A complex endorsement is required to act as PIC of an airplane that has
retractable landing gear and ____.
A. An engine of more than 200 horsepower
B. A controllable-pitch
C. Flaps
D. A and B
E. B and C
8. A complex endorsement is required to act as PIC of an airplane that has
retractable landing gear and ____.
A. An engine of more than 200 horsepower
B. A controllable-pitch
C. Flaps
D. A and B
E. B and C
• According to FAR 61.31(e), a complex aircraft has retractable landing gear, a controllable-
pitch propeller, and flaps. (Seaplanes need only flaps and a controllable-pitch propeller to be
considered complex.) A specific endorsement from an authorized flight instructor is required
to act as PIC of complex airplanes.
9. Takeoffs and full-stop landings qualify toward night currency if they take place
____.
A. In the absence of a full moon
B. Between sunset and sunrise
C. At least 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise
D. At least one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise
9. Takeoffs and full-stop landings qualify toward night currency if they take place
____.
A. In the absence of a full moon
B. Between sunset and sunrise
C. At least 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise
D. At least one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise
• FAR 61.57(b) states that, in order to act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers during the
period beginning one hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise, you must have
made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during this period within the
preceding 90 days.
10. A private pilot is permitted to share no more than half of the operating costs of a flight
(e.g., rental fees, fuel), regardless of the number of passengers.
A. True
B. False
10. A private pilot is permitted to share no more than half of the operating costs of a flight
(e.g., rental fees, fuel), regardless of the number of passengers.
A. True
B. False
• The proportion of total costs you are permitted to share varies with the number of
passengers. According to FAR 61.113 (c), a private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata
share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers. In other words, if you fly with
only one other person, you have to pay at least half. But fly with two or three passengers,
and you may pay as little as one-third or one-fourth of the costs, respectively, without
violating the regulations
END OF QUIZ
V-Speeds and Airspeed Indicator Markings
1. The green arc on the airspeed indicator denotes the _____ range
A. Flap operating
B. Landing gear extended
C. Maximum airbrake
D. Normal operating
1. The green arc on the airspeed indicator denotes the _____ range
A. Flap operating
B. Landing gear extended
C. Maximum airbrake
D. Normal operating
• The green arc signifies the normal operating range for the aircraft. The bottom of the green
arc is Vs (stalling speed in the clean configuration). The top of the green arc is Vno (maximum
structural cruising speed).
2. The airspeed indicator's white arc signifies the _____ speed range.
A. Landing gear retraction
B. Flap operating
C. Turbulence penetration
D. Normal operating
2. The airspeed indicator's white arc signifies the _____ speed range.
A. Landing gear retraction
B. Flap operating
C. Turbulence penetration
D. Normal operating
• The white arc is the flap operating speed range. The top of the arc denotes Vfe, (maximum
flaps extended speed), and the bottom of the arc denotes Vso, (stalling speed in the landing
configuration). Note that some aircraft have additional flap speeds. For example, approach
flaps on some aircraft can be deployed above the white arc. It's the responsibility of the pilot
to know these limitations and not to rely exclusively on the airspeed indicator markings.
3. The yellow arc on the airspeed indicator signifies the _____ speed range.
A. Normal operating
B. Flap-deployed
C. Caution
D. Low-speed handling range
3. The yellow arc on the airspeed indicator signifies the _____ speed range.
A. Normal operating
B. Flap-deployed
C. Caution
D. Low-speed handling range
• The yellow arc of the airspeed indicator denotes the caution range for the aircraft. Only
operate at speeds in this range when you're in smooth air. The top of the yellow arc signifies
Vne (never-exceed speed) and the bottom, Vno (maximum structural cruising speed).
A.
4. Which airspeed indicator marking denotes Vne?
A. Red radial line
B. Blue radial line
C. Top of the green arc
D. Bottom of the white arc
4. Which airspeed indicator marking denotes Vne?
A. Red radial line
B. Blue radial line
C. Top of the green arc
D. Bottom of the white arc
• Vne, (never-exceed speed), is denoted by the red radial line at the top of the caution range
of the airspeed indicator or airspeed tape. It is the speed beyond which structural damage
can result from the aerodynamic forces involved
5. Which V-speed should you fly to achieve the best angle of climb?
A. Va
B. Vx
C. Vy
D. Vfe
5. Which V-speed should you fly to achieve the best angle of climb?
A. Va
B. Vx
C. Vy
D. Vfe
• Best angle of climb is known as Vx. This is the speed that will provide the most altitude in the
shortest horizontal distance. Vx is typically used in short-field operations when it's imperative
to gain altitude prior to reaching some point, such as an obstacle. Vy, on the other hand, is
the best rate of climb speed; it's used to get the most efficient gain in altitude over a given
period of time.
6. What is the definition of Vs?
A. Stalling speed
B. Single-engine climb speed
C. Landing configuration stall speed
D. Subsonic safety speed
6. What is the definition of Vs?
A. Stalling speed
B. Single-engine climb speed
C. Landing configuration stall speed
D. Subsonic safety speed
• Vs, located at the bottom of the green arc, is the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
speed at which the airplane is controllable (generally in the "clean" configuration).
7. What is Vso?
A. Single-engine operating speed
B. Stalling speed, landing configuration
C. Stalling speed, clean configuration
D. Stalling speed, one engine inoperative
7. What is Vso?
A. Single-engine operating speed
B. Stalling speed, landing configuration
C. Stalling speed, clean configuration
D. Stalling speed, one engine inoperative
• Vso, located at the bottom of the white arc, is the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
Normally, this means having landing gear deployed, full flaps, and a power setting
appropriate for landing.
8. Which of the following does not appear on the airspeed indicator?
A. Maneuvering speed
B. Stalling speed, landing configuration
C. Best rate of climb speed
D. Never-exceed speed
E. Both A and C
8. Which of the following does not appear on the airspeed indicator?
A. Maneuvering speed
B. Stalling speed, landing configuration
C. Best rate of climb speed
D. Never-exceed speed
E. Both A and C
• Maneuvering speed and best rate of climb speed (Vy) do not appear on the airspeed
indicator. Va (maneuvering speed) varies with an aircraft's weight, making it difficult to mark
a particular spot on an airspeed indicator. Vy (best rate of climb speed) isn't specifically
marked on the airspeed indicator because the actual speed changes somewhat with ambient
conditions.
9. What procedure should you follow if you realize your airspeed is above Vne?
A. Decrease power, reduce bank, and seek a level pitch
B. Pitch up to decrease airspeed
C. Deploy flaps to increase drag
9. What procedure should you follow if you realize your airspeed is above Vne?
A. Decrease power, reduce bank, and seek a level pitch
B. Pitch up to decrease airspeed
C. Deploy flaps to increase drag
• Above Vne, there are no guarantees that the airframe will not become overstressed and
incur structural damage. Should the aircraft ever exceed Vne, every effort should be made to
slow the aircraft down by reducing power and using very gentle control inputs to avoid
damage to the airframe.
