Sample 7_8_9 Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that

Document Sample
Sample 7_8_9 Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that Powered By Docstoc
					Sample 7,8,9

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____    1. To start up, a computer locates _____.
           a. application software in storage and loads it into memory
           b. application software in memory and loads it onto storage
           c. an operating system in storage and loads it into memory
           d. an operating system in memory and loads it onto storage
____    2. The _____ is the user most likely to store faxes, presentations, travel records, homework assignments, and
           quotations.
           a. home user                                      c. large business user
           b. mobile user                                    d. power user
____    3. Examples of nonvolatile storage media include all of the following except _____.
           a. memory                                         c. microfiche
           b. floppy disks                                   d. PC Cards
____    4. Storage devices access items in _____.
           a. thousandths of a second (milliseconds)         c. billionths of a second (nanoseconds)
           b. millionths of a second (microseconds)          d. trillionths of a second (picoseconds)
____    5. Transfer rates for disks are stated in _____.
           a. KBps (kilobytes per second) and MBps (megabytes per second)
           b. MBps (megabytes per second) and GBps (gigabytes per second)
           c. GBps (gigabytes per second) and TBps (terabytes per second)
           d. TBps (terabytes per second) and PBps (petabytes per second)
____    6. With respect to a storage medium, the term _____ means users can remove the medium from one computer
           and carry it to another computer.
           a. volatile                                       c. nonvolatile
           b. fixed                                          d. portable
____    7. Current personal computer hard disks have storage capacities from 80 to 500 _____ and more.
           a. KB                                             c. MB
           b. GB                                             d. PB
____    8. A hard disk that is mounted inside the system unit sometimes is called a _____.
           a. fixed disk                                     c. portable hard disk
           b. Zip disk                                       d. removable hard disk
____    9. Experts estimate that hard disks using perpendicular recording will provide storage capacities about _____
           than disks that use longitudinal recording.
           a. 10 times greater                               c. 100 times greater
           b. 10 times less                                  d. 100 times less
____   10. All of the following are characteristics of hard disks, except _____.
           a. write-protect notch                            c. sectors and tracks
           b. read/write head                                d. capacity
____ 11. A _____ on a hard disk, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, is made of aluminum, glass, or
         ceramic and is coated with an alloy material that allows items to be recorded magnetically on its surface.
         a. cluster                                       c. read/write head
         b. platter                                       d. cache
____ 12. As shown in the accompanying figure, a _____ is a vertical section of track that passes through all platters on
         a hard disk, such as that shown in the accompanying figure.
         a. cylinder                                      c. cluster
         b. sector                                        d. shutter
____ 13. While the computer is running, the platters in a hard disk (such as that shown in the accompanying figure)
         usually rotate at _____, which allows nearly instant access to all tracks and sectors.
         a. 54 to 150 revolutions per minute (rpm)
         b. 5,400 to 15,000 revolutions per second (rps)
         c. 54 to 150 revolutions per hour (rph)
         d. 5,400 to 15,000 revolutions per minute (rpm)
____ 14. A _____ occurs when a read/write head touches the surface of a hard disk platter, such as that shown in the
         accompanying figure, usually resulting in a loss of data and sometimes loss of the entire drive.
         a. disk crash                                    c. drive crash
         b. head crash                                    d. data crash
____ 15. Access time for today’s hard disks range from _____.
         a. 8 - 10 KBps                                   c. 3 - 12 ms
         b. 3 - 12 MBps                                   d. 5,400 - 15,000 rpm
____ 16. Depending on the type of hard disk, transfer rates range from _____.
         a. 12 -24 MBps                                   c. 15 - 320 MBps
         b. 125 - 200 KBps                                d. 4,500 - 15,000 rpm
____ 17. An advantage of portable hard disks and removable hard disks is that users can _____.
         a. transport a large number of files
         b. add storage space to a notebook computer or Tablet PC
         c. share a drive with multiple computers
         d. all of the above
____ 18. The primary advantage of the _____ interface is the cables are thinner, longer, more flexible, and less
         susceptible to interference.
