Name: ___________________________________ Date:
______________
1. The automated external defibrillator (AED) should be applied to:
A) uninjured patients who are pulseless and apneic.
B) trauma patients who are in cardiopulmonary arrest.
C) medical patients who have a very weak, slow pulse.
D) patients who you think may experience cardiac arrest.
2. Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) rib fractures.
B) liver laceration.
C) gastric distention.
D) a fractured sternum.
3. Most out-of-hospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
A) massive blunt trauma.
B) a cardiac dysrhythmia.
C) an acute ischemic stroke.
D) obstruction of the airway.
4. Basic life support (BLS) is noninvasive, meaning that it:
A) can only be performed by EMT-Basics.
B) focuses only on severe bleeding control.
C) is only used to treat an obstructed airway.
D) does not involve penetration of the body.
5. You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious adult patient
in cardiac arrest by:
A) compressing quickly and releasing slowly.
B) compressing the lower third of the sternum.
C) placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.
D) depressing the sternum 2 inches to 2 ? inches.
Page 1
6. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMT-B personnel to
perform emergency medical care is the:
A) shift supervisor.
B) medical director.
C) lead EMT in charge.
D) EMS administrator.
7. As an EMT-B, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient
with chest pain based on:
A) the patient's condition.
B) your local EMS protocols.
C) the national standard of care.
D) transport time to the hospital.
8. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
A) State Bureau of EMS.
B) EMS training director.
C) EMS medical director.
D) individual EMT-B.
9. Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes
emergency medical services (EMS)?
A) A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who
provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
B) A team of healthcare professionals who are responsible for
providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and
injured
C) A system composed exclusively of basic-level EMTs who are
responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
D) A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are
responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured
patients
Page 2
10. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced
treatment skills are functions of the:
A) EMT-Basic.
B) EMT-Paramedic.
C) EMT-Intermediate.
D) certified first responder.
11. What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT-B is exposed to
many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or
years?
A) Acute stress reaction
B) Cumulative stress reaction
C) Posttraumatic stress reaction
D) Critical incident stress reaction
12. Which of the following statements about communicable diseases is
correct?
A) Not all people who are infected with a communicable disease show
signs or symptoms of illness.
B) Anyone who has been exposed to a communicable disease always is
a carrier of that disease.
C) Anyone who is infected with a communicable disease shows signs
or symptoms of that disease.
D) Any time you take the temperature of a patient who has a
communicable disease, you need to wear gloves or you will become
infected.
13. Determination of exposure is an important part of an exposure control
plan because it:
A) determines the time of day that most exposures are likely to
occur.
B) determines which type of communicable diseases might be present
in the workplace.
C) defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in
the workplace.
D) defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and
which tasks pose a risk of exposure.
Page 3
14. The chemical and physical reactions commonly referred to as the
“fight or flight” response involve interaction of the:
A) nervous and endocrine systems.
B) respiratory and nervous systems.
C) gastrointestinal and nervous systems.
D) cardiovascular and endocrine systems.
15. Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to
the family of a dying patient?
A) “Things will get better in time.”
B) “It is okay to be angry and sad.”
C) “This must be painful for you.”
D) “Tell me how you are feeling.”
16. Each pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of the:
A) sacrum and ischium.
B) ilium, ischium, and pubis.
C) pubis and acetabulum.
D) ilium, pubis, and sacrum.
17. Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered
from the blood by the:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) kidney.
D) pancreas.
18. The cervical spine is composed of ____ vertebrae.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Page 4
19. Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
20. Voluntary muscle becomes paralyzed when:
A) insufficient oxygen is carried to the muscle.
B) nerve supply is lost through injury to the brain.
C) blood supply to the muscle is markedly decreased.
D) acidic waste products accumulate within the muscle.
21. The primary function of the right atrium is to:
A) receive blood from the vena cava.
B) pump blood to the pulmonary artery.
C) receive blood from the pulmonary veins.
D) pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.
22. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm
near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the:
A) proximal forearm.
B) superior forearm.
C) dorsal forearm.
D) distal forearm.
23. You should assess an infant or child's skin color on his or her:
A) arms and legs.
B) fingers and toes.
C) chest and abdomen.
D) palms and soles.
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24. A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:
A) at a normal rate.
B) with shallow depth.
C) without difficulty.
D) without assistance.
25. The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left
ventricle contracts is called the:
A) blood pressure.
B) systolic pressure.
C) diastolic pressure.
D) pulse pressure.
26. Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief
complaint?
A) "What seems to be the matter?"
B) "When did the chest pain begin?"
C) "Are you having trouble breathing?”
D) "Do you have a history of diabetes?”
27. Typical methods of assessing a patient's breathing include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) listening to breath sounds with a stethoscope.
B) observing for nasal flaring during inhalation.
C) observing the chest for adequate rise and fall.
D) feeling for air movement at the nose and mouth.
28. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of
consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care
should focus on:
A) obtaining baseline vital signs.
B) gathering medical history data.
C) providing immediate transport.
D) airway, breathing, and circulation.
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29. When assessing the skin of an unconscious patient, you note that it
has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called:
A) pallor.
B) flushing.
C) cyanosis.
D) mottling.
30. You are attempting to resuscitate a 50-year-old male in cardiac
arrest. He is on the second floor of his home. What is the MOST
appropriate device to use when carrying him to the first floor?
A) Long backboard
B) Wheeled stretcher
C) Folding stair chair
D) Portable stretcher
31. When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
A) flexing your body at the knees.