10. An airplane will always stall at the bottom of the white arc.
A. True
B. False
10. An airplane will always stall at the bottom of the white arc.
A. True
B. False
• A variety of factors influence stall speeds, including ambient conditions, aircraft CG, pilot
technique, and other factors. Although the bottom of the white arc (Vso), is the airspeed at
which the aircraft stalled when it was tested for certification, many factors can cause that
speed to vary by several knots.
END OF QUIZ
Emergency Procedures
1. What should your first priority be in an emergency?
A. Declare an emergency to ATC
B. Squawk 7700
C. Activate the ELT
D. Fly the aircraft
1. What should your first priority be in an emergency?
A. Declare an emergency to ATC
B. Squawk 7700
C. Activate the ELT
D. Fly the aircraft
• The first order of business in an emergency is to fly the aircraft. Remembering to "aviate,
navigate, and communicate," in that order, will help keep a pilot from creating more trouble
for him/herself during an emergency situation.
2. What transponder code should be squawked in an emergency?
A. 7500
B. 7600
C. 7700
D. None of the above
2. What transponder code should be squawked in an emergency?
A. 7500
B. 7600
C. 7700
D. None of the above
• The standard emergency transponder code is 7700. Code 7600 is used by aircraft
experiencing a communication failure, and 7500 is used to signal to ATC that an aircraft has
been hijacked.
3. What is/are potential source(s) of help during an emergency?
A. Checklists
B. Autopilot (if installed)
C. Air Traffic Control
D. Other pilots
E. All of the above
3. What is/are potential source(s) of help during an emergency?
A. Checklists
B. Autopilot (if installed)
C. Air Traffic Control
D. Other pilots
E. All of the above
• All of the above - This is the correct answer. All of these sources can all be helpful in an
emergency. Checklists ensure the pilot doesn't miss important items, autopilots can hold the
airplane steady while troubleshooting an equipment failure, ATC can offer priority vectors to
the nearest airport, and other pilots can circle an aircraft, relay communications, and guide
search and rescue to the site after a forced landing.
4. If you encounter severe or extreme turbulence, you should reduce airspeed to at or below
____.
A. Vno
B. Va
C. Vy
D. Vs
4. If you encounter severe or extreme turbulence, you should reduce airspeed to at or below
____.
A. Vno
B. Va
C. Vy
D. Vs
• Va - This is the correct answer. Penetrating turbulence at or below Va (design maneuvering
speed) helps assure that a gust or sudden upset of the aircraft will force it to stall before
exceeding design load limits, reducing the possibility of over-stressing the airframe in rough
conditions.
5. After a forced landing in a remote area, you should venture off and seek help.
A. True
B. False
5. After a forced landing in a remote area, you should venture off and seek help.
A. True
B. False
• False -Staying close to the aircraft has several benefits. First, if the ELT is functioning properly,
its signal will eventually guide search and rescue to its location. Also, the aircraft is much
larger than a person, providing a more easily identified visual target for search and rescue
personnel. Finally, the aircraft itself can provide shelter from the elements, provided it is not
in an unsafe condition following a forced landing.
6. In the event of an engine failure (assume a single-engine airplane) during the takeoff climb,
the best course of action is to make a 180-degree turn back to the runway.
A. True
B. False
6. In the event of an engine failure (assume a single-engine airplane) during the takeoff climb,
the best course of action is to make a 180-degree turn back to the runway.
A. True
B. False
• False -Two factors conspire against a pilot attempting a power-off 180-degree turn back to
the runway: time and descent rate. If an engine fails below pattern altitude (1,000 feet agl),
there is insufficient time to make the turn back to the runway. First, it takes an average pilot
5-6 seconds to react to a total engine failure. Then, it takes approximately 75 seconds in a
standard-rate turn to complete a 225-degree turn back to the runway environment (180
degrees to the reciprocal heading, plus 45 degrees to point the nose at the center of the
field). If at 1,000 feet agl, the pilot will have a 15-second deficit to complete the turn, and a
much greater deficit if attempting such a turn below pattern altitude. Additionally, turns rob
an aircraft of energy and increase its descent rate. During a low-altitude engine failure, it is
imperative to land as close to straight ahead as possible and not risk the stall/spin scenario
frequently associated with a power-off turn back to the runway.
7. If you encounter smoke or fire in the cockpit, you should immediately ____.
A. Turn off as many electronic components as possible Frequently, fire or smoke in the cockpit
is caused by an electrical problem.
B. Open the windows to vent the cabin
C. Declare an emergency to ATC
D. Descend at Vne to land as soon as possible
7. If you encounter smoke or fire in the cockpit, you should immediately ____.
A. Turn off as many electronic components as possible Frequently, fire or smoke in the
cockpit is caused by an electrical problem.
B. Open the windows to vent the cabin
C. Declare an emergency to ATC
D. Descend at Vne to land as soon as possible
• Turning off as many electronic components as possible can de-energize a short, allowing
the affected component to cool and reducing the chance of the fire continuing. If you must
keep some of your avionics on (as when flying in IMC or at night), carefully monitor the
situation and be ready to turn off additional components if the smoke or fire continues.
8. What can you do to mitigate the risks associated with a vacuum failure?
A. Practice partial-panel operations
B. Install a backup vacuum system
C. Adhere to the manufacturer's maintenance guidelines Install backup flight instruments
D. All of the above
8. What can you do to mitigate the risks associated with a vacuum failure?
A. Practice partial-panel operations
B. Install a backup vacuum system
C. Adhere to the manufacturer's maintenance guidelines Install backup flight instruments
D. All of the above
• All of these options can help mitigate the risks associated with a vacuum failure, especially in
IMC. A vacuum failure is a critical emergency when flying "in the soup," and the large
majority of these malfunctions result in fatal crashes. Pilots can increase their chances by
practicing partial-panel operations, adhering to vacuum pump maintenance and replacement
guidelines, and installing backup flight instruments. A few thousand dollars spent on a backup
vacuum system or backup electric attitude indicator is a small price to pay for the redundancy
and safety these items can provide.
9. When flying a VFR cross-country, how can you increase your chances of being found in the
event of an off-airport landing?
A. File a flight plan
B. Leave your cell phone number with family and friends
C. Install a 406 MHz ELT in your aircraft
D. All of the above
9. When flying a VFR cross-country, how can you increase your chances of being found in the
event of an off-airport landing?
