final06132QuestionsONLY by A6524fjQ

VIEWS: 57 PAGES: 20

									SEMESTER 2
FINALS STUDY GUIDE

FORM___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
     1) The study of the structure and shape of the body and body parts is called:                  1) _______
          A) anatomy
          B) irritability
          C) negative feedback
          D) physiology
          E) homeostasis

      2) Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the             2) _______
         levels of structural organization of the human body:
            A) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level
            B) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level
            C) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level
            D) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level
            E) cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

      3) The smallest living unit of all living things is:                                                       3) _______
           A) a tissue
           B) the organism
           C) a cell
           D) an organ
           E) a molecule

      4) The lymphatic system:                                                                                   4) _______
           A) responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands
           B) picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood
           C) produces heat
           D) secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use
              (metabolism) by body cells
           E) synthesizes vitamin D

      5) Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the:                                   5) _______
            A) respiratory system
            B) digestive and urinary systems
            C) digestive and respiratory systems
            D) digestive system
            E) urinary system

      6) Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides:             6) _______
          A) nervous system - excretion
          B) integumentary system - movement
          C) muscular system - maintaining boundaries
          D) nervous system - responsiveness
          E) respiratory system - digestion

      7) In anatomical position:                                                                                 7) _______
            A) the body is laying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms
facing forward
             B) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms
                facing backward
            C) the body is laying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms
                facing backward
            D) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms
                facing forward
             E) the body is laying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms
                facing backward

       8) Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans):         8) _______
           A) anterior and dorsal
           B) superior and caudal
           C) inferior and cephalad
           D) inferior and cranial
           E) anterior and ventral

       9) Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans):                        9) _______
           A) medial and distal
           B) superficial and proximal
           C) lateral and distal
           D) posterior and intermediate
           E) superficial and deep

      10) Which of the following is NOT a ventral cavity:                                                     10) ______
           A) thoracic cavity
           B) oral cavity
           C) abdominal cavity
           D) pelvic cavity
           E) spinal cavity

      11) A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into right and left parts is called:      11) ______
            A) frontal            B) oblique         C) transverse        D) sagittal            E) coronal

      12) Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection:                                            12) ______
           A) cranial
           B) thoracic
           C) abdominal
           D) spinal
           E) pelvic

      13) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the spleen and stomach:      13) ______
           A) The spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the left
              upper quadrant.
           B) Both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant.
           C) Both of these organs are located medially.
           D) Both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant.
           E) The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the right
              upper quadrant.

      14) Which one of the following is NOT true about the cell membrane:                                     14) ______
           A) its lipid components are primarily phospholipids and cholesterol
      B)   it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily
      C)   it contains proteins for specialized functions
      D)   it regulates the entry and exit of cell materials
      E)   it consists of two lipid layers

15) Microvilli are apt to be found in cells that are specialized for:                               15) ______
     A) protection
      B) contraction
      C) absorption
     D) division
      E) insulation

16) Which one of the following organelles is studded with ribosomes and carries out protein         16) ______
    synthesis:
      A) lysosomes
      B) Golgi apparatus
      C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
      D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
      E) mitochondria

17) The movement of fluid through the cell membrane from a high pressure area to a lower pressure   17) ______
    area is called:
      A) bulk transport
       B) osmosis
       C) filtration
      D) active transport
       E) diffusion

18) Two types of passive transport are:                                                             18) ______
      A) endocytosis and diffusion
      B) diffusion and filtration
      C) filtration and exocytosis
      D) osmosis and endocytosis
      E) exocytosis and endocytosis

19) A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is:                                        19) ______
      A) hypotonic
      B) isotonic
      C) hypertonic
      D) Ringer's lactate
      E) intravenous

20) A cell would lose water and shrink in which of the following solutions:                         20) ______
      A) intravenous
      B) hypertonic
      C) Ringer's
      D) isotonic
      E) hypotonic

21) The phase of cell division during which the chromatids are pulled apart and move to the         21) ______
    opposite ends of the cell is:
      A) telophase
      B)   prophase
      C)   anaphase
      D)   interphase
      E)   metaphase