         a. EIDE                                           c. SCSI
         b. SATA                                           d. FireWire
____ 19. Some manufacturers market their _____ interfaces as Fast ATA or Ultra ATA.
         a. EIDE                                           c. FireWire
         b. SATA                                           d. SCSI
____ 20. Users subscribe to an online storage service to _____.
         a. save time by storing large files instantaneously
         b. allow others to access files
         c. store offsite backups of data
         d. all of the above
____ 21. If a personal computer has one floppy disk drive, it is named drive _____.
         a. A                                              c. C
         b. B                                              d. D
____ 22. A disk with a higher density has _____ storage capacity.
         a. more bits in an area and thus a smaller        c. fewer bits in an area and thus a smaller
         b. more bits in an area and thus a larger         d. fewer bits in an area and thus a larger
____ 23. The average time it takes a floppy disk drive to locate an item on a disk is _____.
         a. 84 milliseconds                                c. 8 seconds
         b. 8 milliseconds                                 d. 1/10 of a second
____ 24. A typical floppy disk stores data on _____.
         a. one side of the disk, has 80 tracks on each side, and 18 sectors per track
         b. one side of the disk, has 18 tracks on each side, and 80 sectors per track
         c. both sides of the disk, has 80 tracks on each side, and 18 sectors per track
         d. both sides of the disk, has 18 tracks on each side, and 80 sectors per track
____ 25. A floppy disk drive _____.
         a. can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is open
         b. can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is closed
         c. can read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed
         d. cannot read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed
____ 26. Zip disks are slightly _____ as thick as a 3.5-inch floppy disk.
         a. smaller and about half                         c. larger and about half
         b. smaller and about twice                        d. larger and about twice
____ 27. Optical discs usually are _____ than one-twentieth of an inch thick.
         a. 3.5 inches in diameter and less                c. 3.5 inches in diameter and more
         b. 4.75 inches in diameter and less               d. 4.75 inches in diameter and more
____ 28. The drive designation of an optical disc drive usually _____.
         a. precedes alphabetically before that of all the hard disks and portable disks
         b. comes alphabetically between that of the hard disks and portable disks
         c. follows alphabetically after that of all the hard disks and portable disks
         d. comes alphabetically between that of the portable disks and hard disks
____ 29. Optical discs commonly store items in _____.
         a. random locations anywhere between the center of the disc and the edge of the disc
         b. multiple pie-shaped sections that break a track into arcs
         c. a single track that spirals from the center of the disc to the edge of the disc
         d. multiple concentric tracks from the center of the disc to the edge of the disc
____ 30. All of the following may scratch or damage an optical disc except _____.
         a. holding a disk by its edges                    c. touching the underside of a disc
           b. stacking disks                                d. exposing disks to any type of contaminant
____ 31.   A standard CD-ROM is called a _____ disc because manufacturers write all items on the disc at one time.
           a. multisession                                  c. unisession
           b. single-session                                d. compound-session
____ 32.   A typical CD-ROM holds from _____ of data, instructions, and information.
           a. 450 MB - 650 MB                               c. 650 GB - 950 GB
           b. 45 MB - 100 MB                                d. 650 MB - 1 GB
____ 33.   Manufacturers measure the speed of all optical disc drives relative to the original CD-ROM drive, using an X
           to denote the original transfer rate of 150 _____.
           a. KBps (kilobytes per second)                   c. GBps (gigabytes per second)
           b. MBps (megabytes per second)                   d. TBps (terabytes per second)
____ 34.   Current CD-ROM drives have transfer rates ranging from _____.
           a. 4X - 8X                                       c. 48X - 75X
           b. 24X - 48X                                     d. 100X and faster
____ 35.   A _____ overcomes the major disadvantage of CD-R disks, which is being able to write on them only once.
           a. CD-ROM                                        c. CD-RW
           b. DVD-ROM                                       d. DVD-R
____ 36.   Manufacturers state the speeds of CD-RW drives in this order: _____.
           a. rewrite speed, write speed, and read speed
           b. write speed, read speed, and rewrite speed
           c. read speed, rewrite speed, and write speed
           d. write speed, rewrite speed, and read speed
____ 37.   A mini-DVD that has grown in popularity is the _____, which works specifically with the PlayStation
           Portable handheld game console.
