Midterm Review by O0i1oX

VIEWS: 52 PAGES: 22

									                                              APES – Midterm Review Questions
____    1. Which of the following is part of the environmental wisdom worldview?
           a. Success is managing the earth's systems for ourselves.
           b. Success is managing the earth by dominating, changing, and managing the earth for everyone.
           c. Success is economic growth, development, better management, and technology.
           d. Success is learning how nature sustains itself and integrating this into our actions.
           e. Success is understanding nature to dominate, change, and manage it.
____    2. Which of the following is an example of reuse?
           a. re-melting aluminum cans
           b. making compost out of kitchen scraps
           c. using plastic butter tubs to store leftovers
           d. using waste heat to warm a room
           e. making paper goods from previously used paper
____    3. What was the major point learned in the 1991 Biosphere 2 experiment?
           a. How to recycle waste and wastewater.
           b. How to grow a rainforest in an enclosed area.
           c. CO2 recycling is really difficult.
           d. Humans cannot engineer life-supporting systems as well as nature.
           e. Extinction is inevitable.
____    4. Which of the following revolutions led to a shift from rural villages to more urban societies?
           a. Agricultural
           b. Industrial-Medical
           c. Urban-Industrial
           d. Information-Globalization
           e. Technology-Sustainability
____    5. Of the following, which is the best example of a point source of water pollution?
           a. Factory effluent
           b. Storm water
           c. Acid precipitation
           d. Agricultural runoff
           e. Residential pesticide runoff
____    6. Use of a natural resource based on sustainable yields applies to
           a. nonrenewable resources
           b. renewable resources
           c. perpetual resources
           d. amenity resources
           e. recycling
____    7. Which of the following is not normally an effect of poverty?
           a. premature death from normally nonfatal diarrhea
           b. lack of clean drinking water
           c. severe respiratory illness from openly burning wood indoors
           d. diseases from poor sanitation
           e. heart disease and diabetes from obesity
____    8. Which of the following would most likely have the greatest positive impact on the quality of the natural environment worldwide?
           a. Discovery of new reserves of fossil fuel in coastal areas
           b. Increased agricultural production on marginal desert lands
           c. Increased life expectancy in more developed nations
           d. Increased reliance on food from ocean ecosystems
           e. Stabilization or reduction of the size of the human population
____    9. All non-renewable resources can theoretically be
           a. converted to nonmetallic minerals
           b. converted to renewable ones
           c. exhausted or depleted
           d. recycled or reused
           e. alive
____   10. Many analysts suggest that environmental education is not enough, that we need something more. Which of the following are
           they suggesting we need?
           a. more technology
           b. more direct experiences with nature
           c. more capital investments
           d. more free markets
           e. more recycling
____   11. Using normally renewable resources faster than nature can renew them is called
           a. nutrient cycling
           b. nutrient deficit
           c. sustainability
           d. trade-offs
           e. degrading natural capital
____   12. An environmentally sustainable society
           a. lives off its natural income of renewable resources
           b. does not degrade its natural capital
           c. provides its population with adequate and equitable access resources
           d. does not compromise access of future generations to basic needs
           e. does all of these
____   13. The current world population is closest to which of the following?
           a. 1 million
           b. 700 million
           c. 1 billion
           d. 7 billion
           e. 27 billion
____   14. Effects of pollution might include
           a. being unable to see the top of skyscrapers because of smog
           b. destruction of a statue in a city park by acid rain
           c. spread of a disease from an open dump
           d. fish kills in lakes and streams
           e. any of these
____   15. Which of the following is not a part of the Planetary Management worldview?
           a. We are the most important and dominant species.
           b. Resources are limited and should not be wasted.
           c. The earth should be managed for our own benefit.
           d. The potential for economic growth is essentially unlimited.
           e. Success depends on managing life-support systems to our benefit.
____   16. Which of the following is one of the root causes of environmental problems?
           a. rapid population growth
           b. even distribution of wealth
           c. increasingly sustainable use of resources
           d. prices reflecting environmental costs
           e. using nonrenewable resources sensibly
____   17. The author of A Sand County Almanac was:
           a. Rachel Carson, and she encouraged the ideals of the land ethic
           b. Rachel Carson, and she encouraged the ideals that humans remain conquerors of the land
           c. Richard Nixon, and he was the founder of the contemporary environmental movement
           d. Aldo Leopold, and he encouraged the ideals of the land ethic
           e. Jimmy Carter, and he encouraged the ideals that humans remain conquerors of the land
____   18. Which of the following is synonymous with an anthropocentric worldview?
           a. self-centered
           b. life-centered
           c. human-centered
           d. ecosystem-centered
           e. earth-centered
____   19. The idea that we should be responsible, caring managers of the earth is
           a. the planetary management worldview
           b. the stewardship worldview
           c. the environmental wisdom worldview
           d. the environmental justice movement
           e. all of these
____   20. The increase in the size of Earth’s human population in the last century has been dramatic. Which of the following identifies two
           major contributors to this increase?
           a. New methods of agriculture and the identification of new food crops
           b. The Industrial Revolution and modem medicine
           c. Increased emigration/immigration and decreased warfare
           d. New methods of birth control and decreased warfare
           e. Increased education for women and the development of new pesticides
____   21. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of the tragedy of the commons?
           a. Destruction of landscape by surface mining on private land
           b. Selective harvesting of trees by a timber company in a national forest
           c. Legislation of catch limits to avoid depletion of fish stocks in a shared lake
           d. Inadvertent destruction of beneficial species while attempting to control pests
           e. Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock
____   22. Which of the following generalizations about developing countries is true?
           a. They make up about one-tenth of the world's population.
           b. They have high average per capita GNP.
           c. They include Canada, Japan, and Australia.
           d. They use about 12% of the world's resources.
           e. They are highly industrialized.
____   23. Which of the following is not a goal of environmental science?
           a. learn how nature works
           b. learn how the environment affects us
           c. learn how to deal with environmental problems
           d. learn how to live more sustainably
           e. learn how to persuade politicians to enact sustainability legislation
____   24. Which of the following worldviews would include the concept that when we use the earth's natural capital we are borrowing
           from the earth and from future generations?
           a. planetary management
           b. stewardship
           c. free-market school
           d. spaceship-earth
           e. environmental wisdom
____   25. Which of the following would be representative of an environmental wisdom worldview?
           a. Continuous rapid economic growth improves environmental conditions.
           b. Energy and materials efficiency must be continuously improved.
           c. More money should be directed to research for controlling the environment.
           d. Human beings are the most important life forms on earth.
           e. There is always more.