A. File a flight plan
B. Leave your cell phone number with family and friends
C. Install a 406 MHz ELT in your aircraft
D. All of the above
• All of these can help. Filing a flight plan is the first step to increasing your chances of being
found by search and rescue. Filing one takes just a few minutes, and it can be opened and
closed quickly and easily with Flight Service. Installing a 406 MHz ELT also increases your
chances. These advanced ELTs are more reliable and powerful than the 121.5/243.0 MHz ELTs
currently installed in most GA aircraft. While more expensive than older-generation ELTs, 406
MHz units should be carefully considered by pilots who fly over uninhabited or rugged areas
regularly. Finally, leaving your cell phone number with family and friends allows them to
contact you in the event you don't arrive at your destination on time or forget to close your
flight plan after landing.
10. What is your best option if an aircraft door opens at rotation?
A. Reach across and try to latch it
B. Immediately reduce power to idle and apply maximum braking
C. Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and land, and then address the problem on the
ground
10. What is your best option if an aircraft door opens at rotation?
A. Reach across and try to latch it
B. Immediately reduce power to idle and apply maximum braking
C. Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and land, and then address the problem on the
ground
• Continue the takeoff, return to the airport and land, and then address the problem on the
ground -For most aircraft, making a trip in the pattern, landing, and then addressing the door
problem is your best bet. Reaching across the cockpit to close a door during takeoff is a bad
idea that can lead to a loss of control of the aircraft. Aborted takeoffs can be hazardous on
short runways, and heavy braking can blow a tire and cause further problems.
END OF QUIZ
Thunderstorms
1. As long as a lifting action is present, a thunderstorm can form in dry or moist air.
A. True
B. False
1. As long as a lifting action is present, a thunderstorm can form in dry or moist air.
A. True
B. False
• False- Three components are necessary for a thunderstorm to form — sufficient moisture,
unstable air, and a lifting action. Without any one of these conditions, a thunderstorm will
not develop.
2. The three stages of a thunderstorm are _____.
A. Single-cell, multicell, and super- cell
B. Stratus, cumulonimbus, and anvil
C. Cumulus, mature, and dissipating
2. The three stages of a thunderstorm are _____.
A. Single-cell, multicell, and super- cell
B. Stratus, cumulonimbus, and anvil
C. Cumulus, mature, and dissipating
• Cumulus, mature, and dissipating -This is the correct answer. Intense vertical development
builds the original cloud during the first, or cumulus, stage. The mature stage begins when
precipitation falls from the cloud. Thunder and lightning will also occur. The cloud eventually
becomes so saturated with moisture that it is no longer able to support its own weight.
Eventually the cloud will reach an altitude at which vertical development will cease. At this
point, strong upper-level winds will spread the top of the cloud horizontally, creating an anvil
shape. This distinctive shape is an indication of the final, or dissipating, stage.
3. Lightning always occurs with a thunderstorm.
A. True
B. False
3. Lightning always occurs with a thunderstorm.
A. True
B. False
• Lightning will always occur during a thunderstorm. The intense air circulation inside a
thunderstorm causes an excessive amount of negative charge that is released in the form of
lightning. The extreme heat generated by lightning causes the air to rapidly expand, which we
hear as thunder. Pilots should also expect severe turbulence, strong wind gusts, icing, hail,
and wind shear, which are also commonly associated with thunderstorms.
4. If hail is present in a thunderstorm, you can rely on the nearest automated weather station
to report it.
A. True
B. False
4. If hail is present in a thunderstorm, you can rely on the nearest automated weather station
to report it.
A. True
B. False
• False- Significantly warmer temperatures at lower altitudes can melt hail before it reaches
the ground, preventing automated weather systems from detecting hail at higher altitudes.
Hail forms when super cooled water droplets inside a thunderstorm are drawn upward by the
strong updrafts, freeze, and then collect more water particles in downdrafts before being
forced upward again. This process, called accretion, will continue until the hail becomes
heavy enough to fall out of the cloud.
5. Embedded thunderstorms are uniquely hazardous because they are _____.
A. Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily seen
B. Often strong, severe and move quickly
C. A cluster of thunderstorms in various stages
5. Embedded thunderstorms are uniquely hazardous because they are _____.
A. Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily seen
B. Often strong, severe and move quickly
C. A cluster of thunderstorms in various stages
• A - Surrounded by other clouds and are not easily seen - Embedded thunderstorms are not
necessarily more hazardous than any other type. However, they are more difficult to detect
because they are hidden among other clouds. This makes it more common for pilots to
inadvertently fly into these storms, especially during instrument meteorological conditions
(IMC). Strong, severe and quick moving storms are typically in a squall line. A cluster of
thunderstorms in various stages of development are collectively referred to as a multi cell
thunderstorm.
6. If flying in the vicinity of a weakening thunderstorm, a pilot should be most concerned about
_____.
A. Heavy rain showers
B. Strong downdrafts
C. Frequent ground lightning
6. If flying in the vicinity of a weakening thunderstorm, a pilot should be most concerned about
_____.
A. Heavy rain showers
B. Strong downdrafts
C. Frequent ground lightning
• Strong downdrafts - Hazardous wind conditions may exist within several miles of a
dissipating thunderstorm. As the cloud collapses, the thunderstorm weakens, producing
strong downdrafts, gusty winds, low-level wind shear, and micro bursts. AIM 7-1-30
encourages pilots to avoid thunderstorms by at least 20 miles.
7. Thunderstorms produce wind shear along _____ of a thunderstorm.
A. The upwind side
B. The downwind side
C. All sides
7. Thunderstorms produce wind shear along _____ of a thunderstorm.
A. The upwind side
B. The downwind side
C. All sides
• All sides - This is the correct answer. Wind shear can be found on all sides of a thunderstorm.
This "shear zone" occurs when the cool air from strong downdrafts expands and collides with
the surrounding air outside of the cloud, causing gusty winds and severe turbulence.
• Pilots who experience weather associated with thunderstorms are encouraged to submit a
pilot report (pirep) when able to provide other pilots with information about the actual
conditions aloft. If the details of submitting a pirep seem like a distant memory, take ASF's
interactive online course SkySpotter: Pireps Made Easy to see how quick and easy it really is
to get, use, and give pireps.
8. Bright lightning is the best way to identify a thunderstorm at night.
A. True
B. False
8. Bright lightning is the best way to identify a thunderstorm at night.
A. True
B. False
• False is the correct answer. Although a thunderstorm always produces lightning, it is
sometimes more difficult to recognize a thunderstorm at night or during IMC, especially if it's
embedded. The frequency of lightning flashes depends on the stage and strength of a
thunderstorm. Even if a pilot cannot see lightning, the storm may produce severe turbulence
and hail that could lead to structural damage.
• Getting a thorough weather briefing before takeoff is the first step in avoiding
thunderstorms. During flight, contact En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS), commonly
known as Flight Watch, on 122.0 to obtain weather advisories specific to your route.
9. If you accidentally fly into a thunderstorm, what should you do?
A. Maintain altitude and increase airspeed to get through the thunderstorm more quickly.
B. Immediately execute a 20-degree bank, decrease airspeed and reverse course to exit the
thunderstorm.
C. Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain a cruise airspeed below maneuvering
speed (VA).
9. If you accidentally fly into a thunderstorm, what should you do?
A. Maintain altitude and increase airspeed to get through the thunderstorm more quickly.
B. Immediately execute a 20-degree bank, decrease airspeed and reverse course to exit the
thunderstorm.
C. Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain a cruise airspeed below maneuvering
speed (VA).
• Attempt to maintain a level attitude and maintain a cruise airspeed below maneuvering
speed (VA) is the correct answer. If you encounter a thunderstorm in flight, it is important to
be more concerned about attitude than altitude. Attempt to maintain a level attitude and
maintain a cruise speed below maneuvering speed (VA) to avoid structural damage to the
aircraft. Remember: VA varies with weight and therefore is found in your POH, not on your
airspeed indicator. If able, also contact ATC to advise them of the situation; they may be able
to provide further assistance.
• Choosing to reverse your course to exit the storm is not advised. By keeping the wings level
and "riding" the up and downdrafts, you will reduce the risk of making abrupt control inputs
that could lead to a stall, unusual attitude, or damage to the aircraft.
10. ATC's main responsibility is to provide _____.
A. Pilots with hazardous weather advisories
B. Separation between VFR aircraft
C. Separation between IFR aircraft
10. ATC's main responsibility is to provide _____.
A. Pilots with hazardous weather advisories
B. Separation between VFR aircraft
C. Separation between IFR aircraft
• Separation between IFR aircraft is the correct answer. ATC's main responsibility is to provide
separation for aircraft operating on IFR flight plans. A variety of radar services are also
provided to VFR traffic, including traffic advisories, but only on a workload permitting basis.
Although ATC may offer weather advisories, it's not their main responsibility.
• Check out ASF's WeatherWise: Thunderstorms and ATC online course to learn how ATC
describes precipitation, what weather-radar services controllers can offer to pilots in flight,
and how to effectively communicate with ATC during flights near convective activity.
Remember, Flight Watch (122.0) is a great source of weather advisories while enroute. .
END OF QUIZ
Operations at Towered Airports
1. On a sectional chart, towered airports are depicted in _____.
A. Magenta
B. Blue
C. Black
1. On a sectional chart, towered airports are depicted in _____.
A. Magenta
B. Blue
C. Black
• On sectional charts, airports with a control tower are depicted in blue. Magenta depicts non
towered airports. Black icons are used to depict visual landmarks, not airports.
2. At a towered airport you receive instructions to "Taxi to Runway 35L" (the active runway).
The most direct route would cause you to cross Runway 26. May you cross Runway 26 (the
intersecting runway)?
A. Yes
B. No
2. At a towered airport you receive instructions to "Taxi to Runway 35L" (the active runway).
The most direct route would cause you to cross Runway 26. May you cross Runway 26 (the
intersecting runway)?
A. Yes
B. No
• When you are instructed to "taxi to" a runway and no instructions are given to hold short of
any other runways, AIM 4-3-18 states that all runways intersecting the taxi route may be
crossed. However, if you have any doubt about whether you have permission to cross a
runway, do not hesitate to ask ATC. Pilots are not permitted to cross, or taxi onto, the runway
they were cleared to (i.e., in this example a pilot could not taxi onto Runway 35L) without
further instructions.
3. When trying to avoid wake turbulence, the safest bet is to avoid the area _____ larger
aircraft.
A. Below and behind
B. Above and behind
C. At the same altitude as
3. When trying to avoid wake turbulence, the safest bet is to avoid the area _____ larger
aircraft.
A. Below and behind
B. Above and behind
C. At the same altitude as
• Because wake turbulence tends to sink, you want to avoid the area below and behind larger
aircraft. When landing behind a larger plane, fly above its approach path and land past its
touchdown point. When taking off behind a larger aircraft, take off before its rotation point
and climb out above its flight path (if possible).
• ATC can - and will - provide runway separation on takeoff by delaying the takeoff of small
aircraft when departing behind heavy (maximum takeoff weight of more than 255,000
pounds), large (maximum takeoff weight between 41,000 pounds and 255,000 pounds), and
Boeing 757 aircraft. In some cases, the pilot of the small aircraft can waive this delay;
however, the ASF suggests that you play it safe and wait for the required interval.
• AIM Chapter 7, Section 3 contains more information regarding wake turbulence.
4. When told to "maintain runway heading" after takeoff, you're expected to _____.
A. Track the extended centerline of the takeoff runway
B. Maintain runway heading, regardless of drift
4. When told to "maintain runway heading" after takeoff, you're expected to _____.
A. Track the extended centerline of the takeoff runway
B. Maintain runway heading, regardless of drift
• When cleared to "fly (or maintain) runway heading," pilots are expected to maintain the
runway heading, regardless of the amount of wind drift encountered. Since every aircraft is
experiencing the same amount of wind, ATC can predict the ground tracks when everyone is
holding the same heading as opposed to pilots applying varying degrees of wind correction to
track a centerline they can no longer see. To be technically correct, maintain the actual
magnetic heading of the runway, not the painted runway number (e.g., if Runway 4's actual
magnetic heading is 044, make an effort to maintain 044 as opposed to 040).
5. When you're approaching the airport to land, tower states that you are "cleared for the
option." What does this clearance allow you to do?
A. Choose the runway best suited for landing from your current position
B. Perform a stop-and-go, touch-and-go, or full-stop landing
C. Perform a low approach or missed approach
D. All of the above (A, B, and C)
E. B and C only
5. When you're approaching the airport to land, tower states that you are "cleared for the
option." What does this clearance allow you to do?
A. Choose the runway best suited for landing from your current position
B. Perform a stop-and-go, touch-and-go, or full-stop landing
C. Perform a low approach or missed approach
D. All of the above (A, B, and C)
E. B and C only
• The Pilot/Controller Glossary defines "Cleared for the option" as "ATC authorization for an
aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and go, or full-stop
landing at the discretion of the pilot." Also known as an option approach, this clearance
allows instructors to evaluate a student's performance under changing situations. If this
clearance is desired, a request should be made when entering downwind for a VFR traffic
pattern, or when passing the final approach fix inbound on an instrument approach. More
information can be found in AIM 4-3-22
6. After accepting a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance, you should _____.
A. Remain on the runway after landing, holding at the designated hold-short point
B. Exit the runway via the first convenient taxiway prior to reaching the hold short point
C. Cross the designated hold short point only after visually clearing the area
6. After accepting a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance, you should _____.
A. Remain on the runway after landing, holding at the designated hold-short point
B. Exit the runway via the first convenient taxiway prior to reaching the hold short point
C. Cross the designated hold short point only after visually clearing the area
• According to AIM 4-3-11, pilots who accept a LAHSO clearance should land and exit the
runway via the first convenient taxiway prior to reaching the hold short point. If there are no
convenient turnoffs, then simply stop prior to reaching the hold short point to avoid a traffic
conflict. The pilot-in- command has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO
clearance; in fact, pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if accepting the clearance
will compromise safety. When accepting a LAHSO clearance, full read back of your clearance
is required (i.e., "Piper Three- Five-Seven-Three Mike, cleared to land runway one-zero, hold
short of runway two-three"). If you decide to decline a LAHSO clearance, you should notify
ATC immediately by stating "unable." Student pilots may not accept a LAHSO clearance, and
LAHSO operations will only be conducted with a minimum of basic VFR weather conditions.