B) the use of more than two EMT-Bs.
C) using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
D) the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.
32. What is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient
from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher?
A) Log roll
B) Direct carry
C) Extremity carry
D) Draw sheet method
Page 7
33. Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve
mask (BVM) device is correct?
A) BVM ventilations should be delivered over 2 seconds when the
device is being operated by one person.
B) The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not
effective when ventilating a patient with a BVM.
C) Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT-B
is operating the BVM device.
D) The BVM device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen
concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.
34. Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the:
A) larynx.
B) trachea.
C) pharynx.
D) alveoli.
35. The exchange of air between the lungs and the environment is called:
A) diffusion.
B) ventilation.
C) respiration.
D) oxygenation.
36. When administering supplemental oxygen to a patient over a prolonged
period of time, you should:
A) routinely use a nasal cannula.
B) place the patient in a supine position.
C) set the flow rate to no more than 4 L/min.
D) consider attaching an oxygen humidifier.
37. Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient
includes:
A) continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions.
B) suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.
C) removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter.
D) suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well-oxygenated.
Page 8
38. The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for
compressed gas cylinders is to:
A) ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.
B) help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use.
C) prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder.
D) reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range.
39. At a flow rate of 6 liters per minute (L/min), a nasal cannula can
deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of ___%.
A) 24
B) 35
C) 44
D) 52
40. After performing a head-tilt chin-lift to open the airway of an
unconscious patient, you should:
A) place him or her in the recovery position.
B) provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.
C) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity.
D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.
41. In order to facilitate the emergency department physician's diagnosis
of a patient's illness, you should:
A) document the patient's complaint in his or her own words.
B) record your own findings using quotation marks as needed.
C) forgo the medical history until the patient is at the hospital.
D) document your perception of what is wrong with the patient.
42. Diminished perfusion manifests with skin that is:
A) pink.
B) yellow.
C) red.
D) pale.
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43. A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains
of pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate
is 110 beats/min. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for this patient?
A) A focused physical exam
B) 100% supplemental oxygen
C) Treating her for possible shock
D) Gentle palpation of the pelvis
44. Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient
would include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) appearance.
B) pulse strength.
C) race and gender.
D) level of distress.
45. Which of the following patients does NOT have an altered mental
status?
A) A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness
B) A diabetic who opens his eyes when you ask questions
C) A head-injured patient who is slow to answer questions
D) A patient who overdosed and moans when he is touched
46. While en route to a call for a patient with chest pain, you encounter a
bridge that is covered with fast-moving water and is not barricaded
off. You should:
A) notify dispatch that you are out of service and have another unit
respond.
B) contact dispatch to have barricades placed and attempt to cross
the bridge.
C) notify the dispatcher of your delay and take an alternate route to
the scene.
D) use your ambulance as a barricade to prevent others from
crossing the bridge.
Page 10
47. Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should
include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) your perception of the severity of the problem.
B) a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.
C) a brief history of the patient's current problem.
D) a brief summary of the care that you provided.
48. General guidelines for effective radio communication include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) limiting your radio transmission to 30 seconds.
B) acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible.
C) using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.
D) holding the microphone about 2” to 3” from your mouth.
49. What medication route is commonly used to deliver emergency drugs
to children when intravenous access cannot be obtained?
A) Intraosseous
B) Intramuscular
C) Subcutaneous
D) Transcutaneous
50. When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil,
Lasix, Motrin, and Digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained
over-the-counter (OTC)?
A) Lasix
B) Motrin
C) Isordil
D) Digoxin
Page 11
51. A 62-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the
same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed
nitroglycerin, but states that he has not taken any. After administering 100% oxygen and
contacting medical control, you should:
A) begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a
paramedic unit.
B) assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic BP is less than
100 mm Hg.
C) administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his
blood pressure.
D) administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the
past 72 hours.
52. The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:
A) the study of drugs that are produced illegally.
B) the study of how medications affect the brain.
C) the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
D) the study of drug excretion from the human body.
53. When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress,
you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:
A) normal breath sounds.
B) abnormal breath sounds.
C) diminished breath sounds.
D) an absence of breath sounds.
54. A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
A) a unilaterally collapsed lung.
B) diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
C) fluid accumulation outside the lung.
D) a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
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55. In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
A) the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the
percentage of inhaled oxygen.
B) there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for
full alveolar expansion.
C) the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the
alveoli must be collapsed.
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across
the alveolar-capillary membrane.
56. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST
correct?
A) The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of
low oxygen levels.
B) Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the
hypoxic drive.
C) The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in
healthy individuals.
D) 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with
a hypoxic drive.
57. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
A) Alveoli
B) Trachea
C) Bronchi
D) Capillaries
58. Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the
result of:
A) destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign
particles.
B) loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar
expansion.
C) airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus
production.
D) acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external
irritant.
Page 13
59. Major risk factors for a myocardial infarction include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) hypertension.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) elevated cholesterol.
60. Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac
problem, it is MOST important to:
A) assess the scene for potential hazards.
B) determine if you need additional help.
C) request a paramedic unit for assistance.
D) gain immediate access to the patient.
61. You are dispatched to a convenience store for a possible cardiac
arrest. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders
performing CPR on the patient, a 48-year-old male. Your initial action
should be to:
A) assess the effectiveness of the bystander's CPR.
B) quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button.