____   26. Which human revolution has had the least impact on their environment?
           a. Agricultural
           b. Hunter-Gatherer
           c. Industrial-Medical
           d. Information-Globalization
           e. Environmental
____   27. Mitchell Thomashow suggests there are four basic questions that lie at the heart of environmental literacy. Which of the
           following is not one of them?
           a. Where do the things I consume come from?
           b. What do I know about the place where I live?
           c. How am I connected to the earth and other living things?
           d. How can we develop a comprehensive, successful management of the world?
           e. What is my purpose and responsibility as a human being?
____   28. Which of the following is a largely untapped but powerful force for helping to bring about a sustainability revolution?
           a. technology
           b. science
           c. government
           d. non-governmental organizations
           e. religion
____   29. Which of the following is not one of the guidelines for living more sustainably?
           a. Do not degrade or deplete the earth's natural capital.
           b. Help maintain the earth's capacity for self-repair.
           c. Do not waste matter and energy resources.
           d. Avoid climate-changing activities.
           e. Encourage more technological answers to problems.
____   30. Natural capital includes all of the following except
           a. sunlight
           b. air
           c. water
           d. soil
           e. nutrients
____   31. Nonpoint sources of pollution include all of the following except
           a. wind carrying dirt and pesticides from croplands
           b. runoff from a stockyard
           c. a smokestack from a power plant
           d. fertilizer runoff from lawns
           e. runoff from cropland
____   32. The most commonly used measure of the economic growth of a country is which of the following?
           a. Gross national product
           b. Level of exports
           c. Level of imports
           d. Fertility rate
           e. Externalized costs
____   33. Scientists have identified several problems with relying primarily on pollution cleanup. Which of the following is not one of
           those problems?
           a. It is only a temporary bandage as long as the situation remains the same.
           b. Elimination of pollution at the time of production is expensive.
           c. It often simply moves the pollutant from one place to another.
           d. Once pollutants are released it is too expensive to remove them.
           e. All of these are identified problems.
____   34. Nature reveals four basic principles that could help us to transition to sustainable societies. Which of the following is not one of
           those principles?
           a. reliance on solar energy
           b. biodiversity
           c. nutrient cycling
           d. survival of the fittest
           e. population control
____   35. The real prices of goods and services do not include
           a. the cost of raw materials
           b. the cost of manufacturing
           c. the environmental costs of resource use
           d. the cost of distribution
           e. the cost of advertising
____   36. The amount of goods and services any country's average citizen could buy in the United States is called
           a. per capita GDP PPP
           b. per capita GNP
           c. per capita
           d. per capita GDP
           e. PPP
____   37. Which of the following would not be one of the components of an environmental revolution?
           a. deemphasis of population controls
           b. biodiversity protection
           c. energy transformation
           d. emphasis on sufficiency
           e. commitment to eco-efficiency
___    38. Which of the following sources of iron would be of the highest quality?
           a. iron deposits on the ocean floor
           b. a field of spinach
           c. a large, scrap metal junkyard
           d. a one-half mile deep deposit of iron ore
           e. iron in water
____   39. Which of the following statements is false?
           a. Energy can be converted from one form to another.
           b. Energy and matter can generally be converted into each other.
           c. Energy input always equals energy output.
           d. The laws of thermodynamics can be applied to living systems.
           e. Energy conversion results in higher quality energy.
____   40. Ozone in the stratosphere is important to organisms at Earth’s surface because ozone molecules are very strong absorbers of
           a. microwaves
           b. visible light rays
           c. ultraviolet rays
           d. x-rays
           e. infrared rays
____   41. Which of the following statements does not describe the scientific enterprise?
           a. Science is the acceptance of what works and the rejection of what does not.
           b. Established scientific theories are not challenged and continue to hold true.
           c. Advances in science are often based on disagreement, speculation, and controversy.
           d. Scientific laws and theories are based on statistical probabilities, not certainties.
           e. Science attempts to reduce the degree of uncertainty and lack of objectivity.
____   42. The two most important factors determining the climate of an area are
           a. temperature and wind
           b. temperature and precipitation
           c. precipitation and light
           d. light and temperature
           e. wind and light
____   43. The measurement of the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution is called
           a. ionization
           b. pH
           c. alkalinity
           d. covalent bonding
           e. synergism
____   44. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
           a. carbon monoxide
           b. water vapor
           c. carbon dioxide
           d. methane
           e. nitrous oxide
____   45. The community knew the effects of chemical X when it was used alone. They knew the same for chemical Z, so they set safe
           limits for use for both chemicals. When the chemicals were released at safe levels on the same day there was a massive fish kill.
           The most likely explanation is
           a. homeostasis
           b. a synergistic interaction
           c. negative feedback
           d. positive feedback
           e. entropy
____   46. The Law of Conservation of Energy is also known as the
           a. First Law of Thermodynamics
           b. Second Law of Thermodynamics
           c. Third Law of Thermodynamics
           d. Law of Entropy
           e. None of the above
____   47. Prevailing winds are the result of what?
           a. temperature
           b. direction the sun strikes the earth
           c. rotation of the earth on its axis
           d. ocean currents
           e. sun storms
____   48. The term greenhouse effect describes
           a. occupational diseases of florists
           b. the trapping of heat energy by molecules in the atmosphere
           c. the effect climate change has on the economy
           d. the efforts of the White House to support environmental legislation
           e. mutations in DNA from UV radiation
____   49. Which of the following is an example of low-quality energy?
           a. electricity
           b. heat in the ocean
           c. nuclear fission
           d. gasoline
           e. food
____   50. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the greenhouse effect in Earth’s atmosphere?
           a. Ultraviolet radiation from the Sun is absorbed by ozone gas in the stratosphere.
           b. Gamma radiation from the Sun is absorbed at ground level by dust particles in the atmosphere.
           c. Infrared radiation from Earth’s surface is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
           d. Cosmic radiation from deep space is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
           e. Alpha radiation from the Sun is absorbed by water vapor in the atmosphere.
