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CRCT Review 2 - New Schoolnotes

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CRCT Review 2 - New Schoolnotes Powered By Docstoc
					CRCT REVIEW 2

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____    1. Scientists have divided the history of the Earth into large divisions called
           a. years.                                         c. weeks.
           b. eras.                                          d. fossils.
____    2. An example of a rapid change in conditions on Earth is
           a. continents moving.                         c. organisms adapting.
           b. tectonic plates shifting.                  d. a meteor striking Earth.
____    3. When scientists identify the age of a fossil they
           a. place it in a time period                      c. decide if it’s valuable.
           b. cut it up.                                     d. decide what continent it belongs on.
____    4. Cyanobacteria used sunlight to make
           a. nitrogen.                                      c. cells.
           b. eukaryotes.                                    d. food.
____    5. Before an ozone layer formed to reduce radiation, life existed
           a. in the air.                                 c. in oceans and underground.
           b. in trees and plants.                        d. on land.
____    6. The largest mass extinction was in the
           a. Precambrian time.                              c. Paleozoic era.
           b. Cenozoic era.                                  d. Mesozoic era.
____    7. What animals have been dominant in the Cenozoic era?
           a. insects                                  c. single-celled organisms
           b. birds                                    d. mammals
____    8. Opposable thumbs help primates because with them they can
           a. grow fingernails.                         c. grip and hold things.
           b. have claws.                               d. dig.
____    9. Eyes at the front of the head are important for primates because they provide
           a. varying eye colors.                            c. three-dimensional vision.
           b. a difficult target.                            d. eyelids.
____ 10. The earliest hominids have been found in
         a. Asia.                                            c. Africa.
         b. North America.                                   d. Antarctica.
____ 11. Which is an example of Earth’s conditions slowly changing?
         a. meteors striking                           c. continents moving
         b. volcanoes erupting                         d. a mass extinction
____ 12. How did cyanobacteria change life on earth?
         a. They produced food from light.                   c. They became extinct.
         b. They moved onto land.                            d. They turned into a gas.
____ 13. What gas layer protects Earth from the sun’s radiation?
            a. the sedimentary layer                        c. the oxygen layer
            b. the nitrogen layer                           d. the ozone layer
____ 14. What time period is called the Age of Mammals?
         a. the Precambrian time                      c. the Paleozoic era
         b. the Mesozoic era                          d. the Cenozoic era
____ 15. Which group of hominids lived at the same time as Homo sapiens?
         a. australopithecines                         c. Homo habilis
         b. Homo erectus                               d. Neanderthals
____ 16. Which of the following is characteristic of all primates?
         a. bipedalism                                     c. binocular vision
         b. vertical pelvis                                d. opposable big toes
____ 17. Which group of hominids that lived in Europe and Asia disappeared from the fossil record about 30,000 years
         ago?
         a. Homo erectus                               c. Homo sapiens
         b. australopithecines                         d. Neanderthals
____ 18. Past mass extinctions most likely occurred as a result of
         a. oxygen pollution.                             c. sudden global climate change.
         b. ozone destruction.                            d. exposure to UV radiation.
____ 19. The first organisms to appear on Earth did not need
         a. oxygen.                                      c. cells.
         b. nitrogen.                                    d. chemicals.
____ 20. What are traces of living things that are preserved in rock called?
         a. oxygen                                         c. sediments
         b. fossils                                        d. dinosaurs
____ 21. What do scientists think life developed from?
         a. simple chemicals                                c. photosynthesis
         b. oxygen                                          d. a nucleus
____ 22. What reptiles of the Mesozoic era are the best known?
         a. newts                                        c. snakes
         b. salamanders                                  d. dinosaurs
____ 23. What kind of animal is the Cenozoic era famous for?
         a. reptiles                                   c. mammals
         b. birds                                      d. fish
____ 24. If you see a fossil fish in a museum that is labeled one of the earliest fish known, what era is it probably from?
         a. Paleozoic                                      c. Mesozoic
         b. Cenozoic                                       d. Precambrian
____ 25. What type of fossils would be least likely to be found in Antarctica?
         a. tropical plants                                c. sharks
         b. trilobites                                     d. hominids
____ 26. How many domains are recognized today?
         a. four                                           c. three
         b. five                                           d. ten
____ 27. The division of organisms into groups or classes based on characteristics is
         a. taxonomy.                                      c. life science.
         b. classification.                                d. biology.
____ 28. The science of describing, classifying, and naming organisms is
         a. taxonomy.                                      c. life science.
         b. classification.                                d. organization.
____ 29. Carolus Linnaeus is known for
         a. founding the science of taxonomy.
         b. discovering retractable claws.
         c. identifying the characteristics of rare species.
         d. discovering Tyrannosaurus rex.
____ 30. The eight levels of classification, from general to specific, are
         a. domain, kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.
         b. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species.
         c. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
         d. domain, kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus, species.
____ 31. A pine tree is a member of the kingdom
         a. Animalia.                                      c. Protista.
         b. Fungi.                                         d. Plantae.
____ 32. What can you find out by working through a dichotomous key in order?
         a. the identity of an organism
         b. how long slime mold can live
         c. when a species first appeared on Earth
         d. how many birds migrate north to south in winter
____ 33. An example of a simple animal is
         a. a fern.                                        c. an insect.
         b. a mold.                                        d. a sponge.
____ 34. Members of kingdom Animalia depend on bacteria and fungi because bacteria and fungi
         a. do not perform photosynthesis.                 c. use sunlight to produce sugar.
         b. recycle nutrients in dead organisms.           d. are useful for animal habitats.
____ 35. Scientists classify organisms based on their
         a. likes and dislikes.                            c. age.
         b. numbers in the wild.                           d. characteristics.
____ 36. What do scientists use to refer to organisms because common names can create confusion?
         a. Latin names                                    c. scientific names
         b. nicknames                                      d. first names
____ 37. The three most general levels of classification, from general to specific, are
         a. kingdom, family, and class.                    c. kingdom, domain, and order.
         b. domain, kingdom, and phylum.                   d. kingdom, domain, and family.
____ 38. What do scientists look at to classify living things?
         a. their age                                      c. their characteristics
         b. their likes and dislikes                       d. their diseases
____ 39. What is the science of taxonomy?
         a. naming plants and animals
         b. describing, classifying, and naming living things
         c. measuring living things
         d. taking pictures of living things
____ 40. In the past, what two groups did scientists use to classify all living things?
           a. living and nonliving                         c. plant and animal
           b. tall and short                               d. large and small
____ 41.   How many levels of classification do scientists use today?
           a. two                                          c. six
           b. four                                         d. eight
____ 42.   What makes up a living thing’s scientific name?
           a. its genus and species                        c. its class and order
           b. its kingdom and phylum                       d. its family and genus
____ 43.   What is the scientific name for an Asian elephant?
           a. Elephas asian                                c. Elephas biggus
           b. Elephas maximus                              d. Elephas rex
____ 44.   Why do the Chácabo people of Bolivia use classification?
           a. to understand what animals live in other places as well as Bolivia
           b. to understand how far certain birds can fly
           c. to understand which plants are useful and which are not
           d. to understand how many people like to eat fish
____ 45.   What does a dichotomous key consist of?
           a. charts and illustrations                     c. maps and graphs
           b. a series of paired statements                d. internet resources
____ 46.   The seahorse found along the Atlantic Coast of the United States has the scientific name Hippocampus
           hudsonius. What is the seahorse’s species name?
           a. fish                                         c. Hippocampus
           b. horse                                        d. hudsonius
____ 47.   How many kingdoms of bacteria are there today?
           a. one                                          c. three
           b. two                                          d. four

