11-217

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					11-217

531. The control and performance procedural steps are (IN ORDER): (217,1.2)
     a. establish attitude and power setting, trim off pressure, cross check, adjust
    b. cross check, trim off pressure, establish attitude and power setting, adjust
     c. trim off pressure, cross check, establish attitude and power setting, adjust

532. As a guide, the lead point on the altimeter for a level-off should be approximately _____ percent of
the VVI. (217,2.3.1.1)
     a. 5
     b. 10
     c. 15
     d. 20

533. As a guide for instrument turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should approximate ____. For
turns greater and 30 degrees, use a bank angle of ____. (217,2.3.1.2)
     a. 20 degrees, 30 degrees
     b. the number of degrees turned, 45 degrees
     c. the number of degrees turned, 30 degrees
     d. 15 degrees, 30 degrees

534. When VOR is selected, each dot on the course deviation scale (of the CDI) represents ___ degrees.
(217,5.2.2.1)
     a. 3
     b. 10
     c. 7
     d. 5

535. The marker beacon light functions independently of ILS/VOR/TACAN signals. (217,5.2.2.2.4)
     a. True
     b. False

536. If there is a malfunction in the compass system or compass card, an ADF bearing pointer will
continue to point to the station and display relative bearing only. (217,5.2.4.6)
     a. true
     b. False

537. On the EHSI, when the TO-FROM indicator points to the head of the course arrow, it indicates that
the course selected, if properly intercepted and flown, will ________. (217,5.3.2.1)
     a. take the aircraft to the selected facility
     b. take the aircraft away from the selected facility
     c. take the aircraft either to or from the selected facility, depending on where the bearing pointer is
pointing
     d. none of the above

538. When using the flight director in the ILS Final Approach Mode, the maximum bank angle
commanded is ____. (217,5.3.4.3)
     a. 5 degrees
    b. 10 degrees
     c. 15 degrees
    d. 30 degrees

539. When on a localizer approach, the CDI will center regardless of the course selected; however, the CDI
and course arrow will not necessarily be directional to the aircraft symbol. (217,5.3.5)
     a. True
     b. False
540. VORs without voice capability are indicated on enroute and sectional charts by a lack of underlining
the VOR frequency or by the designation "VORW" in the IFR Supplement. (217,6.2.2)
     a. True
     b. False

541. Reliable DME signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line of sight altitude with an
accuracy of better than one half mile or ____ the distance, whichever is greater. (217,6.5.2)
     a. 2%
     b. 3%
     c. 5%
     d. 10%

542. Reliable DME signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line of sight altitude with an
accuracy of better than ____ mile(s) or 3% the distance, whichever is greater. (217,6.5.2)
     a. 1/2
     b. 1
     c. 3
     d. 5

543. Distance information received from DME equipment is a slant range distance and not actual horizontal
distance. (217,6.5.2)
     a. True
     b. False

544. Distance information received from DME is actual horizontal distance. (217,6.5.2)
     a. true
    b. false

545. A localizer signal is usable and accurate to a range of ____ NM and glideslope signal is usable to a
distance of ____ NM unless otherwise stated on the IAP. (217,6.6.2)
     a. 10, 18
     b. 18, 35
     c. 18, 10
     d. 24, 18

546. Any abnormal indications experienced within ____ of the published front course or back course
centerline of an ILS localizer should be reported immediately to the appropriate ATC facility. (217,6.6.6)
     a. 10 degrees
     b. 18 degrees
     c. 35 degrees
     d. none of the above

547. Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is not expected to correct for known wind
conditions. (217,7.1)
     a. true
    b. false

548. Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions.
(217,7.1)
     a. True
     b. False

549. Voice communication may be possible on _________ frequencies. (217,7.1.3)
     a. VOR
    b. ILS
     c. ADF
     d. All of the above

550. Monitor station identification periodically while using it for navigation. (217,7.1.3)
     a. True
     b. False

551. While monitoring a NAVAID, the absence of the identification does not mean the signal is unreliable
as long as constant signals are being received. (217,7.1.3)
     a. True
     b. False

552. Pilots need not worry about flying exactly on course centerline, as TERPs criteria provides obstacle
clearance for 10 miles either side of course centerline. (217,7.4.1.4)
     a. True
     b. False

553. When intercepting a course inbound to the station, the angle of intercept may not be more than _____
degrees from the course. (217,7.4.2.3)
     a. 30
     b. 60
     c. 90
     d. none of the above