C) have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient.
D) request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.
62. Which of the following signs indicates the onset of decompensated
cardiogenic shock?
A) Restlessness
B) Pale, clammy skin
C) Low blood pressure
D) Significant tachycardia
Page 14
63. Your EMS team is performing CPR on a 60-year-old male in cardiac
arrest. You connect the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a
“no shock advised” message. Your MOST appropriate action should be
to:
A) reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm.
B) determine if a palpable pulse is present.
C) perform CPR and transport immediately.
D) immediately assess the patient's airway.
64. You respond to an office building to find a middle-aged male in cardiac arrest. Coworkers
are performing CPR and state that the patient has been down for approximately 10
minutes. You attach the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a “shock advised”
message. You should
A) ensure that nobody is touching the patient and then defibrillate.
B) continue CPR for 1 minute and reanalyze the patient's rhythm.
C) transport immediately and request a paramedic unit rendezvous.
D) call medical control and request permission to stop resuscitation.
65. The EMT-B should use an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a
child over 1 year of age if:
A) he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.
B) his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.
C) pediatric pads and an energy reducing device are available.
D) special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.
66. Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) brain stem.
D) cerebral cortex.
67. The left cerebral hemisphere controls:
A) the right side of the face.
B) heart rate and pupil reaction.
C) the right side of the body.
D) breathing and blood pressure.
Page 15
68. When assessing arm movement of a patient with a suspected stroke,
you should:
A) observe for arm movement for approximately 5 minutes.
B) expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side.
C) ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
D) ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.
69. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:
A) medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot.
B) a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage.
C) the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery.
D) signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.
70. When caring for a child with documented hypoglycemia, you should be
MOST alert for:
A) a seizure.
B) an acute stroke.
C) respiratory distress.
D) a febrile convulsion.
71. The anterior aspect of the cerebrum controls:
A) touch.
B) emotion.
C) movement.
D) vision.
72. The parietal peritoneum lines the:
A) retroperitoneal space.
B) lungs and chest cavity.
C) walls of the abdominal cavity.
D) surface of the abdominal organs.
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73. You are transporting a 49-year-old male with “tearing” abdominal pain.
You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During
your ongoing assessment, you determine that the patient's condition
has deteriorated significantly. You should:
A) begin ventilatory assistance with a BVM device.
B) immediately perform a detailed physical examination.
C) continue transporting and alert the receiving hospital.
D) consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.
74. Common signs and symptoms of acute abdomen include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) abdominal guarding.
75. Colic is pain caused by:
A) irritation of the parietal peritoneum.
B) distention or contraction of hollow organs.
C) blunt trauma to the solid abdominal organs.
D) vigorous palpation of the abdominal quadrants.
76. A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours'
duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important
consideration for this patient should be to:
A) transport him in a supine position.
B) be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
C) assess his BP to determine perfusion adequacy.
D) determine the exact location and cause of his pain.
Page 17
77. Which of the following statements regarding an ectopic pregnancy is
correct?
A) Signs of an ectopic pregnancy usually present within the first 6 to
8 weeks of pregnancy.
B) The abdominal cavity is the most common location for abnormal
implantation of a fertilized egg.
C) An ectopic pregnancy almost always presents with acute signs and
symptoms in the third trimester.
D) Pain from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy is usually severe but the
bleeding is typically rather minimal.
78. Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an
increased risk of developing?
A) Blindness
B) Depression
C) Alcoholism
D) Hepatitis B
79. Which of the following statements regarding diabetic coma is correct?
A) Diabetic coma can be prevented by taking smaller insulin doses.
B) Diabetic coma typically develops over a period of hours or days.
C) Patients with low blood glucose levels are prone to diabetic coma.
D) Diabetic coma rapidly progresses once hyperglycemia develops.
80. Patients with type II diabetes usually control their disease with all of
the following, EXCEPT:
A) diet and exercise.
B) tolbutamide (Orinase).
C) glyburide (Micronase).
D) supplemental insulin.
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81. You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells
you he has type II diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that the
patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial management for this patient
should include:
A) administering 1 to 2 tubes of oral glucose.
B) applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min.
C) assisting the patient with his diabetic medication.
D) performing a rapid exam and obtaining vital signs.
82. Type I diabetes:
A) is typically treated with medications such as Diabenase.
B) is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.
C) typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age.
D) is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.
83. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:
A) blood glucose levels rapidly fall.
B) the cells rapidly metabolize glucose.
C) the pancreas produces excess insulin.
D) insulin is not available in the body.
84. Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first:
A) 5 minutes following exposure.
B) 30 minutes following exposure.
C) 60 minutes following exposure.
D) 90 minutes following exposure.
85. Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset
of an allergic reaction?
A) A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen
B) A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee
C) A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin
D) A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex
Page 19
86. A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He
presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on
oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing
has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is
stable. Your next action should be to:
A) load him into the ambulance and transport to the hospital.
B) visualize his airway to assess for oropharyngeal swelling.
C) notify medical control of the situation and your treatment.
D) record the time and dose of the injection on the run form.
87. Which of the following adventitious sounds indicates swelling of the
upper airway?
A) Rales
B) Stridor
C) Rhonchi
D) Wheezing
88. A 38-year-old female was bitten by fire ants while at the park with her kids. Your initial
assessment reveals that she is semiconscious, has profoundly labored breathing with
reduced tidal volume, and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire
body and her face appears swollen. You should:
A) administer 0.3 mg of epinephrine 1:1,000.
B) assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.
C) apply oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.
D) place her supine with her legs elevated 6” to 12”.
89. A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an
insect bite or sting is called:
A) hives.
B) purpura.
C) urticaria.
D) a wheal.
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90. You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an
allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment
reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has
a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should:
A) monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she
worsens.
B) crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek
and gum.
C) request permission from medical control to give another dose of
epinephrine.
D) administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her
breathing.
91. You respond to a college campus for a young male who is “acting strange.” After law
enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him
sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that
he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, has a rapid, irregular
pulse, and his BP is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes:
A) requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan).
B) assisting his ventilations with a BVM and 100% oxygen.
C) asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient.
D) attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated.
92. Which of the following drugs is NOT a sedative-hypnotic?
A) Seconal
B) Valium
C) Cocaine
D) Rohypnol
93. The MOST appropriate drug to use when diluting an airborne substance
is:
A) oxygen.
B) syrup of ipecac.
C) activated charcoal.
D) an alkaline antidote.
Page 21
94. As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed,
you should:
A) be alert for personal hazards.
B) look for drug paraphernalia.
C) observe the scene for drug bottles.
D) quickly gain access to the patient.
95. During your assessment of a 50-year-old male who was found unconscious in an alley,
you note that he has slow, shallow respirations; significant bradycardia; perioral
cyanosis; and pinpoint pupils. As your partner begins assisting the patient's
ventilations, he directs your attention to the patient's arms, which have multiple needle
tracks on them. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
A) a heroin overdose.
B) alcohol intoxication.
C) a closed head injury.
D) an overdose of Valium.
96. When the body loses sweat, it also loses:
A) plasma.
B) nutrients.
C) erythrocytes.
D) electrolytes.
97. The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of
submersion in cold water secondary to:
A) bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.
B) laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water.
C) tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure.
D) increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.
Page 22
98. A 48-year-old male was stung on the leg by a jellyfish while swimming
in the ocean. He is conscious and alert, but complains of intense pain
at the wound site. Specific treatment for this patient includes:
A) irrigating the wound with vinegar and immersing his leg in hot
water.
B) pulling the nematocysts out with tweezers and bandaging the
wound.
C) immersing his leg in fresh cold water and scraping away the
stingers.
D) applying a chemical ice pack to the wound and encouraging
movement.
99. The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:
A) tightness in the chest.
B) difficulty with vision.
C) dizziness and nausea.
D) abdominal or joint pain.
100. A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The
length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You
perform an initial assessment and determine that the patient is apneic
and has a slow, weak pulse. You should:
A) suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep
him warm, and transport at once.
B) ventilate with a BVM device, apply a cervical collar, remove his wet
clothing, and transport rapidly.
C) provide rescue breathing, remove wet clothing, immobilize his
spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully.
D) apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine,
keep him warm, and transport rapidly.
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101. A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient's son
tells you that his mother has a history of type II diabetes and was diagnosed with
Alzheimer's disease 6 months ago. The patient's speech is slurred and she is not alert to
her surroundings. You should:
A) transport the patient to a psychiatric facility.
B) inquire about the possibility of head trauma.
C) conclude that the patient's blood sugar is high.
D) allow the patient to refuse transport if she wishes.
102. In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs
when a person:
A) demonstrates agitation or violence or becomes a threat to self or
others.
B) experiences feelings of sadness and despair for greater than one
month.
C) exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic
disturbance.
D) experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful
situation.
103. The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:
A) depression.
B) drug abuse.
C) advanced age.
D) a chronic illness.
104. From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of
behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least:
A) 1 week.
B) 2 weeks.
C) 3 weeks.
D) 4 weeks.
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105. Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the
baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport,
you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding.
You should:
A) elevate her legs 6” to 8” and cover her with a blanket.
B) firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.
C) carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina.
D) place her legs together and position her on her left side.
106. A placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as:
A) delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby.
B) premature placental separation from the uterine wall.
C) abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.
D) development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
107. When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct
her to:
A) hold her breath.
B) push for 30 seconds.
C) take quick short breaths.
D) rest and breathe deeply.
108. You are assessing a 30-year-old woman who is 35 weeks' pregnant. She tells you that her
amniotic sac has not ruptured, but she is experiencing irregular contractions that “come
and go.” Upon visual inspection, you note a small amount of brown mucus draining from
her vagina. You should:
A) allow her to drive to the hospital.
B) administer oxygen and transport.
C) prepare for an emergency delivery.
D) perform a rapid medical assessment.
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109. A 30-year-old pregnant female is gravida-3 and para-2. This means
that she has:
A) given birth to 2 live babies.
B) given birth to 5 live babies.
C) had 3 miscarriages in the past.
D) been pregnant a total of 3 times.
110. Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant
fall?
A) 4'8” tall patient who fell 13 feet
B) 5'0” tall patient who fell 13 feet
C) 4'6” tall patient who fell 13 feet
D) 5'9” tall patient who fell 14 feet
111. Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is MOST
correct?
A) High velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.
B) The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury.
C) Low velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma.
D) The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury.
112. The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when
the:
A) headrest is appropriately positioned.
B) airbag correctly deploys upon impact.
C) patient tenses up at the time of impact.
D) rear end of the vehicle is initially struck.
113. Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:
A) falls and motor-vehicle collisions.