           Use the figure below to answer the following questions.
____ 48. What is the scientific name for a horse?
         a. Equus caballus                               c. Equus burchellii
         b. Equus grevyi                                 d. Equus horse
____ 49. When bacteria reproduce by binary fission,
         a. two cells produce a third cell.
         b. two cells produce two more cells.
         c. one cell produces two cells.
         d. one cell produces three or more cells.
____ 50. What organisms can live where nothing else lives?
         a. viruses                                      c. cyanobacteria
         b. bacteria                                     d. archaea
____ 51. Which of the following is NOT a shape of bacteria?
         a. crystal                                      c. cocci
         b. spirilla                                     d. bacilli
____ 52. Which of the following is NOT a shape of viruses?
         a. crystal                                      c. sphere
         b. spirilla                                     d. cylinder
____ 53. What is one way bacteria help the environment?
         a. They change oxygen to a form plants can use.
         b. They change nitrogen to a form plants can use.
         c. They change oxygen into nitrogen.
         d. They change nitrogen into oxygen.
____ 54. What type of medicine is used to kill bacteria?
         a. antiviral                                    c. vaccine
         b. insulin                                      d. antibiotic
____ 55. Which of the following is an example of bioremediation?
         a. using microorganisms to clean up an oil spill
           b. using bacteria to make yogurt
           c. creating plants that are resistant to bacteria
           d. adding nitrogen-fixing bacteria to the soil before planting crops
____ 56.   Which of the following is an example of genetic engineering?
           a. using microorganisms to clean up an oil spill
           b. using bacteria to make yogurt
           c. creating plants that are resistant to bacteria
           d. adding nitrogen-fixing bacteria to the soil before planting crops
____ 57.   Which do antiviral medicines do?
           a. kill bacteria                                  c. stop viruses from reproducing
           b. kill viruses                                   d. cure viral infections
____ 58.   Which of the following is NOT a common shape of bacteria?
           a. spirilla                                       c. bacilli
           b. cocci                                          d. crystal
____ 59.   A cell with no nucleus is called a(n)
           a. prokaryote.                                    c. host.
           b. endospore.                                     d. eukaryote.
____ 60.   The genetic material of the virus is inactive within the host cell during
           a. the lysogenic cycle.                           c. binary fission.
           b. the lytic cycle.                               d. the lactic cycle.
____ 61.   Which of the following is a shape of bacteria?
           a. sphere                                         c. crystal
           b. bacilli                                        d. cylinder
____ 62.   Which of the following is a shape of viruses?
           a. crystal                                        c. spirilla
           b. cocci                                          d. bacilli
____ 63.   Most protists are made of how many cells?
           a. four                                           c. two
           b. three                                          d. one
____ 64.   What do chloroplasts do?
           a. capture energy from the sun                    c. eat other organisms
           b. give the protist its shape                     d. help the protist move
____ 65.   What process do some protists use to make their own food?
           a. decomposition                                  c. photosynthesis
           b. photogenesis                                   d. fission
____ 66.   What process do single-celled protists use in asexual reproduction to make more than two offspring from one
           parent?
           a. conjugation                                    c. multiple fission
           b. binary fission                                 d. single-cell fission
____ 67.   What do you call the process where a single-celled protist asexually divides into two cells?
           a. conjugation                                    c. multiple fission
           b. binary fission                                 d. single-cell fission
____ 68.   Which of the following provides most of the world’s oxygen?
           a. phytoplankton                                  c. amoebas
           b. seaweed                                        d. zooflagellates
____ 69.   What type of fungi forms the largest group?
           a. club fungi                                     c. lichen
           b. sac fungi                                      d. imperfect fungi
____ 70. What do protists NOT have that other eukaryotic organisms have?
         a. a nucleus                                     c. chlorophyll
         b. specialized tissues                           d. chloroplasts
____ 71. What do chloroplasts do?
         a. capture energy from the sun                   c. give the protist shape
         b. help in reproduction                          d. help the protist move
____ 72. What process do some protists use to make their own food?
         a. decomposition                                 c. photosynthesis
         b. photogenesis                                  d. conjugation
____ 73. Which type of organism makes its own food?
         a. protist producer                              c. decomposer
         b. heterotroph                                   d. parasite
____ 74. Most of the world’s seaweeds are what type of protist producer?
         a. brown algae                                   c. green algae
         b. diatoms                                       d. red algae
____ 75. What are eukaryotic heterotrophs with rigid cell walls and no chlorophyll called?
         a. algae                                         c. spores
         b. hyphae                                        d. fungi
____ 76. What is produced during asexual reproduction that can be easily spread by the wind?
         a. mycorrhiza                                    c. spores
         b. algae                                         d. lichen
____ 77. Which of the following is a heterotroph that is so different from other organisms that it was placed in its own
         kingdom?
         a. algae                                         c. spore
         b. fungi                                         d. mold
____ 78. When fungi live on the roots of plants, how are they obtaining nutrients?
         a. by budding                                    c. by photosynthesis
         b. by conjugation                                d. by mutualism
____ 79. What do amoebas use pseudopodia for?
         a. eating and sexual reproduction
         b. moving and sexual reproduction
         c. moving and eating
         d. sexual reproduction and photosynthesis
____ 80. Most protists are made of how many cells?
         a. four                                          c. two
         b. three                                         d. one
____ 81. What term means that protists’ cells have a nucleus?
         a. eukaryotic                                    c. chloroplasts