• The Air Safety Foundation recommends that you keep the landing distances you calculated
during preflight handy so that if offered a LAHSO clearance, you'll know whether or not you
can land safely.
7. When a part-time air traffic control tower is closed, you should _____.
A. Contact the appropriate Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) in order to obtain a
clearance to land
B. Self-Announce your intentions on the unicom frequency for that airport
C. Self-Announce your intentions on the common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
D. Treat the airport as a closed facility and find an alternate place to land
7. When a part-time air traffic control tower is closed, you should _____.
A. Contact the appropriate Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) in order to obtain a
clearance to land
B. Self-Announce your intentions on the unicom frequency for that airport
C. Self-Announce your intentions on the common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
D. Treat the airport as a closed facility and find an alternate place to land
• When the control tower is not in operation, you should communicate your intentions by self-
announcing on the common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF). The CTAF will commonly be
the tower frequency, but verify by looking in the A/FD or on the sectional chart. Even though
there is a control tower on the field, the airport operates as a non towered airport when the
tower is closed. On sectional charts, part-time towers are marked with a star symbol next to
the control tower frequency, with the times of tower operation listed in the control tower
frequencies table found on the front flap of the chart (and in the A/FD).
8. For traffic management purposes, which of the following techniques may air traffic
controllers request you to perform?
A. Fly a faster (or slower) final approach speed
B. Extend the downwind leg until ATC approves a turn to base leg
C. Switch to another runway
D. Perform a 360-degree turn to allow preceding traffic to clear
E. All of the above
• In order to keep the flow of traffic as smooth as possible, controllers may issue a variety of
instructions, some of which are not as common as others. These include: fly a faster or
slower approach speed, extend the downwind leg, switch to another runway, perform a 360-
degree turn, make S-turns on final, and any other maneuver they may deem appropriate for
the circumstances. If ATC asks you to fly a slower approach speed, don't fly too close to your
aircraft's stall speed. It's much better to tell ATC "unable" than to stall on final.
• Unless immediate action is required to avoid a collision, do not perform any of these
maneuvers without telling ATC. Their management of traffic flow is based on what they're
expecting you to do, and performing an unexpected maneuver could put you at odds with
another aircraft.
9. Except in the case of an emergency, you must receive an ATC clearance to land at a towered
airport when the tower is in operation.
A. True
B. False
• In order to land at a towered airport, you must first receive a clearance from ATC, as required
by FAR 91.129(i). When cleared to land, you must land on the runway specified by ATC. If
you've been cleared for just a low approach or missed approach, you may not touch down on
the runway.
• Remember: As pilot in command, you have the final authority to accept or reject an ATC
clearance. If you are not comfortable landing on the assigned runway, or want to use another
runway for training purposes, ask for another runway.
10. When unsure about your current location or taxi route, you can get help from ATC by
requesting _____.
A. Progressive taxi instructions
B. Proprietary taxi instructions
C. Sequential taxi instructions
D. An airport diagram
10. When unsure about your current location or taxi route, you can get help from ATC by
requesting _____.
A. Progressive taxi instructions
B. Proprietary taxi instructions
C. Sequential taxi instructions
D. An airport diagram
• If you are unfamiliar with the airport, or if for any reason confusion exists as to the correct
taxi routing, ask ATC for progressive taxi instructions, which include step-by-step directions
as you taxi for takeoff or to the ramp for parking. Progressive instructions may also be issued
if the controller deems it necessary due to traffic or field conditions, such as construction or
closed taxiways. If at any time you become disoriented at a towered airport, stop and ask ATC
for assistance (even if you can't remember the exact term "progressive taxi").
• Pilots should have an airport diagram ready before they start taxiing. If you don't have a fancy
multi-function display (MFD) that follows your every turn, you can download and print free
ASF airport diagrams.
END OF QUIZ
Airport Lighting – VFR
1. Taxiway edge lights are ____ in color.
A. Blue
B. Green
C. White
D. Red
1. Taxiway edge lights are ____ in color.
A. Blue
B. Green
C. White
D. Red
• Taxiway edge lights are blue in color. They are used to outline the edges of taxiways at night
or in reduced visibility conditions. Taxiway centerline lights are green in color, while runway
edge lights are white.
2. While taxiing for takeoff at night you see two pairs of flashing yellow lights on each side of
the taxiway. These are ____ lights.
A. Clearance Bar
B. Runway Guard
C. Stop Bar
2. While taxiing for takeoff at night you see two pairs of flashing yellow lights on each side of
the taxiway. These are ____ lights.
A. Clearance Bar
B. Runway Guard
C. Stop Bar
• Runway guard lights are found only at runway/taxiway intersections, and consist of either
elevated flashing lights on both sides of the taxiway, or of a row of flashing yellow in-
pavement lights. Some pilots refer to these as "wig-wag" lights. Clearance bar lights, which
are steady-burning, yellow, in-pavement lights, are used on taxiway holding positions to make
those positions more visible. Stop bar lights are a row of red, unidirectional, steady-burning
in-pavement lights installed across the entire taxiway at the runway holding position.
Following an ATC clearance to proceed, ATC turns the stop bar lights off and the taxiway
centerline lead-on lights are then turned on.
3. Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are listed on sectional charts.
A. True
B. False
3. Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are listed on sectional charts.
A. True
B. False
• Pilot-controlled lighting frequencies are not listed on sectional charts. While the CTAF is
commonly used for pilot-controlled lighting, this is not always the case. The proper frequency
is provided in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and on standard instrument approach
procedure charts.
4. When using pilot-controlled lighting, keying the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds
activates ____ intensity lighting.
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
4. When using pilot-controlled lighting, keying the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds
activates ____ intensity lighting.
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
• According to AIM section 2-1-7, keying the mic 7 times in 5 seconds activates the high-
intensity setting. Regardless of the intensity level the pilot desires, pilot-controlled lighting
systems require the number of desired keys (3, 5, or 7) to be completed within 5 seconds.
5. The glide path provided by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI), assures obstacle
clearance on a 6-mile final.
A. True
B. False
5. The glide path provided by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI), assures obstacle
clearance on a 6-mile final.