22) The molecule that carries an amino acid to the ribosome for incorporation into a protein is:      22) ______
      A) messenger RNA (mRNA)
      B) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
      C) DNA
      D) ATP
      E) transfer RNA (tRNA)

23) Place these steps in protein synthesis in the correct order:                                      23) ______
    (1) as the ribosome moves along the mRNA, a new amino acid is added to the growing protein
    chain
    (2) mRNA is made on a DNA template
    (3) incoming tRNA "recognizes" the complimentary mRNA sequence (codon), calling for its
    amino acid by binding to it via its anticodon
    (4) released tRNA reenters the cytoplasm to be recharged with a new amino acid
    (5) mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome, and translation begins
       A) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3     B) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5     C) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 D) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 E) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

24) The molecule that is made during transcription is:                                                24) ______
      A) transfer RNA (tRNA)
      B) ATP
      C) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
      D) DNA
      E) messenger RNA (mRNA)

25) Which of the following statements about RNA is correct:                                           25) ______
     A) it contains 2 chains
     B) it contains deoxyribose sugars
     C) it has the base uracil instead of thymine
     D) it is composed of amino acids
     E) it never leaves the nucleus

26) The molecule that contains anticodons is:                                                         26) ______
      A) messenger RNA (mRNA)
      B) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
      C) DNA
      D) transfer RNA (tRNA)
      E) ATP

27) The DNA segment that carries information coding for a particular amino acid is a:                 27) ______
      A) deoxyribose sugar
      B) phosphate group
      C) gene
      D) nucleotide
      E) triplet

28) Place the four steps in DNA replication in the proper sequence:                                   (2) DNA
    (1) DNA separates into its two nucleotide chains                                                  two molecu
les are   28)                                                                                             ___
formed                                                                                                    ___
that are
identical
to the
original
DNA
helix
(3) DNA
helix
unwinds
(4) each
strand
acts as a
template
for
building
a new
complem
entary
strand
            A) 4, 1, 3, 2       B) 2, 4, 1, 3       C) 1, 2, 4, 3     D) 3, 1, 4,, 2      E) 4, 3, 1, 2

      29) If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA is GTA-GCA, the sequence of bases     29) ______
          on its complementary DNA strand would be:
             A) ACG-ATT
              B) CAU-CGU
              C) CAT-CGT
             D) GAU-GCU
              E) GAT-GCT

      30) Which of the following is NOT connective tissue:                                                30) ______
           A) cartilage
           B) blood
           C) bone
           D) skeletal muscle
           E) adipose

      31) Tendons are:                                                                                    31) ______
            A) areolar tissue
            B) loose connective tissue
            C) dense connective tissue
            D) osseous tissue
            E) adipose tissue

      32) The categories of epithelial tissue membranes are:                                              32) ______
            A) synovial, cutaneous, and mucous membranes
            B) synovial, mucous, and serous membranes
            C) mucous, cutaneous, and serous membranes
            D) synovial, mucous, and cutaneous membranes
            E) synovial, cutaneous, and serous membranes
33) The skin is a:                                                                                        33) ______
      A) mucous membrane
      B) basement membrane
      C) cutaneous membrane
      D) synovial membrane
      E) serous membrane

34) Although you get wet while swimming, a tough protein within the skin prevents it from soaking         34) ______
    up moisture like a sponge. This substance is:
      A) serous fluid
      B) carotene
      C) mucus
      D) melanin
      E) keratin

35) The most external skin region is composed of:                                                         35) ______
      A) simple columnar epithelium
      B) adipose tissue
      C) areolar tissue
      D) stratified squamous epithelium
      E) dense fibrous connective tissue

36) Which of the following has no blood supply of its own:                                                36) ______
     A) both the epidermis and the dermis
     B) the dermis only
     C) the epidermis only
     D) both the dermis and the subcutaneous connective tissue
     E) subcutaneous connective tissue only

37) The hypodermis consists of:                                                                           37) ______
      A) stratified squamous epithelium
      B) loose connective tissue
      C) dense fibrous connective tissue
      D) simple columnar epithelium
      E) adipose tissue