         b. nucleusatic                                   d. microscopic
____ 82. What are mobile protists sometimes called?
         a. protozoans                                    c. foraminiferans
         b. radiolarians                                  d. paramecia
____ 83. Which of the following is true of all protists?
         a. They are smaller than bacteria.               c. They are complex organisms.
         b. They have a nucleus.                          d. They are descended from plants.
____ 84. How are dinoflagellates and euglenoids different from the other plantlike protists?
         a. They can photosynthesize.                     c. They have no pigments.
         b. They can move.                                d. They are large.
____ 85. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of zooflagellates?
         a. They use flagella to move.
         b. They are all parasites.
         c. They live in the water or in a host organism.
         d. They are all protozoa.
____ 86. In what stage do plants make spores?
         a. gametophyte                                      c. photosynthesis
         b. sporophyte                                       d. vascular
____ 87. Gymnosperms and angiosperms both
         a. have flowers.                                    c. lack seeds.
         b. have seeds.                                      d. have fruit.
____ 88. Major food crops such as corn, wheat, and rice are
         a. nonvascular plants.                              c. gymnosperms.
         b. seedless plants.                                 d. angiosperms.
____ 89. What is the major difference between monocots and dicots?
         a. the colors of the flowers                        c. the size of the seeds
         b. the number of the cotyledons                     d. the scent of the flowers
____ 90. A stem that is soft, thin, and flexible is called a
         a. woody stem.                                      c. herbaceous stem.
         b. soft stem.                                       d. growth ring.
____ 91. In the gametophyte stage, a fertilized egg grows into a
         a. spore.                                           c. sporophyte.
         b. gametophyte.                                     d. sperm.
____ 92. What could happen if a plant’s phloem does not work correctly?
         a. Photosynthesis will not take place.
         b. The plant might be short of water.
         c. The plant might be short of food.
         d. The plant will not be able to dissolve minerals.
____ 93. Which of the following takes water and minerals from the roots to the shoot?
         a. phloem                                           c. flowers
         b. xylem                                            d. leaves
____ 94. In seed plants, sperm form inside of
         a. seeds.                                           c. gametophytes.
         b. sporophytes.                                     d. pollen.
____ 95. What three parts make up a seed?
         a. young plant, pollen, rhizome                     c. spores, stored water, young plant
         b. young plant, stored food, seed coat              d. sporophyte, rhizoid, young plant
____ 96. A full-grown tree is an example of a
         a. cotyledon.                                       c. gametophyte.
         b. leaf.                                            d. sporophyte.
____ 97. One function of a stem is to
         a. make food.                                       c. store food.
         b. feed insects.                                    d. transport food.
____ 98. What plants get water and nutrients from rhizoids?
         a. mosses                                           c. buttercups
         b. conifers                                         d. angiosperms
____ 99. What does xylem do?
         a. carries food                                     c. carries water and minerals
            b. dissolves minerals and food                    d. grows longer roots
____ 100. Gas enters and exits the stems or leaves of a plant through the
          a. stomata.                                      c. roots.
          b. chloroplasts.                                 d. vascular tissue.
____ 101. The process in which a sperm cell fuses with an egg in the ovary is called
          a. germination.                                c. pollination.
          b. fertilization.                              d. asexual reproduction.
____ 102. After fertilization takes place in a flower, the ovary develops into a
          a. vegetable.                                      c. fruit.
          b. seed.                                           d. leaf.
____ 103. What does a seed need to germinate?
          a. air, wind, and water                             c. sugar, water, and soil
          b. water, air, and warm temperatures                d. soil, water, and sun
____ 104. If a plant gets light from only one direction, the shoots will likely
          a. grow straight upward.                           c. grow toward the light source.
          b. grow away from the light source.                d. stop growing altogether.
____ 105. If a plant is tipped on its side, the shoots will likely
          a. turn and grow upward.                             c. grow to the side the plant is tipped.
          b. grow toward the ground.                           d. stop growing altogether.
____ 106. When the seasons change, some plants respond to changes in
          a. the amount of oxygen in the leaves.       c. the length of day and night.
          b. soil quality.                             d. gravity.
____ 107. A plant that grows toward the light is showing
          a. a positive tropism.                         c. gravitropism.
          b. a negative tropism.                         d. seasonal change.
____ 108. Root tips of most plants grow toward the center of the Earth. This action is a
          a. negative phototropism.                       c. negative gravitropism.
          b. positive phototropism.                       d. positive gravitropism.
____ 109. Leaves turn orange and yellow in fall because
          a. they have more orange and yellow pigment in the fall.
          b. their green chlorophyll breaks down.
          c. longer days cause the color change.
          d. orange and yellow are easier to see in the cool weather.
____ 110. Stomata are important because they
          a. begin photosynthesis.
          b. break down chlorophyll.
          c. play a role in gas exchange.
          d. feed the plant.
____ 111. Plants that bloom when nights are long are called
          a. long-day plants.                             c. evergreen plants.
          b. short-day plants.                            d. deciduous plants.
____ 112. The seeds of some plants are protected by
           a. fruits.                                     c. leaves.
           b. flowers.                                    d. stems.
____ 113. The root tips of most plants show
          a. negative phototropism.                       c. positive phototropism.
          b. positive gravitropism.                       d. negative gravitropism.
____ 114. By which process do plants make their own food from carbon dioxide and water?
          a. cellular respiration                      c. chlorophyll
          b. transpiration                             d. photosynthesis
____ 115. What is the green pigment in plants called?
          a. chloroplast                                  c. photosynthesis
          b. chlorophyll                                  d. grana