           a. DVD+RAM                                       c. Blu-ray
           b. UMD                                           d. HD-DVD
____ 38.   The storage capacity of a DVD-ROM is _____ that of a CD because images are stored at higher resolutions.
           a. greater than a CD, and a DVD’s quality far surpasses
           b. less than a CD, but a DVD’s quality far surpasses
           c. greater than a CD, but a DVD’s quality is far less than
           d. less than a CD, and a DVD’s quality is far less than
____ 39.   A storage technique that a DVD-ROM can use to achieve a higher storage capacity than a CD-ROM is to
           _____.
           a. make the disc more dense by packing the pits closer together
           b. use two layers of pits
           c. be double-sided
           d. all of the above
____ 40.   DVD+RW drives can write on all of the following media except _____.
           a. CD-R                                          c. CD-RW
           b. DVD+RAM                                       d. DVD+RW
____ 41.   One of the first storage media used with mainframe computers was _____.
           a. Zip disks                                     c. optical disks
           b. tape                                          d. microfilm
____ 42.   Tape _____.
           a. no longer is used as a primary method of storage but is used most often for long-term
               storage and backup
           b. is used as a primary method of storage and for long-term storage and backup
           c. no longer is used for long-term storage and backup but is used most often as a primary
               method of storage
           d. no longer is used as a primary method of storage or for long-term storage and backup
____ 43.   All of the following use direct access except _____.
           a. CDs                                           c. tape
           b. DVDs                                          d. hard disks and floppy disks
____ 44.   The difference in size among Type I, Type II, and Type III PC Cards is their _____.
           a. diameter                                      c. thickness
           b. circumference                                 d. all of the above
____ 45.   Common types of flash memory cards include _____.
           a. CompactFlash (CF) and SmartMedia              c. xD Picture Card
           b. Secure Digital (SD) and Memory Stick          d. all of the above
____ 46.   With a storage capacity of 64 MB to 1 GB, a(n) _____ card is used in digital cameras and photo printers.
           a. CompactFlash (CF)                             c. xD Picture Card
           b. Secure Digital (SD)                           d. Memory Stick
____ 47.   Card readers/writers usually connect to any of the following ports on the system unit except the _____.
           a. serial port                                   c. parallel port
           b. USB port                                      d. FireWire port
____ 48.   Current USB flash drives have transfer rates of _____.
           a. 2 MBps                                        c. 12 MBps
           b. 4 MBps                                        d. 20 MBps
____ 49.   One popular use of _____ is to store a prepaid amount of money, as in a prepaid telephone calling card.
           a. smart cards                                   c. PC Cards
           b. floppy disks                                  d. hard disks
____ 50.   The use of microfilm and microfiche provides all of the following advantages except _____.
           a. they greatly reduce the amount of paper firms must handle
           b. they are inexpensive
           c. they have the longest life of any storage media
           d. they can be read without a microfilm or microfiche reader
____ 51.   The term _____ refers to online or Internet-based illegal acts.
           a. malicious-logic program                       c. cybercrime
           b. computer crime                                d. system failure
____ 52.   A _____ is a program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a network, using up resources and
           possibly shutting down the computer or network.
           a. computer virus                                c. Trojan horse
           b. worm                                          d. all of the above
____ 53.   A _____ is a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program and usually is
           triggered by a certain condition or action.
           a. computer virus                                c. Trojan horse
           b. worm                                          d. all of the above
____ 54.   The _____ is the destructive event or prank a malicious-logic program is intended to deliver.
           a. zombie                                        c. cracker
           b. hash                                          d. payload
____ 55.   Computer viruses, worms, and Trojan horses deliver their payload on a computer when a user _____.
           a. opens an infected file
           b. runs an infected program
           c. boots the computer with an infected disk in a disk drive
           d. all of the above
____ 56.   Some viruses are hidden in _____, which are instructions saved in an application such as a word processing or
           spreadsheet program.
           a. macros                                        c. cookies
           b. logs                                          d. spikes
____ 57.   To _____ a program file, an antivirus program records information such as the file size and file creation date
           in a separate file.
           a. quarantine                                    c. blackout
           b. decrypt                                       d. inoculate
____ 58.   A _____ is a separate area of a hard disk that holds an infected file until the infection can be removed.
           a. quarantine                                    c. firewall
           b. payload                                       d. honeypot
____ 59.   The computer that a hacker uses to execute a DoS or DDoS attack, known as a _____, is completely unaware
           that it is being used to attack other systems.
           a. cookie                                        c. zombie
           b. proxy                                         d. standby
____ 60.   A honeypot is a program designed to _____.
           a. negatively affect the way a computer works
           b. entice an intruder to hack into a computer
           c. identify and remove computer viruses found in memory
           d. secretly collect information about a user
____ 61.   To prevent unauthorized access and use, at a minimum a company should have a written _____ that outlines
           the computer activities for which a computer or network may and may not be used.
           a. acceptable use policy (AUP)                   c. performance guarantee policy (PGP)
           b. universal procedures standard (UPS)           d. maintenance security dictum (MSD)
____ 62.   Each character added to a password significantly _____ it might take for someone or for a hacker’s computer
           to guess the password.
           a. reduces the number of combinations and the length of time
           b. reduces the number of combinations but increases the length of time
           c. increases the number of combinations but reduces the length of time
           d. increases the number of combinations and the length of time
____ 63.   Examples of biometric devices and systems include all of the following except _____.
           a. fingerprint scanners and hand geometry systems
           b. face recognition systems and voice recognition systems
           c. signature verification systems and iris recognition systems
           d. personal identification numbers and password systems
____ 64.   To help reduce the chance of _____, physical controls such as locked doors and cables usually are adequate to
           protect equipment.