A. True
B. False
• The visual glide path provided by the VASI will provide safe obstacle clearance within +/- 10
degrees of the extended runway centerline (laterally) and out to 4 nautical miles from the
runway threshold. VASI visual glide paths are normally set at 3 degrees. While this is the
typical glide path, some locations may need to be as high as 4.5 degrees to ensure obstacle
clearance.
6. When using a 3-bar Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI), you see two red bars above one
white bar, you are _____.
A. On the lower glide path
B. On the upper glide path
C. Above both glide paths
6. When using a 3-bar Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI), you see two red bars above one
white bar, you are _____.
A. On the lower glide path
B. On the upper glide path
C. Above both glide paths
• Two red bars above one white bar indicate that you are on the lower glide path. Three-bar
VASI systems provide two visual glide paths, an upper and a lower. The upper glide path is
provided by the middle and far bar, while the near and middle bar are for the lower glide
path. The higher glide path is intended for use by high-cockpit aircraft to provide sufficient
threshold crossing height. Most general aviation pilots should use the 3-degree lower glide
path.
7. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) lights are typically visible about 5 miles from the
airport during the day and up to 20 miles at night.
A. True
B. False
7. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) lights are typically visible about 5 miles from the
airport during the day and up to 20 miles at night.
A. True
B. False
• PAPI is a system of lights arranged to provide visual descent guidance information to the pilot
during the approach to a runway. According to AIM section 2-1-2, these lights are visible from
about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles or more at night.
8. Runway End Identifier Lights (REILs) are a pair of synchronized flashing lights located on each
side of some runway thresholds for:
A. Identification of a runway surrounded by other ground lighting
B. Identification of a runway which lacks contrast with the surrounding terrain
C. Identification of a runway during reduced visibility conditions
D. All of the above
8. Runway End Identifier Lights (REILs) are a pair of synchronized flashing lights located on each
side of some runway thresholds for:
A. Identification of a runway surrounded by other ground lighting
B. Identification of a runway which lacks contrast with the surrounding terrain
C. Identification of a runway during reduced visibility conditions
D. All of the above
• REILs are installed at many airports to provide rapid and positive identification of the
approach end of a particular runway. They are most effective in helping a pilot to distinguish
the runway in areas with high levels of non-airport lighting, low contrast with surrounding
terrain, and reduced visibility conditions
9. On a VFR Sectional Chart, what symbol indicates that an airport has a rotating beacon?
A. A solid magenta circle
B. A blue or magenta star with an open circle in the center
C. A small dot next to the airport icon
D. An "R" next to the airport identifier
9. On a VFR Sectional Chart, what symbol indicates that an airport has a rotating beacon?
A. A solid magenta circle
B. A blue or magenta star with an open circle in the center
C. A small dot next to the airport icon
D. An "R" next to the airport identifier
• A blue or magenta star with an open circle in the center identifies an airport with a rotating
beacon that operates from sunset to sunrise.
10. While on a night flight, you see a rotating beacon flashing green and white. This is a(n)
____.
A. Military airport
B. Hospital heliport
C. Seaplane base
D. Civilian land airport
10. While on a night flight, you see a rotating beacon flashing green and white. This is a(n)
____.
A. Military airport
B. Hospital heliport
C. Seaplane base
D. Civilian land airport
• AIM section 2-1-8 specifies that green and white are the colors for a civilian land airport
beacon. A military airport's rotating beacon flashes green followed by two quick flashes of
white. A heliport can be identified by its green, yellow, and white beacon, while a seaplane
base's beacon flashes white and yellow.
END OF QUIZ
Tailwheel Operations
1. A pilot must hold a logbook endorsement in order to act as pilot in command (PIC) of a
tailwheel airplane unless he or she has logged PIC time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15,
1991.
A. True
B. False
1. A pilot must hold a logbook endorsement in order to act as pilot in command (PIC) of a
tailwheel airplane unless he or she has logged PIC time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15,
1991.
A. True
B. False
• According to FAR 61.31(i), pilots must receive and log flight training from an authorized flight
instructor in a tailwheel airplane and also receive a logbook endorsement to act as pilot in
command (PIC) unless he or she has logged PIC time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15,
1991.
2. An additional tailwheel endorsement is required for each _______.
A. Category and class of tailwheel airplane
B. Class of tailwheel airplane
C. Make and model of tailwheel airplane
D. None of the above
2. An additional tailwheel endorsement is required for each _______.
A. Category and class of tailwheel airplane
B. Class of tailwheel airplane
C. Make and model of tailwheel airplane
D. None of the above
• Per FAR 61.31, the one-time logbook endorsement applies to all tailwheel airplanes.
3. To act as PIC of a tailwheel airplane on a flight carrying passengers, a pilot must have made
at least three touch-and-go takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days.
A. True
B. False
3. To act as PIC of a tailwheel airplane on a flight carrying passengers, a pilot must have made
at least three touch-and-go takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days.
A. True
B. False
• According to FAR 61.57(a)(1), no pilot may act as PIC of a tailwheel airplane on a daytime
flight carrying passengers unless he or she has made three takeoffs and landings to a full stop
within the preceding 90 days.
4. The takeoffs and landings required for recent flight experience to carry passengers in a
tailwheel airplane must be made in any ________.
A. Aircraft within the same category.
B. Tailwheel or tricycle gear aircraft within the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is
required).
C. Tailwheel aircraft within the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required).
4. The takeoffs and landings required for recent flight experience to carry passengers in a
tailwheel airplane must be made in any ________.
A. Aircraft within the same category.
B. Tailwheel or tricycle gear aircraft within the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is
required).
C. Tailwheel aircraft within the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required).
• Per FAR 61.57, the three full-stop takeoffs and landings required for recent flight experience
must be made in any tailwheel airplane within the same category, class, and type (if a type
rating is required).
5. The main gear on a tailwheel airplane is usually located ______ of the center of gravity (CG).
A. Forward
B. Aft
5. The main gear on a tailwheel airplane is usually located ______ of the center of gravity (CG).
A. Forward
B. Aft
• On a tailwheel airplane, the main gear on a tail wheel airplane is usually located forward of
the center of gravity (CG). Because this tends to amplify yawing motion, improper rudder or
brake applications can easily lead to a ground loop—the term for what happens when the
airplane suddenly (and sometimes violently) swaps ends.
6. In a tailwheel airplane, a bounced landing will result in a lower angle of attack, which will
cause the aircraft to pitch down.
A. True
B. False
• A bounced landing typically causes the airplane to pitch up, and the resulting increased angle
of attack can cause it to become airborne again. This is more common in tailwheel airplanes
because the CG is aft of the main gear.
7. The two types of landings associated with tailwheel airplane operations are _____ and
______.
A. Wheel and three-point
B. Wheel and nose
C. Three-point and half-point
• Wheel (or two-point) landing: The airplane touches down in a level attitude. The main gear
should touch down first, followed by the tailwheel-but only after it can no longer be held off
the ground with elevator control input.