____   51. Which of the following statements is not an example of a physical change?
           a. Confetti is cut from pieces of paper.
           b. Water evaporates from a lake.
           c. Ice cubes are formed in the freezer.
           d. A plant converts carbon dioxide into carbohydrate.
           e. A tree is cut down in the forest.
____   52. Life on earth depends on interaction of gravity, the cycling of matter, and
           a. cycling of energy
           b. one-way flow of energy
           c. one-way flow of matter
           d. the destruction of energy
           e. the consumption of matter
____   53. Which of the following is not one of the nuclear changes matter can undergo?
           a. fission
           b. evaporation
           c. decay
           d. fusion
           e. All of these are nuclear changes.
____   54. Which of the following statements does not apply to the second law of energy?
           a. Energy goes from useful to less useful forms.
           b. Energy is neither created nor destroyed.
           c. Energy conversions results in more-dispersed energy.
           d. Heat is given off from energy conversions.
           e. We can not recycle or reuse high-quality energy.
____   55. The worst volcanic disaster in U.S. history occurred when which mountain erupted?
           a. Mt. Pinatubo
           b. Mt. McKinley
           c. Mt. St. Helens
           d. Mt. Everest
           e. Humphrey's Peak
____   56. The change of rocks from one type to another type is known as
           a. metamorphism
           b. the rock cycle
           c. petrography
           d. consolidation
           e. hydrogeology
____   57. Where does the largest input of solar energy occur?
           a. North pole
           b. South pole
           c. 30 N
           d. 30 S
           e. equator
____   58. An atom or group of atoms with one or more net positive or negative charges is a(n)
           a. base
           b. isotope
           c. ion
           d. acid
           e. none of these
____   59. When an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate the continental plate usually slides up and over the denser oceanic plate,
           pushing it down into the mantle, a process called
           a. production
           b. subduction
           c. induction
           d. convection
           e. trenching
____   60. Tectonic plates move in opposite but parallel directions along a fault at a
           a. divergent plate boundary
           b. convergent plate boundary
           c. subduction zone
           d. mantle fault
           e. transform fault
____   61. When new information or ideas can disprove or overthrow a well-accepted scientific theory, it is called
             a. a paradigm shift
             b. consensus science
             c. frontier science
             d. a scientific law
             e. a deductive conclusion
____   62.   Fossil fuels and minerals are found in the
             a. unisphere
             b. atmosphere
             c. hydrosphere
             d. geosphere
             e. biosphere
____   63.   The polar regions radiate away more heat energy than they receive from the Sun in the course of a year. However, they are
             prevented from becoming progressively colder each year primarily by the
             a. absorption of ultraviolet radiation by snow
             b. transport of heat through the atmosphere and oceans
             c. concentration of Earth’s magnetic field lines at the poles
             d. release of latent heat to the atmosphere when the polar ice caps melt
             e. generation of heat by glacial movement
____   64.   El Niño, a periodic warming of ocean surface waters, occurs in which of the following regions?
             a. Tropical East Pacific
             b. Gulf of Mexico
             c. Arctic North Pacific
             d. Temperate West Atlantic
             e. Tropical Indian Ocean
____   65.   Liquid, solid, and gas are
             a. physical forms of matter
             b. chemical forms of matter
             c. mixtures
             d. compounds
             e. molecules
____   66.   Which part of the earth's crust makes up 71% of the crust?
             a. oceanic crust
             b. asthenosphere
             c. lithosphere
             d. continental crust
             e. geosphere
____   67.   The matter and energy laws tell us that we can recycle
             a. both matter and energy
             b. neither matter nor energy
             c. matter but not energy
             d. energy but not matter
             e. none of these
____   68.   An example of an organic compound would be
             a. H2O
             b. NaCl
             c. H2SO4
             d. N2O
             e. CH4
____   69.   A positive feedback loop is illustrated by all of the following except
             a. compound interest in a savings account
             b. exponential population growth
             c. a thermostat maintaining a certain temperature in your house
             d. the greenhouse effect
             e. none of these
____   70.   The atomic number is the number of
             a. atoms in a molecule
             b. protons in an atom
             c. neutrons in a molecule
             d. electrons in an atom
             e. protons, electrons, and neutrons
____   71.   Warm air masses
             a. are less dense than cold air masses
             b. are more dense than cold air masses
             c. have the same density as cold air masses
             d. condense as precipitation
             e. both A and D
____   72.   Which of the following does not represent kinetic energy?
             a. the wind blowing
             b. water in a stream
             c. a steam
             d. a car at the top of a hill
             e. electricity
____   73.   The place where an earthquake begins is called its
             a. start
             b. focus
             c. magnitude
             d. epicenter
             e. fault
____   74.   Which layer of the atmosphere does most weather occur in?
             a. Exosphere
             b. Ionosphere
             c. Mesosphere
             d. Stratosphere
             e. Troposphere
____   75.   Of the following choices, the smallest sized particles are
             a. clay
             b. loam
             c. sand
             d. silt
             e. gravel
____   76.   Which of the following statements about the earth's winds is not true?
             a. Wind circulates moisture.
             b. Wind circulates plant nutrients.
             c. Wind increases global warming gases.
             d. Wind stimulates algal blooms in the Pacific.
             e. Wind carries banned pesticides into the U.S.
____   77.   Which of the following natural events would be most likely to contribute to the cooling of Earth’s atmosphere?
             a. Earthquake
             b. Volcanism
             c. Hurricane
             d. Tsunami
             e. Monsoon
____   78.   Isotopes are forms of an element that differ from one another by having different
             a. atomic numbers
             b. numbers of electrons
             c. numbers of protons
             d. mass numbers
             e. electrical charges
____   79.   Matter is anything that
             a. has mass and occupies space
             b. has the capacity to do work
             c. can be changed in form
             d. can produce change
             e. moves mass
____   80.   Scientists classify energy as either
             a. chemical or physical
             b. kinetic or mechanical
             c. potential or mechanical
             d. potential or kinetic
             e. chemical or kinetic
____   81.   The severity of an earthquake is a measure of its seismic waves, and is called
             a. epicenter
             b. focus
             c. magnitude
             d. ridges
             e. valleys
____   82.   The gradual breakdown of rock into soil particles by physical and chemical processes is called
             a. Leaching
             b. Abrading
             c. Weathering
             d. Degrading
             e. Erosion
____   83.   The rain shadow effect refers to
             a. more light on the windward side of mountain ranges
             b. more moisture on the leeward side of mountain ranges
             c. moister conditions on the windward side of mountain ranges
             d. drier conditions on the windward side of mountain ranges
             e. less light available on the leeward side of mountain ranges
____   84.   Which of the following is the usual order of applying the scientific process to a problem?
             a. hypothesisquestionobservationexperimentationconclusionanalysis
             b. hypothesisconclusionquestionobservationexperimentationanalysis
             c. observationhypothesisconclusionexperimentationanalysisquestion
             d. observationquestionhypothesisexperimentationanalysisconclusion
             e. hypothesisexperimentationobservationanalysisquestionconclusion
____   85.   All of the following statements can be concluded from the law of conservation of matter except
             a. We can't throw anything away because there is "no away."