           a. software piracy                               c. system failure
           b. hardware theft                                d. unauthorized access
____ 65.   Some notebook computers use _____ as methods of security.
           a. passwords                                     c. biometrics
           b. possessed objects                             d. all of the above
____ 66.   When users purchase software, a single-user license agreement permits users to do any of the following
           except _____.
           a. install the software on only one computer
           b. rent or lease the software
           c. make one copy of the software as backup
           d. give or sell the software to another individual if the software is removed from the user’s
                computer first
____ 67.   When users purchase software, a single-user license agreement does not permit users to do any of the
           following except _____.
           a. install the software on a network               c. make one copy of the software as backup
           b. give copies to friends and colleagues           d. export the software
____ 68.   Software piracy continues for all of the following reasons except _____.
           a. software piracy drives down the price of software for all users
           b. in some countries, legal protection for software does not exist
           c. software piracy is a fairly simple crime to commit
           d. many buyers believe they have the right to copy software they have paid for
____ 69.   To promote a better understanding of software piracy problems and, if necessary, to take legal action, a
           number of major worldwide software companies formed the _____.
           a. Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT)
           b. Business Software Alliance (BSA)
           c. Underwriters Laboratory (UL)
           d. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
____ 70.   In its simplest form, a(n) _____ is a programmed formula that the recipient of encrypted data uses to decrypt
           the ciphertext.
           a. encryption key                                  c. digital certificate
           b. virus signature                                 d. session cookie
____ 71.   A _____ is a mathematical formula that generates a code from the contents of an e-mail message.
           a. spike                                           c. password
           b. macro                                           d. hash
____ 72.   When a mobile user connects to a main office using a standard Internet connection, a _____ provides the
           mobile user with a secure connection to the company network server.
           a. value added network (VAN)                       c. virtual private network (VPN)
           b. local area network (LAN)                        d. wide area network (WAN)
____ 73.   One of the more common causes of _____ is an electrical power variation.
           a. hardware vandalism                              c. unauthorized access
           b. system failure                                  d. software theft
____ 74.   A momentary overvoltage, called a _____, occurs when the increase in power lasts for less than one
           millisecond (one thousandth of a second).
           a. Joule                                           c. hash
           b. spike                                           d. macro
____ 75.   _____, which provides encryption of all data that passes between a client and an Internet server, requires only
           that the client has a digital certificate.
           a. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
           b. Secure HTTP (S-HTTP)
           c. Secure Electronics Transactions (SET) Specifications
           d. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
____ 76.   _____, which allows users to choose an encryption scheme that passes between a client and a server, requires
           that both the client and server have digital certificates.
           a. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
           b. Secure HTTP (S-HTTP)
           c. Secure Electronics Transactions (SET) Specifications
           d. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
____ 77.   A _____ is the unit of energy a surge protection device can absorb before it can be damaged.
           a. Joule                                           c. hash
           b. spike                                           d. macro
____ 78.   A UPS connects between a computer and a _____.
           a. peripheral device                               c. communications device
           b. disk drive                                      d. power source
____ 79. A(n) _____ copies all of the files in a computer.
         a. full backup                                    c. differential backup
         b. incremental backup                             d. selective backup
____ 80. With a(n) _____, users choose which folders and files to include in a backup.
         a. full backup                                    c. differential backup
         b. incremental backup                             d. selective backup
____ 81. With a three-generation backup policy, the grandparent is the _____.
         a. most recent copy of the file                   c. oldest copy of the file
         b. second oldest copy of the file                 d. original file
____ 82. With a three-generation backup policy, the parent is the _____.
         a. most recent copy of the file                   c. oldest copy of the file
         b. second oldest copy of the file                 d. original file
____ 83. With a three-generation backup policy, the child is the _____.
         a. most recent copy of the file                   c. oldest copy of the file
         b. second oldest copy of the file                 d. original file
____ 84. Some perpetrators use a technique called _____ in which they attempt to connect to wireless networks via
         their notebook computers while driving a vehicle through areas they suspect have a wireless network.
         a. cyberforensics                                 c. war flying
         b. war driving                                    d. wire cruising
____ 85. A _____ is a small text file that a Web server stores on a user’s computer.
         a. worm                                           c. cookie
         b. spike                                          d. payload
____ 86. Web sites use a _____ to keep track of items in a user’s shopping cart.
         a. session cookie                                 c. adware
         b. zombie                                         d. shopping bot
____ 87. Internet advertising firms often use _____ to collect information about user’s Web browsing habits.
         a. comware                                        c. adware
         b. postware                                       d. billware
____ 88. _____ is/are not considered spyware because a user knows it/they exist(s).
         a. Adware                                         c. A Web bug
         b. Cookies                                        d. Spam
____ 89.
           _____, like that shown in the accompanying figure, is an unsolicited e-mail message or newsgroup posting
           sent to many recipients or newsgroups at once.