B) low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls.
C) gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.
D) motor-vehicle collisions and stabbings.
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114. Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the
presence of high-energy trauma?
A) Dismounted seats
B) Steering wheel deformity
C) Intrusion into the vehicle
D) Deployment of the airbag
115. Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications
affect the:
A) systolic blood pressure exclusively.
B) ability of the blood to effectively clot.
C) ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen.
D) white blood cell's ability to fight infection.
116. The pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) would MOST likely be
effective in:
A) forcing blood from the lungs of a patient with pulmonary edema.
B) maintaining adequate perfusion to the fetus during the third
trimester.
C) controlling severe external bleeding associated with pelvic
fractures.
D) controlling severe intrathoracic bleeding caused by penetrating
trauma.
117. Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is
MOST correct?
A) Venous and capillary blood typically does not clot spontaneously.
B) Bleeding begins to clot when the end of a damaged vessel dilates.
C) Direct contact with the environment prevents blood from clotting.
D) A person taking aspirin will experience slower blood clotting time.
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118. Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up
to 2 hours?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Muscles
119. You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis.
As you are treating her, it is MOST important to recall that:
A) the patient may be significantly hypertensive.
B) the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration.
C) a detailed exam is needed to determine the cause.
D) many medications interfere with blood clotting.
120. The systemic veins function by:
A) returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
B) delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries.
C) returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium.
D) delivering oxygen-rich blood to the capillaries.
121. After applying a dressing to an arterial bleed from a patient's arm,
you notice that the dressing quickly becomes soaked with blood. You
should:
A) replace the dressing with another dressing.
B) apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.
C) splint the arm and keep it below heart level.
D) place additional dressings over the wound.
122. When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic
nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include:
A) tachypnea.
B) tachycardia.
C) vasodilation.
D) restlessness.
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123. Capillary sphincters are:
A) under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous
system.
B) capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body
organs.
C) responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell
perfusion.
D) circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the
capillaries.
124. Neurogenic shock occurs when:
A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
B) the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
C) there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
D) massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
125. A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious
signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer 100% oxygen and give him
epinephrine via subcutaneous injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his
condition has not improved. You should:
A) transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en
route.
B) consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma
attack.
C) repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical
control.
D) request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles
away.
126. A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip
replacement. Today, she presents with an altered mental status, tachycardia, and a blood
pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST
suspicious that she is experiencing:
A) septic shock.
B) pump failure.
C) a local infection.
D) decompensated shock.
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127. You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your
arrival, the patient is conscious and alert and states that she is fine. Her husband tells
you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You
offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary
concern should be to:
A) determine if she was injured when she fainted.
B) provide emotional support regarding her sister.
C) advise her that she needs to go to the hospital.
D) obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.
128. Patients develop septic shock secondary to:
A) poor vessel function and severe volume loss.
B) an infection that weakens cardiac contractions.
C) failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate.
D) weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage.
129. All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes,
EXCEPT for the:
A) lips.
B) nose.
C) anus.
D) mouth.
130. When assessing a patient with a closed soft tissue injury, it is MOST
important to:
A) manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture.
B) assess circulation distal to the site of the injury.
C) remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.
D) recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.
131. When a person is exposed to a cold environment:
A) sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict.
B) blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body.
C) the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation.
D) peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.
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132. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a house fire where fire fighters have rescued a
50-year-old male from his burning house. The patient has superficial and partial-
thickness burns to his face and chest. His nasal hairs are singed and he is coughing up
sooty sputum. You should be MOST concerned with:
A) treating him for hypothermia.
B) preventing the risk of infection.
C) estimating the extent of his burns.
D) the potential for airway swelling.
133. An abdominal evisceration:
A) is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma.
B) should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings.
C) often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss.
D) occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.
134. Burns are MOST appropriately classified according to:
A) depth and extent.
B) location and pain.
C) degree and location.
D) extent and location.
135. In contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human:
A) is usually less severe because the human mouth is cleaner.
B) typically results in a minor infection that is slow-spreading.
C) carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.
D) is associated with a much higher incidence of rabies infection.
136. The eyeball itself is referred to as the:
A) orbit.
B) globe.
C) sclera.
D) cornea.
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137. Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is
MOST correct?
A) Vitreous humor is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it
is lost during an eye injury.
B) Vitreous humor is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye
that cannot be replaced if it is lost.
C) Vitreous humor is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of
the lens and can be replaced if it is lost.
D) Vitreous humor is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal
glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.
138. The light-sensitive area of the eye where images are projected is
called the:
A) iris.
B) lens.
C) retina.
D) conjunctiva.
139. The term “hyphema” is MOST accurately defined as:
A) blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
B) an acute rupture of the globe of the eye.
C) inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens.
D) compression of one or both optic nerves.
140. Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT-B's index of
suspicion for a/an:
A) airway obstruction.
B) displaced mandible.
C) basilar skull fracture.
D) spinal cord injury.
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141. You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma.
As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the
patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should:
A) quickly suction his oropharynx.
B) turn the backboard on its side.
C) reassess his breathing adequacy.
D) alert the hospital of the situation.
142. The cricoid cartilage:
A) lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck.
B) is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
C) is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage.
D) lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.
143. The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal
is called the:
A) incus.
B) pinna.
C) tragus.
D) stapes.
144. You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained
a laceration to his neck during a robbery attempt. During your
assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration.