• Three-point (or stall) landing: With a slightly nose-up pitch attitude, the airplane should be
at minimum speed as all three wheels touch down at the same time. To determine the
appropriate pitch attitude, note the position of the horizon during taxi.
8. ______ landings provide more control effectiveness in crosswind conditions.
A. Three-point
B. Nose
C. Wheel
8. ______ landings provide more control effectiveness in crosswind conditions.
A. Three-point
B. Nose
C. Wheel
• Since the airplane touches down at a slightly higher airspeed, and at a lower angle of attack
(compared to a three-point landing), a properly-performed wheel landing provides more
control effectiveness after touchdown because of the increased airflow over the control
surfaces.
9. When taxiing into the wind (upwind), the stick (or yoke) should be ____ to keep the elevator
____.
A. Forward; up
B. Back; up
C. Forward; down
D. Back; down
9. When taxiing into the wind (upwind), the stick (or yoke) should be ____ to keep the elevator
____.
A. Forward; up
B. Back; up
C. Forward; down
D. Back; down
• When taxiing upwind, the stick (or yoke) should be held back to keep the elevator up. When
taxiing downwind, the stick (or yoke) should be pushed forward to keep the elevator down.
Holding the elevator up while taxiing downwind could allow a sudden gust of wind to pick the
tail up, causing the aircraft to nose over.
10. Grass runways are typically more forgiving than paved runways for practicing takeoffs and
landings in a tailwheel airplane.
A. True
B. False
10. Grass runways are typically more forgiving than paved runways for practicing takeoffs and
landings in a tailwheel airplane.
A. True
B. False
• Grass runways are typically more forgiving than paved runways for tailwheel airplanes
because rudder inputs are slightly "dampened" by the friction between the tailwheel and the
grass. In addition, the tailwheel has a tendency to track straighter on softer surfaces.
END OF QUIZ
Ups and Downs of Takeoffs and
Landings
1. Fifty percent of all pilot-related accidents occur during the takeoff or landing phase of flight.
A. True
B. False
1. Fifty percent of all pilot-related accidents occur during the takeoff or landing phase of flight.
A. True
B. False
• The Air Safety Foundation's 2006 Nall Report states that 50 percent of all pilot-related
accidents occur during the takeoff or landing phase. In addition, pilots with less than 500
hours of total time, or less than 100 hours in type, have a statistically greater risk of a takeoff
or landing accident
2. Which phase of flight accounts for more fatal accidents?
A. Takeoff
B. Landing
2. Which phase of flight accounts for more fatal accidents?
A. Takeoff
B. Landing
• Accidents during takeoff are much more likely to be fatal. Statistically, there are more
landing accidents overall, but fewer of them are fatal. The Air Safety Foundation's 2006 Nall
Report states that more than one out of three pilot-related accidents occurred during
landing.
• The Air Safety Foundation's Ups and Downs Safety Advisor reports that loss of control is the
leading cause of takeoff accidents, followed by aircraft configuration (landing gear and flap
positions), and then wind conditions. For landing accidents, loss of control is also the leading
cause, followed by wind conditions, and then surface conditions.
3. For which type of takeoff is it most critical that you know the current density altitude?
A. normal
B. soft-field
C. short-field
3. For which type of takeoff is it most critical that you know the current density altitude?
A. normal
B. soft-field
C. short-field
• Knowing the current density altitude is most critical for a short-field takeoff, especially in
mountainous terrain. Avoid the risk of an accident in high-density altitude conditions by
flying in the early morning or evening, when temperatures are typically cooler. You can also
reduce your takeoff weight by reducing cargo or fuel, but remember to keep an adequate
amount of fuel reserve! For more takeoff and landing risk management tips, read the Air
Safety Foundation's Ups and Downs Safety Advisor.
4. The Air Safety Foundation recommends adding ____ percent to the aircraft's POH takeoff
and landing distances over a 50-foot obstacle.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
4. The Air Safety Foundation recommends adding ____ percent to the aircraft's POH takeoff
and landing distances over a 50-foot obstacle.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
• ASF refers to adding 50 percent to the aircraft's POH takeoff or landing distance over a 50-
foot obstacle as the "50/50 solution". For example, if the distance over an obstacle requires
1,800 feet, add 900 feet (50 percent) for a safety distance of 2,700 feet. The distances listed
in your POH are determined by experienced test pilots flying new airplanes with new
engines. In reality, most pilots won't achieve those ideal numbers
5. When on the departure leg after takeoff, continue climbing straight ahead until reaching a
point beyond the departure end of the runway and within ____ feet of the traffic pattern
altitude or 500 AGL.
A. 200
B. 300
C. 500
5. When on the departure leg after takeoff, continue climbing straight ahead until reaching a
point beyond the departure end of the runway and within ____ feet of the traffic pattern
altitude or 500 AGL.
A. 200
B. 300
C. 500
• The Airplane Flying Handbook states that you should continue climbing straight ahead until
reaching a point beyond the departure end of the runway and within 300 feet of the traffic
pattern altitude or 500 feet above ground level. Of course, it can be even farther and higher
if an airport has specific noise abatement procedures.
• Noise abatement policies and procedures are listed under the "airport remarks" section of
the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD). They can also be found on the back of Jeppesen
approach plates and are often added to the end of an ATIS recording to alert pilots that they
are in effect.
6. When in the traffic pattern preparing to land, a pilot is most susceptible to an inadvertent
spin when turning ___ to ___.
A. crosswind, downwind
B. downwind, base
C. base, final
6. When in the traffic pattern preparing to land, a pilot is most susceptible to an inadvertent
spin when turning ___ to ___.
A. crosswind, downwind
B. downwind, base
C. base, final
• A pilot is most susceptible to an inadvertent spin when turning base to final. If a pilot
overshoots the turn from base to final, he can put himself into a cross-controlled stall/spin
situation that is very dangerous and often unrecoverable at a low traffic pattern altitude.
7. Then preparing to land, the use of flaps results in a ____ approach.
A. steeper
B. shallower
7. Then preparing to land, the use of flaps results in a ____ approach.
A. steeper
B. shallower
• With a constant power setting, the use of flaps results in a steeper approach to the runway
without increasing airspeed. This is helpful because excess airspeed can cause a "float"
before landing and lead to a longer landing distance
8. Which type of slip is preferred to counteract drift during a crosswind landing?
A. Forward slip
B. Side slip .
C. Nose slip
8. Which type of slip is preferred to counteract drift during a crosswind landing?
A. Forward slip
B. Side slip .
C. Nose slip
• A sideslip is preferred over a forward slip when performing a crosswind landing. A forward
slip is often used when trying to lose altitude by increasing the airplane's descent angle
without increasing airspeed.
• A sideslip and forward slip are similar, except that in a sideslip, the airplane's longitudinal axis
remains parallel to the original flight path, whereas in a forward slip the nose of the airplane
will be pointed off to one side of the runway.
