Name: _________________________________ Date: _____________
RVCC Introduction to Psychology FINAL EXAM POTENTIAL QUESTIONS -Fall 2010
1. On the telephone, Dominic rattles off a list of 10 grocery items for Kyoko to bring home from the store. Immediately after hearing the list, Kyoko
attempts to write down the items. She is most likely to forget the items:
A) at the beginning of the list. B) at the end of the list. C) in the middle of the list. D) at the beginning and in the middle of the list.
2. By presenting research participants with three rows of three letters each for only a fraction of a second, Sperling demonstrated that people have
________ memory.
A) echoic B) flashbulb C) iconic D) implicit
3. Semantic encoding is to visual encoding as ________ is to ________.
A) the method of loci; the “peg-word” system C) working memory; flashbulb memory
B) the serial position effect; the spacing effect D) meaning; imagery
4. Effortful processing can only occur with:
A) implicit memory. B) conscious attention. C) visual imagery. D) chunking.
5. Long-term potentiation refers to:
A) the impact of overlearning on retention.
B) an automatic tendency to recall emotionally significant events.
C) an increase in a neuron's firing potential.
D) the process of learning something without any conscious memory of having learned it.
6. Faqu-qui still remembers exactly where she was when JFK was assassinated. This is an example of:
A) long-term memory B) flashbulb memory C) flashback D) chunking
7. ____________ is/are synonymous with short-term memory.
A) Shadow memory B) Secondary memory C) Working memory D) Sensory registers
8. Esor Renhcob went to a party and met 10 new people. When she got home, she could only remember the first two and last three people she met.
This is due to the:
A) spacing effect B) visual encoding C) the serial-position effect D) all the milk and cookies at the party
9. The process of getting information into memory is called:
A) retention. B) chunking. C) encoding. D) registering.
10. Implicit memory is to explicit memory as ________ is to ________.
A) hippocampus; brainstem C) effortful processing; automatic processing
B) short-term memory; long-term memory D) skill memory; fact memory
11. Mrs. Ramos claims to remember being sexually abused by her father when she was less than a year old. Memory experts are most likely to doubt
the reliability of her memory due to their awareness of:
A) implicit memory. B) long-term potentiation. C) infantile amnesia. D) the spacing effect.
12. Zil studies for half an hour Monday through Thursday for the test on Friday. Assila studies for two hours on Thursday. Why does Zil
remember more information on the test?
A) spacing effect B) semantic encodnig C) serial position effect D) chunking
13. After studying biology all afternoon, Alonzo is having difficulty remembering details of the organic chemistry material that he memorized that
morning. Alonzo's difficulty best illustrates:
A) retroactive interference. B) the spacing effect. C) proactive interference. D) source amnesia.
14. The self-reference effect best illustrates the value of:
A) semantic encoding. B) the imagery principle. C) working memory. D) mnemonics.
15. Loftus and Palmer asked two groups of observers how fast two cars had been going in a filmed traffic accident. Observers who heard the vividly
descriptive word “smashed” in relation to the accident later recalled:
A) broken glass at the scene of the accident. C) that the drivers of the vehicles were males.
B) that the drivers of the vehicles were intoxicated. D) the details of the accident with vivid accuracy.
16. Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical events are stored in:
A) procedural memory B) semantic memory C) episodic memory D) short-term memory
17. Information learned while a person is ________ is best recalled when that person is ________.
A) sad; happy B) drunk; sober C) angry; calm D) angry; angry
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18. During the course of a day, people may unconsciously encode the sequence of the day's events. This best illustrates:
A) the spacing effect. B) automatic processing. C) the next-in-line effect. D) the serial position effect.
19. Our immediate short-term memory for new material is limited to roughly ________ bits of information.
A) 3 B) 7 C) 12 D) 24
20. The relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system is called ________ memory.
A) sensory B) long-term C) flashbulb D) implicit
21. Direct perception of an object and mental visualization of that object activate similar brain areas. This most clearly contributes to:
A) the self-reference effect. B) proactive interference. C) imagination inflation. D) mood-congruent memory.
22. Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned verbal information. Damage to the ________ is most
likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned visual designs.
A) right hippocampus; left hippocampus C) right cerebellum; left cerebellum
B) left hippocampus; right hippocampus D) left cerebellum; right cerebellum
23. Philippe has just completed medical school. In reflecting on his years of formal education, he is able to recall the names of all his instructors
except the fifth-grade teacher who flunked him. According to Freud, his forgetting illustrates:
A) repression. B) proactive interference. C) retroactive interference. D) the spacing effect.
24. When Loftus and Palmer asked observers of a filmed car accident how fast the vehicles were going when they “smashed” into each other, the
observers developed memories of the accident that:
A) omitted some of the most painful aspects of the event.
B) were more accurate than the memories of subjects who had not been immediately questioned about what they saw.
C) were influenced by whether or not Loftus and Palmer identified themselves as police officers.
D) portrayed the event as more serious than it had actually been.
25. Retrieval cues are most likely to facilitate a process known as:
A) automatic processing. B) chunking. C) relearning. D) priming.
26. According to Freud, children develop unconscious sexual desires for the parent of the opposite sex during the ________ stage.
A) oral B) genital C) phallic D) anal E) latency
27. According to Freud, our gender identity develops most rapidly during the ________ stage.
A) anal B) phallic C) genital D) oral
28. Coping with anxiety by retreating to behavior patterns characteristic of an earlier, more infantile stage of development is called:
A) repression. B) projection. C) reaction formation. D) regression. E) displacement.
29. The Thematic Apperception Test requires people to respond to:
A) incomplete sentences. B) ambiguous pictures. C) unfamiliar melodies. D) meaningless inkblots. E) all of the above.
30. The pleasure principle is to the ________ as the reality principle is to the ________.
A) oral stage; anal stage B) id; superego C) id; ego D) life instinct; death instinct E) conscious; unconscious
31. According to Freud's theory, the ego:
A) is the compromising part of personality. D) is the major source of guilt feelings.
B) develops before the id. E) operates only on a conscious level.
C) operates on the pleasure principle.
32. Lamont has frequently been rebellious, inconsiderate, and self-centered, yet the pastor of his local church has always accepted and respected him.
The pastor's attitude toward Lamont is most explicitly recommended by:
A) Freud. B) Maslow. C) Rogers. D) Adler.
33. According to Freud, the most important erogenous zone during earliest infancy consists of the:
A) eyes. B) mouth. C) bowels. D) breasts. E) urethra.