           Use the image below to answer the following questions.




____ 116. What is the name and function of the structure labeled B?
          a. cuticle: It protects the plant from water loss.
          b. vascular tissue: It conducts water and other materials throughout the plant.
          c. guard cell: It opens and closes the stoma.
          d. stoma: It allows carbon dioxide to enter the leaf and allows oxygen and water to exit the
             leaf.
____ 117. What is the name and function of the structure labeled C?
          a. cuticle: It protects the plant from water loss.
          b. vascular tissue: It conducts water and other materials throughout the plant.
          c. guard cell: It opens and closes the stoma.
          d. stoma: It allows carbon dioxide to enter the leaf and allows oxygen and water to exit the
             leaf.
____ 118. What is an organism at an early stage of development called?
          a. embryo                                         c. vertebrate
          b. invertebrate                                   d. consumer
____ 119. What is a collection of similar specialized cells called?
          a. organ                                          c. invertebrate
          b. embryo                                         d. tissue
____ 120. What do animals use to get from one place to another?
          a. tissues                                        c. movement
            b. sex cells                                      d. embryos
____ 121.   What kind of behavior is being demonstrated when a killer whale teaches its baby to hunt?
            a. seasonal cycle                                 c. courtship
            b. estivation                                     d. parenting
____ 122.   What are the daily cycles that control an animal’s schedule?
            a. estivation                                     c. seasonal cycles
            b. circadian rhythms                              d. migration
____ 123.   Animals that live in groups
            a. are in far more danger from predators than animals that live alone are.
            b. never get sick.
            c. can only hunt very small animals.
            d. have to move around when they run out of food.
____ 124.   Animals that live in groups
            a. must compete for food and mates.
            b. are difficult for predators to find.
            c. are especially protected from disease.
            d. cannot spot predators quickly.
____ 125.   All animals have eukaryotic cells and are
            a. invertebrates.                                 c. asexual.
            b. vertebrates.                                   d. multicellular.
____ 126.   Walking is an example of
            a. an innate behavior.                            c. a survival behavior.
            b. a seasonal behavior.                           d. a learned behavior.
____ 127.   A dolphin’s whistles and clicks are examples of communication using
            a. chemicals.                                     c. touch.
            b. sound.                                         d. sight.
____ 128.   How might animals living in a group deal with a food shortage?
            a. by migrating                                   c. by shedding
            b. by fasting                                     d. by reproducing
____ 129.   Which statement about communication between animals is false?
            a. Animals use communication to find mates.
            b. Communication helps animals find their food.
            c. Communication helps animals avoid enemies.
            d. Communication occurs only between members of the same species.
____ 130.   A killer whale teaching its offspring to hunt is an example of
            a. estivation.                                    c. courtship.
            b. defensive behavior.                            d. parenting.
____ 131.   Which is NOT an example of how animals might deal with a food shortage?
            a. migration                                      c. reproduction
            b. estivation                                     d. hibernation
____ 132.   A group of tissues that carry out a special function of the body is a(n)
            a. embryo.                                        c. behavior.
            b. organ.                                         d. consumer.
____ 133.   Which of the following is an example of chemical communication?
            a. budding                                        c. hibernation
            b. pheromones                                     d. estivation
____ 134.   What kind of communication is a dolphin using when it whistles or clicks?
            a. chemicals                                      c. touch
            b. sound                                        d. sight
____ 135.   What kind of communication is body language?
            a. touch                                        c. sight
            b. sound                                        d. chemical
____ 136.   What is it called when an adult animal takes care of its baby?
            a. estivation                                   c. courtship
            b. hibernation                                  d. parenting
____ 137.   What kind of communication are chimpanzees using when they groom each other?
            a. sight                                        c. courtship
            b. touch                                        d. chemical
____ 138.   How are innate behaviors inherited?
            a. through learned behavior                     c. through seasonal cycles
            b. through genes                                d. through hibernation
____ 139.   What is an area occupied by an animal or group of animals called?
            a. a territory                                  c. a distraction
            b. a pheromone                                  d. a competition
____ 140.   What do we call the transfer of signals and messages that animals use in social interaction?
            a. competition                                  c. food and water
            b. courtship                                    d. communication
____ 141.   Which list contains organisms that are NOT animals?
            a. giraffes, grizzly bears, starfish            c. slugs, kangaroos, monkeys
            b. fish, spiders, birds                         d. cactuses, bacteria, mushrooms
____ 142.   Which body plan does a flatworm have?
            a. asymmetry                                    c. bilateral symmetry
            b. radial symmetry                              d. segmented symmetry