554. TACAN station passage is determined when ___________. (217,7.6.2)
     a. the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM
    b. the range indicator stops decreasing
     c. the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course
    d. the bearing pointer makes the first positive move through the 45 degree index

555. Station passage for a VOR occurs when: (217,7.6.1)
     a. the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM
    b. the range stops decreasing
     c. when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course
    d. a and b above

556. Station passage for an ADF occurs when: (217,7.6.1)
     a. the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM
    b. the range stops decreasing
     c. when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course
    d. a and b above


557. When established in an NDB holding pattern, subsequent station passage may be determined by using
the first definite move by the bearing pointer through the _________ index. (217,7.6.3)
      a. 30 degree
      b. 90 degree
      c. 45 degree
      d. 60 degree

558. As a guide, groundspeed checks should be performed only when the AC slant range distance is more
than the aircraft altitude divided by 1,000 (i.e. at FL 200 groundspeed should be performed beyond 20
NM.) (217,7.8)
     a. true
     b. false
559. Ground speed checks made below feet are accurate at any distance. (217,7.8)
     a. 20,000
    b. 5,000
     c. 10,000
    d. 35,000

560. The FAA Notam Distribution System consists of: (217,8.2.2)
     a. Series "D" Notams
    b. Flight Data Center (FDC) Notams
     c. Series "L" Notams
    d. a and c above
     e. all of the above

561. Which SIDs assume the aircraft will cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above
ground level? (217,8.3.1.1)
     a. Army
     b. Civil
     c. Air Force
     d. a and b above

562. Civil and Army SIDs assume aircraft will cross the departure end of the runway at least ____ feet
above ground level. (217,8.3.1.1)
     a. 30
    b. 35
     c. 50
    d. 60

563. On all departures climb at a rate of at least ____ feet per nautical mile to be assured of obstacle
clearance. (217,8.3.1.1)
     a. 152
     b. 200
     c. 250
     d. none of the above

564. An Emergency Safe Altitude provides at least _____ feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use
within _____ NM from the navigation facility upon which the procedure is based. (217,8.6.2.1)
     a. 1000 (2000 mountainous), 100
     b. 1000, distance specified on the IAP
     c. 2000, 100
     d. 1000, 25

565. Minimum sector altitude provides _____ feet of obstacle clearance within _____ NM of the facility.
(217,8.6.2.1)
     a. 1,000, 50.
     b. 1,000, 25.
     c. 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain), 25.
     d. 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain), 50.

566. The VDP is a defined point on the final approach course of a precision straight-in approach procedure
from which a normal descent (approximately 3 degree) from the DH to the runway touchdown point may
be commenced provided visual reference with the runway environment is established. (217,8.6.2.6)
     a. True
     b. False

567. Before flight, accomplish a thorough instrument cockpit check. You should check which of the
following items prior to flight: (217,8.7)
     a.   flight publications
     b.   VVI indicator
     c.   no warning flags
     d.   all of the above

568. Check altimeter error not to exceed ____ feet at a known elevation. (217,8.7.7)
     a. 70
     b. 150
     c. 75
     d. 100

569. Allowable CDI error checking a VOR/TACAN is + ____ degrees. With dual systems, they must
check within + ____ degrees of each other. (217,8.7.13)
     a. 4, 4
     b. 3, 2
     c. 4, 2
     d. 3, 1

570. Although there is no USAF requirement to read back an ATC clearance, you should read back the
clearance if you feel the need for confirmation. (217,9.1.2)
     a. True
     b. False

571. On an instrument takeoff, when cleared for takeoff, perform which of the following: (217,9.2.4.1)
     a. recheck heading and attitude indicators
     b. complete applicable before takeoff checklists
     c. contact departure when instructed and monitor guard
     d. all of the above

572. You have been cleared a SID, and after takeoff are told to "climb and maintain" a specific altitude.
You may/must: (217,9.3.1.1)
     a. Disregard all SID altitude restrictions, disregard all SID routings
    b. Comply with all SID altitude restrictions
     c. Disregard all SID altitude restrictions, comply with all SID routings
    d. Decline the clearance because it is an invalid IFR clearance

573. What is a standard holding pattern at 15,000 feet MSL? (217,10.2,10.4.4)
     a. left turns, 1 1/2 minute maximum outbound leg
    b. right turns, 1 1/2 minute maximum inbound leg
     c. right turns, 1 minute maximum inbound leg
    d. left turns, 1 minute maximum outbound leg

574. Standard holding turn direction is left turns. (217,10.2)
     a. True
    b. False

575. TACAN station passage may be used as a holding fix or high altitude initial approach fix. (217,10.2)
   a. True.
   b. False.