34. Shortly after receiving a traffic ticket for speeding, Fred made numerous hostile comments to his wife about the incompetence of women drivers.
Fred's comments illustrate most clearly the defense mechanism of:
A) reaction formation. B) rationalization. C) identification. D) displacement. E) repression.
35. Unconsciously motivated by miserliness, Mr. Rioja refused to send his son money to buy the books he needs for his college courses. In defending
his actions, Mr. Rioja explained that “parental financial aid prevents teenagers from developing into mature, independent adults.” Mr. Rioja's
explanation is an example of:
A) repression. B) rationalization. C) projection. D) displacement. E) reaction formation.
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36. Freud emphasized that unresolved childhood conflicts often lead to:
A) projection. B) the collective unconscious. C) unconditional positive regard. D) fixation.
37. Which of the following techniques was Freud most likely to use in an attempt to discover the hidden conflicts underlying his patients' symptoms?
A) free association B) projective testing C) fixation D) unconditional positive regard
38. The major characteristic of dissociative disorders is a disturbance of:
A) sleep. B) mood. C) appetite. D) memory. E) perception.
39. Prior to his use of free association, Freud had encouraged patients to retrieve their forgotten memories by means of:
A) hypnosis. B) projective tests. C) psychoactive drugs. D) fixation.
40. According to Freud's theory, the behavior of a newborn is controlled by:
A) the reality principle. B) the ego. C) the superego. D) the id.
41. The pleasure principle is to the ________ as the reality principle is to the ________.
A) id; superego B) id; ego C) Oedipus complex; Electra complex D) conscious; unconscious
42. The superego is the part of personality that:
A) mediates between the demands of biology and the external world.
B) operates on the reality principle.
C) generates feelings of guilt.
D) does all of the above.
43. At the beginning of this unit, you received some feedback from your peers about your personality. You also circled traits about yourself. If you
found that your traits did not match most of those in your class, you would be:
A) congruent B) unable to identify your ideal self C) incongruent D) able to identify your real self
44. Psychoanalytic theory suggests that the ego disguises threatening impulses and reduces anxiety by means of:
A) free association. B) unconditional positive regard. C) defense mechanisms. D) learned helplessness.
45. Although Camile has detailed memories of her high school experiences, she remembers very little about the boyfriend who abruptly broke off
their marriage engagement. According to psychoanalytic theory, it appears that Camile is using the defense mechanism of:
A) regression. B) repression. C) displacement. D) projection.
46. The birth order that tends to have the most problems and is most likely to seek therapy is the ______ born child.
A) first B) middle C) last D) only
47. Shortly after receiving a traffic ticket for speeding, Fred made numerous hostile comments to his wife about the incompetence of women drivers.
Fred's comments illustrate most clearly the defense mechanism of:
A) reaction formation. B) rationalization. C) identification. D) displacement.
48. People who are _______ on _______ tend to have difficulty controlling their impulses and tend to be worriers and complainers.
A) low; openness B) low; agreeableness C) high; conscientiousness D) high; neuroticism
49. Which neo-Freudian theorist emphasized that personality development is strongly influenced by feelings of inferiority?
A) Jung B) Murray C) Horney D) Adler
50. The social-cognitive perspective most clearly emphasizes:
A) the relationship between body type and personality.
B) the effect of motivational conflicts on personality development.
C) the interactive effects of internal personality dynamics and external environmental occurrences on human behavior.
D) the individual's growth potential.
51. Because she is often rejected by her parents, Sally mistrusts other people and treats them with hostility, which leads to their rejection of her. This
cycle of rejection, mistrust, hostility, and further rejection illustrates what is meant by:
A) an external locus of control. B) the spotlight effect. C) the self-serving bias. D) reciprocal determinism.
52. Carl Jung emphasized the importance of ________ in personality functioning.
A) inferiority feelings B) psychosexual stages C) the collective unconscious D) childhood anxiety
53. Tests that present ambiguous stimuli designed to uncover hidden personality dynamics are called ________ tests.
A) empirical B) projective C) multiphasic personality D) factor analytic
54. The Thematic Apperception Test requires people to respond to:
A) incomplete sentences. B) ambiguous pictures. C) unfamiliar melodies. D) meaningless inkblots.
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55. Which theory proposes that faith in one's worldview is used to defend against a deeply rooted fear of death?
A) trait theory B) object relations theory C) social-cognitive theory D) terror-management theory
56. Which perspective on personality emphasizes the importance of our capacity for healthy growth and self-realization?
A) psychoanalytic B) social-cognitive C) humanistic D) trait
57. Self-actualized people, as described by Maslow, are least likely to:
A) have a strong ego. C) experience an external locus of control.
B) have a well-developed superego. D) have a strong sense of gender identity.
58. Carl Rogers emphasized that a positive self-concept is promoted by:
A) an external locus of control. B) unconditional positive regard. C) reciprocal determinism. D) free association.
59. Trait theorists would be most likely to highlight the impact of our biologically inherited ________ on personality.
A) erogenous zones B) locus of control C) attributional style D) temperament
60. Freud explained personality in terms of unconscious motivations, whereas ________ described personality in terms of enduring traits.
A) Gordon Allport B) Carl Rogers C) Albert Bandura D) Herman Rorschach
61. The ego is to the ________ as the superego is to the ________.
A) child; parent B) child; adult C) adult; parent D) parent; adult
62. Eros is to the ___________ as thantos is to the___________.
A) sexual desire; aggressive urges B) death instinct; life instinct C) aggressive urges; sexual desire D) adult; parent
63. An interest in describing and classifying the many ways in which individuals may differ from one another is most characteristic of the ________
perspective.
A) social-cognitive B) trait C) humanistic D) psychoanalytic
64. Evidence of the impact of biology on personality traits includes the fact that:
A) extraverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively low.
B) extraverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively high.
C) introverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively low.
D) introverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively high.
65. Over the last few years, Mr. Helmus has been obsessed with bizarre thoughts and has become increasingly agitated and socially withdrawn.
Which personality inventory would be most helpful for assessing the nature and severity of his symptoms?
A) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator B) TAT C) Rorschach inkblot test D) MMPI
66. Repeatedly checking to see if your stove is turned off is to ________ as repeatedly thinking you might try to set your own house on fire is to
________.
A) depression; mania B) compulsion; obsession C) hallucination; delusion D) neurotic; psychotic
67. In convincing people that they can accurately assess their personalities, astrologers, palm readers, and graphologists take advantage of:
A) the spotlight effect. B) the self-reference phenomenon. C) the Barnum effect. D) free association.