____ 143.   What is the body of a roundworm like?
            a. long, slim, and round                        c. spongelike
            b. fat and thick                                d. tentacled
____ 144.   What kind of circulatory system do squids have?
            a. radial                                       c. open
            b. closed                                       d. segmented
____ 145.   What do the bodies of all annelid worms have in common?
            a. They are segmented.                          c. They are flat.
            b. They are round.                              d. They have radial symmetry.
____ 146.   What are the three main body parts of all arthropods?
            a. head, thorax, and abdomen                    c. guts, wings, and coelom
            b. antenna, wings, and pincer                   d. legs, arms, and guts
____ 147.   Which of the following structures support an arthropod and help it to move?
            a. endoskeleton                                 c. antenna
            b. mandible                                     d. an exoskeleton
____ 148.   Which of these animals do not have mandibles?
            a. centipedes                                   c. wasps
            b. spiders                                      d. butterflies
____ 149.   What type of symmetry do adult echinoderms have?
            a. asymmetry                                    c. bilateral symmetry
            b. radial symmetry                              d. segmented symmetry
____ 150.   What symmetry do echinoderm larvae have?
            a. asymmetry                                    c. bilateral
            b. radial                                        d. segmented
____ 151.   What is a water vascular system?
            a. series of canals filled with fluid            c. closed circulatory system
            b. open circulatory system                       d. nerve ring
____ 152.   What kind of echinoderms have long, slim arms?
            a. brittle stars and basket stars                c. sea lilies and feather stars
            b. sea urchins and sand dollars                  d. sea cucumber
____ 153.   What makes sea cucumbers different from other echinoderms?
            a. their feet                                    c. their wormlike shape
            b. their arms                                    d. their spines
____ 154.   What controls the movement of a sea star’s arms?
            a. radial nerves                                 c. spines
            b. tube feet                                     d. sieve plate
____ 155.   Which of the following is NOT a stage of complete metamorphosis?
            a. egg                                           c. adult
            b. larvae                                        d. nymph
____ 156.   Which of the following is NOT sensed by a tarantula’s bristles?
            a. pressure                                      c. chemicals
            b. motion                                        d. an image
____ 157.   The word arthropod means
            a. “large brain.”                                c. “spiny skin.”
            b. “jointed foot.”                               d. “paralyzing toxin.”
____ 158.   The organs of many invertebrates are contained in a body cavity called the
            a. coelom.                                       c. visceral mass.
            b. gut.                                          d. chelicerae.
____ 159.   Which of the following is a bundle of nerve cells?
            a. gut                                           c. ganglion
            b. tube foot                                     d. eye
____ 160.   What do jellyfish and coral both have?
            a. tube feet                                     c. stinging cells
            b. skeletons                                     d. wings
____ 161.   What do mollusks use to move?
            a. bristles                                      c. a foot
            b. mantle                                        d. gills
____ 162.   What helps a sea star to move, eat, and breathe?
            a. simple nervous system                         c. endoskeleton
            b. water vascular system                         d. closed circulatory system
____ 163.   What is a mandible?
            a. claw                                          c. mouthpart
            b. foot                                          d. nerve cell
____ 164.   How do most reptiles breathe?
            a. with their gills                              c. with their lungs
            b. through their skin                            d. through the amniotic sac
____ 165.   Which of the following is NOT a group of reptiles?
            a. frogs and toads                               c. lizards and snakes
            b. crocodiles and alligators                     d. tuataras
____ 166.   An animal that can stay warm in cold weather because it can control its own body temperature is said to be
            a. an endotherm.                                 c. cold-blooded.
            b. an ectotherm.                                 d. an ecological indicator.
____ 167.   How do amphibians breathe?
            a. through their gills and lung
            b. through their gills and skin
            c. through their pharyngeal pouches and lungs
            d. through their lungs and skin
____ 168.   Because amphibians are sensitive to changes in the environment, they are often called
            a. ecological indicators.                        c. endotherms.
            b. allantois.                                    d. double-life indicators.
____ 169.   Which of the following is NOT a group of reptiles?
            a. tuataras                                      c. caecilians
            b. turtles and tortoises                         d. snakes and lizards
____ 170.   Which group of fishes is characterized by being strong swimmers, having keen senses, and being expert
            predators?
            a. bony                                          c. vertebrate
            b. cartilaginous                                 d. jawless
____ 171.   Which of the following is NOT a group of chordates?
            a. notochords                                    c. lancelets
            b. tunicates                                     d. vertebrates
____ 172.   What is the embryonic structure in chordates that is usually replaced by a backbone?
            a. hollow nerve cord                             c. pharyngeal pouch
            b. notochord                                     d. tail
____ 173.   What saclike organ in amphibians takes oxygen from the air and exchanges it with carbon dioxide from the
            blood?