576. What is a standard holding pattern at 14,000 feet MSL? (217,10.2)
     a. left turns, 1 1/2 minute maximum outbound leg
    b. right turns, 1 1/2 minute maximum inbound leg
     c. right turns, 1 minute maximum inbound leg
    d. left turns, 1 minute maximum outbound leg
577. Both TACAN and VORTAC facilities are acceptable for holding fixes or high altitude initial
approach fixes. (217,10.2.1)
     a. True
    b. False

578. Which of the following are correct methods of holding entry? (217,10.4.3)
     a. teardrop if conveniently aligned with the selected teardrop course
    b. within 70( of inbound course, turn in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course
     c. not within 70( of inbound course, turn outbound on the holding side to parallel the holding course
    d. all of the above

579. What should you do if your entry into holding (heading not within 70 degrees) places you on the non-
holding side outbound? (217,10.4.3)
     a. Parallel the holding course (do not adjust for wind)
     b. Correct to holding course if TAS is greater than 180 knots
     c. Parallel the holding course (adjust for wind) or attempt to intercept holding course outbound
     d. Attempt to intercept a 30 degree tear drop course

580. You should never lengthen a holding pattern beyond the specified time or distance. (217,10.5.4)
     a. True
    b. False

581. After the initial outbound leg in a holding pattern, adjust inbound legs as necessary so as not to
exceed maximum outbound time. (217,10.5.4)
   a. True.
   b. False.

582. If you are established in a holding pattern with a published minimum holding altitude and you are
assigned a higher altitude, when may you descend to the published minimum holding altitude? (217,10.8)
   a. At EFC (If you go NORDO)
   b. When cleared for the approach
   c. Both a and b
   d. None of the above

583. Prior to descent from cruise, which of the following is not required by AFMAN 11-217? (217,11.2.1)
     a. review the IAP for the type of final planned
    b. complete the descent checklist
     c. recheck the weather
    d. check the heading and attitude systems

584. Since the T-1 is RNAV equipped, RNAV approaches and departures may be flown. (217,7.11.3)
     a. True
     b. False

585. On a high altitude procedure, when may you descend from last cleared altitude? (217.11.3.5)
     a. cleared for the approach
    b. on a parallel or intercept heading to the course
     c. abeam or past the IAF
    d. a and c
     e. all of the above

586. On a low altitude approach, when may you descend from last assigned altitude? (217,11.4.5)
     a. established on a segment of the approach
    b. cleared for the approach
     c. visually clear of all obstructions
     d. a and b
     e. all of the above

587. If established in holding and cleared for the approach, you must: (217,11.4.6)
    a. Turn inbound immediately and begin the approach
    b. Proceed direct to the IAF and begin the approach
    c. Complete the holding pattern to the IAF unless an early turn is approved
    d. Make at least one complete holding pattern before beginning the approach

588. Clearance for a Standard Terminal Arrival procedure is clearance for the altitudes associated with it.
(217,11.7.4)
     a. True
     b. False

589. If your heading is within 90 degrees of the approach course you are not required to overfly the IAF
and may use normal leadpoints to intercept the course. (217,12.3.1)
     a. True.
    b. False.

590. On a radial high-altitude approach start the descent when the aircraft is abeam or past the IAF on a
parallel or intercept heading to the approach course. (For DME approaches, crossing the arc is considered
abeam the IAF.) (217,12.3.2)
     a. True.
     b. False.

591. When flying an approach with dead reckoning legs: (217,12.6)
   a. use lead points for turns to and from the DR legs.
   b. you should fly the depicted ground track.
   c. you should apply wind corrections.
   d. both b and c above.
   e. all of the above.

592. The teardrop course will be displaced a maximum of ______ from the published procedure turn
course on the maneuvering side. (217,13.2.2.1)
     a. 20.
     b. 30.
     c. 40.
     d. 45.

593. If the entry turn places the aircraft on the non-maneuvering side of the procedure turn course, and you
are flying in excess of _____ KTAS, you must correct toward the procedure turn course with an intercept
angle of at least _____ degrees. (217,13.2.2.2)
      a. 160, 30.
      b. 180, 20.
      c. 160, 20.
      d. 175, 30.