           a. Hash                                        c. Worm
           b. Spam                                        d. Spike
____ 90. To avoid items like that shown in the accompanying figure, users can sign up for _____, which is a service
         from an Internet service provider that blocks e-mail messages from designated sources.
         a. an anti-spam program                         c. an antivirus program
         b. e-mail encryption                            d. e-mail filtering
____ 91. _____ is a scam in which a perpetrator sends an official looking e-mail that attempts to obtain a user’s
         personal and financial information.
         a. Spam                                         c. Phishing
         b. Spit                                         d. Spyware
____ 92. The 1986 _____ provides the same protection that covers mail and telephone communications to electronic
         communications such as voice mail.
         a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)
         b. Fair Credit Reporting Act
         c. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
         d. Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act
____ 93. The 1988 _____ regulates the use of government data to determine the eligibility of individuals for federal
         benefits.
         a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)
         b. Fair Credit Reporting Act
         c. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
         d. Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act
____ 94. Many businesses use _____ to limit employees’ Web access.
         a. content filtering                            c. honeypots
         b. Web bugs                                     d. spyware
____ 95. One approach to content filtering is through a rating system of _____, which is similar to those used for
          movies and videos.
          a. ICRA                                            c. MSN
          b. AOL                                             d. BSA
____ 96. Computer forensics is used by _____.
          a. military intelligence                           c. law enforcement
          b. insurance agencies                              d. all of the above
____ 97. To prevent repetitive strain injury, take all of the following precautions except _____.
          a. place a wrist rest between the keyboard and the edge of the desk
          b. use the heel of the hand as a pivot point while typing or using the mouse
          c. place the mouse at least six inches from the edge of the desk
          d. minimize the number of switches between the mouse and the keyboard
____ 98. _____ is an applied science devoted to incorporating comfort, efficiency, and safety into the design of items
          in the workplace.
          a. Ergonomics                                      c. Epidemics
          b. Eurhythmics                                     d. Econometrics
____ 99. Symptoms of a user with computer addiction include all of the following except _____.
          a. craves computer time                            c. neglects family and friends
          b. unable to stop computer activity                d. irritable when at the computer
____ 100. Personal computers, display devices, and printers should comply with guidelines of the _____ program.
          a. ENERGY STAR                                     c. ACCEPTABLE USE
          b. SECURE ELECTRONICS                              d. GREEN COMPUTING
____ 101. _____, which include(s) the highest positions in a company, focus(es) on the long-range direction of the
          company.
          a. Nonmanagement employees                         c. Operational management
          b. Middle management                               d. Executive management
____ 102. _____ is/are responsible for implementing the strategic decisions of higher management.
          a. Nonmanagement employees                         c. Operational management
          b. Middle management                               d. Executive management
____ 103. _____ supervise(s) the production, clerical, and other employees.
          a. Nonmanagement employees                         c. Operational management
          b. Middle management                               d. Executive management
____ 104. _____ include(s) production, clerical, and other personnel.
          a. Nonmanagement employees                         c. Operational management
          b. Middle management                               d. Executive management
____ 105. Nonmanagement employees have access to the information to make decisions that previously were made by
          managers — a trend called _____ users.
          a. farming                                         c. empowering
          b. mirroring                                       d. striping
____ 106. Planning is an activity performed by managers that involves _____.
          a. instructing and authorizing others to perform the necessary work
          b. identifying and combining resources so that a company can reach its goals and objectives
          c. establishing goals and objectives
          d. measuring performance and, if necessary, taking corrective action
____ 107. Organizing is an activity performed by managers that includes _____.
          a. instructing and authorizing others to perform the necessary work
          b. identifying and combining resources so that a company can reach its goals and objectives
          c. establishing goals and objectives
          d. measuring performance and, if necessary, taking corrective action
____ 108. Leading, sometimes referred to as directing, is an activity performed by managers that involves _____.
          a. instructing and authorizing others to perform the necessary work
          b. identifying and combining resources so that a company can reach its goals and objectives
          c. establishing goals and objectives
          d. measuring performance and, if necessary, taking corrective action
____ 109. Controlling is an activity performed by managers that involves _____.
          a. instructing and authorizing others to perform the necessary work
          b. identifying and combining resources so that a company can reach its goals and objectives
          c. establishing goals and objectives
          d. measuring performance and, if necessary, taking corrective action
____ 110. A _____ is an instruction, or set of instructions, a user follows to accomplish an activity.
          a. transaction                                     c. workflow
          b. procedure                                       d. click stream
____ 111. An ERM system _____.
          a. facilitates communication between employees and the business
          b. includes information about the files and data, called metadata
          c. focuses on issues related to inventory of parts and forecasting future demand
          d. assists support personnel in providing the best solutions for customers
____ 112. _____ allows an engineer to modify a design more easily than before, as well as dynamically change the size
          of some or all of the product and view the design from different angles.