38) Which of the following homoeostatic imbalances is caused by skin exposure to chemicals:               38) ______
     A) contact dermatitis
     B) cyanosis
     C) cold sores
     D) impetigo
     E) athlete's foot

39) The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is       39) ______
    somewhat protective due to:
      A) added layers of epidermis that thicken the skin
      B) an increased blood supply that carries the heat of the sun away
      C) increased production of melanin that helps to block ultraviolet light
      D) an increased concentration of keratin that "toughens" the skin
      E) a decreased blood supply that blocks melanocyte activity

40) The layer of the epidermis in which cells first die because of their inability to get nutrients and   oxy gen is
the:       40)                                                                                            ___
                                                                                                          ___
             A)   stratum granulosum
             B)   stratum corneum
             C)   stratum lucidum
             D)   stratum basale
             E)   stratum spinosum

       41) Melanocytes are found in the:                                                                  41) ______
            A) stratum granulosum
             B) stratum spinosum
            C) stratum lucidum
            D) stratum basale
             E) stratum corneum

       42) Finger-like upward projections of the dermis into the epidermis are called:                    42) ______
             A) hair bulbs
              B) hair follicles
              C) Pacinian corpuscles
             D) Meissner's corpuscles
              E) dermal papillae

       43) The secretions of the eccrine glands are:                                                      43) ______
             A) solely metabolic wastes
             B) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
             C) basic
             D) 99% water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and
             E) primarily uric acid

       44) What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn:                             44) ______
            A) loss of immune function
            B) unbearable pain
            C) infection
            D) dehydration
            E) blood loss

       45) A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by:                45) ______
             A) using the "rule of nines"
             B) observing the tissues that are usually moist
             C) performing enzyme studies
             D) measuring urinary output and fluid intake
             E) blood analysis

       46) Vertebrae are considered ________ bones, whereas ankle bones are considered ________.          46) ______
             A) short; irregular
             B) flat; short
             C) irregular; short
             D) compact; spongy
             E) short; flat

       47) Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is   47) ______
           correct:
      A)   skull bones - flat bones
      B)   cranium - sesamoid bones
      C)   arm and leg bones - short bones
      D)   coxal bones - irregular bones
      E)   wrist and ankle bones - long bones

48) Which of the following bone categories are generally cube-shaped:                                      48) ______
     A) irregular bone
     B) compact bone
     C) flat bone
     D) long bone
     E) short bone

49) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:                                                    49) ______
      A) bone is dead
      B) bone diameter is decreasing
      C) bone length is no longer increasing
      D) bone length is increasing
      E) bone diameter is increasing

50) There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the   50) ______
    sequence of these stages:
    1. bony callus formation       3. fibrocartilage callus formation
    2. bone remodeling             4. hematoma formation
       A) 1, 2, 3, 4        B) 4, 3, 2, 1         C) 1, 3, 4, 2       D) 1, 3, 2, 4       E) 4, 3, 1, 2

51) A compound fracture can be described as when:                                                          51) ______
      A) the bone is broken into many fragments
      B) the bone is crushed
      C) the broken bone ends are forced into each other
      D) the broken bone is exposed to the outside
      E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously

52) A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a:                                     52) ______
      A) greenstick fracture
      B) simple fracture
      C) compound fracture
      D) compression fracture
      E) comminuted fracture

53) A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix       53) ______
    and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n):
      A) spiral fracture
       B) open fracture
      C) depressed fracture
      D) greenstick fracture
       E) impacted fracture

54) A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n):                                               54) ______
      A) impacted fracture
       B) compression fracture
      C) simple fracture
      D) spiral fracture
      E) depressed fracture

55) The five regions of the vertebral column, from superior to inferior, are:                          55) ______
      A) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
      B) cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccygeal
      C) cervical, lumbar, sacral, thoracic, coccygeal
      D) cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, coccygeal
      E) cervical, sacral, thoracic, coccygeal, lumbar

56) There are ________ lumbar vertebra; whereas there are ________ thoracic vertebra.                  56) ______
      A) 5; 7             B) 7; 5           C) 12; 7            D) 12; 5              E) 5; 12

57) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior:                                     57) ______
     A) false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs
     B) floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs
     C) floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs
     D) true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs
     E) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs

58) Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis:     58) ______
     A) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
     B) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker
     C) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less
     D) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller
     E) the female iliac bones are less flared

59) Muscle tissue that has involuntary regulation of contraction:                                      59) ______
     A) skeletal muscle only
     B) cardiac muscle only
     C) cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle
     D) smooth muscle only
     E) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle

60) The muscle tissue type that consists of single, very long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells with   60) ______
    very obvious striations is:
      A) smooth muscle only
       B) skeletal muscle only
      C) cardiac and skeletal muscle
      D) cardiac muscle only
       E) cardiac and smooth muscle

61) Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system:                                   61) ______
     A) maintenance of posture
     B) stabilization of joints
     C) hematopoiesis
     D) generation of heat
     E) production of movement

62) A sarcomere is:                                                                                    62) ______
      A) a compartment in a myofilament
      B) the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle
      C) the area between two intercalated discs
      D) the wavy lines on the cell, as seen in a microscope
      E) the contractile unit between two Z lines

63) Which one of the following groups of skeletal muscle connective tissue terms is placed in order        63) ______
    from largest to smallest:
       A) myofilament, myofibril, fiber, fascicle
       B) fascicle, fiber, myofibril, myofilament
       C) fiber, myofibril, myofilament, fascicle
       D) fiber, myofibril, fascicle, myofilament
       E) fascicle, fiber, myofilament, myofibril

64) A motor unit consists of:                                                                              64) ______
      A) one neuron and all of the skeletal muscle fibers that it stimulates
      B) one skeletal muscle neuron and all the neurons that supply it
      C) one nerve and all of the skeletal muscles supplied by it
      D) all of the neurons that stimulate a single skeletal muscle action
      E) all of the skeletal muscles that accomplish a single movement

65) Neurotransmitters are stored within:                                                                   65) ______
      A) myofibrils
      B) motor end plates
      C) motor units
      D) synaptic clefts
      E) motor neuron endings

66) The striations that give skeletal muscle its characteristic striped appearance are produced, for the   66) ______
    most part, by:
      A) the T tubules
      B) the "cocked" positions of the heads of the thick filaments
      C) the arrangement of myofilaments
      D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
      E) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma

67) Creatine phosphate (CP) functions within the muscle cells by:                                          67) ______
      A) storing energy that will be transferred to ATP to resynthesize ADP as needed
      B) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
      C) forming a chemical compound with actin
      D) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments
      E) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed

68) While flexing the forearm at the elbow joint, the:                                                     68) ______
     A) deltoid acts as a synergist
     B) biceps brachii acts as an antagonist
     C) deltoid acts as an antagonist
     D) triceps brachii acts as a synergist
     E) triceps brachii acts as an antagonist

69) While doing "jumping jacks" during an exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away           69) ______
    from the midline of your body. This motion is called:
       A) abduction
       B) circumduction
      C) flexion
      D) extension
      E) adduction

70) Which one of the following is NOT a criteria generally used in naming muscles:                        70) ______
     A) relative size of the muscle
     B) shape of the muscle
     C) method of attachment of the muscle to bone
     D) number of origins of the muscle
     E) action of the muscle

71) The highly contagious bacterial infection known as "pinkeye" is caused by bacterial or viral          71) ______
    irritation of the:
       A) choroid
        B) retina
       C) sclera
       D) conjunctiva
        E) cornea

72) Tears are produced by the lacrimal glands that are located:                                           72) ______
      A) above the medial canthus of each eye
      B) below the medial canthus of each eye
      C) behind the nasal bones
      D) above the lateral canthus of each eye
      E) below the lateral canthus of each eye

73) Inflammation of the conjunctiva involves which of the following:                                      73) ______
      A) portion of the eye that contains the optic nerve
       B) extrinsic eye muscles
       C) delicate membrane lining the eyelids and covering the front of the eyeball
       D) glands that produce tears
       E) circular band surrounding the pupil

74) The fibrous outermost tunic seen anteriorily as the "white of the eye" is the:                        74) ______
      A) retina
      B) sclera
      C) cornea
      D) choroid
      E) fovea centralis