68. Learning theorists have suggested that obsessive-compulsive disorders are:
A) habitual defenses against unconscious impulses. C) classically conditioned habits.
B) reinforced by anxiety reduction. D) conditioned reactions to childhood sexual abuse.
69. A person who is helpful and trusting most clearly ranks high on the Big Five trait dimension known as:
A) extraversion. B) openness. C) agreeableness. D) conscientiousness.
70. Two years after being brutally beaten and raped, Brianna still experiences anxiety and has trouble sleeping and vivid flashbacks of her assault.
Brianna is most clearly showing signs of:
A) a dissociative disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) post-traumatic stress disorder. E) bipolar disorder.
C) dysthymic disorder.
71. A post-traumatic stress disorder could best be described as a(n) ________ disorder.
A) psychotic B) dissociative C) dysthymic D) anxiety
72. The stability of personality traits over time is greatest among:
A) children. B) college students. C) 30-year olds. D) 60-year olds.
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73. Because she is often rejected by her parents, Sally mistrusts other people and treats them with hostility, which leads to their rejection of her. This
cycle of rejection, mistrust, hostility, and further rejection illustrates what is meant by:
A) an external locus of control. B) the spotlight effect. C) the self-serving phenomenon. D) reciprocal determinism.
74. Professor Halasa perceives shy, inhibited styles of behavior to be the interactive outcome of cultural experiences, autonomic nervous system
reactivity, and unconscious thought processes. The professor's views best illustrate a(n) ________ approach.
A) trait B) evolutionary C) biopsychosocial D) humanistic
75. Julio believes that no matter how hard he works, the “system” is so biased against his ethnic group that he will be unable to achieve economic
success. Julio's thinking most clearly demonstrates:
A) reaction formation. B) the self-reference phenomenon. C) an external locus of control. D) the spotlight effect.
76. Veena gets poor grades no matter how hard she studies, so she has simply given up studying. Veena's behavior most clearly reflects:
A) learned helplessness. B) an internal locus of control. C) an inferiority complex. D) the Barnum effect.
77. In order to assess how optimistic or pessimistic your classmates are, you would be best advised to discover:
A) what grades they anticipate receiving in future courses.
B) how they explain their academic failures, financial setbacks, and relationship difficulties.
C) how much financial debt they are willing to incur in order to complete their education.
D) how many people they consider to be their close friends.
78. In which of the following disorders is a person continually tense, apprehensive, and in a state of autonomic arousal?
A) generalized anxiety disorder B) special phobia C) dysthymic disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
79. While driving to work, Pedro hears a radio advertisement for a new restaurant. Throughout the day, the tune associated with the advertisement
keeps running through his head. Pedro's inability to stop thinking about the tune best illustrates the nature of a(n):
A) delusion. B) hallucination. C) obsession. D) compulsion. E) phobia.
80. When Professor McKay nervously began teaching a university class for the first time, he overestimated the extent to which his students would
notice that he was anxious. His reaction best illustrates:
A) self-serving bias. B) the spotlight effect. C) the self-reference phenomenon. D) reciprocal determinism.
81. People with high self-esteem are less likely than those with low self-esteem to:
A) experience an internal locus of control. C) manifest self-serving bias.
B) overestimate the accuracy of their beliefs. D) succumb to conformity pressures.
82. Mr. Carlson is a politician who credits his past election victories to his own effective communication and hard work; he attributes his past
election losses to factors beyond his control. His assessments best illustrate:
A) reciprocal determinism. B) the Barnum effect. C) self-serving bias. D) the spotlight effect.
83. Research participants were most likely to react violently to criticism of their written essays if they experienced ________ self-esteem.
A) unrealistically low B) moderately low C) moderately high D) unrealistically high
84. Martin Seligman advocates a positive psychology, which focuses on topics such as:
A) optimism. B) projection. C) the Barnum effect. D) free association.
85. Psychiatrists and psychologists label behavior as disordered when it is:
A) aggressive, persistent, and intentional.
B) selfish, habitual, and avoidable.
C) deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional.
D) biologically influenced, unconsciously motivated, and difficult to change.
86. ADHD is diagnosed ________ often in girls than in boys. Over the past 20 years a(n) ________ proportion of American children have been
treated for this disorder.
A) more; increasing B) less; decreasing C) more; decreasing D) less; increasing
87. Adderall is a ________ drug which is commonly used in the treatment of ________.
A) stimulant; PTSD B) stimulant; ADHD C) depressant; PTSD D) depressant; ADHD
88. A borderline personality disorder is most clearly characterized by a(n):
A) insatiable desire for attention. B) irrational fear of people. C) lack of guilt feelings. D) unstable sense of self.
89. Maladaptive behaviors that reduce worry and fear are most indicative of:
A) bipolar disorder. B) an anxiety disorder. C) catatonia. D) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
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90. A generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by:
A) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person.
B) a continuous state of tension, apprehension, and autonomic nervous system arousal.
C) hyperactive, wildly optimistic states of emotion.
D) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.
91. Low self-esteem is most likely to be associated with:
A) specific phobias. B) dysthymic disorder. C) manic episodes. D) antisocial personality disorder.
92. While he was studying, Matthew was suddenly overwhelmed by feelings of intense apprehension. For several minutes he felt so agitated that he
could not catch his breath. Matthew was most likely suffering from a(n):
A) bipolar disorder. B) panic attack. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) dysthymic disorder.
93. Kaylee is so afraid of spiders and insects that she avoids most outdoor activities and even refuses to go to the basement of her own house alone.
Kaylee appears to suffer from a(n):
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) histrionic personality disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) phobia.
94. Cecil is preoccupied with thoughts of jumping out the window of his tenth-floor apartment. In order to reduce his anxiety, he frequently counts
his heartbeats aloud. Cecil would most likely be diagnosed as experiencing a(n):
A) panic disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
95. Mrs. Swift is alarmed by her own intrusive and irrational thoughts that her house is contaminated by germs. Her experience best illustrates the
agitating effects of:
A) mania. B) an obsession. C) agoraphobia. D) panic disorder.
96. Disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity are most characteristic of ________ disorders.
A) bipolar B) obsessive-compulsive C) generalized anxiety D) dissociative
97. Schizophrenia is most likely to be characterized by:
A) suicidal thoughts.
B) disorganized and fragmented thinking.
C) a lack of guilt feelings.
D) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.
E) periodic intervals of uncontrollable violence.
98. Dissociative disorders are most likely to be characterized by:
A) disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity.
B) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person.
C) a hyperactive, wildly optimistic state of emotion.
D) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.