You should:
A) apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel.
B) circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck.
C) apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point.
D) apply direct pressure above and below the wound.
145. Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when:
A) the diaphragm descends.
B) abdominal contents descend.
C) intrathoracic pressure decreases.
D) the intercostal muscles contract.
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146. Pleural fluid is contained between the:
A) visceral and parietal pleurae.
B) parietal pleura and the heart.
C) visceral pleura and the lung.
D) parietal pleura and chest wall.
147. Hemoptysis is defined as:
A) vomiting blood.
B) coughing up blood.
C) abnormal blood clotting.
D) blood in the pleural space.
148. A flail chest occurs when:
A) a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
B) more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest.
C) multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.
D) a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.
149. Pneumothorax is MOST accurately defined as:
A) accumulation of air between the lungs.
B) blood collection within the lung tissue.
C) accumulation of air in the pleural space.
D) blood collection within the pleural space.
150. A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is MOST
suggestive of a:
A) ruptured aorta.
B) myocardial contusion.
C) pericardial tamponade.
D) tension pneumothorax.
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151. A spontaneous pneumothorax would MOST likely occur as the result of:
A) exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect.
B) excessive coughing in a patient with pneumonitis.
C) abnormally slow breathing in a patient with pleurisy.
D) blunt or penetrating trauma to the anterior chest wall.
152. When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the
abdomen:
A) the abdomen will become instantly distended.
B) peritonitis may not develop for several hours.
C) it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock.
D) it commonly protrudes through the injury site.
153. You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and
is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at
the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should:
A) closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
B) begin documenting the call on the patient care form.
C) perform a detailed head-to-toe physical examination.
D) forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition.
154. The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
A) is always accompanied by hypotension.
B) indicates a state of decompensated shock.
C) should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
D) is most commonly caused by severe pain.
155. All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT for the:
A) liver.
B) bladder.
C) ureters.
D) stomach.
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156. Which of the following organs is at MOST risk for injury as the result
of a pelvic fracture?
A) Uterus
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Urinary bladder
D) Liver or spleen
157. A 30-year-old male has a large laceration to his right lower abdominal
quadrant with a loop of bowel protruding through the wound. When
treating this patient, the EMT-B should recall that the:
A) protruding bowel should be kept warm and moist.
B) open abdomen rapidly draws heat into the wound.
C) wound should be covered with a dry, sterile dressing.
D) bowel should be replaced in order to avoid infection.
158. In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with:
A) articular cartilage.
B) synovial tendons.
C) muscular fascia.
D) gliding cartilage.
159. A/an __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's
bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities.
A) greenstick
B) diaphyseal
C) epiphyseal
D) metaphyseal
160. A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your
assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit
wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains
of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should:
A) assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions.
B) manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.
C) gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.
D) control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
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161. Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the
LEAST severe?
A) Nondisplaced pelvic fracture
B) Open fractures of a long bone
C) An amputation of an extremity
D) Multiple closed long bone fractures
162. When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT-
B should:
A) assess proximal circulation.
B) compare it to the uninjured leg.
C) carefully move it to elicit crepitus.
D) ask the patient to move the injured leg.
163. A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree
head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to
both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be
conscious. You should:
A) apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.
B) administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.
C) assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations.
D) stabilize her head and perform an initial assessment.
164. Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) swelling.
B) deformity.
C) ecchymosis.
D) point tenderness.
165. Bones are connected to other bones by tough fibrous tissues called:
A) bursa.
B) tendons.
C) cartilage.
D) ligaments.
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166. Smooth muscle is found in all of the following organs, EXCEPT for the:
A) esophagus.
B) blood vessels.
C) myocardium.
D) large intestine.
167. A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a:
A) total loss of function in a bone.
B) break in the continuity of the bone.
C) disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
D) abnormality in the structure of a bone.
168. During your rapid trauma assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you
note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is
diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed the
patient's airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST
appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
A) applying and inflating the PASG and transporting.
B) immobilization to a backboard and rapid transport.
C) applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur.
D) carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities.
169. The disruption of a joint in which the bone' ends are no longer in
contact is called a:
A) strain.
B) sprain.
C) fracture.
D) dislocation.
170. Prior to splinting an open extremity fracture, the EMT-B should first:
A) assess the injury for crepitation.
B) manually stabilize the injury site.
C) assess distal neurovascular status.
D) cover all bleeding or open wounds.
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171. An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:
A) bone ends protrude through the skin.
B) a large laceration overlies the fracture.
C) a bullet shatters the underlying bone.
D) the overlying skin is no longer intact.
172. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous
structures called:
A) fascia.
B) tendons.
C) cartilage.
D) ligaments.
173. When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important
for the EMT-B to:
A) use a pillow as a splint.
B) leave the toes exposed.
C) apply a pneumatic splint.
D) observe for tissue swelling.
174. A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to
function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately
describes a/an:
A) cerebral contusion.
B) cerebral concussion.
C) intracranial hemorrhage.
D) intracerebral hematoma.
175. An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as:
A) bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
B) bleeding between the dura mater and brain.
C) venous lacerations that occur within the brain.
D) an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.
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176. What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary
activities?
A) Central
B) Sensory
C) Somatic
D) Autonomic
177. Distraction injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of:
A) falls.
B) diving.
C) hanging.
D) compression.
178. When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated:
A) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.
B) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.
C) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress.
D) the heart rate increases and the blood pressure increases.
179. Any unconscious trauma patient should be assumed to have:
A) a history of diabetes mellitus.
B) an accompanying spinal injury.
C) a severe intracranial hemorrhage.
D) internal bleeding in the abdomen.
180. When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT-B manually
stabilizing the head should not let go until:
A) an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied.
B) the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.
C) the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization.
D) the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
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181. After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of a patient's
head, you should:
A) apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar.
B) assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.
C) thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities.
D) use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.
182. Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin
your assessment of a toddler:
A) in the ambulance.
B) at the hands or feet.
C) from head to toe.
D) en route to the hospital.
183. When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should:
A) refrain from taking a blood pressure.
B) talk to the child, not just the caregiver.
C) use a toe-to-head assessment approach.
D) rely solely on the parent for information.
184. Which of the following should make you MOST suspicious for child
abuse?
A) Worried or crying parents
B) A laceration to the child's chin
C) Willingness of the child to speak
D) Bruises in various stages of healing
185. Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) infection.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) electrolyte imbalances.
D) poisonings or ingestion.
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186. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ____
breaths per minute.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
187. When caring for an ill 5-year-old male, you should:
A) not expect him to be able to identify areas of pain when asked.
B) gain his trust by explaining that a painful procedure will not hurt.
C) avoid separating him from his parents or caregivers when possible.
D) defer painful procedures, even if the child is clinically unstable.
188. Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth:
A) secretions can build up in and around the tube.
B) the risk of a local infection is significantly high.
C) bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube.
D) severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur.
189. Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she:
A) is experiencing mild to moderate pain.
B) falls from a height that is greater than 5'.
C) has a possible closed fracture of the radius.
D) has a history suggestive of a serious illness.
190. All of the following are normal findings in an infant or child, EXCEPT:
A) quiet breathing.
B) fear or anxiety.
C) belly breathing.
D) head bobbing.
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191. When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should
palpate the brachial or ________ artery.
A) radial
B) carotid
C) femoral
D) popliteal
192. When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you
should:
A) place padding under the child's head.
B) ensure his or her neck is hyperextended.
C) insert it until the flange rests on the teeth.
D) depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.
193. A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is
conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells
you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her
daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should:
A) allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital.
B) attempt cooling measures, offer oxygen, and transport.
C) place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever.
D) suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.
194. Which of the following newborns requires positive-pressure
ventilations and chest compressions?
A) Central cyanosis; respirations, fast; pulse, 100 beats/min
B) Central cyanosis; respirations, slow; pulse, 50 beats/min
C) Peripheral cyanosis; respirations, fast; pulse, 90 beats/min
D) Peripheral cyanosis; respirations, absent; pulse, 80 beats/min
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195. A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His
mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly
before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened,
and is coughing forcefully. You should:
A) carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it.
B) encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport.
C) deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition.
D) place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts.
196. With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the
intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This
increases the risk of:
A) severe kyphosis.
B) distracting injuries.
C) spinal cord tearing.
D) compression fractures.
197. General communication techniques with the elderly include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) being aware of how you present yourself.
B) not assuming he or she knows who you are.
C) speaking loudly and distinctly to the patient.
D) looking directly at the patient when speaking.
198. Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect
are all possible indications of ____________ elder abuse.
A) physical
B) financial
C) emotional
D) psychological
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199. Common causes of delirium in the elderly patient include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) acute hypovolemia.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) low blood sugar level.
D) decreased cerebral perfusion.
200. In contrast to a living will, a do not resuscitate (DNR) order becomes
valid when:
A) the patient has a terminal illness.
B) the patient develops cardiac arrest.
C) the patient is in a healthcare setting.
D) it is signed by three or more physicians.
201. Which of the following statements regarding communications with the
elderly is MOST correct?
A) The majority of elderly patients are hearing or visually impaired.
B) Attempt to calm the elderly patient by using his or her first name.
C) Explain the justification for a procedure after it has been
completed.
D) Older patients have difficulty understanding when they are
stressed.
202. Relatively minor hyperextension injuries to the spine can result in
central cord syndrome, a dysfunction characterized by:
A) permanent absence of sensory and motor functions to one side of
the body.
B) absent or weak sensory function more pronounced in the lower
extremities.
C) temporarily disabled sensory and motor functions in the lower
extremities.
D) weak or absent motor function more pronounced in the upper
extremities.
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203. A geriatric patient's chief complaint:
A) is typically grossly obvious to the EMT-B.
B) is usually related to a single disease process.
C) usually presents with fairly classic symptoms.
D) may be an exacerbation of a chronic problem.
204. Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a
combination of:
A) osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.
B) increased bone density and car crashes.
C) arthritic joints and high-energy trauma.
D) acetabular separation and severe falls.
205. Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries
should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they:
A) have minor abrasions to the head area.
B) are taking blood-thinning medications.
C) do not have deformities to the skull.
D) have a history of Alzheimer's disease.
206. A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a
blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min and weak. Her daughter,
who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension
and takes Inderal. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the
MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia?
A) Deterioration of the cardiac conduction system
B) Intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression
C) The effects of her antihypertensive medication
D) Failure of the parasympathetic nervous system
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207. You have immobilized the spine of an 81-year-old female with a head
injury. During transport, you note that she is experiencing signs of
intracranial pressure. In addition to reassessing her ABCs and
providing the appropriate treatment, you should:
A) elevate the foot end of the backboard 6”.