          a. SFA                                             c. MRP
          b. CAD                                             d. CIM
____ 113. Using _____, engineers can test the design of a car or bridge before it is built.
          a. CAE                                             c. SFA
          b. KMS                                             d. MRP
____ 114. MRP _____.
          a. facilitates communication between human resources personnel and employees
          b. includes information about the files and data, called metadata
          c. focuses on issues related to inventory of parts and forecasting future demand
          d. assists support personnel in providing the best solutions for customers
____ 115. _____ software helps salespeople manage customer contacts, schedule customer meetings, log customer
          interactions, manage product information, and take orders from customers.
          a. SFA                                             c. ERM
          b. CAE                                             d. CAD
____ 116. CIM software _____.
          a. facilitates communication between human resources personnel and employees
          b. includes information about the files and data, called metadata
          c. focuses on issues related to inventory of parts and forecasting future demand
          d. assists support personnel in providing the best solutions for customers
____ 117. The _____ department makes technology decisions for an enterprise.
          a. information technology                          c. manufacturing
          b. customer service                                d. human resources
____ 118. Many companies elevate the importance of information technology by including a _____ executive position
          that reports to the CEO.
          a. chief operations officer (COO)                  c. chief financial officer (CFO)
          b. chief security officer (CSO)                    d. chief information officer (CIO)
____ 119. Some people describe a(n) _____ as office automation.
          a. OIS                                             c. DSS
          b. TPS                                             d. MIS
____ 120. When customers make a purchase with a credit card, they are interacting with a(n) _____.
          a. OIS                                           c. DSS
          b. TPS                                           d. MIS
____ 121. Management information systems evolved from _____.
          a. office information systems                    c. transaction processing systems
          b. decision support systems                      d. executive information systems
____ 122. A(n) _____ usually lists just transactions.
          a. external report                               c. exception report
          b. detailed report                               d. summary report
____ 123. A(n) _____ consolidates data usually with tools, tables, or graphs, so managers can review it quickly and
          easily.
          a. external report                               c. exception report
          b. detailed report                               d. summary report
____ 124. A(n) _____ identifies data outside of a normal condition.
          a. external report                               c. exception report
          b. detailed report                               d. summary report
____ 125. _____, such as accountants, engineers, and other professionals, include individuals whose jobs center on the
          collection, processing, and application of information.
          a. Clerical workers                              c. Knowledge workers
          b. Manual workers                                d. Production workers
____ 126. _____ software tracks leads and inquiries from customers, stores a history of all correspondence and sales to a
          customer, and allows for tracking of outstanding issues with customers.
          a. CIM                                           c. CRM
          b. CAD                                           d. CAE
____ 127. An advantage of ERP (enterprise resource planning) is _____.
          a. better project management
          b. complete integration of information systems across departments
          c. better customer service
          d. all of the above
____ 128. A CMS _____.
          a. facilitates communication between human resources personnel and employees
          b. includes information about the files and data, called metadata
          c. focuses on issues related to inventory of parts and forecasting future demand
          d. assists support personnel in providing the best solutions for customers
____ 129. Publishing entities, such as news services, use _____ to keep Web sites up to date.
          a. VPN tunnels                                   c. CMS
          b. RAID                                          d. DDS
____ 130. _____ is the process of collecting data from the Internet as a source for a data warehouse.
          a. Web mirroring                                 c. Web striping
          b. Web empowering                                d. Web farming
____ 131. Two popular platforms for building and running _____ are the Sun Microsystems J2EE platform and the
          Microsoft .NET platform.
          a. data warehouses                               c. workflow applications
          b. Web services                                  d. artificial intelligence
____ 132. Recently, _____ have replaced or supplemented existing electronic data interchange systems.
          a. servers                                       c. data warehouses
          b. RAID                                          d. extranets
____ 133. A _____ is a program that assists in the management and tracking of all the activities in a business from start
          to finish.