99. False beliefs of persecution that may accompany psychotic disorders are called:
A) obsessions. B) compulsions. C) delusions. D) phobias. E) hallucinations.
100. Research has demonstrated that the more attractive a male is, the _____ likely he will be hired for a high status position and demonstrates that the
more attractive a female is, the _____ likely she will be hired for a high status position in a company.
A) more; more B) more; less C) less; more D) less; less
101. Individuals with dissociative identity disorder generally:
A) have only one other distinct personality C) have complete awareness of all of the other personalitities
B) suffer a loss of their own identity that will never return D) have at least two or more distinct personalities
102. Midori's therapist suggests that she developed a dissociative identity disorder as a way of protecting herself from an awareness of her own hatred
for her abusive mother. The therapist's suggestion most directly reflects a ________ perspective.
A) trait B) social-cognitive C) humanistic D) biological E) psychoanalytic
103. In dissociative amnesia, the patient typically has no memory of:
A) any events C) selective events, particularly those involving trauma
B) events prior to the trauma D) events that they consciously don't feel like dealing with
104. During a dissociative fugue state, it is not uncommon for individuals to:
A) commit suicide B) see the world as a strange and foreign place C) take on a new identity D) contact friends and family
105. College students were asked to pretend that they were accused murderers. Under hypnosis, they typically expressed a second personality when
prompted to do so by the examining psychiatrist. This most strongly suggests that dissociative identity disorder may involve:
A) low self-esteem. B) unconscious fear. C) internal attributions of blame. D) role-playing.
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106. A biological perspective would be least helpful for explaining the:
A) prevalence of schizophrenia throughout the world.
B) fluctuations in mood experienced by those suffering a bipolar disorder.
C) fear of snakes experienced by a high percentage of Americans.
D) dramatic increase in reported cases of dissociative identity disorder during the past 40 or so years.
107. A tendency to remain motionless for long periods of time is most common among those with ________ schizophrenia.
A) catatonic B) disorganized C) undifferentiated D) paranoid
108. One cluster of personality disorders marked by noticeably odd or eccentric behavior is exemplified by the ________ personality disorder.
A) avoidant B) narcissistic C) schizoid D) histrionic
109. Max is always sure that people are out to harm him. In fact, he believes his psychology teacher, Ms. Znam, gives him tests and quizzes just so
she can fail him. Max would most likely be diagnosed with ____________ personality disorder.
A) histrionic B) paranoid C) antisocial D) avoidant
110. Liz is quite the loner and does not desire closeness with anyone, especially in her psychology class. She tends to act in strange ways that are
beyond the norm of her peers. She engages in thinking that appears to be 'magical'. Liz would most likely be diagnosed with ___________
personality disorder.
A) schizotypal B) paranoid C) antisocial D) schizoid
111. All of the following are the three main clusters of personality disorders as defined by the DSM-IV TR except:
A) odd/eccentric B) dangerous/inconsistent C) dramatic/emotional D) anxious/fearful
112. Robert has been having a lot of trouble with his friends lately because of his arrogant attitude towards others, however, he believes that the
problem does not lie with him but with his 'friends' as they tend to be 'jealous' of him for all of his accomplishments. He does not realize that he
treats his friends rather poorly and that many of them stay away from him because he tends to use people. Robert would most likely be
diagnosed with ________ personality disorder.
A) narcissistic B) histrionic C) borderline D) schizoid
113. North Americans born during the winter months are at a slightly increased risk for:
A) depression. B) bipolar disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) schizophrenia. E) antisocial personality disorder.
114. Those with a histrionic personality disorder are most likely to display:
A) a lack of guilt feelings. B) delusions of persecution. C) apathy and lack of energy. D) shallow, attention-getting emotions.
115. The distinctive features used to identify the three clusters of personality disorders are:
A) obsessions, compulsions, and delusions. C) optimism, pessimism, and perfectionism.
B) genetics, culture, and self-awareness. D) anxiety, eccentricity, and impulsivity.
116. An antisocial personality disorder is most likely to be characterized by:
A) a persistent, irrational fear of people. C) disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity.
B) episodes of intense autonomic nervous system arousal. D) a lack of guilt feelings.
117. Which of the following disorders is more common among men than women?
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) antisocial personality disorder C) dissociative identity disorder D) schizophrenia
118. If one identical twin is diagnosed as having schizophrenia, the probability that the other twin will at some point be similarly diagnosed is
approximately ________ percent.
A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) 90
119. The reduced self-control of murderers is most closely related to reduced brain activity in their ________ lobes.
A) frontal B) temporal C) occipital D) parietal
120. A therapist who uses a variety of psychological theories and therapeutic methods is said to be:
A) client-centered. B) eclectic. C) humanistic. D) psychoanalytic. E) meta-analytic.
121. The experience of depression ________ risk taking and ________ aggression.
A) inhibits; stimulates B) stimulates; inhibits C) inhibits; inhibits D) stimulates; stimulates
122. A major depressive disorder is most likely to be characterized by:
A) delusions of persecution.
B) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.
C) a persistent irrational fear of other people.
D) feelings of personal worthlessness.
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123. A disorder in which an individual is overexcited, hyperactive, and wildly optimistic is known as:
A) paranoia. B) mania. C) a panic attack. D) catatonia.
124. According to Freud, a patient's hesitation to free associate is most likely a sign of:
A) transference. B) fixation. C) resistance. D) spontaneous recovery.
125. Research regarding depression indicates that:
A) depression is typically unrelated to stressful life events.
B) depression is unlikely to be overcome without professional help.
C) depression is associated with abnormally high levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin.
D) with each new generation, depression is increasing in its prevalence.
126. Suicide rates in the United States are ________ among Whites than Blacks and ________ among men than women.
A) higher; higher B) lower; lower C) higher; lower D) lower; higher
127. Carl Rogers is known for the development of:
A) the token economy. B) cognitive therapy. C) client-centered therapy. D) systematic desensitization.
128. Of those who talk of suicide, ________ actually attempt suicide. Of those who attempt suicide, ________ succeed in completing the act.
A) only a few; most B) most; only a few C) only a few; only a few D) most; most
129. Drugs that alleviate mania tend to reduce levels of the neurotransmitter:
A) acetylcholine. B) norepinephrine. C) dopamine. D) chlorpromazine.
130. Abnormally low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin are associated with:
A) panic attacks. B) schizophrenia. C) depression. D) dissociative disorders.
131. Which of the following therapies is more concerned with removing specific troubling symptoms than with providing special insights into the
personality of the client?