             b. Eventually we will run out of matter if we keep consuming it.
             c. There will always be pollution of some sort.
             d. Everything must go somewhere.
             e. We do not consume matter.
____   86.   Most volcanism in the world is associated with
             a. midcontinental hot spots
             b. faulting
             c. aquifer depletion
             d. desertification
             e. plate boundaries
____   87.   Which layer in a soil profile consists of a mixture of humus and inorganic, leaching resistant minerals
             a. the O horizon
             b. the A horizon
             c. the B horizon
             d. the C horizon
             e. the P horizon
Matching
             a.   Oxygen
             b.   Aluminum
             c.   Iron
             d.   Nitrogen
             e.   Argon

____   88.   The most abundant element in Earth’s core
____   89.   The most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere
____   90.   The most abundant element in Earth’s crust
____   91.   The element mined as an ore

             a.   Heat flow
             b.   Kinetic energy
             c.   Potential energy
             d.   First law of thermodynamics
             e.   Second law of thermodynamics

____   92.   An energy transformation occurs and results in increased disorder.
____   93.   Matter in motion has energy.
____   94.   Energy is transferred from one object to another as the result of a temperature difference.
____   95.   The amount of energy in an isolated system stays constant.

             a.   Rachel Carson
             b.   Richard Nixon
             c.   Jimmy Carter
             d.   Ronald Reagan
             e.   George Bush

____ 96.     ESA
____ 97.     Superfund Act
____ 98.     80’s “backlash”
____ 99.     EPA
____ 100.    Silent Spring

____ 101. The ocean zone that makes up less than 10% of the world's ocean area, yet contains 90% of all the marine species, is the
          a. abyssal zone
          b. bathyal zone
          c. benthic zone
          d. coastal zone
          e. littoral zone
____ 102. Which of the following is not an adaptation of desert plants for their environment?
          a. toxins in their stems to discourage being eaten
          b. spines to discourage animals from taking their water
          c. opening their pores only at night to prevent evaporation
          d. store water in expandable tissues
          e. reduced or no leaves
____ 103. Elements that cycle in the environment and that also have a gaseous phase at some point in their cycle include which of the
          following?
                             I. Carbon
                            II. Phosphorus
                          III. Sulfur
          a. I only
          b. III only
          c. I and II only
          d. I and III only
          e. I, II, and III
____ 104. The major reservoirs of nitrogen and sulfur in the biosphere are correctly identified by which of the following?
                 Nitrogen             Sulfur
          a. Rocks                    Rocks
          b. Rocks                    Vegetation
          c. Rocks                    Atmosphere
          d. Atmosphere               Rocks
          e. Atmosphere               Atmosphere

____ 105. If you are walking through a forest dense with oak and hickory trees and thick with leaf litter underfoot, you would assume you
          are in a
          a. tropical savanna
          b. temperate deciduous forest
          c. tropical rain forest
          d. temperate rain forest
          e. coniferous forest
____ 106. Approximately what percentage of the water on Earth is freshwater (liquid and solid)?
          a. 75%
          b. 25 %
          c. 2.5%
          d. 0.25%
          e. 0.025%
____ 107. In certain open sea areas winds, ocean currents, and other factors cause water to come up from the depths to the surface bringing
          nutrient from the ocean bottom. This process is called a(n)
          a. Downdraft
          b. Updraft
          c. El Niño
          d. La Niña
          e. Upwelling
____ 108. Desert soils take hundreds of years to recover from disturbances because of all of the following except
            a. slow plant growth
            b. low species diversity
            c. high soil bacteria activity
            d. slow nutrient cycling
            e. lack of water
____ 109.   Which of the following about temperate deciduous forests is false?
            a. Average temperatures change significantly with the seasons.
            b. They are predominantly a few broadleaf deciduous tree species.
            c. They have been disturbed by humans more than any other land biome.
            d. They have nutrient-poor soil.
            e. Precipitation often spreads relatively evenly throughout the year.
____ 110.   Aerobic respiration requires
            a. glucose and carbon dioxide
            b. glucose and oxygen
            c. oxygen and water
            d. carbon dioxide and water
            e. carbon dioxide and oxygen
____ 111.   Which of the following is the usual cause of cultural eutrophication in surface waters of both developed and developing
            countries?
            a. Lack of proper filtration devices for power plant effluents
            b. Introduction of cyanobacteria to .streams and rivers
            c. Runoff of metal ions in bodies of water
            d. Runoff of nitrate compounds into bodies of water
            e. Runoff of herbicides into bodies of water
____ 112.   The major biological source of dissolved oxygen in the ocean comes from
            a. decomposition of organic sediments on the ocean floor
            b. metabolic processes of coral in reefs
            c. oxidation of sulfur by bacteria in ocean vent communities
            d. photosynthesis by phytoplankton
            e. respiration by zooplankton
____ 113.   In lakes, the nutrient-rich water near the shore is part of the
            a. limnetic zone
            b. benthic zone
            c. littoral zone
            d. profundal zone
            e. abyssal zone
____ 114.   The two major processes involved in the carbon cycle are
            a. weathering and erosion
            b. photosynthesis and respiration
            c. evaporation and transpiration
            d. erosion and deposition
            e. fixation and denitrification
____ 115.   Which of the following best describes soils in many tropical rain forests?
            a. They lack soil horizons.
            b. They are quickly depleted of nutrients when the forest is removed.
            c. They are similar to soils in grasslands.
            d. They are well suited for growing a wide variety of crops.
            e. They are deep and well drained.