75) The transparent central anterior portion of the sclera through which light enters the eye is called   75) ______
    the:
      A) cornea            B) pupil             C) retina           D) iris              E) choroid

76) The "blind spot" where no photreceptor cells are present is located at the:                           76) ______
      A) ciliary body
      B) choroid
      C) fovea centralis
      D) pupil
      E) optic disk

77) The pigmented portion of the eye that has a rounded opening through which light passes is the:        77) ______
      A) cornea             B) iris               C) retina           D) sclera            E) pupil

78) The three sets of color receptors within the retina are sensitive to wavelengths of visible light    78) ______
    that are:
      A) red, green, and yellow
       B) green, yellow, and purple
      C) orange, green, and purple
      D) red, blue, and yellow
       E) blue, green, and red

79) The gel-like substance that reinforces the eyeball and prevents it from collapsing inward is the:    79) ______
      A) choroid coat
      B) vitreous humor
      C) canal of Schlemm
      D) ciliary body
      E) aqueous humor

80) Which one of the following correctly lists the order of the parts through which light passes as it   80) ______
    enters the eye:
      A) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
       B) lens, aqueous humor, cornea, vitreous humor
      C) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor
      D) cornea, lens, aqueous humor, vitreous humor
       E) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

81) Sound waves entering the external auditory canal hit the eardrum, also known as the:                 81) ______
      A) oval window
      B) pinna
      C) ossicles
      D) typmanic membrane
      E) auricle

82) Hair cells that function as hearing receptors are located within the:                                82) ______
     A) auricle
      B) ossicles
      C) organ of Corti
      D) oval window
      E) auditory tube

83) An ear infection following an illness such as a cold has passed from the throat through the          83) ______
    auditory tube to the:
      A) inner ear
      B) eardrum
      C) semicircular canals
      D) middle ear
      E) outer ear

84) The auditory ossicle called the "anvil" is also called the:                                          84) ______
      A) cochlea
      B) malleus
      C) stapes
      D) incus
      E) bony labyrinth

85) The portion of the bony labyrinth responsible for static equilibrium is the:                       85) ______
      A) oval window
      B) ossicles
      C) semicircular canals
      D) vestibule
      E) cochlea

86) Which one of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation:                                       86) ______
     A) salty             B) sweet           C) sour             D) bitter                E) pungent

87) Which one of the following is NOT found on the dorsal tongue surface:                              87) ______
     A) circumvallate papillae
     B) fungiform papillae
     C) maculary papillae
     D) filiform papillae
     E) gustatory cells

88) Which one of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved in either taste or smell:                88) ______
     A) vestibular (VIII)
     B) facial nerve (VII)
     C) olfactory nerve (I)
     D) glossopharyngeal (IX)
     E) vagus (X)

89) The only special sense that is NOT fully functional at birth is:                                   89) ______
      A) taste             B) hearing          C) smell              D) vision            E) touch

90) Which one of the following represents the correct order through which food passes in the           90) ______
    alimentary canal:
       A) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
       B) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, small intestine, stomach, large intestine
       C) pharynx, mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
       D) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
       E) mouth, esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

91) Which one of the following is NOT a layer of the alimentary canal:                                 91) ______
     A) muscularis externa
     B) muscularis interna
     C) serosa
     D) mucosa
     E) submucosa

92) Which one of the following is NOT true of the stomach:                                             92) ______
     A) it contains both longitudinal and circular muscle layers
     B) its mucosa is simple columnar epithelium
     C) starch digestion begins here
     D) it contains a third obliquely arranged layer in the muscularis externa
     E) its chief cells produce numerous protein-digesting enzymes

93) The small intestine extends from the:                                                              93) ______
       A)   pyloric sphincter to the ileocecal valve
       B)   cardioesophageal sphincter to ileocecal valve
       C)   appendix to the sigmoid colon
       D)   cardioesophageal sphincter to the pyloric sphincter
       E)   ileocecal valve to the appendix

 94) Which one of the following is the middle section of the small intestine:                      94) ______
      A) descending colon
      B) duodenum
      C) ascending colon
      D) jejunum
      E) ileum