A) eclectic therapy B) psychoanalysis C) behavior therapy D) client-centered therapy E) cognitive therapy
132. Women are at greater risk of depression than men partially because women are more likely to ________ in response to stressful circumstances.
A) overthink B) externalize blame C) suffer memory loss D) become socially withdrawn
133. Aversive conditioning involves:
A) replacing a negative response to a harmless stimulus with a positive response.
B) identifying a hierarchy of anxiety-arousing experiences.
C) depriving a client of access to an addictive drug.
D) associating unwanted behaviors with unpleasant experiences.
E) systematically controlling the consequences of patients' maladaptive behaviors.
134. Mr. Hunt believes that he is the president of the United States and that he will soon become the “King of the Universe.” Mr. Hunt is most clearly
suffering from:
A) delusions. B) obsessions. C) hallucinations. D) dissociative identity disorder.
135. Wilma is extremely agitated because she hears voices that tell her to sexually seduce the male nurses in her hospital ward. Wilma is most clearly
suffering from:
A) an obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) delusions of grandeur. C) a dissociative disorder. D) hallucinations.
136. Although Mrs. Petrides usually sits passively in a motionless stupor, she sometimes repetitiously shakes her head or waves her arms. She most
likely suffers from:
A) paranoia. B) a bipolar disorder. C) an obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) catatonia.
137. Schizophrenia is associated with an excess of receptors for:
A) norepinephrine. B) dopamine. C) serotonin. D) acetylcholine.
138. Dopamine overactivity appears to be most clearly related to:
A) flat affect. B) agoraphobia. C) hallucinations. D) dysthymic disorder.
139. EMDR was originally developed for the treatment of:
A) alcoholism. B) bulimia. C) depression. D) anxiety. E) schizophrenia.
140. Which of the following has been demonstrated to provide relief for those who suffer from SAD?
A) transference B) EMDR C) systematic desensitization D) light exposure therapy E) therapeutic touch
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141. People born in ________ during the month of ________ are at increased risk for schizophrenia.
A) North America; February B) Asia; September C) Australia; February D) Europe; September
142. Which therapeutic specialists are most likely to have received a Ph.D. degree in psychology?
A) clinical psychologists B) clinical social workers C) psychiatrists D) pastoral counselors
143. Although Dr. Anderson utilizes systematic desensitization for the treatment of phobias, he prescribes antianxiety drugs as well. It is most likely
that Dr. Anderson is a:
A) psychoanalyst. B) client-centered therapist. C) cognitive therapist. D) psychiatrist.
144. Antipsychotic drugs have proved helpful in the treatment of:
A) dissociative disorders. B) schizophrenia. C) depression. D) anxiety disorders. E) all of the above.
145. Helping people gain insight into the unconscious origins of their disorder is a central aim of:
A) cognitive therapies. B) systematic desensitization. C) light exposure therapy. D) psychoanalysis.
146. Thorazine and Clozaril are ________ drugs.
A) antidepressant B) antipsychotic C) antimanic D) antianxiety
147. A central therapeutic technique of psychoanalysis is:
A) stress inoculation training. B) systematic desensitization. C) active listening. D) free association.
148. According to psychoanalysts, resistance refers to the:
A) expression toward a therapist of feelings linked with earlier relationships.
B) blocking from consciousness of anxiety-laden material during therapy.
C) replacement of a genuine concern for others with self-centeredness.
D) conversion of psychological conflicts into physical and behavioral disorders.
149. Alex feels so hopeless and depressed that he has recently thought about taking his own life. The drug most likely to prove beneficial to him is:
A) Valium. B) Prozac. C) Xanax. D) Thorazine.
150. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be used only with severely depressed patients?
A) drug therapy B) systematic desensitization C) electroconvulsive therapy D) stress inoculation training
151. Psychoanalysts would be most likely to discourage patients from:
A) experiencing strong positive or negative feelings for their therapist.
B) discontinuing psychotherapy whenever they felt it was no longer necessary.
C) talking about anxiety-arousing material during therapy.
D) taking antianxiety drugs during the course of psychotherapy.
152. Psychodynamic therapies try to understand patients' current symptoms by focusing on recurring patterns in their:
A) interpersonal relationships. B) sexual disorders. C) eating habits and drug use. D) self-blaming explanations.
153. Unlike psychoanalytic therapists, humanistic therapists tend to focus on the ________ more than the ________.
A) present; future B) past; present C) present; past D) past; future
154. Carl Rogers encouraged client-centered therapists to ______ during the process of therapy.
A) clearly communicate their diagnosis of a client's disorder C) explain the immediate causes of a client's difficulties
B) genuinely express their own true feelings D) identify a hierarchy of the client's anxiety-arousing experiences
155. The healing power of insight and self-awareness is least likely to be emphasized by ________ therapists.
A) cognitive B) psychoanalytic C) behavior D) humanistic
156. In one treatment for bed-wetting, the child sleeps on a liquid-sensitive pad that when wet, triggers an alarm and awakens the child. This treatment
is a form of:
A) biomedical therapy. B) cognitive therapy. C) behavior therapy. D) humanistic therapy.
157. A token economy is to operant conditioning as ________ is to classical conditioning.
A) systematic desensitization B) electroconvulsive therapy C) free association D) drug therapy
158. In an effort to reduce his daughter's fear of the dark, Mr. Chew would hug and gently rock her immediately after turning off the lights at bedtime.
Mr. Chew's strategy best illustrates the technique of:
A) stress inoculation training. D) aversive conditioning.
B) transference. E) counterconditioning.
C) unconditional positive regard.
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159. In which form of therapy is unwanted behavior systematically associated with unpleasant experiences?
A) electroconvulsive therapy B) systematic desensitization C) cognitive therapy D) aversive conditioning
160. In order to encourage Mrs. Coleman, a withdrawn schizophrenia patient, to be more socially active, institutional staff members give her small
plastic cards whenever she talks to someone. She is allowed to exchange these cards for candy and cigarettes. Staff members are making use of:
A) active listening. B) systematic desensitization. C) a token economy. D) classical conditioning.
161. Which therapeutic approach emphasizes that people are often disturbed because of their negative interpretations of events?
A) client-centered therapy B) systematic desensitization C) cognitive therapy D) light exposure therapy
162. An increase in the availability of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and serotonin is most likely to result from the administration of
________ drugs.
A) antipsychotic B) antidepressant C) antianxiety D) antimanic
163. It has been suggested that women are more vulnerable to depression than men because women are more likely to respond to negative life events
with self-focused rumination. This suggestion best illustrates a ________ perspective.