____ 116.   All of the following are part of the freshwater aquatic life zones, except
            a. Lakes
            b. mangrove forests
            c. inland wetlands
            d. Streams
            e. Rivers
____ 117.   The form of nitrogen most usable to plants is
            a. Ammonia
            b. nitrogen gas
            c. Proteins
            d. Nitrites
            e. Nitrates
____ 118.   Which of the following does alpine tundra receive in larger amounts than Arctic tundra?
            a. Rain
            b. Snow
            c. Sunlight
            d. Wind
            e. Ice
____ 119.   Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that is also a by-product of anaerobic respiration?
            a. Methane, CH4
            b. Nitrogen, N2
            c. Oxygen, O2
            d. Nitrogen dioxide, NO2
            e. Hydrogen sulfide, H2S
____ 120.   Which of the following would not be true of a tropical rain forest?
            a. low net primary productivity
            b. little ground level vegetation
            c. low levels of ground level sunlight
            d. high biodiversity
            e. high humidity
____ 121.   Nitrogen is a major component of all of the following except
            a. Proteins
            b. nucleic acids
            c. Groundwater
            d. Ammonia
            e. DNA
____ 122.   "Treeless, bitterly cold most of the year, winters are long and dark, low-growing plants, permafrost" are the characteristics of
            which of the following?
            a. tall-grass prairie
            b. Tundra
            c. short-grass prairie
            d. temperate grassland
            e. Savanna
____ 123.   Coral reefs are being damaged or destroyed by all of the following except
            a. Pollution
            b. warmer ocean temperatures
            c. increasing ocean acidity
            d. coastal development
            e. lack of fishing
____ 124.   Four of the following are major threats to marine systems; one is not. Choose the one that is not.
            a. Overfishing
            b. sinking of ships to create artificial reefs
            c. runoff of nonpoint source pollution
            d. invasive species introduced by humans
            e. habitat destruction from coastal development
____ 125.   Which of the following is a way that humans alter the water cycle?
            a. withdraw large quantities from streams, lakes, and aquifers
            b. increase runoff by clearing vegetation from the land
            c. alter weather patterns by clearing vegetation
            d. increase flooding by disturbing natural flood controls
            e. all of these
____ 126.   Which of the following would be characteristic of a eutrophic lake?
            a. nutrient overload from human activities
            b. nutrient levels between the extremes of too much and too little
            c. small supply of plant nutrients
            d. well-supplied with nutrients for producers
            e. excessive nutrients
____ 127.   Which of the following has the least net primary productivity (NPP)?
            a. swamps and marshes
            b. tropical rain forest
            c. temperate forests
            d. Tundra
            e. Estuaries
____ 128.   The number of species already identified by biologists is approximately
            a. 45,000
            b. 165,000
            c. 1.75 million
            d. 4 million
            e. 100 million
____ 129.   Most photosynthesis in the open ocean occurs in the
            a. abyssal zone
            b. euphotic zone
            c. estuary zone
            d. bathyal zone
            e. benthic zone
____ 130.   If grass stores 1,000 energy units received from the sun, the ecological efficiency of the ecosystem is 10%, and the trophic levels
            are grass  cow  human, how many units of energy does the human receive of the original 1,000 units?
            a. 900
            b. 200
            c. 100
            d. 10
            e. 1
____ 131.   Which of the following best helps to explain why phosphorus is often a limiting factor in many ecosystems?
            a. There is usually a gaseous phase in the phosphorus cycle.
            b. Phosphorus cycles very quickly through environments.
            c. Under many conditions, phosphorus forms stable insoluble compounds.
            d. Phosphate is not readily taken up by plants.
            e. There are no anthropogenic sources of phosphorus.
____ 132.   "Widely scattered clumps of trees, warm temperatures year-round, alternating dry and wet seasons, with herds of herbivores" are
            the characteristics of which of the following?
            a. tall-grass prairie
            b. Tundra
            c. short-grass prairie
            d. temperate grassland
            e. Savanna
____ 133.   All of the following are part of the saltwater or marine aquatic life zones, except
            a. Oceans
            b. Estuaries
            c. inland wetlands
            d. coastal wetlands
            e. Shorelines
____ 134.   The key factors determining the types and numbers of organisms found in the various layers of both freshwater and marine
            systems include all of the following, except
            a. Parasitism
            b. availability of nutrients
            c. Temperature
            d. dissolved oxygen levels
            e. availability of food
____ 135.   The very necessary process of breaking down the dead bodies or wastes from organisms is a function of
            a. Detritivores
            b. Omnivores
            c. Carnivores
            d. Herbivores
            e. Decomposers
____ 136.   This is the total of all the different species that live in a certain area.
            a. Organism
            b. Population
            c. Community
            d. Ecosystem
            e. Biosphere
____ 137.   The hydrologic cycle is driven primarily by
            a. solar energy
            b. lunar tides
            c. solar tides
            d. mechanical energy
            e. chemical energy
____ 138.   Which of the following is the big disadvantage of living in a chaparral region?
            a. too much rain
            b. fire hazard
            c. too little rain
            d. too many venomous snakes
            e. bothersome rodent populations
____ 139.   Which of the following is not a part of the degradation of forests by human activities?
            a. clearing for agriculture
            b. overgrazing by livestock
            c. damage from off-road vehicles
            d. pollution of forest streams
            e. conversion of diverse forests to tree plantations
____ 140.   Which of the following about microorganisms is false?
            a. Bacteria and other microbes help purify the water we drink.
            b. Bacteria help produce the foods we eat.
            c. Bacteria help break down food in our intestines.
            d. Bacteria help speed up global warming.
            e. Microbes help control diseases of plants.
____ 141.   In a range of tolerance, each population has a point beyond which no member of the population can live. This area beyond the
            ability to tolerate the conditions is called the
            a. zone of physiological stress
            b. aquatic zone
            c. zone of intolerance
            d. zone of tolerance
            e. optimum range
____ 142.   Which of the following is most likely to result from destruction of wetlands surrounding a river?
            a. A decreased sediment load in the river
            b. A decreased level of pollutants such as nitrates in the river
            c. An increased diversity of aquatic species in the river
            d. An increased level of oxygen in the river
            e. An increased frequency of flooding of the river valley
____ 143.   Of the following organisms, which occupies the lowest trophic level?
            a. Spider
            b. Deer
            c. Lion
            d. Hawk
            e. Snake
____ 144.   Which of the following is not true about mountains?
            a. They serve as major storehouses for water.
            b. They contain habitats for many endemic species.
            c. They serve as sanctuaries for species driven from lowland areas.
            d. They help regulate the earth's climate.
            e. They contain a minority of the world's forests.