            a. pharyngeal pouch                              c. gill
            b. lung                                          d. swim bladder
____ 174.   Which meat-eating reptile with a narrow head and pointed snout spends most of its time in the water?
            a. lizard                                        c. crocodile
            b. alligator                                     d. tuatara
____ 175.   Which is NOT a common body part of a chordate?
            a. pharyngeal pouch                              c. notochord
            b. lancelet                                      d. hollow nerve cord
____ 176.   Which is NOT a trait of cartilaginous fishes?
            a. They are strong swimmers.                     c. They are expert predators.
            b. They have a bony skeleton.                    d. They have oily livers.
____ 177.   Which is NOT a trait of bony fishes?
            a. They have a swim bladder.                     c. They are eel-like.
            b. They can rest without swimming.               d. They have a bony skeleton.
____ 178.   What is the thin-walled sac of skin that surrounds a frog’s vocal cords called?
            a. vocal sac                                     c. swim bladder
            b. vibrating sac                                 d. scales
____ 179.   What is the purpose of the bird’s air sacs?
            a. to allow the bird to breathe
            b. to take the place of lungs
            c. to maintain a constant supply of air
            d. Air sacs serve no purpose in modern bird species.
____ 180.   What is a bird’s keel?
            a. the large breastbone that anchors flight muscles
            b. a rigid skeleton
            c. bones that shape the wings
            d. part of the bird’s digestive system
____ 181.   What keeps whales and other mammals that live in cold oceans warm?
            a. fur                                           c. thick skin
            b. blubber                                       d. scales
____ 182.   Which of the “toothless mammals” really have no teeth?
            a. anteaters
            b. armadillos
            c. sloths
            d. None of the “toothless mammals” have teeth.
____ 183.   What is the purpose of a camel’s hump?
            a. It cools the camel in the hot desert.
            b. It stores water for dry periods.
            c. It is extra muscle that enables the camel to travel for long distances.
            d. It is stored fat that provides energy when food is scarce.
____ 184.   The newborn kangaroo is about the size of a
            a. bumblebee.                                    c. cat.
            b. hummingbird.                                  d. small dog.
____ 185.   What is the only food the koala eats?
            a. insects                                       c. eucalyptus leaves
            b. mice                                          d. bamboo shoots
____ 186.   This large muscle helps to bring air into a mammal’s lungs.
            a. diaphragm                                     c. mammary
            b. endotherm                                     d. protein
____ 187.   Which of the following characteristics are unique to reproduction in mammals?
            a. reproduce sexually; have mammary glands; care for young until grown
            b. reproduce asexually; care for young for one month
            c. reproduce asexually; have mammary glands; care for young for life
            d. reproduce sexually; do not have mammary glands; care for young until the next birth
____ 188.   Animals whose body temperature stays constant because of internal chemical changes are
            a. reptiles.                                     c. ectotherms.
            b. endotherms.                                   d. amphibians.
____ 189.   To which of the following categories does an osprey belong?
            a. flightless birds                              c. water birds
            b. perching birds                                d. birds of prey
____ 190.   Early mammals did not depend on their surroundings to keep warm. Early mammals were
            a. endotherms.                                   c. dinosaurs.
            b. ectotherms.                                   d. reptiles.
____ 191.   Which of the following characteristics are shared by all mammals?
            a. long legs, mammary glands, good vision
            b. good vision, diaphragms, long necks
            c. poor hearing, constant body temperature, live births
            d. mammary glands, diaphragms, constant body temperature
____ 192.   Many marsupials are endangered by non-native species and
            a. habitat destruction.                          c. changing climate.
            b. acid rain.                                    d. wolves.
____ 193.   Monotremes include the echidna and the
              a. marsupial.                                  c. pinniped.
              b. blue-footed booby.                          d. platypus.
____ 194.     Which of the following placental mammals have opposable thumbs, forward-facing eyes, and a large brain?
              a. cetaceans                                   c. carnivores
              b. insectivores                                d. primates
____ 195.     What is the upward force on a flying bird’s wings?
              a. gravity                                     c. wind
              b. pressure                                    d. lift
____ 196.     How do birds keep their eggs warm?
              a. by nesting                                  c. by preening
              b. by brooding                                 d. by hatching
____ 197.     Which of the following is a water bird?
              a. robin                                       c. blue-footed booby
              b. kiwi                                        d. owl
____ 198.     How do birds of prey use their curved beaks and sharp claws?
              a. to build strong nests                       c. to fight enemies
              b. to catch and eat food                       d. to grasp branches
____ 199.     How does a mammal’s brain differ from the brains of other animals of the same size?
              a. The mammal’s brain is smaller.
              b. The mammal’s brain is bigger.
              c. The mammal’s brain is not as complex.
              d. The mammal’s brain does not stay alert at night.
____ 200.     What is the only native North American marsupial?
              a. monotreme                                   c. raccoon
              b. platypus                                    d. opossum