A) trait B) biological C) psychoanalytic D) social-cognitive
164. Although Camile has detailed memories of her high school experiences, she can remember very little about the boyfriend who abruptly broke off
their marriage engagement. According to psychoanalytic theory, it appears that Camile is using the defense mechanism of:
A) reaction formation. B) regression. C) repression. D) displacement. E) projection.
165. The study of the effect of drugs on mind and behavior is called:
A) psychosurgery. B) psychobiology. C) ECT. D) psychopharmacology.
166. Depressed moods are most likely to improve in response to:
A) therapeutic touch. C) repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation.
B) eye movement desensitization and reprocessing. D) virtual reality exposure therapy.
167. Prozac is to depression as ________ is to anxiety.
A) Thorazine B) lithium C) Xanax D) Clozaril
168. Teaching people to take personal credit for their successes and to blame circumstances when things go wrong has been found to be effective in
the treatment of:
A) dissociative disorders. B) schizophrenia. C) phobias. D) depression.
169. Group therapy is typically more effective than individual therapy for:
A) encouraging severely disturbed individuals to quickly regain normal social functioning.
B) enabling people to discover that others have problems similar to their own.
C) ensuring that therapists will become more emotionally involved in clients' real-life problems.
D) eliminating clients' anxiety during the process of therapy.
170. Ron is a 22-year-old mechanic who suffers from claustrophobia. The most effective way to treat Ron's problem would involve ________ therapy.
A) cognitive B) psychoanalytic C) client-centered D) behavior
171. Rapidly moving one's eyes while recalling traumatic experiences is most descriptive of:
A) systematic desensitization. B) rTMS. C) virtual reality exposure therapy. D) EMDR.
172. A common ingredient underlying the success of diverse psychotherapies is the:
A) professional training and experience of the therapist. C) length of time the client spends in psychotherapy.
B) escape from real-life pressures offered by psychotherapy. D) client's expectation that psychotherapy will make things better.
173. By earning a client's trust, empathic and caring therapists promote:
A) meta-analysis. B) a therapeutic alliance. C) an eclectic approach. D) the double-blind technique.
174. Edith, a 45-year-old journalist, alternates between extreme sadness and lethargy and extreme euphoria and overactivity. The drug most likely to
prove beneficial to her is:
A) lithium. B) Xanax. C) Clozaril. D) Thorazine.
175. Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation shows greatest promise for the treatment of:
A) schizophrenia. B) phobias. C) depression. D) bulimia.
176. Dr. Genscher believes that most psychological disorders result from chemical abnormalities. In her work as a therapist, Dr. Genscher is most
likely to make use of:
A) psychosurgery. B) meta-analysis. C) drug therapies. D) transference.
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177. One group of ocean voyagers is given a new but untested pill for seasickness and a second group is given an inactive pill. Neither the voyagers
nor the experimental researchers know which group has received the new pill. In this experiment, the investigators are making use of:
A) systematic desensitization. B) meta-analysis. C) counterconditioning. D) the double-blind technique.
178. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug that reduces paranoia and hallucinations by:
A) reducing involuntary muscle movements. C) decreasing the availability of norepinephrine.
B) dampening responsiveness to irrelevant stimuli. D) elevating arousal and mood.
179. Which drug sometimes helps patients exhibiting negative symptoms of schizophrenia such as apathy and withdrawal?
A) Clozaril B) Prozac C) Xanax D) lithium
180. Xanax and Ativan are ________ drugs.
A) antidepressant B) antipsychotic C) mood-stabilizing D) antianxiety
181. Antidepressant drugs are increasingly being prescribed for the treatment of:
A) auditory hallucinations. B) tardive dyskinesia. C) anxiety disorders. D) antisocial personality disorder.
182. Lithium is often an effective ________ drug.
A) antipsychotic B) antianxiety C) antidepressant D) mood-stabilizing
183. Tardive dyskinesia is often associated with long-term use of drugs that occupy certain ________ receptor sites.
A) serotonin B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) dopamine
184. One good alternative to antidepressant drugs is:
A) aerobic exercise. B) psychosurgery. C) virtual reality exposure therapy. D) EMDR.
185. Psychosurgery involves:
A) passing an electric current through the entire brain. C) removing or destroying brain tissue.
B) injecting lithium directly into the limbic system. D) all of the above.
186. Inserting a medical instrument through each eye socket was part of a procedure known as:
A) stress inoculation training. B) eye movement desensitization and reprocessing. C) the double-blind technique. D) a lobotomy.
187. In order to analyze how people explain others' behavior, Fritz Heider developed:
A) cognitive dissonance theory. B) social exchange theory. C) attribution theory. D) self-disclosure theory.
188. The tendency for observers to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal dispositions on another's
behavior is called:
A) the bystander effect. B) the fundamental attribution error. C) deindividuation. D) the mere exposure effect.
189. A dispositional attribution is to ________ as a situational attribution is to ________.
A) normative influence; informational influence C) personality traits; assigned roles
B) high ability; low motivation D) politically liberal; politically conservative
190. According to the defensive attribution theory, we tend to explain others setbacks and failures in terms of __________ causes.
A) internal B) external C) stable D) unstable
191. In explaining our own behavior or the behavior of those we know well, we often resort to:
A) deindividuation. B) social facilitation. C) social loafing. D) situational attributions.
192. The more similar one is it us, the more likely we will use _______ attributions; the more dissimilar one is to us, the more likely we will use
_______ attributions.
A) external; internal B) external; external C) internal; internal D) internal; external
193. You would probably be least likely to commit the fundamental attribution error in explaining why:
A) you failed a college test.
B) a classmate you don't know was late for class.
C) your professor gave a boring lecture.
D) the college administration decided to raise next year's tuition costs.
194. When Emma does well in her tennis match, she comments on how well she played and how she is the greatest tennis player alive. When she
does not do well, she tends to blame her psych teacher, although we are not sure why. (Incidentally, this would have been funnier if she were in
class). Emma's outrageous behavior is an example of a(an):
A) actor-observer bias B) self-serving bias C) defensive attribution D) fundamental attribution error
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195. Feelings, often based on our beliefs, that predispose us to respond in particular ways to objects, people, and events are called:
A) roles. B) norms. C) attitudes. D) attributions.
196. After giving in to her friends' request that she drink alcohol with them, 16-year-old Jessica found that she couldn't resist the pressure they exerted
on her to try heroin. Her experience best illustrates:
A) ingroup bias. B) the mere exposure effect. C) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. D) the bystander effect.