____ 145.   A type of inland wetland that is dominated by grasses and reeds, with few trees, is
            a. Floodplains
            b. Swamps
            c. Marshes
            d. prairie potholes
            e. Arctic tundra
____ 146.   Organisms in this area must be able to avoid being swept away, crushed by waves, or being left high and dry at low tides, and
            must survive daily or seasonal salinity and temperature changes.
            a. Estuaries
            b. coastal wetlands
            c. bathyal zone
            d. intertidal zone
            e. coral reefs
____ 147.   Traveling southward from the Arctic regions of Canada to the tropics of Panama, one passes through several biomes—tundra,
            coniferous forest, temperate deciduous forest, and tropical rain forest. This pattern of change in vegetation is primarily the result
            of
            a. primary and secondary succession
            b. the invasion of exotic species
            c. an increase in mean annual temperature and a decrease in mean annual precipitation
            d. an increase in both mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation
            e. an increase in the total annual hours of sunlight
____ 148. Which of the following would be characteristic of the profundal zone?
          a. rooted plants
          b. low oxygen levels
          c. nourished by dead matter
          d. main photosynthetic layer
          e. turtles, frogs, crayfish, perch
____ 149. Small, isolated populations are vulnerable to loss of genetic diversity because of four of the following genetic factors. Choose the
          answer that is not one of these factors.
          a. inbreeding
          b. demographic bottleneck
          c. gene flow
          d. founder effect
          e. genetic drift
____ 150. The intrinsic rate of increase (r) is
          a. the rate at which a population will reach its carrying capacity
          b. the rate at which a population would grow with unlimited resources
          c. determined by subtracting deaths from births and emigration from immigration
          d. not influenced by environmental resistance
          e. highest in large animals such as elephants and humans
____ 151. K-strategists
          a. have high genetic diversity
          b. are more response to environmental changes than r-strategists
          c. exhibit fast rates of evolution
          d. are generally less adaptable to change than r-strategists
          e. reach reproductive age rapidly
____ 152. China's population policy has included all of the following except
          a. encouraging later marriages
          b. health, pension, and employment benefits for one-child families
          c. urging families to have no more than one child
          d. encouraging contraception but discouraging abortions
          e. providing free access to birth control
____ 153. Some species experience an explosion of population growth to a high peak followed by a crash to a more stable lower level. This
          is called which of the following?
          a. stable
          b. irruptive
          c. cyclic
          d. irregular
          e. regular
____ 154. Which of the following is a true statement about replacement-level fertility?
          a. It equals the average number of children a woman will give birth to during her child-bearing years.
          b. It equals the annual number of live births per 1,000 people in a population.
          c. It equals the natural increase of a population in one year.
          d. It is found by subtracting the number of emigrants from the number of immigrants in one year.
          e. It is greater in countries with high infant mortality rates than in countries with low infant-mortality
               rates.
____ 155. Currently, legal and illegal immigration account for approximately how much of the U.S. annual population growth?
          a. 100%
          b. 40%
          c. 60%
          d. 20%
          e. 15%
____ 156. Countries that have reached zero population growth have an age structure diagram that
          a. forms an inverted pyramid
          b. forms a broad-based pyramid
          c. shows little variation in population by age
          d. has a large pre-reproductive population
          e. has a large reproductive population
____ 157. Which of the following would cause a population to overshoot its carrying capacity?
          a. an increase in predators
          b. a decrease in birth rates
          c. an increase in emigration
          d. a decrease in environmental pressures
          e. a reproductive time lag between birth and death rates
____ 158. Which of the following is an example of a density-independent population control?
          a. infectious disease
          b. habitat destruction
          c. parasitism
          d. predation
          e. competition for resources
____ 159. Population change is calculated using which of the following formulas?
          a. (deaths + emigration)  (births + immigration)
          b. (births + immigration)  (deaths + emigration)
          c. (deaths + immigration)  (births + emigration)
          d. (births + emigration)  (deaths + immigration)
          e. (births + deaths)  (immigration + emigration)
____ 160. Population dynamics is the study of the way populations differ from one another in certain characteristics. Which of the
          following is not one of those characteristics?
          a. density
          b. age structure
          c. numbers
          d. distribution
          e. viability
____ 161. The exponential rate of growth of the total human population over the past 100 years resulted from
          a. large birth rate increases
          b. sharp drop in death rates
          c. significant immigration
          d. leveling off of death rates
          e. fewer epidemics
____ 162. Since 1955 the global life expectancy has risen to
          a. 47 years
          b. 52 years
          c. 67 years
          d. 72 years
          e. 77 years
____ 163. The crude birth rate is the number of live births per ____ persons in a given year.
          a. 50
          b. 100
          c. 500
          d. 1,000
          e. 100,000
____ 164. Women tend to have fewer and healthier children for all the following reasons, except
          a. when their individual rights are protected
          b. when they have access to employment outside the home
          c. when they have access to education
          d. when they have access to family planning
          e. when they have access to the internet

             For the next 3 questions, refer to the graph below, which shows different phases related to the birth and death rates for a typical
             human population over time.




____ 165. Which of the following is most likely the primary cause of high death rates in phase I?
            a. Loss of breeding-age males due to warfare
            b. Loss of breeding-age females due to disease
            c. Large percentage of elderly individuals in the population
            d. Large percentage of elderly individuals in the population
            e. General starvation due to famine
____ 166.   Zero population growth is associated with
            a. phase I only
            b. phase II only
            c. phase III only
            d. phase IV only
            e. phase I and IV
____ 167.   The rate of population growth starts to slow down at which point?
            a. The end of phase I
            b. The middle of phase II
            c. The beginning of phase III
            d. The end of phase III
            e. The middle of phase IV
____ 168.   In a human population undergoing the demographic transition, which of the following generally decreases first?
            a. Birth rate
            b. Death rate
            c. Average family size
            d. Life expectancy
            e. Level of education
____ 169.   A country with a TFR that falls below 1.5 children per couple for a prolonged period will experience all of the following except
            a. sharp rise in proportion of older people
            b. increasing demand on medical care
            c. increasing demand on social security funds or its equivalent
            d. labor shortages
            e. increasing number of working taxpayers.