          a. workflow application                          c. process application
          b. shopping application                          d. server application
____ 134. A _____ contains a central library, or repository, from which users are allowed to check out documents.
          a. CRM                                           c. DMS
          b. CIM                                           d. VPN
____ 135. Many bricks-and-mortar pharmacies have an online counterpart that exists on the Web, allowing customers to
          refill prescriptions and ask pharmacists questions using _____ software.
          a. CID                                           c. CIM
          b. CAD                                           d. CAE
____ 136. The _____ of hardware to users is a measure of how often it is online.
          a. availability                                  c. interoperability
          b. scalability                                   d. probability
____ 137. The simplest RAID design is level 1, called _____, which writes data on two disks at the same time to
          duplicate the data.
          a. farming                                       c. empowering
          b. mirroring                                     d. striping
____ 138. Some RAID levels use a technique called _____, which splits data, instructions, and information across
          multiple disks in the array.
          a. farming                                       c. empowering
          b. mirroring                                     d. striping
____ 139. An enterprise storage system may use _____.
          a. RAID and a tape library                       c. Internet backup and NAS devices
          b. CD-ROM and DVD-ROM jukeboxes                  d. all of the above
____ 140. Uptime is a measure of _____.
          a. scalability                                   c. availability
          b. interoperability                              d. probability
____ 141. _____ is a measure of how well computer hardware, software, or an information system can grow to meet
          increasing performance demands.
          a. Availability                                  c. Interoperability
          b. Scalability                                   d. Probability
____ 142. An information system must share information, or have _____, with other information systems within an
          enterprise.
          a. availability                                  c. interoperability
          b. scalability                                   d. probability
____ 143. Grid computing _____.
          a. often is used in research environments
          b. involves charging for the use of a grid based on processing time
          c. combines many servers and/or personal computers on a network
          d. all of the above
____ 144. In the accompanying calendar in the accompanying figure, showing a backup method strategy for a month,
          a(n) _____, sometimes called an archival backup, copies all of the files in a computer.
          a. full backup                                   c. selective backup
          b. differential backup                           d. incremental backup
____ 145. In the accompanying calendar in the accompanying figure, showing a backup method strategy for a month,
          a(n) _____ copies only the files that have changed since the full backup.
          a. full backup                                   c. selective backup
          b. differential backup                           d. incremental backup
____ 146. A(n) _____ copies the files that have changed since the last full backup or last incremental backup.
          a. full backup                                   c. selective backup
          b. differential backup                           d. incremental backup
____ 147. A(n) _____, sometimes called a partial backup, allows the user to choose specific files to backup, regardless
          of whether or not the files have changed since the last incremental backup.
          a. full backup                                   c. selective backup
          b. differential backup                           d. incremental backup
____ 148. In a disaster recovery plan, the emergency plan specifies _____.
          a. information for simulating various levels of disasters and recording an organization’s
               ability to recover
          b. the steps to be taken immediately after a disaster strikes
          c. the actions to be taken to restore full information processing operations
          d. how a company uses backup files and equipment to resume information processing
____ 149. In a disaster recovery plan, the backup plan specifies _____.
          a. information for simulating various levels of disasters and recording an organization’s
              ability to recover
          b. the steps to be taken immediately after a disaster strikes
          c. the actions to be taken to restore full information processing operations
          d. how a company uses backup files and equipment to resume information processing