197. A life insurance salesperson who takes advantage of the foot-in-the-door phenomenon would be most likely to:
A) emphasize that his company is one of the largest in the insurance industry.
B) promise a free gift to those who agree to purchase an insurance policy.
C) ask customers to respond to a brief survey of their attitudes regarding life insurance.
D) address customers by their first names.
198. The participants in Philip Zimbardo's simulated prison study:
A) were assigned the roles of prisoner or guard on the basis of their personality test scores.
B) found it very difficult to play the role of prison guard.
C) were so endangered by their role-playing experience that the study was discontinued.
D) became a cohesive unit when they pursued superordinate goals.
199. During a test, Abe impulsively copied several answers from a nearby student's paper. He felt very uncomfortable about having done this until he
convinced himself that copying answers is not wrong if classmates are careless enough to expose their test sheets. Which theory best explains
why Abe adopted this new attitude?
A) frustration-aggression theory B) attribution theory C) social exchange theory D) cognitive dissonance theory
200. Just hearing someone reading a neutral text in a sad voice creates “mood contagion” in listeners. This best illustrates:
A) the mere exposure effect. B) the bystander effect. C) the chameleon effect. D) ingroup bias.
201. Solomon Asch asked people to identify which of three comparison lines was identical to a standard line. His research was designed to study:
A) the mere exposure effect. B) the fundamental attribution error. C) social facilitation. D) conformity.
202. Approximately what percentage of people conformed in the Asch study?
A) 10% B) 37% C) 56% D) 65%
203. Which of the following was true of the Asch study?
A) To maximize conformity there needed to be at least 10 confederates
B) The closer the victim was to the person shocking them the less likely they were to shock the victim
C) If there was one dissenting vote the the subject was less likely to conform
D) People would obey if the experimenter was wearing a white lab coat
204. Toby publicly agrees with his fraternity brothers that Ahmed, a senior, would make the best Student Senate President. On the secret ballot,
however, he actually votes for Yoram. Toby's public conformity to his fraternity brothers' opinion best illustrates the power of:
A) social facilitation. B) informational social influence. C) normative social influence. D) the mere exposure effect.
205. Yuri decided to delay his road trip after hearing a weather forecaster warn that a severe snowstorm would pass through the area within several
hours. Yuri's decision best illustrates the impact of:
A) the mere exposure effect. B) informational social influence. C) social facilitation. D) the reciprocity norm.
206. The value of social conformity is most likely to be emphasized in:
A) England. B) France. C) Japan. D) North America.
207. In Milgram's first study of obedience, the majority of “teachers” who were ordered to shock a “learner”:
A) refused to deliver even slight levels of shock.
B) initially complied but refused to deliver more than slight levels of shock.
C) complied until ordered to deliver intense levels of shock.
D) complied fully and delivered the highest level of shock.
208. In all of Milgram's obedience experiments, participants were deceived about:
A) the association of the research with a prestigious university.
B) Milgram's professional status as a research psychologist.
C) how much they would actually be paid for participating in the research.
D) the amount of shock the victim actually received.
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209. In Milgram's obedience experiments, “teachers” were least likely to deliver the highest levels of shock when:
A) the experiment was conducted at a prestigious institution such as Yale University.
B) the experimenter became too pushy and told hesitant participants, “You have no choice, you must go on.”
C) the “teachers” observed other participants refuse to obey the experimenter's orders.
D) the “learner” said he had a heart condition.
210. Milgram found that obedience would _______ when the victim was close to the subject and _______ when the experimenter was further away
from the subject.
A) increase; increase B) increase; decrease C) decrease; increase D) decrease; decrease
211. The study that would most explain why the victims in Jonestown took the Kool-Aid is:
A) Milgram B) Asch C) Festinger D) Schacter
212. The most powerful tool a person could use when trying to break someone psychologically is:
A) sleep deprivation B) food deprivation C) humiliation D) giving hope
213. Norman Triplett observed that adolescents wound a fishing reel faster in the presence of someone working simultaneously on the same task. This
best illustrates:
A) the mere exposure effect. B) the bystander effect. C) social facilitation. D) group polarization.
214. How does the presence of observers affect a person's performance?
A) It improves performance on poorly learned tasks and hinders a person's performance on well-learned tasks.
B) It improves performance on physical tasks and hinders a person's performance on mental tasks.
C) It improves performance on verbal tasks and hinders a person's performance on mathematical tasks.
D) It improves performance on easy tasks and hinders a person's performance on difficult tasks.
215. The coach needed parents to assist students for only 2 games each. He instead asked the parents to do 5 games, knowing that parents would find
that a bit unreasonable. He later asked if they could do only 2 games and the number of parents who agreed was much higher. This is an
example of the:
A) fundamental attribution error B) defensive attribution error C) foot-in-the-door phenomenon D) door-in-the-face phenomenon
216. In one New Jersey turnpike study, African-Americans were 15 percent of the speeders, and 35 percent of the drivers stopped by police. This best
illustrates:
A) the mere exposure effect. B) hindsight bias. C) discrimination. D) the bystander effect.
217. In which of the following groups is social loafing least likely?
A) girl scouts who must gather wood for a campfire
B) factory workers who are each paid on the basis of the number of bicycles each assembles individually
C) a game show audience instructed to applaud when the host appears on stage
D) students working on a group project for which they will all receive the same grade
218. Masked bandits might be more likely than unmasked bandits to physically injure their victims due to:
A) deindividuation. B) group polarization. C) the mere exposure effect. D) social facilitation.
219. Professors Maksoud, Struthers, and Vasic each tend to think that obtaining a university degree is easier today than it was when they were
students. After discussing the matter over coffee, they are even more convinced that obtaining a degree is easier today. This episode provides an
example of:
A) the fundamental attribution error. B) social facilitation. C) group polarization. D) deindividuation.
220. The NASA executive who made the final decision to launch the space shuttle Challenger was shielded from information and dissenting views
that might have led to a delay of the tragic launch. This best illustrates the dangers of:
A) social facilitation. B) deindividuation. C) groupthink. D) the bystander effect.
221. Groupthink can be prevented by a leader who:
A) is directive and makes his or her own position clear from the start.
B) invites outside experts to critique a group's developing plans.
C) tries to maintain high morale among group members.
D) emphasizes the importance of the issue under discussion.
222. If researchers found that people take longer to identify words such as assertive and bold as “strong” when the words are associated with female
faces rather than male faces, this would be considered to illustrate:
A) deindividuation. B) implicit prejudice. C) cognitive dissonance. D) the fundamental attribution error.