594. The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from: (217,13.2.3)
     a. the procedure turn fix.
    b. the runway.
     c. final approach fix.
    d. the MAP.

595. How long do you fly wings level outbound on the 45-degree leg of a 45/180 maneuver during a
procedure turn (assume Category B)? (217,13.2.6.2)
     a. 30 seconds.
     b. 45 seconds.
     c. 60 seconds.
   d. It does not matter as long as you meet the remain within distance restrictions.

596. The procedure turn will not be flown when: (217,13.2.7)
   a. Issued an ATC clearance for a "straight-in" approach
   b. The initial approach is via NoPT routing
   c. Conducting timed approaches
   d. all of the above

597. The holding pattern (in lieu of Procedure Turn) will not be flown when: (217,13.3.5)
   a. Issued an ATC clearance for a "straight-in" approach
   b. The initial approach is via NoPT routing
   c. Conducting timed approaches
   d. a and b above
   e. all of the above

598. The localizer has a usable range of at least _____ within _______ unless stated otherwise on the IAP.
(217,14.1.1.1)
a. 15 miles; 10 degrees
b. 10 miles; 18 degrees
c. 18 miles; 10 degrees
d. 5 miles; 35 degrees

599. The optimum length of a nonprecision final approach is ________. (217,14.1.1.1)
a. 10 miles
b. 4 miles
c. 2 minutes
d. 5 miles

600. Timing may be used as a means of identifying the MAP even when timing is not published on the
IAP. (217,14.1.1.2.2)
   a. True
   b. False

601. Descent below the MDA is authorized when you establish sufficient visual references with the
runway environment and the aircraft is in a position to make a safe landing. (217,14.1.1.2.6)
     a. True.
    b. False.

602. The final approach course of a nonradar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ______
degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in. (217,14.1.1.2.7)
   a. 30
   b. 45
   c. 15
   d. 20

603. At the MAP, the ASR approach error may be as much as ______ from the runway edge. (217,14.2.1)
a. 500 feet
b. 300 feet
c. 700 feet
d. 400 feet

604. Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately
__________. (217,14.2.2.2)
a. 15 seconds while being vectored to final
b. 5 seconds while on PAR final
c. 15 seconds while on PAR final
d. 1 minute while on ASR final

605. While flying an ILS with a 3 degree glidepath, what is the required VVI at 180 ground speed?
(217,14.2.4.6)
a. 500
b. 600
c. 700
d. 900

606. While flying no-gyro approaches , use half standard rate turns when _________ (217,14.2.5.3.2)
a. reaching the begin descent point
b. established on final
c. told to by the controller
d. told not to acknowledge further transmissions

607. How is decision height determined while flying a PAR? (217,14.2.5.3.2)
   a. barometric altitude
   b. radio altitude
   c. advised by the controller
   d. a or c, whichever occurs first

608. When cleared for a visual approach __________. (217,14.3)
a. maintain VFR and proceed to airport in a direct and safe manner
b. cancel your IFR flight plan with the tower
c. report a three mile initial
d. a and b

609. Duck unders may produce: (217,15.2.4.2.2)
   a. high sink rates
   b. poor thrust/lift relationships
   c. hard landings
   d. all of the above

610. When flying an approach using a three-bar VASI system, T-1A aircrews should use: (217,15.3.3.1.7)
   a. the two farthest bars.
   b. the two closest bars.
   c. only the closest and farthest bars.
   d. all three bars.

611. When on a PAPI glidepath, the pilot will see: (217,15.3.4)
   a. two red light and two white lights
   b. a steady white light
   c. red in the far bar and white in the near bar
   d. none of the above

612. When on a PVASI glidepath, the pilot will see: (217,15.3.5)
   a. two red light and two white lights
   b. an alternating red and white light
   c. a steady white light
   d. b or c above

613. Touchdown zone lighting extends _____ feet down the runway. (217,15.4.2.1)
   a. 1000
   b. 2000
   c. 3000
   d. 4000

614. The last 1000 feet of centerline lighting displays: (217,15.4.2.2)
   a. white lights
   b. alternating red and white lights
   c. red lights
   d. a and c above

615. When may you begin the side-step maneuver? (217,15.7)
   a. as soon as you are cleared for the side-step
   b. when the side-step runway is in sight
   c. when in position to make a descent for a normal landing
   d. none of the above

616. The obstacle clearance area provided for the missed approach is predicated upon the missed approach
being started at the (217,16.2)
   a. MAP
   b. VDP
   c. MDA
   d. none of the above