 95) The "gatekeeper" of the small intestine that regulates food movement into it is called the:   95) ______
       A) hepatopancreatic ampulla
       B) jejunum
       C) cardioesophageal sphincter
       D) pyloric sphincter
       E) ileum

 96) The primary function of the small intestine is:                                               96) ______
       A) absorption of nutrients
       B) waste secretion
       C) vitamin conversion
       D) mineral secretion
       E) absorption of water

 97) Which one of the following is NOT a subdivision of the large intestine:                       97) ______
      A) cecum
      B) colon
      C) duodenum
      D) appendix
      E) rectum

 98) The number of permanent teeth within a full set of adult teeth is:                            98) ______
       A) 28             B) 24                C) 36                  D) 20                E) 32

 99) Proteins are digested to their building blocks which are called:                              99) ______
       A) glycerol
       B) amino acids
       C) polypeptides
       D) fatty acids
       E) peptides

100) The journey of chyme through the small intestine takes:                                       100) _____
       A) 3-6 hours
       B) 6-8 hours
       C) 2-4 hours
       D) 8-10 hours
       E) 10-12 hours

101) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is produced in greatest quantity during:                         101) _____
       A)   fat metabolism
       B)   protein metabolism
       C)   the Krebs cycle
       D)   glycolysis
       E)   the electron transport chain

102) The term central nervous system refers to the:                                                        102) _____
       A) brain and spinal cord
       B) brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
       C) spinal cord and spinal nerves
       D) autonomic and peripheral nervous systems
       E) brain and cranial nerves

103) Ciliated CNS neuroglia that line the cavities of the brain and spinal cord, and play an active role   103) _____
     in moving the cerebrospinal fluid, are:
        A) astrocytes
        B) microglia
        C) Schwann cells
        D) ependymal cells
        E) oligodendrocytes

104) Which of the following is NOT a structural feature of a neuron, but plays a critical role as a        104) _____
     functional junction between neurons:
       A) cell body
        B) node of Ranvier
       C) axon
       D) dendrites
        E) synaptic cleft

105) The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:                               105) _____
       A) Schwann cells
       B) axons
       C) satellite cells
       D) dendrites
       E) neurolemmas

106) Which one of the following best describes the waxy-appearing material called myelin:                  106) _____
      A) an outer membrane on a neuroglial cell
      B) a mass of white lipid material that surrounds the dendrites of a neuron
      C) a mass of white lipid material that surrounds the cell body of a neuron
      D) a mass of white lipid material that insulates the axon of a neuron
      E) a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the outside of axons

107) Which one of the following is a sensory receptor sensitive to deep pressure:                          107) _____
      A) Pacinian corpuscles
      B) Golgi tendon organs
      C) Meissner's corpuscles
      D) naked nerve endings
      E) muscle spindles

108) A neuron with a cell body located in the CNS whose primary function is connecting other               108) _____
     neurons is called a(n):
       A)   satellite cell
       B)   association neuron
       C)   afferent neuron
       D)   glial cell
       E)   efferent neuron

109) A myelinated nerve fiber is characterized as being ________, whereas an unmyelinated nerve       109) _____
     fiber is characterized as being ________.
        A) gray, and composes the white matter of the brain and spinal cord; white, and composes
            the gray matter of the brain and spinal cord
        B) gray, and composes the gray matter of the brain and spinal cord; white, and composes the
            white matter of the brain and spinal cord
        C) white, and composes the white matter of the brain and spinal cord; gray, and composes
            the gray matter of the brain and spinal cord
        D) unique to the brain; unique to the spinal cord
        E) unique to the spinal cord; unique to the brain

110) Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are:                                               110) _____
       A) sensory
       B) cerebral
       C) unmyelinated
       D) myelinated
       E) motor

111) The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called:       111) _____
       A) the sodium-potassium pump
       B) an ion
       C) an action potential
       D) nerve glue
       E) a neurotransmitter

112) Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc:                          112) _____
      A) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
      B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
      C) receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, integration center, effector
      D) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
      E) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor

113) The three major parts of the brain stem are the:                                                 113) _____
       A) thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus
       B) midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
       C) basal nuclei, pineal body, and choroid plexus
       D) cerebrum, cerebellum, and diencephalon
       E) dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