223. Politicians who suggest that African-Americans are at fault for the economically disadvantaged position of their ethnic group best illustrate:
A) deindividuation. B) the social responsibility norm. C) defensive attribution D) conciliation.
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224. If a speaker wants people to connect strongly to their message, the tactic they would probably most use is:
A) fear B) humor C) straight talk D) an attractive model
225. Six-year-old Ezra believes that boys are better than girls, while 5-year-old Arlette believes that girls are better than boys. Their beliefs most
clearly illustrate:
A) the reciprocity norm. B) deindividuation. C) ingroup bias. D) the mere exposure effect.
226. Ever since he lost his job because he was constantly late for work, Richard has become increasingly hostile toward the “government bureaucrats
who are leading the country toward bankruptcy.” Richard's increasing prejudice is best explained in terms of:
A) the just-world phenomenon. B) the fundamental attribution error. C) ingroup bias. D) scapegoat theory.
227. The just-world phenomenon often leads people to:
A) dislike and distrust those who are wealthy. C) express higher levels of prejudice after suffering frustration.
B) believe that victims of misfortune deserve to suffer. D) respond with kindness to those who mistreat them.
228. After Ravi lost the student election for president of his high school class, he spread false rumors intended to spoil the newly chosen president's
reputation. Ravi's behavior is best explained in terms of the:
A) foot-in-the-door phenomenon. B) mere exposure effect. C) frustration-aggression principle. D) fundamental attribution error.
229. Parents who discipline their children with beatings are often teaching aggression through the process of:
A) GRIT. B) deindividuation. C) modeling. D) cognitive dissonance.
230. Professor Lindsten emphasized that aggressive behavior often involves the interactive influence of personal frustration, exposure to aggressive
models, and heightened levels of arousal. The professor's emphasis best illustrates:
A) attribution theory. B) the reciprocity norm. C) social facilitation. D) a biopsychosocial approach.
231. Most makeup commercials utilize a model who looks good, but the viewer does not really know what the ingredients or the effects of the makeup
are. The commercial is using a _______________ to get across their message.
A) central route B) source route C) peripheral route D) social influence technique
232. John believes that everyone will notice the coffee stain on his shirt, however, the likelihood is that no one will really notice. John is experiencing
the:
A) spotlight effect B) illusory correlation C) illusion of assymetric D) internal attributions
233. When Armen first heard the hit song “Gotta Love It,” he wasn't at all sure he liked it. The more often he heard it played, however, the more he
enjoyed it. Armen's reaction illustrates:
A) the bystander effect. B) social facilitation. C) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. D) the mere exposure effect.
234. Our first impressions of those we meet are most likely to be determined by their:
A) attitudes. B) intelligence. C) physical appearance. D) superordinate goals.
235. When Jackie goes to her French class she is extremely respectful towards her teachers because others do not disrespect her. However, when she
comes to psychology, she does not hesitate to be mean to her awesome teacher because the other students feel free to do so. Festinger called this
the:
A) need for affiliation B) social comparison theory C) social inhibition D) deindividuation
236. A group that one belongs to and identified with is known as a(an):
A) stereotype B) social schema C) outgroup D) ingroup
237. Compared to others, strikingly attractive people make a ________ favorable impression on potential employers, and they are ________ likely to
perceive praise for their work as sincere.
A) less; less B) more; more C) less; more D) more; less
238. Putting group goals ahead of individual goals and defining one's identity in terms of the groups one belongs to is called:
A) individualism B) functionalism C) attributionism D) collectivism
239. Equity and self-disclosure are important to the development of:
A) groupthink. B) deindividuation. C) companionate love. D) social facilitation.
240. When Hutu militia began to slaughter the Tutsi in 1994, missionary Carl Wilkens risked his own life to save the lives of others. His actions best
illustrated:
A) social facilitation. B) the mere exposure effect. C) the reciprocity norm. D) altruism.
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241. The halo effect says that:
A) if we believe someone will be a nice person then a self-fulfilling prophecy will occur
B) children will often behave well if their sibling behaves badly
C) in groups, people look at how others are acting to determine how they should act
D) people who are deemed to be attractive are often viewed as 'good' people
242. The matching hypothesis states that:
A) we tend to date those who give us compliments
B) we tend to date those who others see as being as physically attractive as us
C) we tend to date those who we come in contact with regularly
D) we tend to date those who we feel are on our same attractiveness level
243. The research on attraction seems to support which of the following?
A) Similarity breeds contempt B) Similarity breeds liking C) Similarity breeds uncertainty D) Similarity breeds discrimination
244. The Romeo and Juliet effect states that:
A) if Kailyn's parents don't want her to date Jason, she is more likely to want to date him
B) if Kailyn's parents want her to date Jason, she is more likely to dislike him
C) if Kailyn sees herself as being different from Jason she will not want to date him
D) Jason doesn't date Kailyn because he is scared
245. Research has shown that initial attraction to someone is:
A) minimally influenced by the other person's physical attractiveness
B) greatly influenced by the other person's physical attractiveness
C) more influenced by personality similarity than by physical attractiveness
D) greatly influenced by perceived intellectual similarity
246. As Arlette walks through a shopping mall, she happens to pass an elderly woman who is sitting on a bench, clutching her arm, and moaning in
pain. The presence of many other shoppers in the mall will most likely increase the probability that Arlette will:
A) experience contempt for the elderly woman. C) experience a sense of empathy for the elderly woman.
B) help the woman by calling an ambulance. D) fail to notice the elderly woman's problem.
247. Diffusion of responsibility often plays an important role in the:
A) the mere exposure effect. B) reciprocity norm. C) bystander effect. D) fundamental attribution error.
248. Katya donated money to a religious charity in order to boost her own feelings of self-esteem. Jennifer failed to contribute to the same charity
because she was fearful of running out of money. Differences in their altruistic behavior are best explained in terms of:
A) the reciprocity norm. B) social exchange theory. C) attribution theory. D) the social responsibility norm.
249. After the Greenway family accepted their neighbor's invitation to Thanksgiving dinner, Mrs. Greenway felt obligated to invite the neighbors to
Christmas dinner. Mrs. Greenway's sense of obligation most likely resulted from:
A) the ingroup bias. B) the reciprocity norm. C) the fundamental attribution error. D) the mere exposure effect.
250. After their country was ravaged by a series of earthquakes, two bitterly antagonistic political groups set aside their differences and worked
cooperatively on effective disaster relief. This cooperation best illustrates the importance of:
A) mirror-image perceptions. B) the just-world phenomenon. C) superordinate goals. D) the mere exposure effect.
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