____ 170.   If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the
            population to double is closest to
            a. 5 years
            b. 10 years
            c. 15 years
            d. 25 years
            e. 35 years
____ 171.   Exponential growth followed by a steady decrease in population growth until the population size levels off is typical of
            a. logistic growth
            b. environmental resistance
            c. exponential growth
            d. carrying capacity
            e. biotic potential
____ 172.   The increase in the size of Earth’s human population in the last century has been dramatic. Which of the following identifies two
            major contributors to this increase?
            a. New methods of agriculture and the identification of new food crops
            b. The Industrial Revolution and modem medicine
            c. Increased emigration/immigration and decreased warfare
            d. New methods of birth control and decreased warfare
            e. Increased education for women and the development of new pesticides
____ 173.   In the demographic transition model, death rates fall while birth rates remain high during
            a. the preindustrial stage
            b. the industrial stage
            c. the postindustrial stage
            d. the transitional stage
            e. following the postindustrial stage
____ 174.   The current global human population is about 6.8 billion and is growing at an annual rate of 1.22 percent. If world population
            were to grow at this rate for the next year, approximately how many people would be added?
            a. 8 x 105
            b. 8 x 106
            c. 8 x 107
            d. 8 x 108
            e. 8 x 109
____ 175. The concept of an optimal human population level, which allows most people to live in reasonable comfort and freedom without
          impairing the future sustainability, is called
          a. optimization strategy
          b. genetic optimization
          c. stabilization theorem
          d. nil hypothesis
          e. cultural carrying capacity
____ 176. "The maximum population of a given species that a particular habitat can sustain indefinitely without being degraded" is the
          definition of
          a. logistic growth
          b. environmental resistance
          c. exponential growth
          d. carrying capacity
          e. biotic potential
____ 177. If a city of population 10,000 experiences 100 births, 40 deaths, 10 immigrants, and 30 emigrants in the course of a year, what is
          its net annual percentage growth rate?
          a. 0.4%
          b. 0.8%
          c. 1.0%
          d. 4.0%
          e. 8.0%
____ 178. All of the following reasons help explain why the United States has one of the highest infant mortality rates of developed
          countries, except
          a. inadequate health care for pregnant poor women
          b. women delaying getting pregnant until later in life
          c. drug addiction among women
          d. high birth rate among teenagers
          e. inadequate health care for babies after birth
____ 179. Which of the following is true of demographic transition as countries become industrialized?
          a. Death rates drop, followed by birth rates.
          b. Birth rates drop, followed by death rates.
          c. Birth and death rates rise at the same time.
          d. Birth and death rates fall at the same time.
          e. Neither birth nor death rates fall.
____ 180. The total fertility rate is
          a. the number of children born to a woman during her lifetime
          b. the number of children a couple must bear to replace themselves
          c. the average number of children born to women in their reproductive years
          d. the number of live births per 1000 people
          e. the births and immigrations into a population
____ 181. The biotic potential of a population is
          a. the maximum reproductive rate of a population
          b. the current rate of growth of a population
          c. an expression of how many offspring survive to reproduce
          d. determined by subtracting immigration minus emigration
          e. the future growth rate of a population
____ 182. Which of the following is not one of the factors currently affecting birth and fertility rates?
          a. number of people 60 or older
          b. cost of raising and educating children
          c. urbanization
          d. educational and employment opportunities for women
          e. average age at marriage
____ 183. How much of the world's total population growth is expected to occur in developing countries?
          a. 97%
          b. 52%
          c. 18%
          d. 82%
          e. 44%
____ 184. The replacement-level fertility rate is ____ for developed countries and ____ for developing countries.
          a. 1.6; 1.9
          b. 2.5; 2.0
          c. 2.0; 2.5
            d. 2.1; 2.5
            e. 1.8; 2.1
____ 185.   Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent population control?
            a. habitat destruction
            b. fire
            c. pollution
            d. floods
            e. competition for resources
____ 186.   Which of the following statements about India is true?
            a. There is a strong preference for female children.
            b. There are many cultural norms that favor large families.
            c. Indian women still have an average of 2.1 children.
            d. Government pensions have discouraged the need for large families.
            e. Women do not have access to modern birth control.
____ 187.   Population dynamics examine changes to a population as a result of changing environmental conditions. Those conditions
            include all of the following except
            a. increasing commensalism
            b. temperature
            c. presence of disease organisms
            d. arrival or disappearance of competing species
            e. resource availability
____ 188.   Two useful indicators of overall health in a country or region are
            a. birth rate and death rate
            b. replacement-level fertility rate and total fertility rate
            c. life expectancy and death rate
            d. life expectancy and infant mortality rate
____ 189.   The concept that two or more species cannot share the exact same ecological niche for an extended period is called
            a. law of conservation of mass
            b. principle of sustainability
            c. interspecific competition
            d. competitive exclusion principle
            e. commensalism
____ 190.   When populations of two different species interact over long periods of time, changes in the gene pool of one species can lead to
            changes in the gene pool of the other. This is called
            a. competition
            b. coevolution
            c. coincidence
            d. commensalism
            e. predation
____ 191.   The relationship between clownfish and sea anemone is
            a. interspecific competition
            b. predation
            c. parasitism
            d. mutualism
            e. commensalism
____ 192.   All of the following are forms of nondestructive behavior between species except
            a. reducing competition by foraging at different times
            b. reducing competition by foraging in different places
            c. orchids attached to branches of forest trees
            d. using the energy or body of another organisms as a food source
            e. bacteria breaking down food for a host and having a sheltered habitat
____ 193.   Kelp forests are a very important ecosystem in marine waters by supporting important biodiversity. These kelp forests are
            threatened by all of the following except
            a. water pollution containing herbicides
            b. sea urchins
            c. southern sea otters
            d. humans
            e. water pollution containing fertilizers
____ 194.   The diversity that enables life on earth to adapt and survive environmental changes is called
            a. functional diversity
            b. genetic diversity
            c. intellectual diversity
            d. ecosystem diversity
            e. species diversity
____ 195.   A change in the genetic characteristics of a population from one generation to another is called
            a. emigration
            b. mutation
            c. natural selection
            d. evolution
            e. genetic drift
____ 196.   Some individuals in a population have genetic traits that enhance their ability to survive and produce offspring, a process called
            a. natural selection
            b. adaptability
            c. genetic drift
            d. mutation
            e. scientific theory
____ 197.   Mutations are
            a. always helpful
            b. always found in patterns
            c. very common events
            d. a source of new genetic material
            e. always harmful
____ 198.   Biological evolution by natural selection is when genes ____, individuals ____, and populations ____.
            a. evolve; mutate; are selected
            b. are selected; mutate; evolve
            c. mutate; evolve; are selected
            d. evolve; are selected; mutate
            e. mutate; are selected; evolve
____ 199.   Which of the following is not an adaptation that has made humans so successful?
            a. strong opposable thumbs
            b. physical strength
            c. upright walking
            d. complex brain
            e. All of these have made us successful.