114) The single, deep groove separating the two cerebral hemispheres is the:                          114) _____
       A) longitudinal fissure
       B) anterior commissure
       C) parieto-occipital sulcus
       D) lateral sulcus
       E) central sulcus
115) Elevated ridges located on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called:                     115) _____
       A) fissures
        B) ganglia
       C) gyri
       D) sulci
        E) white matter

116) Lobe that contains the primary motor area that enables voluntary control of skeletal muscle        116) _____
     movements:
       A) parietal lobe
       B) occipital lobe
       C) temporal lobe
       D) diencephalon
       E) frontal lobe

117) The area of the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep cycles is the:   117) _____
       A) cerebellum
       B) thalamus
       C) pineal body
       D) limbic system
       E) reticular activating system (RAS)

118) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions associated with   118) _____
     the:
       A) cerebellum
        B) medulla oblongata
        C) hypothalamus
       D) thalamus
        E) cerebrum

119) The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood      119) _____
     pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the:
       A) hypothalamus
        B) medulla oblongata
       C) midbrain
       D) cerebrum
        E) pons

120) The hypothalamus:                                                                                  120) _____
       A) contains reflex centers involved with vision and hearing
       B) is the thermostat of the body since it regulates body temperature
       C) mediates sensations
       D) is the somatic sensory area
       E) is an important auditory and visual relay center

121) Which of the following is a traumatic brain injury:                                                121) _____
      A) Parkinson's disease
      B) cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
      C) aphasia
      D) Alzheimer's disease
      E) cerebral edema
122) The spinal cord has gray matter on the:                                                              122) _____
       A) inside, white matter on the outside, and a dorsal motor root
       B) outside, white matter on the inside, and a dorsal motor root
       C) outside, white matter on the inside, and a ventral motor root
       D) outside and inside, and dorsal and ventral motor roots
       E) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root

123) Afferent nerves are called __________, and motor nerves are called __________.                       123) _____
       A) peripheral nerves; cranial nerves
       B) cranial nerves; peripheral nerves
       C) mixed nerves; motor nerves
       D) sensory nerves; efferent nerves
       E) motor nerves; sensory nerves

124) The functions of the vestibulocochlear nerves concern:                                               124) _____
       A) vision and hearing
       B) smell and taste
       C) digestive activity and swallowing
       D) hearing and balance
       E) fine and gross motor control

125) The nerve that contains motor fibers that are involved in chewing is:                                125) _____
       A) cranial nerve V
       B) cranial nerve III
       C) cranial nerve VII
       D) cranial nerve VI
       E) cranial nerve IV

126) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the:                                  126) _____
       A)   lumbar plexus
       B)   obturator plexus
       C)   sacral plexus
       D)   thoracic plexus
       E)   femoral plexus

127) The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body resulting from a combination of which two         127) _____
     nerves:
       A) femoral and tibial nerves
       B) common fibular and tibial nerves
       C) pudendal and common peroneal nerves
       D) pudendal and femoral nerves
       E) pudendal and tibial nerves

128) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the:                         128) _____
       A) autonomic nervous system
       B) somatic nervous system
       C) voluntary nervous system
       D) peripheral nervous system
       E) central nervous system

129) Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response during threatening situations is the role of   129) _____
     the:
       A)   cerebrum
       B)   afferent nervous system
       C)   somatic nervous system
       D)   sympathetic nervous system
       E)   parasympathetic nervous system

130) Sympathetic division fibers leave the spinal cord in the:                                         130) _____
       A) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
       B) craniosacral region, and the preganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
       C) craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
       D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
       E) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine

131) Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes:                                                    131) _____
       A) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood
          pressure
       B) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood
          pressure
       C) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood
          pressure
       D) decreased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood
          pressure
       E) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood
          pressure

132) Which one of the following statements about aging is most accurate:                               132) _____
      A) synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35
      B) increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances the ability to learn
      C) despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways are available and
         ready to be developed; therefore, additional learning can occur throughout life
      D) the brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life
      E) learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation

								
To top