B) place several layers of blankets on her.
C) elevate the head end of the backboard.
D) allow her to sit up on the backboard.
208. When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash,
you should position the ambulance:
A) 50' past the scene on the opposite side of the road.
B) 100' past the scene on the same side of the road.
C) 50' before the scene on the same side of the road.
D) alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).
209. When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in an emergency
mode, you should:
A) pass other drivers on the right side.
B) remain in the extreme left-hand lane.
C) remain in the extreme right-hand lane.
D) drive in the center lane of the highway.
210. It is 10:30 p.m. and you have requested air medical transport for a
critically injured patient. As you arrive at the designated landing zone,
you should:
A) mark the proposed landing area with road flares.
B) survey the area for power lines or other hazards.
C) provide the flight crew with a patient status update.
D) mark the landing site with personnel with flashlights.
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211. When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you
should NOT use:
A) road flares.
B) reflective vests.
C) portable floodlights.
D) intermittent flashing devices.
212. When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a
wrecked vehicle, you and your team should consider all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) the position of the crashed vehicle.
B) hazards that pose a risk to rescuers.
C) the make and model of the vehicle.
D) the possibility of vehicle instability.
213. The scene size-up at a car crash or other incident:
A) is a continual process until the incident is terminated.
B) should be performed by the most experienced EMT-B.
C) is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry.
D) determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.
214. Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you
should ensure your own safety and then:
A) begin immediate triage of any injured personnel.
B) report to the incident commander for instructions.
C) locate all injured personnel and begin treatment.
D) apprise medical control of the tactical situation.
215. An EMT-B should NOT attempt to gain access to the patient(s) in a
damaged vehicle until:
A) the fire department arrives at the scene.
B) he or she is sure that the vehicle is stable.
C) all occupants in the vehicle are accounted for.
D) heavy-duty extrication equipment is available.
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216. You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be
transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10
minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene.
You should:
A) transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center.
B) direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport.
C) remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.
D) assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.
217. A mass casualty incident is MOST accurately defined as:
A) an incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill
patients.
B) an incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous
materials.
C) an incident in which at least half of the patients are critically
injured.
D) an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available
resources.
218. If the safety officer issues a command or directive to the EMT-B, the
EMT-B should:
A) immediately carry out the order or directive.
B) disregard the order and follow local protocols.
C) notify medical control for proper authorization.
D) confirm the order with the incident commander.
219. Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag)
include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) severe medical problems.
B) fractures of multiple long bones.
C) any airway or breathing difficulty.
D) uncontrolled or severe hemorrhage.
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220. Unlike a mass-casualty incident, a natural disaster:
A) often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.
B) exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients.
C) is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower.
D) usually does not require the incident command system process.
221. ______ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require
several inches of lead or concrete to prevent penetration.
A) Beta
B) Alpha
C) Neutron
D) Gamma
222. A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as:
A) a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a
given geographic location.
B) any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive
infrastructural damage.
C) a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one
country to another country.
D) any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an
effort to make a particular point.
223. You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon arrival,
you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, “Everyone is
passing out!” You should:
A) carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety.
B) assist with the evacuation and begin triaging the patients.
C) notify dispatch and state that a terrorist attack has occurred.
D) contact the FBI immediately and report the current situation.
224. The skin lesions associated with smallpox:
A) initially form on the lower trunk.
B) are of different shapes and sizes.
C) develop early during the disease.
D) are identical in their development.
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Answer Key - FHS EMT review exam1
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. A
15. A
16. B
17. B
18. D
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. D
24. D
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. D
37. B
38. A
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39. C
40. D
41. A
42. D
43. D
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. B
48. C
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. C
53. B
54. C
55. D
56. A
57. A
58. A
59. A
60. A
61. C
62. C
63. B
64. A
65. C
66. B
67. C
68. C
69. C
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. D
74. B
75. B
76. B
77. A
78. A
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79. B
80. D
81. B
82. B
83. D
84. B
85. C
86. D
87. B
88. B
89. D
90. C
91. D
92. C
93. A
94. A
95. A
96. D
97. A
98. A
99. D
100. C
101. B
102. A
103. A
104. D
105. B
106. D
107. C
108. B
109. A
110. C
111. D
112. A
113. A
114. D
115. B
116. C
117. D
118. D
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119. B
120. A
121. D
122. B
123. D
124. A
125. C
126. A
127. A
128. A
129. A
130. C
131. D
132. D
133. D
134. A
135. C
136. B
137. B
138. C
139. A
140. D
141. B
142. B
143. C
144. D
145. D
146. A
147. B
148. A
149. C
150. B
151. A
152. B
153. A
154. C
155. A
156. C
157. A
158. A
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159. C
160. D
161. A
162. B
163. D
164. B
165. D
166. C
167. B
168. B
169. D
170. D
171. D
172. B
173. B
174. B
175. A
176. C
177. C
178. B
179. B
180. D
181. B
182. B
183. B
184. D
185. B
186. B
187. C
188. A
189. D
190. D
191. C
192. D
193. B
194. B
195. B
196. D
197. C
198. A
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199. B
200. B
201. D
202. D
203. D
204. A
205. B
206. C
207. C
208. B
209. B
210. B
211. A
212. C
213. A
214. B
215. B
216. C
217. D
218. A
219. B
220. A
221. D
222. B
223. A
224. D
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