Matching

              Match each item with the correct statement below.
              a. endospore                                   f.    binary fission
              b. eukaryote                                   g.    prokaryote
              c. cyanobacteria                               h.    flagella
              d. Bacteria                                    i.    methane maker
              e. Archaea                                     j.    heat lover
____   201.   reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two single-celled organisms
____   202.   a type of archaea that lives in swamps and animal intestines
____   203.   hairlike parts of bacteria that help them move around
____   204.   a thick-walled spore containing genetic material and proteins that forms inside a bacterial cell
____   205.   an organism with a nucleus
____   206.   domain with the most individuals
____   207.   a single-celled organism with no nucleus
____   208.   bacteria that contain the green pigment chlorophyll
____   209.   a type of archaea that lives in ocean vents and hot springs

              Match each item with the correct statement below.
              a. woody stem                                  g. rhizoid
              b. stamen                                      h. sepal
              c.   cell wall                                  i. angiosperm
              d.   conifer                                    j. stomata
              e.   monocot                                    k. rhizome
              f.   taproot
____   210.   root system with one main root
____   211.   underground stem from which new leaves and roots grow
____   212.   type of rigid stem found on trees
____   213.   structure that surrounds the cell membrane and supports the plant cell
____   214.   flowering plant that produces seeds inside a plant
____   215.   rootlike structure that holds nonvascular plants in place
____   216.   angiosperm with one cotyledon
____   217.   tiny opening in the epidermis of a leaf where carbon dioxide enters
____   218.   modified leaf that protects the flower bud
____   219.   male reproductive structure of a flower

              Match each item with the correct statement below.
              a. primates                                    g.   carnivores
              b. related to dugongs                          h.   insectivores
              c. cetaceans                                   i.   flying mammals
              d. hoofed mammals                              j.   rodents
              e. “toothless mammals”                         k.   related to hares and pikas
              f. trunk-nosed mammals
____   220.   armadillo
____   221.   squirrel
____   222.   spider monkey
____   223.   manatee
____   224.   bat
____   225.   cattle
____   226.   walrus
____   227.   mole
____   228.   porpoise

              Match each item with the correct statement below.
              a. jack rabbit                                 g.   humpback whale
              b. bat                                         h.   shrew
              c. hippopotamus                                i.   spider monkey
              d. armadillo                                   j.   guinea pig
              e. Indian elephant                             k.   hyena
              f. sea cow
____   229.   “toothless mammals”
____   230.   insectivores
____   231.   rodents
____   232.   related to hares and pikas
____   233.   flying mammals
____   234.   carnivores
____   235.   trunk-nosed mammals
____   236.   hoofed mammals
____ 237. cetaceans
____ 238. related to manatees and dugongs
____ 239. primates

              Match each item with the correct statement below.
              a. mammary glands                              h.   down
              b. perching birds                              i.   lift
              c. preening                                    j.   marsupial
              d. diaphragm                                   k.   brooding
              e. monotreme                                   l.   waterbirds
              f. molting                                     m.   contour
              g. gestation period                            n.   water birds
____   240.   a mammal that lays eggs
____   241.   a mammal with a pouch, such as a kangaroo, koala, or opossum
____   242.   the time between fertilization and birth, in mammals
____   243.   the organ used to feed a mammal’s young
____   244.   the muscle that helps bring air into the lungs
____   245.   the category of birds that can grasp a tree branch
____   246.   the category of birds with webbed feet or long legs
____   247.   the process of grooming and maintaining feathers, in birds
____   248.   the process of shedding feathers and growing new ones
____   249.   a stiff outer feather that determines shape
____   250.   the act of sitting on a nest to keep eggs warm
CRCT REVIEW 2
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