____ 200.   From a scientific point of view, which of the following is true?
            a. Evolution leads to survival of the strongest.
            b. Evolution leads to survival of the most valuable.
            c. Organisms develop traits because they need them.
            d. Fitness is a matter of reproductive success.
            e. Evolution follows a plan of nature.
____ 201.   Geographic isolation may result from which of the following?
            a. volcanic eruption
            b. earthquake
            c. mountain range
            d. road
            e. all of these
____ 202.   Which of the following is true?
            a. The higher the species richness, the lower productivity.
            b. The high the species richness, the lower the sustainability.
            c. The lower the species richness, the more the productivity.
            d. The lower the species richness, the more the sustainability.
            e. The higher the species richness, the more the sustainability.
____ 203.   A species' way of life in a community is its
            a. role
            b. habitat
            c. ecological niche
            d. geographical location
            e. ecological job
____ 204.   Which of the following is true of species richness on islands?
            a. Larger islands closer to a mainland have the lowest number of species.
            b. Smaller islands closer to a mainland have the highest number of species.
            c. Smaller islands farthest from a mainland have the highest number of species.
            d. Larger islands farthest from a mainland have the highest number of species.
            e. Larger islands closer to a mainland have the highest number of species.
____ 205. A species with a broad niche is considered a(n)
          a. endemic species
          b. endangered species
          c. specialist species
          d. native species
          e. generalist species
____ 206. Which of the following is not an example of an indicator species?
          a. trout in water with a specific temperature requirement
          b. birds that need a large forested area
          c. butterflies that use a specific plant as food
          d. frogs that take in water and air through their skin
          e. All are examples of indicator species.
____ 207. Which of the following is not an example of a cause for the decline of amphibians?
          a. habitat loss
          b. prolonged rainy periods
          c. pollution
          d. increases in UV radiation
          e. parasites
____ 208. A species in an ecosystem that plays a central role in the health of that ecosystem, and whose removal may cause the collapse of
          the ecosystem, is called a(n)
          a. foundation species
          b. indicator species
          c. native species
          d. keystone species
          e. specialist species
____ 209. The non-poisonous ____ butterfly gains protection by looking like the bad-tasting ____ butterfly, which is a protective device
          known as ____.
          a. monarch; viceroy; camouflage
          b. monarch; zebra swallowtail; camouflage
          c. viceroy; zebra swallowtail; mimicry
          d. viceroy; monarch; mimicry
          e. viceroy; monarch; camouflage
____ 210. Which of the following would exhibit primary succession?
          a. a rock exposed by a retreating glacier
          b. an abandoned farm
          c. a clear-cut forest
          d. newly flooded land
          e. a recently burned forest
____ 211. On a field trip for a university class you observe an area filled with herbs, grasses, and low shrubs. These are examples of which
          of the following?
          a. pioneer species
          b. early successional plant species
          c. midsuccessional plant species
          d. late successional plant species
          e. climax plant species
____ 212. Which of the following refers to the ability of a living system to be restored after a period of moderate disturbance?
          a. stability
          b. inertia
          c. constancy
          d. tipping point
          e. resilience
____ 213. Ecosystems and global systems have limits to the stresses they can take. The level beyond which any additional stress will cause
          an abrupt and unpredictable change is called
          a. stability
          b. inertia
          c. constancy
          d. tipping point
          e. resilience
____ 214. Which of the following identifies the two factors thought to be the most harmful to biodiversity?
          a. Acid deposition and increased use of fertilizers for agriculture
          b. Depletion of the ozone layer and oil drilling
          c. Destruction of habitat and invasion by nonnative species
            d. Changes in climate and proliferation of endemic species
            e. Global warming and decline in fisheries
____ 215.   Why do introduced species often become pests?
            a. They displace native species
            b. They increase biodiversity
            c. They do not adapt well to local habitats
            d. They contribute to habitat fragmentation
            e. They have low biotic potential
____ 216.   Living organism must acquire energy from their environment. Examples of adaptations that help organisms acquire energy
            include which of the following?
                                             I. The dark, heat-absorbing coloration of a reptile
                                            II. The fangs and claws of a lion
                                           III. The light coloration of a peppered moth
            a. I only
            b. II only
            c. I and II only
            d. II and III only
            e. I, II, and III
____ 217.   Characteristics that tend to increase the risk of a species becoming endangered include which of the following?
                                                  I. Having a very limited distribution
                                                 II. Being a specialist at the end of a long food chain
                                                III. Having a small population size
            a. I only
            b. II only
            c. III only
            d. II and III only
            e. I, II, and III only
____ 218.   Which of the following best shows the process of evolution?
            a. A lizard’s color becomes brown as it sits on a long
            b. A bear goes into hibernation
            c. A plant loses its leaves in a drought
            d. A population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticide
            e. A population of foxes increases as more prey become available
____ 219.   High rates of species extinction caused by human activities have taken place at which of the following times in Earth’s history?
                                        I. At the end of the Permian period
                                      II. At the end of the Cretaceous period
                                     III. During recent times
            a. I only
            b. II only
            c. III only
            d. I and II only
            e. I, II, and III
____ 220.   Fragmenting one large park or preserve into many small parks with human habitation in between them is most likely to lead to
            which of the following?
            a. Reduction in species diversity
            b. Stabilization of microclimates
            c. Decrease in the proportion of edge habitat
            d. Increase in gene flow within species
            e. Increase in population size of top carnivores

								
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