____ 150. In a disaster recovery plan, the recovery plan specifies _____.
          a. information for simulating various levels of disasters and recording an organization’s
              ability to recover
          b. the steps to be taken immediately after a disaster strikes
          c. the actions to be taken to restore full information processing operations
          d. how a company uses backup files and equipment to resume information processing
Sample 7,8,9
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

      1.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   354   OBJ:   1
      2.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   355   OBJ:   1
      3.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   356   OBJ:   1
      4.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   357   OBJ:   1
      5.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   357   OBJ:   1
      6.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   358   OBJ:   2
      7.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   358   OBJ:   3
      8.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   358   OBJ:   3
      9.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   358   OBJ:   3
     10.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   359   OBJ:   3
     11.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   359   OBJ:   3
     12.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   360   OBJ:   3
     13.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   360   OBJ:   3
     14.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   360   OBJ:   3
     15.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   361   OBJ:   3
     16.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   361   OBJ:   3
     17.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   362   OBJ:   3
     18.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   363   OBJ:   3
     19.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   363   OBJ:   3
     20.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   364   OBJ:   3
     21.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   365   OBJ:   4
     22.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   365   OBJ:   4
     23.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   365   OBJ:   4
     24.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   365   OBJ:   4
     25.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   365   OBJ:   4
     26.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   365   OBJ:   4
     27.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   366   OBJ:   4
     28.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   367   OBJ:   5
     29.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   367   OBJ:   5
     30.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   368   OBJ:   5
     31.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   369   OBJ:   6
     32.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   369   OBJ:   6
     33.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   369   OBJ:   6
     34.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   369   OBJ:   6
     35.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   371   OBJ:   6
     36.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   371   OBJ:   6
     37.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   372   OBJ:   6
     38.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   372   OBJ:   6
     39.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   372   OBJ:   6
     40.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   373   OBJ:   6
     41.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   374   OBJ:   7
42.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   374   OBJ:   7
43.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   374   OBJ:   7
44.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   374   OBJ:   8
45.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   376   OBJ:   8
46.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   376   OBJ:   8
47.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   376   OBJ:   8
48.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   377   OBJ:   8
49.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   378   OBJ:   8
50.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   379   OBJ:   9
51.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   556   OBJ:   1
52.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   558   OBJ:   2
53.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   558   OBJ:   2
54.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   558   OBJ:   2
55.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   559   OBJ:   2
56.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   560   OBJ:   2
57.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   561   OBJ:   2
58.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   561   OBJ:   2
59.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   562   OBJ:   2
60.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   564   OBJ:   3
61.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   565   OBJ:   3
62.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   566   OBJ:   3
63.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   568   OBJ:   3
64.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   569   OBJ:   4
65.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   570   OBJ:   4
66.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   571   OBJ:   5
67.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   571   OBJ:   5
68.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   571   OBJ:   5
69.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   571   OBJ:   5
70.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   572   OBJ:   6
71.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   572   OBJ:   6
72.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   574   OBJ:   6
73.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   574   OBJ:   7
74.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   574   OBJ:   7
75.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   574   OBJ:   7
76.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   574   OBJ:   7
77.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   575   OBJ:   7
78.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   575   OBJ:   7
79.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   576   OBJ:   8
80.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   576   OBJ:   8
81.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   576   OBJ:   8
82.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   576   OBJ:   8
83.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   576   OBJ:   8
84.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   577   OBJ:   9
85.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   582   OBJ:   11
86.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   582   OBJ:   11
87.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   583   OBJ:   11
 88.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   583   OBJ:   11
 89.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   584   OBJ:   11
 90.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   584   OBJ:   11
 91.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   584   OBJ:   11
 92.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   585   OBJ:   11
 93.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   585   OBJ:   11
 94.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   586   OBJ:   11
 95.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   586   OBJ:   11
 96.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   587   OBJ:   11
 97.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   588   OBJ:   12
 98.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   589   OBJ:   12
 99.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   589   OBJ:   12
100.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   590   OBJ:   12
101.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
102.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
103.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
104.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
105.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
106.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
107.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
108.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
109.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   718   OBJ:   1
110.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   720   OBJ:   1
111.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   721   OBJ:   2
112.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   722   OBJ:   2
113.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   722   OBJ:   2
114.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   723   OBJ:   2
115.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   724   OBJ:   2
116.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   724   OBJ:   2
117.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   725   OBJ:   2
118.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   725   OBJ:   2
119.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   726   OBJ:   3
120.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   726   OBJ:   3
121.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   727   OBJ:   3
122.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   727   OBJ:   3
123.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   727   OBJ:   3
124.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   728   OBJ:   3
125.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   730   OBJ:   3
126.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   730   OBJ:   3
127.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   731   OBJ:   3
128.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   732   OBJ:   3
129.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   732   OBJ:   3
130.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   734   OBJ:   4
131.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   735   OBJ:   4
132.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   735   OBJ:   4
133.   ANS:   A   DIF:   P   REF:   736   OBJ:   4
134.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   736   OBJ:   4
135.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   740   OBJ:   6
136.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   741   OBJ:   6
137.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   741   OBJ:   6
138.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   741   OBJ:   6
139.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   743   OBJ:   6
140.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   745   OBJ:   6
141.   ANS:   B   DIF:   P   REF:   745   OBJ:   6
142.   ANS:   C   DIF:   P   REF:   746   OBJ:   6
143.   ANS:   D   DIF:   P   REF:   746   OBJ:   6
144.   ANS:   A   DIF:   S   REF:   746   OBJ:   7
145.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   746   OBJ:   7
146.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   746   OBJ:   7
147.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   746   OBJ:   7
148.   ANS:   B   DIF:   S   REF:   748   OBJ:   8
149.   ANS:   D   DIF:   S   REF:   748   OBJ:   8
150.   ANS:   C   DIF:   S   REF:   748   OBJ:   8

				
DOCUMENT INFO
Shared By:
Categories:
Tags:
Stats:
views:341
posted:12/12/2011
language:English
pages:20