     1. ANS:   B   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   2
     2. ANS:   D   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   3
     3. ANS:   A   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1
     4. ANS:   D   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
     5. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
     6. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
     7. ANS:   D   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
     8. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 3
        OBJ:   1
     9. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 3
        OBJ:   1
    10. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 3
        OBJ:   2
    11. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   2
    12. ANS:   A   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
    13. ANS:   D   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   1
    14. ANS:   D   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
    15. ANS:   D   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 3
        OBJ:   2
    16. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 3
        OBJ:   1
    17. ANS:   D   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 3
        OBJ:   2
    18. ANS:   C   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
    19. ANS:   A   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   2
    20. ANS:   B   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1
    21. ANS:   A   PTS: 1   DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   3
22. ANS:   D   PTS: 1          DIF: 1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   2
23. ANS:   C   PTS: 1          DIF: 1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   2
24. ANS:   A   PTS: 1          DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1
25. ANS:   D   PTS: 1          DIF: 3   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1
26. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
27. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
28. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1.b
29. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1.b
30. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1.b
31. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
32. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   4   STA:   S7L1
33. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1.b
34. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1.b
35. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1.b
36. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1.b
37. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
38. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
39. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
40. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1.b
41. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1.b
42. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1.b
43. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
44. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
45. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   4   STA:   S7L1.b
46. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1.b
47. ANS:   B   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 2
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1.b
48. ANS:   A   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1.b
49. ANS:   C   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 1
    OBJ:   2
50. ANS:   D   PTS: 1              DIF: 1      REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA: S7L1
51. ANS:   A   PTS: 1              DIF: 1      REF: 1
    OBJ:   1
52. ANS:   B   PTS: 1              DIF: 1      REF: 3
    OBJ:   2
53. ANS:   B   PTS: 1              DIF: 1      REF: 2
    OBJ:   1
54. ANS:   D   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 2
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L2.a
55. ANS:   A   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 2
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.a
56. ANS:   C   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 2
    OBJ:   2
57. ANS:   C   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 3
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
58. ANS:   D   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
59. ANS:   A   PTS:   1            DIF: 1      REF: 1
    OBJ:   1
60. ANS:   A   PTS: 1              DIF: 1      REF: 3
    OBJ:   3
61. ANS:   B   PTS: 1              DIF: 1      REF: 1
    OBJ:   1
62. ANS:   A   PTS: 1              DIF: 1      REF: 3
    OBJ:   2
63. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.a| S7L4.b
64. ANS:   A   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L2.a| S7L4.b
65. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L3.b
66. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L3.b
67. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
68. ANS:   A   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
69. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4.b
70. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.a| S7L4.b
71. ANS:   A   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L2.a| S7L4.b
72. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L2.a| S7L4.b
73. ANS:   A   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L3.b
74. ANS:   D   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
75. ANS:   D   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
76. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
77. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
78. ANS:   D   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
79. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
80. ANS:   D   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
81. ANS:   A   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.a| S7L4.b
82. ANS:   A   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 2
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
83. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
84. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   2   REF: 2
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
85. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   2   REF: 2
    OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
86. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.b| S7L1
87. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
88. ANS:   D   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   4   STA:   S7L3.b
89. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L2.d
90. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 4
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.b| S7L1
91. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 1
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.d
92. ANS:   C   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 4
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.d
93. ANS:   B   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 4
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
94. ANS:   D   PTS:   1             DIF:   1   REF: 3
    OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.b| S7L1
 95. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.b| S7L1
 96. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 2   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L2.d
 97. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
 98. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.b| S7L1
 99. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L3.b
100. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   3
101. ANS:   B   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1
102. ANS:   C   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2
103. ANS:   B   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   3
104. ANS:   C   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1
105. ANS:   A   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1
106. ANS:   C   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2
107. ANS:   A   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1
108. ANS:   D   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1
109. ANS:   B   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3
110. ANS:   C   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   3
111. ANS:   B   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2
112. ANS:   A   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2
113. ANS:   B   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1
114. ANS:   D   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1
115. ANS:   B   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1
116. ANS:   D   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   3
117. ANS:   C   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   3
118. ANS:   A   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2   STA: S7L1
119. ANS:   D   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
120. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
121. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4.c
122. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L4.c
123. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4.d
124. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
125. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4
126. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4
127. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4
128. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4.d
129. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4
130. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4
131. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
132. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4
133. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4.d
134. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4
135. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4
136. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4.d
137. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4.c
138. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L4
139. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L4
140. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
141. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
142. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   4   STA:   S7L2
143. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   5   STA:   S7L2
144. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
145. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L2
146. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
147. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
148. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
149. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
150. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L2
151. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
152. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
153. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
154. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L2
155. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
156. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L2
157. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2
158. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
159. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2
160. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2
161. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2
162. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
163. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L3.b
164. ANS:   C   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L3.b
165. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
166. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
167. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L3.b
168. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   4   STA:   S7L1| S7L5.a
169. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
170. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   5   STA:   S7L1
171. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
172. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
173. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
174. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
175. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
176. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   5   STA:   S7L1
177. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   5   STA:   S7L1
178. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1| S7L5.a
179. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L2.d
180. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
181. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
182. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
183. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
184. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 5
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
185. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 5
     OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
186. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L5.c
187. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
188. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
189. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L5.c
190. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
191. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L3.b
192. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 5
        OBJ:   4   STA: S7L1
   193. ANS:   D   PTS: 1                DIF: 1   REF: 5
        OBJ:   2
   194. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 4
        OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L2.d
   195. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L3.b
   196. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   4   STA:   S7L1
   197. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   198. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   199. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 3
        OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
   200. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 5
        OBJ:   3


MATCHING

   201. ANS:   F   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
   202. ANS:   I   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L1
   203. ANS:   H   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   204. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   205. ANS:   B   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   206. ANS:   D   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   207. ANS:   G   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   208. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   209. ANS:   J   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   3   STA:   S7L2.a

   210. ANS:   F   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 4
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   211. ANS:   K   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 2
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.d
   212. ANS:   A   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 4
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L2.b| S7L1
   213. ANS:   C   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
        OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
   214. ANS:   I   PTS:   1              DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
215. ANS:   G      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1      STA:   S7L3.b
216. ANS:   E      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   3      STA:   S7L2.d
217. ANS:   J      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L3.b
218. ANS:   H      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   3      STA:   S7L3.b
219. ANS:   B      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   3      STA:   S7L1

220. ANS:   E      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
221. ANS:   J      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
222. ANS:   A      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
223. ANS:   B      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
224. ANS:   I      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
225. ANS:   D      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
226. ANS:   G      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
227. ANS:   H      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
228. ANS:   C      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1

229. ANS:   D      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
230. ANS:   H      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
231. ANS:   J      PTS:   1        REF: 4   OBJ: 2
     STA:   S7L1
232. ANS:   A      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
233. ANS:   B      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
234. ANS:   K      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
235. ANS:   E      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
236. ANS:   C      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
237. ANS:   G      PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2      STA:   S7L1
238. ANS:   F   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
239. ANS:   I   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1

240. ANS:   E   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 5
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
241. ANS:   J   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 5
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L3.b
242. ANS:   G   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 4
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
243. ANS:   A   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
244. ANS:   D   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 3
     OBJ:   2   STA:   S7L1
245. ANS:   B   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1   STA:   S7L1
246. ANS:   L   PTS:   1        DIF: 1   REF: 2
     OBJ:   1
247. ANS:   C   PTS: 1          DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1
248. ANS:   F   PTS: 1          DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1
249. ANS:   M   PTS: 1          DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1
250. ANS:   K   PTS: 1          DIF: 1   REF: 1
     OBJ:   1   STA: S7L1

				
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posted:12/3/2011
language:English
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