9. When landing with the wind reported as 35015G25, a pilot should add ___ knots to his or
her approach speed.
A. 2.5
B. 5
C. 10
9. When landing with the wind reported as 35015G25, a pilot should add ___ knots to his or
her approach speed.
A. 2.5
B. 5
C. 10
• When landing in gusty wind conditions, the pilot should add one half the gust factor to his
or her airspeed. If the winds are 350 at 15 gusting
10. Which of the following could necessitate a go-around?
A. Over-shooting turns
B. Overtaking another airplane
C. Equipment and/or personnel on the runway
D. B and C only
E. All of the above
10. Which of the following could necessitate a go-around?
A. Over-shooting turns
B. Overtaking another airplane
C. Equipment and/or personnel on the runway
D. B and C only
E. All of the above
• All of the above are examples of hazardous conditions that could necessitate a go-around.
The need to discontinue an approach or landing may occur at any time during the approach
or landing phase. It is important to recognize a hazardous situation early so that a safe go-
around can be performed.
END OF QUIZ
Flight Review
1. Your last flight review was on January 9, 2007. You may act as PIC until January __, ____.
A. 9, 2008
B. 9, 2009
C. 31, 2008
D. 31, 2009
1. Your last flight review was on January 9, 2007. You may act as PIC until January __, ____.
A. 9, 2008
B. 9, 2009
C. 31, 2008
D. 31, 2009
• Per FAR 61.56 (c), in order to act as PIC, a pilot must have completed a flight review within
the previous 24 calendar months. A calendar month is the period of time from the first to the
last day of a given month. In practice, this means that if you completed a flight review on
January 9, 2007, it will be good until January 31, 2009
2. A flight review must include at least one hour of ground training. Which section of the FARs
must be covered
A. FAR Part 1
B. FAR Part 61
C. FAR Part 91
2. A flight review must include at least one hour of ground training. Which section of the FARs
must be covered
A. FAR Part 1
B. FAR Part 61
C. FAR Part 91
• FAR 61.56 (a) requires a review of FAR part 91 for the ground training portion of the flight
review. The flight instructor you've chosen to conduct the review should also include
additional regulations that pertain to the kinds of operations you conduct regularly, along
with recent changes in airspace, technology, and procedures.
3. If you have let your flight review lapse, the FAA Wings Program may be used to become
current again.
A. True
B. False
3. If you have let your flight review lapse, the FAA Wings Program may be used to become
current again.
A. True
B. False
• So long as it was completed within the previous 24 calendar months, a phase of the Wings
Program counts as a flight review (see FAR 61.56(e)). There's no requirement to have a
current flight review at the time you complete a Wings phase. If your flight review has lapsed,
however, be sure to let the CFI know before you go in for a flight review (or to work on a
Wings phase): He/she will have to serve as PIC for the flight(s).
• The FAA Wings Program has two components- a ground training requirement and at least
three hours of flight training covering specified maneuvers. ASF's online courses and live
safety seminars may be used to satisfy the minimum one-hour ground training requirement.
Learn more about how ASF can help you participate in the FAA Wings Program on the ASF
Web site
4. If completed within the time period specified by FAR 61.56, which of the following events
would fulfill the requirement for a flight review?
Earning a(n) ___.
A. Instrument Rating
B. Commercial Pilot Certificate
C. Complex Aircraft Endorsement
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
4. If completed within the time period specified by FAR 61.56, which of the following events
would fulfill the requirement for a flight review?
Earning a(n) ___.
A. Instrument Rating
B. Commercial Pilot Certificate
C. Complex Aircraft Endorsement
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
• Adding an instrument rating or obtaining a commercial pilot certificate will fulfill the
requirements of FAR 61.56 (d). Additional training and endorsements, such as complex,
tailwheel, high performance, etc., do not meet those requirements.
5. Completion of an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) fulfills the requirements of the flight
review.
A. True
B. False
5. Completion of an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) fulfills the requirements of the flight
review.
A. True
B. False .
• Completion of an IPC check does not fulfill the requirements of the flight review, as it is not
listed as an exemption by FAR 61.56 (d)
6. If you hold a commercial pilot certificate, your flight review must evaluate all commercial
maneuvers required by the Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards.
A. True
B. False
6. If you hold a commercial pilot certificate, your flight review must evaluate all commercial
maneuvers required by the Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards.
A. True
B. False
• You do not have to demonstrate the maneuvers that were required to earn your
commercial pilot certificate. The only requirement laid out by FAR 61.56(a) is that the flight
must be a minimum of one hour in length. The maneuvers that you will perform for your
flight review will be at the discretion of the flight instructor. The instructor should tailor these
maneuvers to your needs based on the type of flying you typically do.
7. You hold a private pilot certificate with both single and multiengine land ratings. Which
aircraft may you use for the flight review?
A. Single-engine
B. Multiengine
C. Either single or multiengine
7. You hold a private pilot certificate with both single and multiengine land ratings. Which
aircraft may you use for the flight review?
A. Single-engine
B. Multiengine
C. Either single or multiengine
• FAR 61.56(c) requires the flight review be accomplished in an aircraft for which you're rated;
meaning category, class, and type (if applicable). This means you may conduct the review in
either a single or multiengine aircraft. Although you are not required to conduct a flight
review in both types of aircraft, you may choose to do so for the sake of proficiency.
8. To show successful completion of the flight review, what must you receive from the
instructor?
A. Logbook entry
B. Logbook endorsement
C. Certificate from your local FSDO
D. Both A and B
8. To show successful completion of the flight review, what must you receive from the
instructor?
A. Logbook entry
B. Logbook endorsement
C. Certificate from your local FSDO
D. Both A and B
• FAR 61.51(a) states that a record must be kept of any flight training used towards a flight
review. In addition, FAR 61.56(c) requires the instructor who completed your flight review to
endorse your logbook
9. Are you required to have a current flight review for a checkride?
A. Yes
B. No
9. Are you required to have a current flight review for a checkride?
A. Yes
B. No
• While you are not required to complete a flight review before your checkride, you will not
be able to act as PIC until you earn your additional certificate, rating, or complete a flight
review. Some examiners may be unwilling to assume the responsibility of acting as PIC during
your checkride, so it may be wise to complete a flight review with your instructor first.
10. Who may act as PIC during a flight review?
A. The person taking the flight review
B. The person giving the flight review
C. Either A or B
10. Who may act as PIC during a flight review?
A. The person taking the flight review
B. The person giving the flight review
C. Either A or B
• If both parties meet all recent flight experience (for example, the current flight review has
not expired), medical certificate requirements, and have the appropriate ratings and
endorsements to act as PIC in the aircraft, either person may act as PIC. You, and the
instructor giving the flight review, should decide who will be acting as PIC for the flight before
you walk out to the aircraft.
END OF QUIZ
Topic x
Question x
Answer x
END OF QUIZ