617. If doing multiple approaches, delay any turns until (217,16.3)
   a. past the departure end, if visible
   b. past the field boundary, if visible
   c. 400 feet AGL
   d. a and c above
   e. b and c above

618. You are required to perform the missed approach when the MAP/DH is reached and (217,16.5.1)
   a. the runway environment is not in sight
   b. you are unable to make a safe landing
   c. you are directed by the controlling agency
   d. any of the above

619. If circling and you lose visual references, you should follow the missed approach specified for the
runway you are cleared to land on. (217,16.5.4)
   a. True
   b. False

620. If the climb gradient on a missed approach exceeds ____ ft/NM, the approach chart will depict the
vertical velocity required. (217,16.5.5)
   a. 100
   b. 152
   c. 200
   d. none of the above

621. With a QFE altimeter setting of 29.32, your altimeter at Laughlin AFB would read _____ feet.
(217,20.1.1.2)
     a. 1682
     b. 1082
     c. 0 *
     d. not enough information given


622. _______ altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for temperature. (217,20.1.2)
    a.   Absolute
    b.   Density *
    c.   Indicated
    d.   True

623. Aircraft with transponders having altitude reporting capability should have them on _______.
(217,20.3.1)
     a. before takeoff
     b. before engine start
     c. before contacting approach control
     d. a and c *

624. TERPS provides safe terminal procedures for aircraft operating to and from military and civil
airports. (217,20.4.1)
     a. True *
     b. False

625. The maximum descent gradient is ______ feet per nautical mile on a nonprecision approach.
(217,20.4.3.1.2)
     a. 600
     b. 1000-1500
     c. 400 *
     d. 200

626. Normal glideslope is _____ percent. (217,20.4.3.2.1)
     a. 2 - 4
    b. 1- 3
     c. 2.5 - 4
    d. 2.5 - 3 *

627. The T-1 is a category ____ aircraft, which provides _____ NM circling obstruction clearance.(217,fig
20.5)
     a. A, 1.7
     b. C, 1.5
     c. B, 1.5 *
     d. B, 1.3

628. When the pitot system is blocked by something, such as ice, airspeed indications change with
_________. (217,21.1.5.1)
     a. temperature
    b. mach number
     c. altitude *
    d. none of the above

629. True airspeed is equivalent airspeed corrected for ________. (217,21.1.5.3)
     a. compressibility
    b. wind
     c. installation error
    d. air density *

630. VVI indicators require __________ input. (217,21.1.7)
     a. static *
    b. pitot
     c. a and b above
    d. a or b above
631. The standard rate of turn is _____ . (217,21.2.2 note)
     a. 3.0 degrees per second *
    b. 1.5 degrees per second
     c. 30 degrees of bank
    d. a or c above, whichever is less

632. Because the magnetic compass is normally aligned with electrical power applied to the aircraft, in an
electrical failure situation, the magnetic compass may be 20-30 degrees in error. (217,21.3.2)
     a. True *
     b. False

633. Radar altimeters may be used to determine decision height in the T-1. (217,21.5.1)
     a. True
    b. False *

634. Radar altitude is reliable over which of the following? (217,21.5.1)
     a. water
    b. ice
     c. snow
    d. none of the above *

635. The _______ system is by far the most important sensory system providing spatial orientation during
flight. (217,22.2.2)
     a. vestibular
     b. somatosensory
     c. equilibrium
     d. visual

636. ICAO procedures apply only in airspace not under FAA control (exception: US rules should be used
at US military bases overseas that use US controllers.) (217,23.1)
     a. True
     b. False

637. The ICAO 450/1800, 800/2600 and base turn reversal procedures must be entered from a track within
________. (217,23.3.2.1)
     a. + 300 of the outbound reversal track
     b. + 450 of the inbound reversal track
     c. for base turns where the + 300 entry sector does not include the reciprocal of the inbound track, the
entry sector is expanded to include it.
     d. a and c above

638. The DH for a Category II ILS approach is identified by a preselected height on the aircraft radar
altimeter. (217,24.1)
     a. True
     b. False

639. A category II ILS approach provides the capability of flying to minima as low as a DH of ____ and an
RVR of ____. (217,24.1)
     a. 100, 2400
     b. 150, 1200
     c. 100,1200
     d. 200, 1240

640. Unless your HUD is specifically endorsed as a Primary Flight Reference according to AFI 11-206, it
should not be used as a sole-source instrument reference. (217,25.1)
     a. True
b. False

				
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